Anesthesia Practice Questions – Flashcards
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What is the basic formula for calculating drug doses?
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Weight x Rate/Concentration
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What type of anesthesia is a topical cream?
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Local anesthesia
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What type of anesthesia is surgical anesthesia?
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General anesthesia
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True or False: When measuring what length endotracheal tube should be used, you measure from the tip of the nose to the base of the shoulder.
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False, measure from the tip of nose to the point of the shoulder
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True or False: For cats, we use 2% lidocaine to numb the epiglottis so laryngospasms do not occur.
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False, it is used to numb the larynx
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How far past the rostral end of the muzzle should an endotracheal tube go?
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No more that 1/2
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What systems is the excretion of drugs controlled by in order of most to least important?
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Kidneys, GI system, respiratory system, skin
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True or False: The peak BMR in an animal's life occurs at 6 to 12 months of age.
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True
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What percent higher is a male's BMR compared to a female?
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7%
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Why do anesthetics decrease BMR?
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Because they mimic the resting/sleep state where BMR is usually 50% lower
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Which if the following increases BMR? a. neutering b. fever c. large body size d. poor condition
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B. Fever
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True or False: The respiratory stimulant Doxapram/Dopram can be given IV, sublingually and IM
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False, it can not be given IM
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List 5 reasons why you would use a pre-anesthetic
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1. decrease side effects of general anesthesia 2. decrease amount of general anesthesia used 3. to tranquilize 4. to induce vomiting 5. to prevent seizures 6. pain control
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What category of pre-anesthetic drugs act on the parasympathetic nervous system?
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Anticholinergics
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What is the neurotransmitter for the PNS?
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Acetylcholine
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True or False: Using an anticholinergic in cattle can cause colic
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False, it causes bloat in cattle and colic in horses
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What categories of pre-anesthetic drugs provide analgesia?
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Alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists, cyclohexamines and opioids
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What heart rate range is considered tachycardic in dogs and cats?
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Dogs >140-160 Cats >180-200
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Why is the use of anticholinergics contraindicated in constipated animals?
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because they cause GI stasis (ilyis)
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What are the signs of an anticholinergic overdose?
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excitement, dry MM, thirst, extreme/extended mydriasis, tachycardia
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If you suspect an animal has an anticholinergic overdose, what reversing agent would you use? a. phenothiazine b. yobine c. physostigmine d. atipamezole/antisedan e. there is no reversing agent
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C. Physostigmine
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What anticholinergic is best used in rabbits and why?
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Glycopyrrolate because rabbits have an enzyme that breaks down atropine
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True or False: The effects of atropine last longer than glycopyrrolate
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False, glycopyrrolate lasts 2-3 hours which is twice as long as atropine which lasts 1-1.5 hours
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List the other uses for anticholinergic Atropine
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1. organophosphate poisoning Tx 2. antispasmodic 3. pupil dilation
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True or False: Uptake of a drug occurs faster with an IM injection than an SQ injection
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True, PO<SQ<IM<IV
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What drug category does Acepromazine maleate fall under?
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Phenothiazines
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What are the desirable effects of Ace?
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Sedation Anti-emetic Anti-arrhythmic Antihistamine No effects on respiration
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Does Ace cause hypotension or hypertension? How does it cause one of these?
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Hypotension due to peripheral vasodilation
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Which drugs are safe to use in animals with a seizure history?
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Benzodiazepines
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What receptors can epinephrine act upon?
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Beta or alpha2 adrenergic receptors
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How long does analgesia with A2 agonists last?
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15-20 mins
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Do A2 agonists reduce the amount of general anesthetic needed? If yes, by what percentage?
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Yes, by 50-80%
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Do A2 agonists depress or excite the cardiovascular and respiratory system?
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Decreases both
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Which pre-anesthetics induce vomiting?
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A2 agonists
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What animals can A2 agonists cause bloat in?
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Cattle and dogs
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Do A2 agonists cause hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia?
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Hyperglycemia due to temporary suppression of the pancreas' secretion of insulin
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What effect do A2 agonists have on ADH?
