Chap 6, 24, 25 – Flashcards
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Viruses have all the following except A. definite shape. B. metabolism. C. genes. D. ability to infect host cells. E. ultramicroscopic size.
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B. metabolism.
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Host cells of viruses include A. human and other animals. B. plants and fungi. C. bacteria. D. protozoa and algae. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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The core of every virus particle always contains A. DNA. B. capsomers. C. enzymes. D. DNA and RNA. E. either DNA or RNA.
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E. either DNA or RNA.
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Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except A. type of nucleic acid. B. type of capsid. C. presence of an envelope. D. biochemical reactions. E. nucleic acid strand number.
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D. biochemical reactions.
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Which of the following represents a virus family name? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Herpesviridae C. Picornavirus D. Enterovirus E. Hepatitis B virus
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B. Herpesviridae
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Virus capsids are made from subunits called A. envelopes. B. spikes. C. capsomeres. D. prophages. E. peplomers.
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C. capsomeres.
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Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus A. spike. B. capsomere. C. envelope. D. capsid. E. core.
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D. capsid.
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Which of the following is correct about viruses? A. cannot be seen with a light microscope B. are procaryotic C. contain 70S ribosomes D. undergo binary fission E. can be grown on nutrient agar
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A. cannot be seen with a light microscope
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All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they A. are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane. B. are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane. C. contain special virus proteins. D. help the virus particle attach to host cells. E. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
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E. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
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Which of the following is not associated with every virus? A. envelope B. capsomers C. capsid D. nucleic acid E. genome
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A. envelope
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These structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors. A. sheath B. tail fibers C. nucleic acid D. capsid head E. None of the choices are correct.
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B. tail fibers
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Which is incorrect about prophages? A. present when the virus is in lysogeny B. formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome C. replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny D. cause lysis of host cells E. occur when temperate phages enter host cells
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D. cause lysis of host cells
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T-even phages A. include the poxviruses. B. infect Escherichia coli cells. C. enter host cells by engulfment. D. have helical capsids. E. All of the choices are correct.
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B. infect Escherichia coli cells.
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The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is A. penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release. B. replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release. C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release. D. assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption. E. adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.
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C. adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.
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The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is A. adsorption to the host cells. B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell. C. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins. D. assembly of nucleocapsids. E. replication of viral nucleic acid.
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B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.
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Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during A. replication. B. assembly. C. adsorption. D. release. E. penetration
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D. release.
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Which of the following will not support viral cultivation? A. live lab animals B. embryonated bird eggs C. primary cell cultures D. continuous cell cultures E. blood agar
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E. blood agar
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In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's _____. A. nucleus, cytoplasm B. cytoplasm, cell membrane C. cell membrane, cytoplasm D. cytoplasm, nucleus E. nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum
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A. nucleus, cytoplasm
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Host range is limited by A. type of nucleic acid in the virus. B. age of the host cell. C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane. D. size of the host cell. E. All of the choices are correct.
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C. type of host cell receptors on cell membrane.
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The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks.
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D. cytopathic effects.
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Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks
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C. plaques.
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Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called A. lysogeny. B. budding. C. plaques. D. cytopathic effects. E. pocks.
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E. pocks.
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Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called A. latent B. oncogenic. C. prions. D. viroids. E. delta agents.
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A. latent
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Oncogenic viruses include all the following except A. hepatitis B virus. B. measles virus. C. papillomavirus. D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus.
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B. measles virus.
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Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect? A. inclusions in the nucleus B. multinucleated giant cells C. inclusions in the cytoplasm D. cells round up E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Uncoating of viral nucleic acid A. does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication. B. involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid. C. occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle. D. occurs before replication. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Infectious protein particles are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes
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C. prions.
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Infectious naked strands of RNA are called A. viroids. B. phages. C. prions. D. oncogenic viruses. E. spikes.
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A. viroids.
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Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is A. caused by a chronic latent virus. B. initiated by an oncogenic virus. C. caused by a viroid. D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans. E. also called "mad cow disease".
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D. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans.
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Satellite viruses are A. also called viroids. B. dependent on other viruses for replication. C. the cause of spongiform encephalopathies. D. significant pathogens of plants. E. All of the choices are correct.
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B. dependent on other viruses for replication.
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All of the following is correct about treating viral diseases except A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria. B. many antiviral drugs block viral replication. C. many antiviral drugs cause severe side effects. D. interferons show potential for treating and preventing viral infections. E. All of the choices are correct.
