VTNE Prep Animal Nursing 3 – Flashcards
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The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT? Muscles of the neck Epaxial muscles Semitendinosus Semimembranosus Pectorals
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The epaxial muscles, which are at the dorsum of the horse surrounding the vertebrae, are not an acceptable location for an intramuscular injection due to their relatively small size and location near the spinal cord. All the other injection sites are acceptable.
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Which of the following correctly lists the species in order from shortest to longest gestation length? Ferret, Dog, Sheep, Pig, Horse Dog, Pig, Sheep, Horse, Llama Cat, Ferret, Sheep, Cow, Horse Pig, Sheep, Horse, Cow, Llama
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This list of gestations should be committed to memory: Llama 1 year (350 days), Horse 11 months (330 days), Cow 9 months (280 days), Sheep/Goat 5 months (150 days), Pig 4 months (114 days), Dog/Cat 2 months (63 days), Ferret 1.5 months (42 days)
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Which intestinal parasite is NOT considered zoonotic to humans? Coccidia Giardia Toxocara Ancylostoma
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Coccidia are host-specific. Isospora (the coccida found in dogs and cats) is not infective to humans. The other parasites listed are zoonotic.
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Which condition occurs least commonly in the horse? Laminitis Enterolithiasis Urolithiasis Intestinal incarceration
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As compared to small animals, urolithiasis is uncommon in horses. If they do develop stones in their bladder, it is usually secondary to formation of calcium oxalate crystals. Enterolithiasis and intestinal incarcerations are common reasons for colic in horses and usually require surgical intervention. Laminitis is a very serious and often life-threatening condition in horses. The pathophysiology of laminitis is poorly understood but involves inflammation of the lamina of the feet. It can involve all feet or even just one foot. There are multiple conditions that can lead to laminitis, such as endotoxemia, grain overload, and pneumonia.
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Your dog's histopathology results have arrived and show an adenoma. What is true about an adenoma? Is frequently life-threatening Does not cause morbidity Is always easy to excise and small in nature Is not malignant
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Benign tumors are not cancerous. There are many large benign tumors that are difficult to remove or are inoperable that can cause the patient serous morbidity. Just because a lesion is not cancerous does not mean that it will not be large or problematic for the pet.
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You remove an IV catheter from a peripheral vein and place a pressure bandage. What is the maximum amount of time this bandage should stay on? 1 hour 30 minutes 4 hours 12 hours
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Venous return can become compromised if a compression bandage or pressure wrap is left on for more than 4 hours. It is best to remove the pressure bandage once the bleeding has stopped so that the bandage is not forgotten and venous return is not compromised.
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Which of the following parasites can be associated with colic and respiratory disease in the foal? Parelaphostrongylus tenuis Parascaris equorum Echinococcus equinus Cryptosporidium
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Parascaris equorum, or the equine ascarid (roundworm), typically only infests foals and can cause ill thrift, coughing, pneumonia, and colic. If a foal has a heavy burden of roundworms and is subsequently given an anthelmintic, impaction colic can result from a mass of dead worms obstructing the intestinal tract. Foals develop immunity to this organism as they age and are typically free of infestation as adults.
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What is cerumen? The oily part of the tear film A mucoid substance secreted by the stomach Oil produced by sebaceous glands Ear wax
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Cerumen is the proper term for ear wax. It is the yellowish waxy hydrophobic protective substance that is secreted in the ear canal. Sebum is an oily substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands.
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Gout is an accumulation of which of the following? Cholesterol Bilirubin Urea Albumin Uric acid
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Gout occurs when uric acid accumulates, usually due to poor nitrogen metabolism and excretion.
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You are restraining a horse with a harness while the veterinarian is examining a sore on the lateral side of the left pelvic limb. Where should you stand while holding this horse? On the left side, hold lead rope with little slack The horse should be tied up and you should stand to the right of the veterinarian at the hind end of the horse to prevent the horse from kicking On the right side, hold lead rope with little slack On the left side, hold lead rope and leave enough slack so that the horse may turn his head around to see what the veterinarian is doing
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On the left side, hold lead rope with little slack When handling a horse, the holder and the person working on the horse should be standing on the same side. If the exam starts on the left, stand on the left; as the examiner moves to the right side, you should also move to the right side. There should be little slack in the lead rope to prevent the horse from moving.
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What is the "top" shell of a tortoise called? Patagium Choana Carapace Plastron Cloaca Scute
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The carapace is the top shell and the plastron is the bottom shell. Patagium is the skin or membrane that extends between the body and a limb or wing (such as seen in a flying squirrel or wing of a bat). A scute is a bony external plate or scale. A choana is either of the pair of posterior openings between the nasal cavity and nasopharynx. The cloaca is the posterior opening that serves to pass feces, urine, and reproductive excretions (connects the rectum, vagina, and urethra into a single channel), such as in reptiles and birds.