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A2 agonists interfere with ADH release, causing diuresis
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Which is not a route of administration for A2 agonists? a. IV b. IM c. PO d. SQ
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D. PO
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What reversing agent would you use for an animal showing signs of an Ace overdose?
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None, there is no reversing agent for Ace
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For what use would you give Ace by mouth for? a. to calm an animal down b. treatment of status epilepticus c. treatment of epilepsy d. appetite stimulation
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A. to calm an animal down
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What drug is known to cause penis prolapse in stallions?
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Ace
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List some examples of A2 agonists
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Xylazine/Rompun Dexmedetomidine/Dexdomitor Detomidine/Dormosedan
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What reversing agent would you give to a cow that has been given Xylazine and how?
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Tolazoline, IV
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What reversing agent would you give to a dog that was given Xylazine and how?
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Yohimbine/Yobine, IV
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What is special about the amount of reversing agent given to reverse dexmedetomidine?
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The dosing for the reversal is the same as the amount of the drug that was given
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What is the reversing agent for Dexmedetomidine/detomidine?
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Atipamezole/Antisedan
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True or False: To reverse dexmedetomidine in a cat, you would inject atipamezole IV
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False, you want to give it IM (IV is for dogs only)
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What drug would you given in conjunction with Ketamine to help relax the muscles?
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Diazepam/Valium
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What is the reversing agent for Benzodiazepines?
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Flumazenil
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What are the examples of Benzodiazepines?
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Diazepam/Valium Zolazepam Lorazepam Midazolam
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What inhibitory transmitter do Benzos act upon? a. acetylcholine b. GABA c. serotonin d. none of the above
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B. GABA
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What drug is Zolazepam mixed with in order to make Telazol?
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Tiletamine
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Define status epilepticus
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Seizures that last more than 5 mins or one seizure followed by another and another
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What other uses does Diazepam have besides treating status epilepticus?
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Appetite stimulant in cats and treatment for inappropriate urination in cats
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What are the routes of administration for Diazepam?
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IV, PO,. IM, PR
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For what reason would you give Diazepam PR?
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Treatment of status epilepticus
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What are the routes of administration for Telazol?
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IM or IV
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What effects do Cyclohexamines have on the brain?
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Disruption of nerve transmission in some parts and selective stimulation in other parts
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What drugs cause a cataleptoid state?
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Cyclohexamines (dissociatives)
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Why would you not want to use cyclohexamines as an analgesic for an abdominal surgery?
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They provide little visceral analgesia
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True or False: When a dissociative is used, the animal's eyes remain open
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True
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What does inotropy mean and what drug can cause a decrease in inotropy?
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Inotropy is the strength of heart contractions and dissociatives decrease inotropy
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Do dissociatives increase or decrease the cardiovascular system?
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Increase
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What effect do cyclohexamines have on the respiratory system?
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They have little effect, but if given in high doses, apneustic breathing may occur
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Would you want to use a cyclohexamine in an animal with a history of brain trauma?
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No, because they increase intracranial and intraocular pressure
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What class of drug does ketamine fall under?
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Dissociative
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What is the main route of administration of cyclohexamines?
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IV because it is most predictable (can also be given IM, SQ, or PO)
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What pre-anesthetics/anesthetics are controlled substances?
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Dissociatives Benzos Opioids
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In what animals can you use Ketamine alone? a. dogs b. cow c. cats d. none of the above
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C. Cats
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Following a ketamine injection, would a dog or cat recover faster?
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Dog
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Why don't cats metabolize ketamine?
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They do not have the proper enzymes so they excrete it through the kidneys
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In what combinations can you use ketamine?
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Diazepam & ketamine ARK protocol
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What would you use to reverse the effects of ketamine?
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Nothing, there is no reversing agent
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True or False: Ketamine has to be reconstituted
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False, Tiletamine has to be reconstituted
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Which opioid receptor is chiefly responsible for analgesia?
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Mu
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Which opioid receptor is chiefly responsible for sedation?
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Kappa
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What does the opioid receptor sigma do?