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A. viruses are killed by the same antibiotics that kill bacteria.
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The capsomers are made of A. DNA. B. RNA. C. lipids. D. protein. E. carbohydrate.
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E. carbohydrate.
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Viruses that consist of only a nucleocapsid are considered A. simple viruses. B. complex viruses. C. naked viruses. D. viroids. E. incomplete viruses.
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C. naked viruses.
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The nucleocapsid consists of A. the capsomers assembled into the capsid. B. the nucleic acid of the virus only. C. the nucleic acid along with the capsid. D. the envelope and capsid. E. the envelope, nucleic acid, and capsid.
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C. the nucleic acid along with the capsid.
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Which of the following parts of a virus is not always present? A. envelope B. nucleic acid C. capsid D. capsomers E. None of the choices are optional parts of a virus.
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A. envelope
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Which of the following viruses did D. Ivanovski and M. Beijerinck work with? A. rabies B. smallpox C. tobacco mosaic virus D. herpes E. Epstein-Barr virus
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C. tobacco mosaic virus
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Viruses belong to which of the following Kingdoms? A. Protists B. Fungi C. Archaea D. Bacteria E. None of the choices are correct.
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E. None of the choices are correct.
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Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease? A. digestive B. genitourinary C. nervous D. circulatory E. respiratory
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C. nervous
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When a virus enters a lysogenic phase, it means A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent. B. the virus is bursting through the host cell membrane. C. the virus is starting biosynthesis of its nucleic acid. D. the virus will remain in circulation and not continue infecting its host. E. the number of viruses in the host is decreasing as the immune system becomes effective.
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A. the virus is integrated into the DNA of the host cell and is latent.
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All of the following are characteristics of viruses except A. they can be crystallized. B. they often have a geometric capsid. C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids. D. they can cause fatal diseases. E. they can cause mild diseases.
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C. they have a viscous fluid inside their capsids.
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How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host? A. Budding or exocytosis B. Bursting the host cell C. Rupturing the virus D. Endocytosis E. None of these are correct
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A. Budding or exocytosis
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Clostridium botulinum is made virulent by incorporated prophage genes encoding for the botulinum toxin. What term describes this process? A. Lytic phase B. Budding C. Adsorption D. Lysogenic conversion E. Latent phase
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D. Lysogenic conversion
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Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.
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False
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Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid.
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False
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Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle.
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True
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Viral infections are easier to treat with drugs than bacterial infections.
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False
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The International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses has determined that there are only three orders of viruses.
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True
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Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration.
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False
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When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell.
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True
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Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis occurs.
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True
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No cases of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob syndrome linked to eating infected cows have occurred in the United States.
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True
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The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions.
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False
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Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the: A. Herpesviruses. B. Poxviruses. C. Adenoviruses. D. Papovaviruses. E. Parvoviruses.
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E. Parvoviruses
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All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae, except: A. Varicella-zoster virus. B. Cytomegalovirus. C. Variola virus D. Herpes simplex viruses. E. Epstein-Barr virus.
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C. Variola virus
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Smallpox is a disease in which: A. fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs. B. virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons. C. recurrent episodes are called shingles. D. can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts. E. All of the choices are correct.
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A. fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs.
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All of the following pertain to monkeypox, except: A. symptoms include skin pocks, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. B. outbreaks have occurred in Africa. C. transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels, and rats. D. a recent U.S. outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat. E. the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.
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E. the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.
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All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1), except: A. it causes gingivostomatitis. B. it causes cold sores and herpes keratitis. C. it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia. D. it is transmitted by mucous membrane contact with lesions. E. it causes herpetic whitlow in health-care workers.
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C. it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia
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Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes: A. genital lesions. B. intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals. C. symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching. D. infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is: A. shingles. B. paralysis. C. encephalitis. D. myocarditis. E. kidney failure.
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C. encephalitis
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Which of the following antivirals is not used for treatment of HSV-1 and HSV-2? A. Interferon B. Valacyclovir C. Acyclovir D. Famciclovir E. All of the choices are correct.
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A. Interferon
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Chickenpox: A. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions. B. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material. C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days. D. has fever, and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops. E. All of the choices are correct
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E. All of the choices are correct
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Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the: A. nasal mucosa. B. finger. C. oral mucosa and tongue. D. eye. E. newborn.