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What device or instrument is typically used to help diagnose glaucoma? Schirmer Tear Test Slit lamp Ophthalmoscope Tonometer
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The tonometer (Tonopen) is used to measure intraocular pressures. Glaucoma is the condition of raised intraocular pressures. Normal eye pressures for dogs is typically between 10-20 and for cats 10-25 but these must be interpreted in light of clinical symptoms. Eye pressures lower than 10 can be caused by uveitis (inflammation in the eye).
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In the typical life cycle of the flea (i.e. Ctenocephalides felis), where does the larva pupate and form into the adult flea? In the gastrointestinal tract of the host animal In a tapeworm intermediate host On the surface of the host animal In the environment (off of the host)
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In the flea life cycle, the adult female feeds, mates, and lays eggs on the host, but the eggs are smooth and usually fall off into the environment, often where the host typically lies down. After several days to weeks, the eggs hatch into larvae that feed on skin debris or other organic matter in the environment and then create a cocoon and pupate. The pupa then develops over 10 days or can remain in the environment considerably longer before emerging as an adult flea. This fact is important because this is why treating the host for fleas is not enough to eradicate a flea problem, as the environment is frequently contaminated and can re-infest the host after treatment.
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Your neighbor just bought some pet mice and asks you about breeding them. He wants to know how long their estrus and gestation are. Which of the following is most accurate? Estrus 26-28 days, gestation 23-25 days Estrus 14-18 days, gestation 18-20 days Estrus 4-6 days, gestation 19-21 days Mice are induced ovulators, gestation 12-14 days
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Estrus 4-6 days, gestation 19-21 days Mice come into estrus every 4-6 days and gestation average is around 20 days.
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How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) administered? Intravenous Esophagostomy tube PEG tube Jejunostomy tube
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Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is feeding exclusively intravenously, bypassing the GI tract. It is very useful in cases when animals are unable to eat or will not eat for an extended time period. The other choices listed are all feeding tubes that enter the GI tract. Esophagostomy tubes go into the esophagus, PEG tubes go into the stomach, and jejunostomy tubes go into the jejunum (intestine).
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What percentage of hemoglobin should be saturated with oxygen in a healthy animal? >90% >80% >65% >85% >95%
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In a healthy animal, 95 to 100% of the hemoglobin should be saturated with oxygen. Below 90%, suggests fairly significant hypoxemia
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How is tularemia transmitted (what is the vector)? Leeches Mosquitoes Ticks Lice
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The correct answer is ticks. Ticks are the usual vector, although flies and fleas may be able to transmit Francisella tularensis as well.
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When a horse is feeling threatened or is resisting restraint, what is its first instinct to do? Bite Raise up on its back legs Run away Kick with the back legs
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Explanation - Horses typically will try to run away first if possible, but if they are cornered and feeling threatened with no escape, they will also kick, bite, or rear up. When working with a horse that is not used to handling, it is important to have a plan of attack if the horse is not cooperating to avoid injury.
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how are Larvae of Strongyloides westeri are transmitted to foals
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mare's milk
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Adult horses rarely have patent infections of Strongyloides westeri except when
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larvae harbored in their tissues migrate into a mare's milk after parturition. The worms are found in the small intestine and may cause diarrhea in young horses. Ivermectin or oxibendazole are effective in treatment of S. westeri.
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What are two effective treatments for Strongyloides westeri
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Oxivendazone, Ivermectin
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Which species is particularly aggressive when with her young, and extreme caution must be used? Ewes Sows Mares Cows
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In general, pigs are a more aggressive species. The lactating sow is particularly dangerous; and when handling piglets, it is best to remove the sow to a separate area where she cannot hear her piglets.
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A rupture or tear in the thoracic duct would result in which of the following? Pyothorax Hemoabdomen Chylothorax Pericardial effusion
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Chyle (a fluid high in chylomicrons and lymph) effuses from the thoracic duct into the pleural space if the thoracic duct tears or ruptures (usually trauma-related). The effusion typically appears as a milky white fluid and is odorless. This is only one cause of chylothorax. Other causes include lymphangiectasia, lung lobe torsion, heartworm disease, cardiomyopathy, neoplasia, idiopathic, and others. If the triglyceride level of the effusion is greater than that of peripheral blood, this can help to determine the effusion is chylous. The necropsy on this animal reveals a chylous effusion. Note the milky appearance of the fluid.
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In the horse, the condition known as Sweeney is caused by damage to which structure? Brachial plexus First cervical vertebrae Suprascapular nerve Radial nerve
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- Sweeney is the term for atrophy of the shoulder muscle in the horse. It is caused by damage to the suprascapular nerve. This nerve is responsible for innervation to the infraspinatus and supraspinatus muscles, which are found in the scapula (shoulder blade).