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causes hallucinations
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What opioid receptor, besides Mu, is responsible for analgesia?
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Delta
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List the pure agonists
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Morphine Fentanyl Hydromorphone Oxymorphone
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What opioid is a partial agonist?
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Buprenorphine
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What type of opioid is butorphanol?
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Mixed agonists/antagonist
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What is different about dosing an opioid in cats?
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They should be give lower doses, IM
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What anesthetic drug class can cause the sleep like state called narcosis?
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Opioids
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What effects do opioids have on temperature?
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Hypothermia in dogs and hyperthermia in cats
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With prolonged use of opioids _____ can occur due to GI stasis.
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Constipation
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What opioid is used as the standard (x)?
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Morphine
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What opioids provide analgesia for 4-5 hours?
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Morphine and oxymorphine
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Meperidine/Demerol, is the opioid of choice for use in which animal? a. dog b. horse c. cow d. cat
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D. Cat
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Which opioid has the shortest lasting analgesia and how long does it last?
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Meperidine/Demerol (45 mins)
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Why is oxymorphone not commonly used in large animals?
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It is too expensive
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Which opioids primary use is an antitussive? a. Butorphanol b. Codeine c. Morphine d. Both a and b e. All of the above
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D. A and B
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Which form of butorphanol is used in dogs? Cats?
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Torbutrol for dogs and Torbugesic in cats
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Which opioid provides analgesia for days?
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Fentanyl
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True or False: The reversing agent for M-99 is M-55
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False, it is M-5050
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What is the strength of Etorphine (M-99) compared to X?
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10,000 x
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What opioid can be used topically in the conjunctival sac?
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Apomorphine
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What is the primary use of Apomorphine?
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It is an emetic and provides no analgesia
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What can be used to reverse the effects of an opioid?
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Naloxone/Narcan
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If a dam gives birth under the effects of an opioid, is it safe to reverse the neonate? If yes, how would you reverse them?
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Yes, you would reverse them with 1 drop if Naloxone/Narcan sublingually
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What can occur if the effects of the opioid lasts longer than the effect of the reversing agent?
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Renarcotization
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What is the onset of action of propofol?
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30-60 secs
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How does propofol redistribute through the body? a. muscle, brain, fat b. brain, muscle, fat c. fat, brain, muscle d. brain, fat, muscle
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B. Brain, muscle, fat
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Does the recovery time increase when induction with propofol is repeated?
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only in cats
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What can occur if propofol is given rapidly?
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apnea
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What can happen if propofol is given too slowly
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no effect or excitement
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What effect does propofol have on the cardiac and respiratory system?
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It depresses both
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Why would you not use a barbiturate in a saluki?
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The sighthound will not be able to redistribute the drug because of their low fat content so they will take much longer to recover
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What effect do barbiturates have on the cardiac and respiratory system?
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Depresses both
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Can the effect of a barbiturate cross the placenta?
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Yes, so it is typically not used for C-sections
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What is the route of admin for propofol?
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IV only
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What is the most common drug found in euthanasia solutions?
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Pentobarbital
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What barbiturate is only used as an anti-seizure medication?
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Phenibarbital
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Name the two ultra-short acting barbiturates
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Thiopental and methohexital
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How would you administer phenobarbital for a dog with status epilepticus?
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IV
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How would you administer phenobarbital for a dog with epilepsy?
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PO long term
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What drug combination is used for a neuroleptanalgesia?
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Opioid and tranquilizer
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The recommended neuroleptanalgesia combination for geriatrics and debilitated animals is _____ and _____.
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Demerol and Ace
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The combination of oxymorphone and valium would be used in what type of animals?
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Sighthounds
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The combination of _____ and _____ is commonly used in old and young?
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Oxymorphone and Ace
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For neuroleptanalgesia, is the opioid or the tranquilizer usually injected first?
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Tranquilizer first
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What injectable anesthetic is a hypnotic used to induce anesthesia? a. Apomorphine b. Etomidate c. GG d. Valium
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B. Etomidate
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What are the routes of admin for Etomidate?