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B. finger
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Varicella-zoster virus: A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. C. has humans as its reservoir. D. causes chickenpox and shingles.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with: A. herpes labialis. B. shingles. C. chickenpox. D. infectious mononucleosis. E. herpes keratitis.
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C. chickenpox.
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Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics, except: A. it infects the respiratory epithelium. B. it is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva. C. it multiplies and is latent in the parotid gland. D. it has a 30-50 day incubation. E. it can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants.
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A. it infects the respiratory epithelium.
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Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. fever, and pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. D. fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices are correct.
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C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.
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Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include: A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa. B. pocks on skin. C. sore throat, fever, and tinnitus. D. severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis. E. None of the choices are correct.
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D. severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.
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The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following, except: A. individuals with hypertension. B. organ transplant patients. C. infants infected in utero. D. AIDS patients. E. bone marrow transplant patients.
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A. individuals with hypertension.
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Cytomegalovirus: A. is among the most common of human infections. B. is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions. C. can be sexually transmitted. D. is commonly carried in the latent state. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics, except: A. it replicates in T lymphocytes, macrophages, and salivary gland tissue. B. it causes roseola in infants. C. it appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults. D. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma. E. it is transmitted by saliva.
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D. it causes Kaposi's sarcoma.
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The hepadnaviruses: A. include the adenoviruses. B. show tropism for the liver. C. are transmitted by respiratory secretions. D. are nonenveloped, double-stranded DNA viruses. E. All of the choices are correct.
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B. show tropism for the liver.
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Inflammation of the liver with necrosis of the hepatocytes and swelling due to a mononuclear response is a disease called: A. hepatitis. B. jaundice. C. liver cancer. D. mononucleosis. E. None of the choices are correct.
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A. hepatitis.
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Hepatitis B virus: A. is principally transmitted by blood. B. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. C. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. D. has many chronic carriers. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct
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Hepatitis B infection: A. has an incubation of 1 to 3 weeks. B. can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route. C. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer. D. is due to a flavivirus. E. All of the choices are correct.
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C. increases risk for hepatocellular cancer.
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Adenoviruses are: A. nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses. B. transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions. C. causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children. D. causes of outbreaks among military recruits. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Which is incorrect about warts? A. Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV). B. Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites. C. Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet. D. Are usually cancerous. E. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal.
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D. Are usually cancerous.
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All of the following pertain to genital warts, except: A. are not common in the United States B. are sexually transmitted C. often occur on the penis, vagina, and cervix D. includes large cauliflower-like masses called condylomata acuminata E. certain strains strongly predispose a person to cancer of the cervix or penis
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A. are not common in the United States
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Polyomaviruses: A. cause common asymptomatic to mild infections. B. cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. C. cause problems in renal transplant patients. D. include the JC virus and BK virus. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Which is incorrect about Parvoviruses? A. They cause several diseases in dogs, cats, and other mammals. B. They are-single stranded DNA viruses. C. They cannot be transmissible to the fetus. D. They cause a disease known as fifth disease. E. Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum
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C. They cannot be transmissible to the fetus.
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Fifth disease: A. is caused by Parvovirus B19. B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks. C. involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta. D. in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Which of the following viruses is an RNA virus that causes many cases of infusion hepatitis? A. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) C. Adenovirus D. Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) E. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
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C. Adenovirus
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When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes: A. shock. B. hypotension. C. swelling of the legs. D. jaundice. E. gangrene.
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D. jaundice.
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All of the following are similarities between HAV, HBV, and HCV, except: A. They all cause hepatitis. B. They are all endemic in the U.S. C. They all can have an incubation period of one month. D. There are diagnostic tests available to distinguish between them. E. They are all RNA viruses.
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E. They are all RNA viruses.
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Which of the following are ways to control or treat hepatitis B? A. Recombinant interferon B. Heptavax vaccine C. Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) D. Recombivax vaccine E. All of the choices may be recommended.
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E. All of the choices may be recommended.
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Which virus may play a role in multiple sclerosis? A. Epstein Barr Virus B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) C. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) D. Herpes simplex virus-2 E. Smallpox
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B. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
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Which of the following may cause reactivation of varicella-zoster virus as shingles? A. developing malignancy B. X-ray treatments C. immunosuppressive conditions D. surgery E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Which infection are you likely looking at if you view a direct smear of a cervical scraping and see enlarged (multinucleate giant) cells and intranuclear inclusions? A. HCV B. EBV C. HSV-2 D. VZV E. HPV
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C. HSV-2
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Which is not correct about genital warts? A. The etiological agent is the human polyoma virus JC. B. They are strongly associated with cancer of the penis. C. Treatment can involve laser surgery. D. It is the most common STD in the United States. E. They are strongly associated with cancer of the cervix.