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Through which structures does light pass as it moves from the outside to the inside of the eye? Cornea, iris, retina, lens Cornea, pupil, lens, retina Lens, retina, cornea, vitreous Retina, lens, pupil, cornea
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Cornea, pupil, lens, retina The cornea is the clear coating that surrounds the eyeball itself, and light passes through the cornea first. The iris is the colored part of the eye which encompasses the pupil. The iris controls the amount of light coming in to the eye by dilating or constricting the pupil. After passing through the pupil, light reaches the lens, which focuses light onto the retina. The vitreous body is located behind the lens and in front of the retina.
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A bird that is laying eggs with thin soft shells likely has: Psittacosis Giardia Hypocalcemia Anemia
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Calcium is necessary to construct a rigid egg shell. If the laying bird is hypocalcemic then not enough calcium will be deposited into the shell, resulting in a soft egg. Giardia is a parasitic disease that does not result in soft eggs and usually affects the gastrointestinal tract. Anemia is a decrease in hematocrit below normal levels which may result in pallor and weakness. There are many possible causes for anemia. Pstittacosis is caused by a type of chlamydia bacteria which causes a combination of weakness, ocular discharge, respiratory illness and gastrointestinal disease.
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What is the name of the reflective layer behind the retina that allows animals to have improved night vision? Image Courtesy of Brad Holmberg, DVM MS PhD DACVO Optic nerve Cornea Lens Tapetum
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Domestic animals have a tapetum to help them see in dim light. Pigs do not have a tapetum. The tapetum reflects light back through the retina, increasing the light available to photoreceptors. This is a photo of a normal canine fundus. Note the reflective green tapetum.
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An 8-year old cat suffering from intestinal lymphoma has been prescribed TPN. Which of the following is necessary for the administration of TPN? Cephalic catheter A-line Esophagostomy tube Jugular catheter Subcutaneous catheter
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Jugular catheter TPN stands for total parenteral nutrition. TPN solutions contain 10% (or greater) dextrose and must be given in a central catheter to avoid phlebitis. TPN solutions cannot be administered through peripheral catheters. Medications should never be injected into A-lines.
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Where is the hypothalamus is located? Mid-brain Mediastinum Brain stem Diencephalon
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The diencephalon is composed of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and pituitary gland. The brain stem is the posterior part of the brain adjoining the brain and spinal cord. Most of the cranial nerves originate in the brain stem. The brain stem includes the medulla oblongata, pons, and the midbrain. The thymus is located in the mediastinum. The mesencephalon is the mid-brain (part of the brain stem).
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Which animal is seasonally polyestrous? Mare Sow Bitch Queen
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Mares are seasonally polyestrous, so they repeatedly cycle during the breeding season. This season occurs around the period when the days are longest (which is late March through September). The estrous cycle of the mare is about 21 days in length. During estrus, the mare is receptive to the stallion and lifts her tail and everts the clitoris, which is called "winking".
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How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? 10 8 15 12
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There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves. They are designated by Roman numerals as follows: I - Olfactory nerve II - Optic nerve III - Oculomotor nerve IV - Trochlear nerve V - Trigeminal nerve VI - Abducens nerve VII - Facial nerve VIII - Vestibulocochlear nerve IX - Glossopharyngeal nerve X - Vagus nerve XI - Accessory nerve XII - Hypoglossal nerve
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A dog refuses a rectal temperature. You take his temperature under the axillary region and get a reading of 99.5F. What is likely his core body temperature? 99.5F 102.1F 101.5F 98.7F
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Typically a temperature taken in the ear or under a peripheral limb reads 1 to 2 degrees lower than rectal temperature, or core body temperature.
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Bone is made by which type of cell? Chondrocytes Osteoclasts Osteoblasts Osteocytes
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Osteoblasts Osteoblasts are mononucleate cells that are responsible for bone formation and come from the bone marrow. Osteocytes are actually cells inside of the bone. Osteoclasts are large cells that dissolve the bone. Chondrocytes are cartilage cells.
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Which of the following is the scabies mite in cats? Cheyletiella blakei Notoedres cati Cuterebra Sarcoptes gati
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Feline scabies is caused by the mite Notoedres cati. It often causes scaly or scabby facial lesions in cats and is intensely pruritic. It is a highly contagious mite and is closely related to the canine scabies mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is diagnosed via a skin scraping. Demodex gati is the demodex cat mite. Sarcoptes gati is not a real mite. Cuterebra is a fly larva that may infest the skin of domestic animals. Cheyletiella is a surface mite that causes itchy and flaking skin in dogs and cats, also known as "walking dandruff".
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An owner brings her 4-year old female Labrador Retriever to your clinic because she believes she might be pregnant. She does not remember when the dog's last heat cycle was. The dog's abdomen appears fairly distended and you take a lateral abdominal radiograph which is shown below. What would be the earliest time you would expect to be able to see fetal skeletons on abdominal radiographs in the dog? 53 days gestation 43 days gestation 23 days gestation 33 days gestation
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43 days gestation The correct answer is 43 days gestation. The fetal skeleton ossifies at 42-45 days in the dog and 35-39 in the cat. In the dog, a mineralized fetus can usually be seen around 42-46 days. The scapula, humerus, and femur can be made out around 46-51 days. The ribs can be seen at 52-59 days. Teeth and toes can be seen at 58-63 days.