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IV only
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What injectable anesthetic is commonly used in a "triple drip"?
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GG (glyceryl guaiacoloate) given with ketamine and an A2 agonists
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The injectable anesthetic GG is commonly used in large animals for what purpose?
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Muscle relaxation
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True or False: GG can be given by itself in horses
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False, it can cause excitement when given alone so it needs an induction agent
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True or False: The original purpose of GG was an antitussive
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True
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The reversing agent for Etomidate is: a. Flumazenil b. M-5050 c. Physostigmine d. None of the above
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D. None of the above
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True or False: A good gas anesthetic has a low vapor pressure and a low solubility coeffecient
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False, they must have a high vapor pressure and a low solubility coefficient
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To produce surgical anesthesia, the MAC should be multiplied by: a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 2.5
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B. 1.5
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What does the term "volatile" mean?
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How readily a liquid enters the gas phase
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What is the "sponge effect" and what causes it?
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The sponge effect is when an anesthetic agent prefers to dissolve in the blood stream and go into the tissue. This is caused by high solubility agents
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What gas anesthetic causes malignant hyperthermia?
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Halothane
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What is the MAC of isoflurane?
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1.2%
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What percentage of isoflurane is exhaled by the lungs?
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99%
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True or False: Sevoflurane has less effects on the major organ systems than isoflurane
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False, iso has little to no effect on major systems, while sevo may cause myocardial and respiratory depression. It may also cause liver metabolites
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Why is Desflurane not used as often as Iso and Sevo?
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Due to its pungent smell, breath holding and coughing are common effects
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True or False: The boiling point of Sevoflurane is very close to room temperature so a special vaporizer is needed to keep it from boiling off
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False, this is true of desflurane
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What is the MAC of Nitrous Oxide in animals? a. 20% b. 55% c. 188% d. 220%
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C. 188%
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True or False: Nitrous Oxide is a weak anesthetic agent in animals
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True, due to the MAC being so high
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For what reason would N2O be used in animals?
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It would be used as a potentiate to decrease the amount of primary anesthetic to be decreased by 20-30%. It may also speed up the uptake of another gas
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What is the term for when N2O diffuses back into the lungs quickly and displaces oxygen?
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Diffusion hypoxia
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Which reflex is the first one to be lost while under anesthesia? a. swallowing b. corneal c. palpebral d. PLR
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A. Swallowing
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What stage of anesthesia has voluntary movement?
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Stage 1
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True or False: If you rapidly administer an induction agent, the animal will spend more time in Stage 2
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False, rapid administration will produce faster induction and LESS time in Stage 2
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What stage and plane is used for surgical anesthesia?
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Stage 3, plane 2
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True or False: When an animal is under deep anesthesia, monitoring should be continuous
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True
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During surgical anesthesia, what location should the eyes be rotated in?
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Ventromedial
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What is a sign that an animal is entering Plane 4? a. Reflexes return b. CRT decreases c. Eyes central d. Increase respirations
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C. Eyes Central
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Which reflex do we want to be able to see throughout a surgery? a. Pedal b. PLR c. Swallowing d. Corneal
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D. Corneal
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What stage of anesthesia is defined as an anesthetic overdose?
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Stage 5
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What is the minimal acceptable heart rate for a dog during surgery? a. 80 bpm b. 70 bpm c. 100 bpm d. 65 bpm
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B. 70 bpm
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True or False: Most anesthetics cause tachycardia
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False, most cause bradycardia
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Which 4 pre-anesthetics/anesthetics can cause arrhythmias?
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Xylazine Dexmedetomidine Barbiturates Halothane
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Which of the following is not a location where you would assess a pulse? a. Femoral artery b. Carotid artery c. Lingual artery d. Ventral pedal artery
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D. Ventral pedal artery
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What is a normal blood pressure reading for a dog?
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120/80
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True or False: A sphygmomanometer is a direct mean of measure blood pressure
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False, it is indirect (the only direct mean is using an arterial catheter)
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What RR should an animal not drop below during surgery?