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A. The etiological agent is the human polyoma virus JC.
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Which is incorrect about smallpox? A. There is an effective vaccine. B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food. C. The vaccine is effective even if given in the first few days after exposure. D. The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent. E. The last case was seen in 1977.
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B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food.
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Which is incorrect about viral diseases? A. Some DNA viruses can become permanent residents of host cells. B. Viral diseases can be zoonoses. C. Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm. D. Some viruses are teratogenic. E. Diagnosis of some diseases involves antigen detection with monoclonal antibodies.
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C. Most DNA viruses multiply in and are released from the cytoplasm.
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As of 2000, according to the International Committee on the Taxonomy of Viruses, how are viruses classified? A. Genetic information only B. Structure only C. Chemical composition and structure D. Genetic information, structure, and chemical composition E. Genetic information, structure, host, and diseases caused
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D. Genetic information, structure, and chemical composition
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Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity.
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TRUE
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Chickenpox is caused by a poxvirus.
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FALSE
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Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.
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TRUE
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Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus.
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TRUE
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Virtually, everyone becomes infected with the herpesviruses at some time in their lives.
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TRUE
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Zoster immune globulin (ZIG) and varicella-zoster immune globulin (VZIG) are attenuated vaccines for childhood vaccination.
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FALSE
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Burkett lymphoma is a B-cell malignancy, usually of the jaw, associated with Epstein-Barr infection or coinfection with other diseases.
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TRUE
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Carriers of hepatitis B virus are not common.
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FALSE
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All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers.
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FALSE
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Parvovirus B19 causes a fatal anemia in the fetus.
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TRUE
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There are vaccines for immunity to the hepatitis B virus.
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TRUE
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The only body fluid that can transmit hepatitis B virus is blood.
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FALSE
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Poxviruses are the largest and most complex of all animal viruses.
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TRUE
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Variola major and variola minor are the two principal forms of smallpox disease.
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TRUE
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The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection.
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FALSE
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Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following, except: A. enveloped B. include paramyxoviruses C. hemagglutinin spikes D. RNA genome E. neuraminidase spikes
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B. include paramyxoviruses
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The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is: A. catalase. B. reverse transcriptase. C. hyaluronidase. D. neuraminidase. E. kinase.
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D. neuraminidase.
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Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following, except: A. influenza. B. rubella. C. dengue fever. D. mumps. E. SARS.
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C. dengue fever.
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Symptoms of influenza include: A. nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough. B. fever, diarrhea, vomiting. C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge. D. fever, sore throat, rash, cough. E. fever and pneumonia.
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C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge.
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Reye's syndrome involves: A. aspirin use. B. a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox. C. fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney. D. children, adolescents, and young adults. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Influenza vaccines include all the following, except: A. inactivated intramuscular vaccine. B. usually incorporates three different strains. C. attenuated, nasal drops vaccine. D. provides lifelong immunity. E. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.
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D. provides lifelong immunity.
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Influenza infection can be treated with: A. amantadine. B. rimantadine. C. zanamivir. D. oseltamivir. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses? A. lymphocytic choriomeningitis B. Lassa fever C. hantaviruses D. Bolivian hemorrhagic fever E. Argentine hemorrhagic fever
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C. hantaviruses
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Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics, except: A. reservoir is human carriers B. is a zoonosis C. symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress, and hypotension D. transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta E. first U.S. outbreak occurred in 1993 in the Southwest
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A. reservoir is human carriers
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Parainfluenza virus: A. usually infects the elderly. B. is in the Orthomyxovirus family. C. causes influenza. D. causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia. E. All of the choices are correct.
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D. causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia.
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Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of: A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella.
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B. mumps.
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Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with: A. croup. B. mumps. C. influenza. D. measles (rubeola). E. rubella.
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D. measles (rubeola).
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This infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough: A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella
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A. croup
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This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage: A. croup B. mumps C. influenza D. measles (rubeola) E. rubella
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E. rubella
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Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization? A. contains attenuated virus B. contains toxoids C. is given in early childhood D. protects against 3 different viral diseases E. None of the choices are correct.