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A client calls and plans to breed her prized Yorkie Emmy-Lou. She just finished her heat cycle, and the client would like to breed her the next time she comes into heat. She wants to know when this will likely occur. Which of the following statements is most accurate? Dogs are induced ovulators Most dogs have their heat cycle every 6 months Most dogs have their heat cycle every 3 months Most dogs have their heat cycle every 28 to 30 days
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Most dogs have their heat cycle every 6 months. Cats are induced ovulators.
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On a routine urinalysis an abundant amount of colorless prism-like crystals that have a coffin lid appearance are observed. What type of crystals are these? Struvite Calcium oxalate Ammonium biurate Cysteine
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Struvite Struvite crystals are clear/colorless and have a rectangular appearance. They are commonly described as having a "coffin lid" appearance. Ammonium biurate crystals are round and brownish in color. They have spicules coming off of them. Calcium oxalate crystals have a clear-colored square appearance with an X across the surface.
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You are enrolled in a technician training session at a laboratory primate center and are observing the handling of macaque monkeys for blood sampling. You are required to wear personal protective equipment, mostly to prevent possible exposure to which disease? Hepatitis B Human Immunodeficiency Virus Influenza A Herpes B Virus
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Herpes B Virus is a very serious and often deadly zoonotic disease that can be carried by macaque monkeys. It is the disease of most concern in a primate lab animal setting. It causes neurologic signs and can have a mortality rate of around 80% for humans. Bites, scratches, or exposure to mucus membranes including the eyes or mouth from infected saliva can cause transmission. Primates can carry Simian Immunodeficiency Virus (not HIV) and it can be zoonotic.
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Which of the following instruments is best suited for removing bone, such as may be done when removing the dorsal spinous process during spinal surgery? Rongeur Mallet Rochester-Carmalt forceps Kern forceps
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The rongeur can have a single-action or double-action mechanism that allows for relatively easy removal of dense material such as bone. It comes with a sharp, scoop-shaped tip. The kern forceps is used to help hold bone fragments in reduction during a fracture repair. Rochester-Carmalt forceps are used to grasp masses of tissue or vessels. A mallet is a device similar to a hammer used in surgery.
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What is of the biggest concern when shipping pigs? Stress-induced diarrhea Gastric dilatation Dehydration Overheating
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Heat prostration is of greatest concern when moving and shipping porcine. The same is true when performing medical procedures on them. It is always best to handle swine in the early morning when the temperature is cooler. This is due to their large amount of body fat and lack of sweat glands. The same is true for sheep; they easily over-heat due to their thick coat
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Which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs? Right cranial vena cava Auricular vein Left jugular vein Tail vein
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- The phrenic nerve is located near the left exterior jugular vein, so the left side of the neck in general should be avoided in pigs. The right anterior vena cava is a commonly used site to draw blood from pigs. The auricular vein can be used to draw up to 5 mLs of blood. The tail vein and the orbital sinus near the medial canthus of the eye are other sites that can be used to draw small quantities of blood in the pig.
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Which method is used to determine the sex of young mice? Penile extrusion Distance between the anus and genitalia Tail length Palpation of testicles in males
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Anogenital distance is the best way to determine whether juvenile mice are male or female.
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What is a good way to assess daily changes in hydration status of a patient that is in the hospital for several days or longer? Body weight Scleral color Respiratory rate Heart rate
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Body weight is a good way to assess hydration of a patient. It is especially helpful when monitoring hydration status of hospitalized patients that are weighed daily. Tacky or dry mucus membranes and increased skin tenting are clinical signs of dehydration. Heart rate is often increased when patients are dehydrated, but increased heart rate can also be from other causes, such as stress.
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What is the meaning of the term multiparous? Born with more than one uterus Has had multiple pregnancies producing offspring Has more than one offspring at birth Ovulates multiple times during a cycle
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The definition of multiparous is having two or more offspring at birth.
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A bitch with a swollen vulva and bloody vulvar discharge that attracts but will not accept a male is likely in which stage of the estrous cycle? Proestrus Anestrus Diestrus Estrus
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In proestrus, vulvar edema is present with a bloody discharge. The bitch is attractive to males but will not stand for mating. A bitch that is in estrus will typically accept a male for mating. During estrus, the vulva is not quite as swollen and the discharge becomes more clear
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Which of the following lymph nodes are not palpated peripherally? Perihilar Popliteal Prescapular Mandibular
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Above the heart is a triangular depression named the hilum, near which the perihilar lymph nodes are located. They are inside the chest and therefore not palpated peripherally.
