Chapter 19 Micro hw – Flashcards

Which of the following does histamine NOT directly cause? smooth muscle contraction anaphylactic shock vasodilation increased vascular permeability

Which of the following would NOT be an example of a common allergen? dust mites peanuts pollen hay fever

A patient enters the emergency room with itchy, swollen hives. This is an example of a ___________ allergic response called __________. localized; urticaria systemic; urticaria localized; asthma localized; anaphylaxis

When the wasps stung Sally, the injection of venom initiated a type I hypersensitivity reaction called anaphylaxis. Which of the following best describes a hypersensitivity reaction? an immune response characterized by an overproduction of T cytotoxic cells a hyperactive immune response generated upon initial exposure to antigen an immune response that results in an overproduction of IgG a reaction that occurs in a sensitized individual resulting in tissue damage rather than immunity

Which of the following mediators are involved in anaphylactic reactions? Select all that apply. mast cells B cells IgE T cells IgM basophils

The hives that Sally is experiencing are a result of an anaphylactic reaction. This is a multistep reaction resulting from the interaction of the wasp venom and Sally's immune system. Each of the statements below is a step in the anaphylactic response. Arrange the following statements in the order that best represents the chronological order of events in generating an anaphylactic reaction.

Which of the following is true regarding systemic anaphylactic reactions? Select all that apply. - Systemic reactions are commonly associated with antigens that are ingested or inhaled. - Systemic reactions can result in a dramatic decrease in blood pressure. - Systemic reactions are commonly associated with injected antigens. - A systemic reaction can be fatal in only a few minutes. - Systemic reactions can be treated only with an injection of epinephrine. - Systemic reactions always involve the respiratory system.

Predict which of the following outcomes would result from taking an antihistamine. Select all that apply. - decreased contraction of respiratory smooth muscles - decreased stimulation of mast cells - decreased histamine-based stimulation of cells - increased breakdown of the histamine molecule - decreased permeability of blood vessels - decreased mucus secretions

Sally decides to go through the desensitization program recommended by her doctor. What is the overall purpose/goal of this process? During the desensitization process, the number of wasp venom-reactive mast cells will decrease. The process will eliminate all of the wasp venom-specific IgE from Sally's body. Desensitization will decrease the overall sensitivity of Sally's immune responses, eliminating its hyperactivity. Repeated exposure to wasp venom antigen will increase the amount of IgG produced by Sally's immune system.

The IgG molecules that are produced during desensitization function as blocking antibodies. These antibodies are extremely effective in providing protection from a hypersensitivity reaction. Why are blocking IgG antibodies so effective at protecting Sally from another anaphylactic response to wasp venom? The IgG molecules bind to mast cells and prevent IgE molecules from binding, thereby preventing degranulation. The IgG antibodies bind to the circulating IgE and block their binding to the mast cells. The blocking IgG antibodies "outnumber" the IgE antibodies and bind to wasp venom before the IgE antibodies can bind. The IgG molecules bind to the mast cells; but when wasp venom binds, IgG blocks degranulation.

Terry is a Physician Assistant. She is working under the supervision of Dr. Elizabeth Carroll. Terry trusts Dr. Carroll and knows she is an extremely competent and compassionate doctor. They have been a team for about two years, and it works out perfectly because Terry is a morning person and Dr. Carroll is not. Unless there is a difficult case, Terry makes all the early morning rounds of Dr. Carroll's patients at the two local hospitals, and then goes home for an early lunch with her kindergartner son. Later, she sees non-critical care patients at Dr. Carroll's office for a few hours. Unless there is a seriously ill patient, Dr. Carroll will start work a little later in the morning and end her day with the evening rounds at the hospital. This morning, Terry is checking in on a new patient, Mr. Lane, at St. John's Hospital. Mr. Lane has a history of acute myeloid leukemia (AML), and Dr. Carroll admitted him yesterday. According to the chart, Mr. Lane had a blood transfusion yesterday afternoon. Dr. Carroll noted on the chart that Mr. Lane was doing well at 7:00 p.m. However, she noted Mr. Lane may need an additional unit of blood if his blood oxygen values did not return to normal ranges soon. The chart indicates that Mr. Lane had just started receiving an additional unit. Terry enters the room and finds Mr. Lane experiencing chills and shortness of breath. Terry quickly takes the patient's vital signs. She notes that Mr. Lane's heart rate is high, his blood pressure low, and he has a fever. Mr. Lane is alert and complaining that he feels horrible. Terry talks to the floor nurse and finds that she has already stopped the transfusion and alerted the charge nurse, the doctor on call, and Dr. Carroll. The patient is most likely experiencing __________. Select the correct answer an autoimmune disease a type I hypersensitivity an immunodeficiency disease a transfusion reaction