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8 breaths per min
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Which SPO2 level would be ok during surgery? a. 93% b. 96% c. 90% d. 75% e. None of the above
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B. 96% (do not want it to drop below 95%, 97% is normal)
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True or False: Inspiration is twice as long as expiration
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False, exhaling is twice as long as inhaling
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What are some reasons why hyperventilation may occur while under anesthesia?
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Increased CO2 levels Pain or surgical stimulation The animal is waking up
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How can you prevent atelectasis from occurring? a. Turn up the flow meter on the anesthesia machine b. Pump the animal's chest every 2-3 minutes c. Give the animal a dose of Doxapram to stimulate respirations d. Bag the animal every 5 minutes e. You cannot prevent atelectasis
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D. Bag the animal every 5 mins
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True or False: A normal inspiration COs reading is 0mmHg
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True
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Which of the following is a normal End-Tidal CO2 reading? a. 40 mmHg b. 8 mmHg c. 50mmHg d. 25mmHg
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A. 40 mmHg
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What is the minimal acceptable temperature during recovery?
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97 F
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Which of the following anesthetics/adjuncts cause hypothermia? a. Acepromazine b. Halothane c. A2-agonists d. Both a and c e. Both b and c f. All of the above
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D. Both A and C
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What is the drug of choice when treating malignant hyperthermia?
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Dantroline
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Which stage of anesthesia may be seen twice?
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Stage 2 (during induction and recovery)
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What is the oxygen flow rate for a rebreathing system? a. 130-300 ml/kg/min b. 15-50 ml/kg/min c. 10-35 ml/kg/min d. None of the above
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B. 15- 50 ml/kg/min
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True or False: A non-rebreathing unit is less expensive to run than a rebreathing unit
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False, there is more waste gas with a non-rebreathing so it is more expensive to run
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A non-rebreathing circuit would be used for animals: a.. Greater than 15 pounds b. Less than 20 pounds c. Any animal we want d. None of the above
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D. None of the above The animal would have to be less than 15 pounds
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Why is there increased safety with mask induction rather than chamber induction?
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There is a decreased risk of an overdose with mask induction
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True or False: Mask induction works better with gases with high vapor pressure
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True
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Why is deflurane not recommended for use during a mask induction?
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Even thought it has a high vapor pressure, it can cause coughing and breath holding
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What stage is prolonged when using mask induction? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 e. No stage is prolonged
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B. Stage 2
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What animals is chamber induction not recommended in? a. Brachycephalics b. Small patients c. Uncooperative patients d. Pregnant animals e. Animals with underlying diseases
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A. Brachycephalics
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Before mask induction, how long should you give 100% pure oxygen before introducing the gas?
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2-3 mins
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What is the oxygen flow rate during mask induction for animals <10 kg? Larger than 10 kg?
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1-3 L/min for smaller animals and 3-5 L/min for larger animals
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Which of the following is an early sign of shock? a. Bradycardia b. Excitability c. Pale mucous membranes d. Tachycardia e. Bradypnea
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D. Tachycardia
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What type of shock is due to fluid loss?
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Hypovolemic shock
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Why do burn patients usually go into hypovolemic shock?
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Degloving/burns are injuries that destroy the epithelial tissue causing a leakage of plasma out of the wound
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True or False: Severe diabetes can cause cardiogenic shock
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False, severe diabetes can cause hypovolemic shock due to incorrectly balanced fluids
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How do you treat hypovolemic shock?
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IV fluids or transfusions to restore intravascular volume
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What is cardiomyopathy and how does it occur?
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It is a disease of the heart muscles and it occurs due to prolonged damage to the heart. The heart muscle hypertrophies, particularly in the ventricles, due to the heart needing to work harder to pump blood. With an increased muscle, there is less lumen so it cannot hold or pump as much blood out of it
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True or False: Ascites occurs when fluid leaks from the aorta and into the abdomen
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False, the fluid leaks from the vena cava
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What is a pulmonary edema?