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What is the "top" shell of a tortoise called? Choana Plastron Scute Cloaca Patagium Carapace
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The carapace is the top shell and the plastron is the bottom shell. Patagium is the skin or membrane that extends between the body and a limb or wing (such as seen in a flying squirrel or wing of a bat). A scute is a bony external plate or scale. A choana is either of the pair of posterior openings between the nasal cavity and nasopharynx. The cloaca is the posterior opening that serves to pass feces, urine, and reproductive excretions (connects the rectum, vagina, and urethra into a single channel), such as in reptiles and birds. Next Question End Practice
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Which of the following mostly produces endotoxins? Gram-negative bacteria Gram-positive bacteria Intestinal parasites such as roundworms and hookworms Yeast and other fungal organisms
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Gram-negative bacteria release endotoxins (which are found in their cell wall) when they die.
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Which of the following diseases should ferrets be vaccinated against? Canine distemper virus Canine parvovirus Infectious canine hepatitis virus Feline panleukopenia virus
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Explanation - Ferrets should be vaccinated against canine distemper virus. Ferrets are not susceptible to the other diseases listed.
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A practitioner's view of convenience euthanasia is an example of which branch of ethics? Normative ethics Official ethics Administrative ethics Normal ethics
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Explanation - Normative ethics is defined as: An individual's attempt to discover what he or she believes to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior.
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Which vessel should be avoided when performing venipuncture in pigs? Right cranial vena cava Tail vein Left jugular vein Auricular vein
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The phrenic nerve is located near the left exterior jugular vein, so the left side of the neck in general should be avoided in pigs. The right anterior vena cava is a commonly used site to draw blood from pigs. The auricular vein can be used to draw up to 5 mLs of blood. The tail vein and the orbital sinus near the medial canthus of the eye are other sites that can be used to draw small quantities of blood in the pig.
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Which of the following is NOT considered a clinically important large strongyle in the horse? Strongylus equorum Strongylus equinus Strongylus edentatus Strongylus vulgaris
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Strongylus equorum - Strongylus vulgaris, Strongylus edentatus, and Strongylus equinus are the large strongyles of horses. Strongylus equorum does not exist. Although Parascaris equorum is a relevant parasite (round worm) in foals,
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Why are polyurethane catheters more appropriate for long-term (> 7 days) use in horses? They are the largest They do not require maintenance They are rigid They are the least thrombogenic
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- Polyurethane catheters (such as those made by Mila) are the least reactive and thrombogenic and, if placed correctly, can be left in place for more than a week. Polyurethane is a flexible material. All IV catheters require maintenance and monitoring.
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The menace test will elicit which response? Which two nerves is this testing? Gag reflex, Cranial nerves XII and VIII Smell, Cranial nerves I and IV Ear twitch, Cranial nerves V and III Blink, Cranial nerves II and VII
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Blink, Cranial nerves II and VII The menace is when you wave your hand to the eye to try and elicit a blinking response. This is testing vision via the Optic nerve (Cranial nerve II). I-Olfactory nerve (smell) II-Optic nerve III-Oculomotor nerve IV-Trochlear nerve V-Trigeminal nerve (sensory to the face) VI-Abducens nerve VII-Facial nerve VIII-Vestibulocochlear nerve IX-Glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory for gag reflex) X-Vagus nerve (motor for gag reflex) XI-Accessory nerve XII-Hypoglossal nerve
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Meningoencephalomyelitis is an inflammatory neurologic condition that affects the central nervous system. What comprises the central nervous system? The vagus nerve The peripheral nerves The cerebellum alone The lower motor neurons The brain and spinal cord
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The central nervous system is comprised of the brain and spinal cord. In most cases, when a neurologic disease is said to be a "central" problem, it is suspected to involve the brain. The peripheral nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS). Sensory and motor neurons make up the PNS. Lower motor neurons are what connect the spinal cord to the muscles and relay the signals. The vagus nerve (cranial nerve 10) is an important peripheral nerve in the PNS. The cerebellum is part of the brain and is located just above the brainstem. It is responsible for coordination of voluntary movement.
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What is the average gestation length of a cow? Approximately 285 days Approximately 200 days Approximately 120 days Approximately 350 days
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Cows have an average gestation length of 285 days (about 9 months). The average gestation length of dogs and cats is 63 days. Horses have a gestation length of approximately 340 days. Although the average for horses is approximately 11 months, it can vary by as much as 30 days.
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A young male cat with symptoms of feline lower urinary tract disease and struvite crystalluria should receive: Diet with low fat Acidifying diet Alkalinizing diet Diet with low protein
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Struvite crystals form when the pH of the urine is high or alkaline. Therefore, an acidifying diet would help to decrease the pH of the urine and prevent formation of the crystals. It can often be of benefit in cases of FLUTD in addition to increasing water intake (canned diets can help with this) and decreasing stress in the home.
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How many thoracic vertebrae do horses have? 9 12 18 13
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Horses have 18 thoracic vertebrae. Dogs, cats , cows, and sheep have 13 thoracic vertebrae. Pigs have 14-15 thoracic vertebrae. Humans have 12 thoracic vertebrae.