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B. contains toxoids
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All the following pertain to measles (rubeola), except: A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash B. humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen C. secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur D. involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E. dry cough, sore throat, fever, conjunctivitis are symptoms
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A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash
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Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus): A. causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger. B. uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site. C. can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin. D. Synagis and RSV immunoglobulin help reduce complications and hospitalization. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Which is incorrect about rabies? A. is a zoonotic disease B. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs C. transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation D. average incubation in human is one week E. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, paralysis
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D. average incubation in human is one week
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Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes: A. debridement. B. wash bite with soap or detergent. C. wound is infused with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG). D. postexposure vaccination with HDCV. E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct.
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Coronaviruses cause: A. fever, rash, nasal discharge. B. meningitis. C. measles. D. croup. E. common cold and SARS.
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E. common cold and SARS.
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Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS): A. can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress. B. began with an initial outbreak in the United States and then spread to Canada and China. C. is caused by the respiratory syncytial virus. D. is not highly transmissible. E. All of the choices are correct.
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A. can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress.
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Rubella is: A. caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus). B. a zoonosis. C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects. D. seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia. E. All of the choices are correct
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C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
question
All arboviruses involve: A. congenital infection. B. arthropod vectors. C. diarrhea. D. birds as the primary reservoir. E. All of the choices are correct.
answer
B. arthropod vectors.
question
Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involve: A. fever, headache, and rash. B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases. C. myalgia and orbital pain. D. muscle aches and joint stiffness. E. All of the choices are correct.
answer
E. All of the choices are correct.
question
Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever? A. Yellow fever B. Western equine encephalitis C. Eastern equine encephalitis D. Colorado tick fever E. St. Louis encephalitis
answer
A. Yellow fever
question
West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except: A. causes hemorrhagic fever B. is an arbovirus C. transmitted by a mosquito vector D. typically is a flu-like illness E. severe encephalitis occurs in less than 1% of infected persons
answer
A. causes hemorrhagic fever
question
Yellow fever and dengue fever are: A. caused by arboviruses. B. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting. C. zoonoses. D. transmitted by a mosquito vector. E. All of the choices are correct.
answer
E. All of the choices are correct.
question
Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except: A. glycoprotein spikes. B. DNA genome. C. envelope. D. reverse transcriptase. E. viral genes integrate into the host genome.
answer
B. DNA genome.
question
All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except: A. have an immunodeficiency B. have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm3 of blood C. get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections D. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders E. highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
answer
E. highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
question
Documented transmission of HIV involves: A. mosquitoes. B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products. C. respiratory droplets. D. contaminated food. E. All of the choices are correct.
answer
B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
question
All of the following pertain to HIV, except: A. attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors B. viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus C. it has reverse transcriptase D. causes Kaposi sarcoma E. can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities
answer
D. causes Kaposi sarcoma
question
Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus? A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. Protease inhibitors C. Fusion inhibitors D. Integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct.
answer
B. Protease inhibitors
question
This new class of drugs will interfere with the virus inserting itself into host DNA: A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors B. protease inhibitors C. fusion inhibitors D. integrase inhibitors E. All of the choices are correct.
answer
D. integrase inhibitors
question
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is: A. leukemia. B. Hodgkin's lymphoma. C. Kaposi's sarcoma. D. melanoma. E. colon cancer.
answer
C. Kaposi's sarcoma.
question
Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease? A. Rabies B. Dengue fever C. Norwalk virus D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) E. Creutzfeldt Jakob Disease
answer
A. Rabies
question
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except: A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing B. transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water C. can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea D. if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed E. there are effective vaccines to prevent polio
answer
A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
question
The major agents responsible for the common cold are: A. Coxsackie viruses. B. Rhinoviruses. C. Influenza viruses. D. Caliciviruses. E. Rotavirus.
answer
B. Rhinoviruses.
question
The worldwide, primary viral cause of morbidity and mortality from diarrhea is: A. Coxsackie viruses. B. Rhinoviruses. C. Influenza viruses. D. Caliciviruses. E. Rotavirus.
answer
E. Rotavirus.
question
Norwalk agent is A. a calicivirus. B. transmitted orofecally. C. sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish. D. a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis. E. All of the choices are correct.