Select the correct answer. True False If an anti-A serum is shown in this agglutination test, then the patient's blood contains A antigens.

t/f If an anti-A serum is shown in this agglutination test, then the patient's blood type must be A.

Rheumatoid arthritis is due to deposition of IgD and IgE complexes in joints. IgG and IgA complexes in joints. IgA antibodies in joints. complement in joints. complexes of IgM and IgG and also complement in joints.

Assuming Rh compatibility is present, individuals with which of the following blood types would be able to receive donor blood from any of the four blood types (A, B, AB, and O)? AB A O B

Which of the following types of transplant is least compatible? autograft xenotransplant allograft isograft All of these types of transplant are equally compatible.

Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause immunotherapy. autoimmunity. immunosuppression. immunologic surveillance. immunologic enhancement.

All of the following regarding "immune privileged sites" are true EXCEPT they do not have lymphatic vessels. they include corneal and brain tissue. they are rarely rejected. they include any tissue transplanted from a pig. they explain how animals tolerate pregnancies without rejecting the fetus

A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with tumor-specific antigens. CD+ T cells. CTLs and activated macrophages. CTLs. activated macrophages.

Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on gp120 combining with the chemokine receptor CCR5. gp41 binding to the CD4+ receptor. gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor. CXCR4 binding to the CD4+ receptor. gp120 binding to the CD4+ plasma membrane.

Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is intravenous drug use. homosexual intercourse. heterosexual intercourse. blood transfusions. nosocomial.

Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT blockage of viral attachment. termination of viral DNA. inhibition of viral proteases. prohibition of viral integration into host cell DNA. destruction of viral ribosomes.

HIV attack of CD4+ T cells causes suppression of both cell-mediated and humoral immune responses. True False

All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT it is synonymous with "allergy." it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time. it occurs in the presence of an antigen. it is due to an altered immune response. it requires previous exposure to an antigen.

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are antigens. found in basophils and mast cells. antigen-antibody complexes. the proteins of the complement system. antibodies.

Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? immunodeficiency shock hives hay fever asthma

Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+? anti-A anti-A, anti-Rh anti-B, anti-Rh anti-B anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh

When testing donated blood for compatibility you would find a person with O type blood lacks HLA and MHC antigens. will lack A and B red blood cell antigens. will lack plasma antibodies to A and B type antigens. has O type antigens on their red blood cells. will have anti-O antibodies in their plasma.

A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of psoriasis. innate immunity. delayed cell-mediated immunity. acute contact dermatitis. autoimmunity.

The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to antibodies against self. phagocytosis. destruction of the antigen. complement activation. cytokines.

Allergic contact dermatitis is due to sensitized T cells. activated macrophages. IgG antibodies. IgE antibodies. IgM antibodies.

The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of antigen. antihistamine. RhoGAM. IgG. IgE.

Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE? The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen. They involve helper T cells. The symptoms are due to histamine. Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. They involve IgE antibodies.

Which of the following statements about type IV reactions is FALSE? Reactions are primarily due to T cell proliferation. Reactions are not apparent for a day or more. Allergic contact dermatitis is an example. Hemolytic disease of the newborn is an example. Cytokines initiate tissue damage.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus. Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus. Rh- mother and an A fetus. AB mother with an O fetus. AB mother with a B fetus.

In immune complex reaction shown in the figure, what is the small, circular/spherical structure labeled "a"? antigen complement antibody neutrophil mast cell

In immune complex reaction shown in the figure, what is the end result of the reaction? Complement is activated. Endothelial cells are damaged. IgG is directed against cell membrane antigens. Neutrophils are attracted and release enzymes. Antibodies destroy neutrophils.

Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with macrophages. IgE antibodies. histamine. IgG antibodies. complement.

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT transplant rejections. asthma. penicillin allergic reactions. dust allergies. pollen allergies.