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Which breed is most at risk for developing Degenerative Myelopathy? Corgi Standard Poodle Golden Retriever German Shepherd Dachshund
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This is a progressive spinal cord disease that causes that myelin sheath around the nerves to degenerate. German Shepherds are over-represented for this condition. Dachshunds most commonly get intervertebral disk disease.
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Which procedure could be performed without using a surgical scrub, and an alcohol wipe would be sufficient? Joint taps Feline neuter IV catheter placement Fine needle aspiration Bone marrow aspirate
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Fine needle aspiration Explanation - Surgical scrubs are needed for all other procedures listed here.
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What is cholestasis? Poor flow of bile from the liver to the GI tract Inability of the pancreas to produce enzymes Bladder stone stuck in the urethra Rupture of the gall bladder Enlarged liver lobes
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Cholestasis is a condition in which the bile has difficulty flowing from the liver into the duodenum. The prefix chole- means bile and the term a??stasisa?? means to stand still. The enzymes associated with cholestasis are alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT).
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The clinician has been unsuccessfully treating a chronic cough. A culture of the lower airways is needed. What is the best method for this? Nebulize the dog and culture the mist in the mask after 10 minutes Transtracheal wash Nasal swab culture Culture of the back of the throat with a sterile swab after coughing episode
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Transtracheal wash is used when a culture of the lower respiratory tract is needed. It is typically done under general anesthesia for small dogs or cats or under a local in larger dogs. It is a method of collecting bronchial exudate for culture and cytology. The procedure entails inserting a catheter into the trachea in the ventral neck region between two tracheal rings, and infusing and aspirating sterile saline in order to get a sample.
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When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long as a minimum should the trial last? 3 months 6 months 2 weeks 48 hours
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For food-related skin allergies, a food trial should last at least 3 months. For possible food allergy manifesting as inflammatory bowel disease, the trial should last at least 3 weeks. A food trial should consist of a novel protein and a novel carbohydrate source such as Rabbit, Duck, Venison, etc. Another option is a diet with hydrolyzed proteins such that the body cannot form an immune response (Z/D is an example of this).
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What is the average cloacal temperature of a chicken? 107F 104F 98.8F 102F
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Explanation - The deep body temperature of a chicken is around 107 degrees Fahrenheit.
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What does the word anhidrosis mean? Hidden disease Without tears Inability to sweat Lack of drinking
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Explanation - The cause is unknown, but some horses lack the ability to sweat. This condition in known as anhidrosis. Keep horses with anhidrosis as cool as possible during hot or humid weather. Use of mist, sponging, fans, shade or stall rest can be helpful during exposure to heat.
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A diet high in concentrates or grains may lead to which of the following in cattle? Increased rumen pH Decreased rumen pH Hypocalcemia Hyperlipidemia
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Explanation - Rumenal acidosis (decreased pH) may occur when feeding a high concentrate diet. This is due to microbes fermenting the starches in the grains too quickly such that the pH drops dramatically (less than a pH of 5.5). This increased acidity in the rumen can cause severe damage to the rumenal papillae.
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What is the cause of hip dysplasia? Poor diet Breed conformation It is a multifactorial disease Genetics Environment
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Explanation - Hip dysplasia is multifactorial. Many things such as genetics, environment, nutrition, and breed conformation play a role in the disease. Therefore, the treatment is often multi-modal. This may include an exercise plan, special diet, supplements for cartilage protection, anti-inflammatories, surgery, and/or other treatments.
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A patient with which condition would be most likely to receive weekly subcutaneous fluid administration? Diabetes mellitus Cardiomyopathy Renal failure Hyperadrenocorticism
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- Animals in renal failure are often given subcutaneous fluids on a routine basis. With chronic renal failure, cats commonly lose more fluids than usual through their kidneys as they are trying to excrete waste products from the body. The filtration system is impaired, and the toxins (such as urea, creatinine, and phosphorus) continue to build up. As the disease progresses they become chronically dehydrated and benefit from routine fluid administration.
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What is the maximum volume that can be injected intramuscularly in the larger muscle groups of an average adult horse? 25 ml 5 ml 15 ml 3 ml
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Explanation - Volumes approaching 15mls or over, should be divided into 2 different sites.
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Which of the following is required for chinchilla health? A warm (90 degree) basking spot Dust baths Vitamin C Cedar shavings Monthly dental adjustments
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Explanation - Chinchillas require dust baths every 1-2 days in order to maintain coat health. The dust bath should not be left in the enclosure at all times since frequent bathing may cause conjunctivitis. Chinchillas are heat-intolerant, and the enclosure should not be kept at temperatures above 80 degrees Fahrenheit. Cedar shavings should be avoided as bedding, since they can cause respiratory irritation. Chinchillas do not require supplemental Vitamin C. Healthy chinchillas do not require dental adjustments, although dental disease is a common problem.