answer
E. All of the choices are correct.
question
Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection? A. It is transmitted by the oral-fecal route. B. It has flu-like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine. C. It predisposes a person for liver cancer. D. Iimmune globulin therapy helps decrease the severity. E. HAVRAX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention.
answer
C. It predisposes a person for liver cancer.
question
Spongiform encephalopathies are: A. associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain. B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system. C. caused by prions. D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Strussler-Scheinker syndrome. E. All of the choices are correct.
answer
E. All of the choices are correct.
question
The main route for transmission of HIV in most parts of the world is through: A. intravenous drug use. B. homosexual sex. C. blood transfusion. D. heterosexual sex. E. blood products.
answer
D. heterosexual sex.
question
Which area has the largest number of people living with HIV/AIDS? A. North America B. Sub-Saharan Africa C. Southeast Asia D. Carribbean E. Western Europe
answer
B. Sub-Saharan Africa
question
Which of the following is incorrect regarding coronaviruses? A. One type can cause the common cold. B. One type can cause SARS. C. They are common animal viruses in pigs, dogs, cats, and poultry. D. There are no tests to confirm diagnosis. E. There is no specific treatment other than supportive care.
answer
D. There are no tests to confirm diagnosis.
question
Which is incorrect about measles? A. Koplik spots appear before the characteristic rash. B. Humans are the sole reservoir. C. Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine. D. It is also known as rubeola. E. It is one of the most contagious infectious diseases.
answer
C. Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine.
question
All of the following are important bunyavirus diseases, except: A. Hantavirus. B. Rift Valley fever. C. California encephalitis. D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS). E. Korean hemorrhagic fever.
answer
D. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
question
Which is correct about influenza? A. Antigenic shift is a minor change in the viral strain. B. The virus is found in swine and cats. C. The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines. D. Influenza A has a mortality rate of close to 35%. E. The virus binds to the intestinal mucosa.
answer
C. The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines.
question
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus? A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) B. Parainfluenza C. Mumps D. Measles E. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections
answer
A. Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
question
All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except: A. The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain. B. Treatment for polio involves mainly alleviating pain and suffering. C. The virus is transmitted through fecal-oral means. D. Most infections do not result in paralysis. E. Dr. Jonas Salk developed the IPV vaccine in 1954.
answer
A. The inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain.
question
Which of the following is correct about polio? A. The disease is still affecting millions of people worldwide, mainly in Africa and India. B. The disease is spread by the respiratory route. C. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) is not responsible for causing any polio. D. The Sabin vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine in the U.S. today. E. The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces.
answer
E. The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces
question
Cocksackieviruses: A. are paramyxoviurses. B. are the etiological agents of hairy-cell leukemia. C. can cause hand-foot-mouth disease. D. are a retrovirus. E. replicate in helper T cells.
answer
C. can cause hand-foot-mouth disease.
question
A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes and enlarged lymph nodes. The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years. However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash. The patient also has thrush. Among various blood tests, which result is the causative agent of AIDS? A. High level of CD4 T cells B. Positive level of HIV antigen C. Positive isolation of Candida albicans D. Positive isolation of Herpes simplex ulcers
answer
B. Positive level of HIV antigen
question
What does AIDS stand for? A. aids induced diseases B. aids in disguises C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome D. human acquired immunodeficiency syndromes
answer
C. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
question
The primary transmission route for acquiring agents of the common cold is by contact with hands and fomites contaminated with the nasal discharges of an infected person.
answer
TRUE
question
Influenza is predominantly transmitted by the fecal-oral route.
answer
FALSE
question
The major reservoir for the Sin Nombre hantavirus is the deer mouse.
answer
TRUE
question
Guillain-Barré syndrome involves varying degrees of demyelination of the peripheral nervous system leading to muscle weakness of extremities and possible paralysis.
answer
TRUE
question
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion.
answer
FALSE
question
Respiratory syncytial virus and Rotavirus are major causes of global outbreaks in infants 6 months of age, or younger.
answer
TRUE
question
In rabies, spasms of muscles for swallowing leads to a fear of water.
answer
TRUE
question
The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester.
answer
FALSE
question
Aedes mosquitoes is the vector involved in yellow fever and dengue fever.
answer
TRUE
question
A vaccine is currently available to prevent HIV infection.
answer
FALSE
question
One positive test for the presence of HIV antibodies dictates the diagnosis as AIDS
answer
FALSE