All of the following lead to drug-induced thrombocytopenic purpura. Which occurs first? Drug binds to platelets. Antibodies against haptens are formed. Purpura occurs on the skin. Platelets are destroyed. Antibodies and complement react with platelets

Symptoms of delayed cell-mediated reactions are due to IgG antibodies. antigens. cytokines. neutrophils. IgE antibodies.

Skin tests are reliable indicators for the diagnosis of food-related allergies. True False

Which of the following describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction? Immune complexes form. Antibodies are not made. Cells are killed. Antibodies react to cell-surface antigens. Mediate by T cells.

Which of the following is FALSE concerning type II (cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reactions? IgE binds to mast cells or basophils. Macrophage activity may lead to additional cellular damage. They are responsible for transfusion reactions. IgM and IgG antibodies bind to antigens on foreign cells.

Which type of hypersensitivity is allergic contact dermatitis? type I reaction type II reaction type III reaction type IV reaction

Which of the following is true concerning systemic anaphylaxis? Systemic anaphylaxis frequently occurs as a result of exposure to inhaled allergens. Injected antigens combine with IgE antibodies on the surface of certain cells, causing them to release histamines and other inflammatory mediators. Anaphylactic shock results from an increase in blood pressure, which is caused by blood vessel constriction. Asthma is a type of systemic anaphylaxis.

Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a(n) bone marrow transplant. Rh incompatibility between mother and fetus. skin graft. corneal transplant. blood transfusion.

All of the following pertain to serological tests EXCEPT they are used to test for specific HLAs on lymphocytes. they are used to detect compatible tissues for transplantation. they can be used to diagnose various diseases. they can detect antibodies but not antigens. reactions can be detected by uptake of trypan blue by damaged cells.

Which of the following statements about human embryonic stem cells is TRUE? They are obtained in great numbers from umbilical cords of newborns. They are typically obtained from the zygote stage of embryonic development. They are pluripotent and typically obtained from the blastocyst stage of embryonic development. They express no MHC II antigens. They are pluripotent.

All stem cells are derived from embryonic stem cells. True False

Which of the following utilizes a combination of monoclonal antitumor antibody and immunotoxin? immunotherapy immunosuppression immunologic enhancement immune complex immunologic surveillance

Which of the following best describes graft-versus-host disease? The cells of a host reject transplanted bone marrow. Immune cells in transplanted bone marrow attack the cells of the host. A tissue transplant is rejected because the host's T cytotoxic cells are activated and kill the transplanted tissue. Immune cells attack transplanted tissue in a privileged site.

Which of the following is a xenotransplantation product? transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her twin sister the replacement of a human's heart valve with a pig's heart valve transplantation of a kidney from a woman to her older brother transplantation of tissue from one area on a person's body to another

Cancer is similar to an infectious disease in that it is due to a failure of the body's defenses. True False

HIV spikes attach to CD4+ receptors found on T helper cells. macrophages. dendritic cells. T helper cells and macrophages. T helper cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells.

Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection? Infection may initially be asymptomatic. The disease does not progress to AIDS. There may be persistent yeast infections. Virions may remain latent. All of the answers are correct.

During the asymptomatic phase I of HIV disease, HIV infection is diagnosed by the Western blot test. counting CD4+ T cells. counting CD8+ T cells. detecting viral RNA. detecting antibodies against HIV.

HIV can evade host antibodies by virions remaining latent in vacuoles. remaining an inactive provirus. remaining an inactive provirus, causing cell to cell fusion, and virions remaining latent in vacuoles. lowering the CD4+ cell count. causing cell-to-cell fusion.

The number of T cells drops to below 200 cells/microliter in which phase of HIV infection? phase 2 initial phase phase 1 phase 3 asymptomatic phase

Individuals who do not express CCR5 are highly resistant to infection by HIV. True False

Which statement regarding the infectiveness and pathogenicity of HIV is FALSE? Some cells that do not carry the CD4 molecule can become infected with HIV. During latent infections, the provirus directs the synthesis of many new viruses. Attachment of HIV to the target cell depends on the glycoprotein spike (gp120) combining with the CD4+ receptor. The ability of the HIV to remain as a provirus shelters it from the immune system.

HIV is believed to have arisen by mutation of a virus endemic to wild animals in Africa. True False