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Which electrolyte abnormality is known to cause ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness? Hypercalcemia Hyponatremia Hypokalemia Hypermagnesemia
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Hypokalemia (low potassium) can result from various metabolic and endocrine disorders. It causes muscle weakness and can cause cervical ventroflexion. Hypokalemic myopathy has been linked with chronic kidney disease and excessive potassium loss (especially in cats). Hypokalemia can also result from osmotic diuresis, correction of acidosis, or insulin-mediated cell uptake that is seen in diabetic ketoacidosis therapy. Some medications can also contribute to hypokalemia, such as furosemide, which causes excess potassium loss in the urine. Other causes include inadequate potassium intake in the diet, gastrointestinal loss, and hereditary causes; also it is often seen in cases of hepatic lipidosis.
question
What does the term "euthanasia" literally mean? The good death To stop the breath of life Stopping of the heartbeat Cardiac arrest
answer
The word euthanasia is Greek and means "good death". Euthanasia is defined as an easy and painless death, or an act or method of causing death painlessly, to end suffering. The term for ceasing of the heartbeat is asystole.
question
Which of the following is a general term for giving birth that can be applied to all species? Parturition Pyometra Queening Whelping
answer
Parturition is the act of giving birth. Pyometra is a life-threatening uterine infection. Whelping is the term for giving birth in dogs. Queening is the term for giving birth in cats.
question
How tall would a horse that measures 66 inches be, in hands? 16 hands 15 hands 16 - 2 hands 14 - 3 hands
answer
A hand is equivelent to 4 inches. Thus 66 divided by 4 = 16 hands + 2 inches or 16 - 2 hands.
question
Where would you give a sub Q injection in a snake? The proximal 1/3 of the snake along the lateral edge of the ventral scales. Visually divide the snake in half, inject into the distal 1/2 Near the vent, proximal to the opening Distal 1/3 of the body, along the lateral edge of the ventral scales
answer
The proximal 1/3 of the snake along the lateral edge of the ventral scales. Explanation - Due to the portal system of reptiles, it is important to give injections towards the head. The drug will distribute much more slowly and evenly. The dorsal and ventral scales meet along the lateral sides. This is where the drug can be injected.
question
What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host of a parasite? The animal is where the parasite develops from larval to nymph form The animal is where the parasite develops from nymph to adult form The parasite does not undergo development on the animal The parasite's adult or sexual stage lives on the animal The animal is another vertebrate that serves as a source of infection for humans or domestic animals
answer
A paratenic host is also known as a transport host. This indicates a type of intermediate host on which a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals.
question
What is the average gestation length of a cat? Approximately 340 days Approximately 60 days Approximately 290 days Approximately 90 days
answer
Explanation - The average gestation length of dogs and cats is 63 days. Horses have a gestation length of approximately 340 days. Although the average for horses is approximately 11 months, it can vary by as much as 30 days. Cows have an average gestation length of 285 days (about 9 months).
question
Which of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal glands? Cortisol Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Growth hormone (GH) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
answer
Explanation - Cortisol is a steroid hormone, or glucocorticoid, produced by the adrenal glands. The other hormones listed here are all produced in the pituitary gland.
question
Rats are known to produce a substance called "red tears" or chromodacyorrhea. Where are red tears produced? Conjunctival gland Retro-orbital gland Nasal tissue gland Harderian gland
answer
Explanation - The Harderian gland produces the substance known as red tears. The red color is from a porphyrin pigment in the tears. Rats under stress may show this red tear production. Due to the connection between the tear ducts and the nasal cavity, the red stain may show up as a nasal discharge. Many owners will think it is blood.
question
You draw up a canine distemper-parvo combination vaccine. How long is the vaccine considered viable at room temperature? 8 hours 1 hour 24 hours 20 minutes
answer
Explanation - Vaccines should be discarded if they have been left out at room temperature for longer than one hour. Most references state that if they are refrigerated they can be used within 24 hours, but this is controversial. The best option is to use the vaccine shortly after it is drawn up to avoid any concerns.
question
How many feline blood types exist? 2 1 4 3 13
answer
- There are three feline blood types: A, B, and AB. Group A is the most common, as 98% of cats are type A. Type B is more rare and seen most often in some exotic breeds. Only approximately 1.7% of cats have type B blood. AB is rare in all breeds. Always crossmatch cats unless you know their blood types. Dogs have 13 blood types.
question
If a snake is undergoing "dysecdysis", what does this mean? Normal physiologic process of skin sloughing Abnormal shedding of the skin Difficulty breathing External parasitism by mites or ticks Retention of the eye cap or "spectacle" after shedding
answer
Explanation - "Ecdysis" means the shedding or sloughing of the skin and occurs in reptiles including snakes. Dysecdysis is the term used when there is abnormal or incomplete sloughing. In pet reptiles, this is most commonly due to a habitat that is not sufficiently humidified.