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When fluid leaks out of the vessels and into the lungs, causing a wheeze or cough
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Which of the following can you use to treat cardiogenic shock? a. Antiarrhythmics b. Antibiotics c. Glucocorticoids d. Both A and C e. None of the above
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A. Antiarrhythmics
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What can cause distributive shock? a. Side effects of drugs b. CNS trauma c. Sepsis d. Anaphylaxis e. All of the above
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E. All of the above
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True or False: An animal that consumes antifreeze may present with injected mucous membranes
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True, their MM will be injected (dark red)
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What is the term for when the blood vessels are damaged and microscopic clots form?
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DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
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What are the 2 categories of fluids that can be given to treat shock?
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Crystalloids and colloids
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What category of fluids are PSS and LRS included in?
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Crystalloids
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When dealing with a shock patient, what volume of fluids should be given within the first our for a dog? a. 20 mL/kg b. 35 ml/kg c. 75 mL/kg d. 90 mL/kg e. 95 mL/kg
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D. 90 mL/kg
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193. When dealing with a shock patient, what volume of fluids should be given within the first hour for a cat? a. 20 mL/kg b. 45 mL/kg c. 55 mL/kg d. 60 mL/kg e. None of the above
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C. 55 mL/kg
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When administering fluids to small dogs and cats, what do we need to be careful of? a. Sepsis b. Pulmonary edema c. Ascites d. Tachycardia e. Nothing
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B. Pulmonary edema
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What would be the purpose of giving glucocorticoids to a shock patient?
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Steroids help stabilize blood vessels and cause vasoconstriction
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Dobutamine, dopamine and epinephrine all increase the strength of heart contractions, what class of drugs to these fall under?
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Cardiac inotropes
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A bulldog comes into the clinic and has stopped breathing. You are told to begin chest compressions. How will you position the dog and where will you place your hands to begin CPR? a. Lateral recumbency, over the widest part of the chest b. Sternal recumbency, hands over the back c. Dorsal recumbency, over the sternum d. Dorsal recumbency, directly over the heart e. None of the above
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C. Dorsal recumbency, over the sternum
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Which drugs can you give IT?
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Atropine, Epinephrine, Vasopressin and Lidocaine
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True or False: When giving a drug IT, you must give 4x the IV dose
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False, you give 2x the IV dose
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How many times do you give low dose epinephrine before giving the high dose? a. 3 times b. 4 times c. 5 times d. 6 times e. You do not have to give the low dose before the high dose
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A. 3 times
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What type of pain produces a pain that is hard to localize? a. Somatic b. Inflammation c. Idiopathic d. Visceral e. Physiologic
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D. Visceral
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True or False: Pathologic pain causes tissue damage while physiologic pain does not
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True
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At what pain pathway(s) do opioids work at? a. Transduction, transmission, modulation and perception b. Transduction, transmission, modulation c. Transduction, transmission, perception d. Transduction, modulation, perception e. Transmission, modulation, perception
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D. Transduction, modulation and perception
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What is the purpose of multimodal therapy?
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To target 2 or more receptors
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What is the term for destructive metabolism?
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Catabolism
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What can the excessive release of cortisol cause? a. Hyperadrenocorticism b. Hypoadrenocorticism c. Arrhythmias d. Respiratory acidosis
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A. Hyperadrenocorticism
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What is hyperalgesia and what causes it?
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It is when less stimulation is required to initiate pain and it is caused by wind-up pain due to repeat, chronic pain
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What is the term for when pleasant or neutral nerve fibers become part of the pain pathway? a. Hyperalgesia b. Happiness c. Allodynia d. Hypersensitivity e. Wind-up pain
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C. Allodynia
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Which of the following is an example of multimodal therapy? a. Morphine + oxymorphone b. Torbugesic + xylazine c. Deracoxib + morphine d. Both B and C e. None of the above
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D. Both B and C
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Which of the following is a COX-2 drug? a. Acetominophen b. Caprofen c. Flunixin d. Aspirin
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B. Caprofen
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True or False: Besides analgesia, NSAIDs are also useful for reducing fevers
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True
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What is a potential side-effect do all NSAIDs have? a. GI ulceration b. GI bleeding c. Clotting disorders D. Vomiting
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C. Clotting disorders
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What do NSAIDs inhibit?
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Enzymes involved in the production of prostaglandins
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What are the 2 COX enzymes synthesized from? a. arachidonic acid b. prostaglandins c. GABA d. COX mediators e. None of the above
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A. arachidonic acid
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What pathways do NSAIDs work on? a. Transduction, transmission, perception b. Transduction, modulation c. Transmission, perception d. Modulation, perception e. Transduction, perception f. NSAIDs work on all pathways
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B. Transduction, modulation
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Which NSAID is highly recommended for use in cats? a. Rimadyl b. Tylenol c. Meloxicam d. Deracoxib e. No NSAID is recommended for cats
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C. Meloxicam
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True or False: For a geriatric dog with DJD, the tablet form of Rimadyl is commonly prescribed for pain relief
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True
question
True or False: A2 agonists work on all of the pain pathways except transmission
answer
False, they work on all except transduction
question
What is an opiate and given an example of one?
answer
An opiate is a synthetic opioid and Tramadol is an example
question
Why is Tramadol not commonly used in cats? a. It causes GI ulceration b. They cannot metabolize the drug c. It causes seizures in cats d. Cats may become hyperexcitable e. Tramadol is commonly used in cats
answer
D. Cats may become hyperexcitable
question
True or False: Gabapentin is a good analgesic for neuropathic pain
answer
True
question
True or False: Thermotherapy is used for acute trauman such as lameness, HBC or falls
answer
False, cryotherapy is used for acute trauma and thermotherapy is used for chronic conditions
question
What is a TENS unit best used for? a. acute pain b. chronic pain c. both chronic and acute d. neither chronic or acute
answer
C. Both chronic and acute
question
What tranquilizers are most commonly used in horses?
answer
A2 agonists and opioids
question
What drug would you most likely use to chemically restrain a horse? a. Xylazine b. Detomidine c. Acepromazine d. Butorphanol e. All of the above
answer
D. Butorphanol
question
After giving a horse a dose of xylazine, what would you most likely use to reverse it? a. Naloxone b. Tolazoline c. Yobine d. Physostigmine e. You would not reverse it
answer
B. Tolazoline
question
Which of the following drugs may produce a heart murmur in a horse? a. Xylazine b. Ace c. Butorphanol d. Glycopyrolate e. All of the above
answer
A. Xylazine
question
Does Ace supply analgesia for horses?
answer
No, only mild sedation
question
What is the primary opioid used in horses and cows? a. Morphine b. Oxymorphone c. Butorphanol d. M-99
answer
C. Butorphanol
question
True or False: GG by itself can be used as an anesthetic for horses
answer
False, it only provides skeletal muscle relaxation when used alone and in some cases it may cause excitability when used alone
question
Why are barbiturates not commonly used on large animals?
answer
They have prolonged excitement and recovery phases
question
What is TIVA usually used for? a. Induction of cows b. Field surgery for horses c. Skeletal muscle relaxation of horses d. Tranquilizing horses e. None of the above
answer
B. Field surgery in horses (TIVA=total intravenous anesthesia)
question
True or False: Total intravenous anesthesia is used for procedures that have a duration longer than 1 hour
answer
False, it is used for procedures less than 1 hour
question
What type of animal can nasotracheal administration of inhalants be used on? a. Adult horses b. Adult cows c. Foals d. Calves e. Both c and d
answer
C. foals
question
What is a normal blood pressure range for a horse?
answer
100-120/70-80 mmHg
question
What is a normal MAP for a horse? a. greater than 70 mmHg b. less than 50 mmHg c. greater than 100 mmHg d. less than 80 mmHg
answer
A. greater than 70 mmHg
question
True or False: Horses commonly have nystagmus during recovery
answer
True
question
What position should horses be in when beginning recovery? a. Dorsal recumbency b. Lateral recumbency c. Sternal recumbency d. Standing up e. None of the above
answer
B. lateral recumbency
question
What are the 2 most common drugs used for a local/regional nerve block?
answer
Lidocaine and Bupivacaine
question
Near what vertebrae is a needle injected for a paravertebral block in a cow?
answer
behind T13
question
What is the most common reason to use an epidural block in a cow?
answer
Reproductive work
question
True or False: An epidural block is a type of local block
answer
False, it is a regional block
question
Which of the following is an example of a local block? a. Epidural b. Paravertebral c. Inverted L d. Corneal
answer
c. inverted L block The rest are all regional blocks
question
True or False: Swine are very resistant to sedative drugs
answer
True
question
What route of administration for drugs is common in swine?
answer
IM
question
Where can you give an injection IV on a pig if you needed to?
answer
Aural vein
question
What gas anesthetic(s) is/are commonly used with a "double drip" in ruminants? a. Desflurane b. Isoflurane c. Sevoflurane d. Either b or c e. All of the above can be used
answer
D. either b or c
question
Which exotic animal should you NOT fast? a. ferrets b. large birds c. reptiles d. chinchillas e. you should fast all of these animals
answer
A. ferrets
question
When dealing with gerbils, what pre-anesthetic should you never use due to a chance of seizures? a. atropine b. acepromazine c. opioids d. benzodiazapines e. all of the above
answer
B. Ace
question
Why can rats not vomit?
answer
They have a very strong barrier between their stomach and esophagus
question
What type of tumor do we have to be careful for in ferrets?
answer
Insulinomas
question
What is the name of the enzyme that rabbits have that allows them to break down atropine?
answer
Atropine eterase
question
Why is the use of atropine contraindicated in reptiles and birds?
answer
Atropine thickens their secretions, making them too viscous
question
True or False: Rompun, ketamine and telazol are all safe to use in pigs
answer
True
question
What is the most common anesthesia for fish?
answer
M-222 (tricaine methanesulfonate)
question
True or False: MS-222 is both an anesthetic and euthanizing agent for fish
answer
True, so be cautious when administering it an monitor the fish
question
Is it safe to use the ARK protocol in domestic and exotic cats?
answer
Yes
question
For small exotic animals, what reflex do they not lose while under surgical anesthesia? a. PLR b. Swallowing c. Palpebral d. Pedal e. None of the above
answer
C. palpebral
question
What are some common problems that can occur with geriatric patients?
answer
Reduced organ function Poor response to stress Metabolic disorders (cancers) Impaired thermoregulation
question
What are some ways to decrease anesthetic risks in geriatrics?
answer
Perform a thorough PE Decrease amount of anesthesia used Administer fluids at a decreased rate Warm patient
question
What are some common problems that can occur with pediatric patients?
answer
Hypothermia Hypoglycemia Overhydration Inefficient metabolism
question
What are some ways to decrease anesthetic risk in pediatrics?
answer
Avoid heat loss Do not fast them Administer 5% dextrose if needed to treat hypoglycemia Use inhalant anesthetics over injectable
question
What is the most common problem that can occur with brachycephalic breeds?
answer
Airway obstruction
question
True or False: It is difficult to measure an accurate dose for obese patients
answer
True, you must find the weight of a healthy animal (of the same species/breed/sex) and average the animal's weight and the healthy weight. Use the calculated average weight to measure a dose
question
Which of the following is a normal End-Tidal CO2? a. 25 mmHg b. 40 mmHg c. 60 mmHg d. 65 mmHg e. All of the above are normal
answer
B. 40 mmHg (it should be between 35-55)
question
What could be considered bradycardic in a dog? Cat?
answer
Dog: 60 or below Cat: 100 or below
question
What class of drugs can you treat bradycardia with?
answer
Anticholinergics
question
What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation?
answer
Vomiting is emptying the stomach with retching. Regurgitation has no retching involved
question
What is myelography?
answer
A radiographic exam of the spinal cord that uses contrast medium
question
Which of the following are signs of seizures? a. Twitching b. Stiff limbs c. Opisthotonus d. Stimulated by sound and touch e. All of the above
answer
E. all of the above