question
A cat is starting weekly subcutaneous fluid administration for renal failure at the clinic where you work. The client asks how long it will take for him to absorb the fluids after they are given. You tell him most cats will absorb the fluid within: 5-8 hours 48 hours 1 hour 24 hours
answer
Explanation - Subcutaneous fluids are most commonly absorbed within 5 to 8 hours of administration. However, fluids are absorbed when they are needed, and absorption is dependent on having adequate SQ blood flow, which can be decreased in severely hypothermic or dehydrated patients.
question
Which of the following small mammals has the longest life expectancy? Guinea pig Rabbit Chinchilla Hamster Rat
answer
The life expectancy of a chinchilla is 10 to 15 years. This exceeds the life expectancy of most other small mammals including rabbits (5 to 8 years depending on species), rats (3 years), guinea pigs (4 to 7 years) and hamsters (1.5 to 2 years). Other small mammals with relatively long life expectancies are ferrets (8 to 10 years) and sugar gliders (8 to 10 years).
question
Which disease may be transmitted to humans through aerosolization or direct handling of urine from an infected patient? Rabies West Nile Virus Leptospirosis Isospora
answer
Explanation - Leptospirosis is caused by a spirochete bacterium and is most often transmitted through direct contact with infected urine or infected fetus/vaginal discharge. It most commonly causes kidney and liver disease and is one of the most important zoonotic diseases of concern nationwide. It tends to be diagnosed most frequently in areas of high rainfall or where there are lakes or water sources, because the organism may survive in water. Rodents and wildlife are the most common reservoir hosts.
question
What is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise? Dehydration Small habitat enclosure Poor lighting Ingestion of sand substrate Poor thermoregulation
answer
Dehydration leads to crystallization of urates and causes bladder stone formation. Dehydration and improper diet are the two most common causes of bladder stones in tortoises, but poor husbandry in general may contribute.
question
What is the most likely period of time for a scrotal hernia to occur in a stallion? Shortly after heavy jumping Shortly after a trailer ride Shortly after breeding Shortly after a race
answer
Explanation - Newborn foals and breeding stallions are most commonly affected with scrotal hernias. In foals, the hernias may spontaneously resolve as long as they are addressed every time they occur. However, there is a risk that the herniated contents can become incarcerated, resulting in a surgical emergency. In breeding stallions, the contents usually become incarcerated and emergency surgery will be needed.
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What is the term used for increased urine output? Oliguria Polyuria Pollakiuria Anuria
answer
Polyuria is the term that describes increased amount of urination. Pollakiuria refers to an increase in frequency in urination. Oliguria is a decrease in urination. Anuria is the complete absence of urine formation.
question
Ovulation occurs during which part of the estrous cycle? Proestrus Anestrus Estrus Diestrus
answer
Estrus Ovulation occurs when a mature egg is released from the ovary and is available to be fertilized. It occurs in estrus or just shortly thereafter.
question
Which of the following is a classic symptom of pyometra? Increased drinking and urinating Hives Seizures Syncope
answer
Explanation - Pyometra is an infection in which the uterus fills with pus. It is most commonly caused by E. coli. It is an emergency in which ovariohysterectomy must be performed. Clinical symptoms include decreased appetite, lethargy, fever, and polyuria/polydipsia.
question
Sheep mostly breed during which season? Spring Summer Winter Fall
answer
Explanation - Sheep are polyestrous in the fall so they will give birth in the spring.
question
Which breed is most likely to have a portosystemic shunt? Labrador Rottweiler Yorkshire terrier Bedlington terrier
answer
A portosystemic shunt is an abnormal vessel that allows blood to bypass the liver. The Yorkshire terrier is overrepresented for this condition, but the condition can be seen in any breed. It is most common in toy breeds and dogs that are the "runt" of the litter.
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What is a symptom of myasthenia gravis? Weakness and muscle fatigue Hyperesthesia to touch Papules on the dermis Muscle rigidity
answer
Explanation - In Myasthenia gravis, there are few acetylcholine receptor sites (AChR) on the muscles, and acetylcholine is broken down before it can fully cause muscle stimulus. This results in muscle weakness, and with this condition, animals experience severe muscle fatigue.
question
What is the most common swine gastrointestinal parasite? Ascaris suum Trichuris suis Stephanurus dentatus Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
answer
Ascaris suum is the large roundworm of pigs. This parasite undergoes hepato-tracheal migration (the egg with L2 is ingested; the larvae undergo hepatic migration and molt to L3, then migrate to lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed. They molt two more times and become adult roundworms in the intestine). Stephanurus dentatus is the swine kidney worm. Erysipelothrix is a bacterium which causes diamond skin disease in pigs. Trichuris suis is the swine whipworm which lives in the cecum; it is also fairly common but not as common as the roundworm.
question
Where might you find the parasite Oestrus ovis? Under the skin of a cow Under the skin of a rabbit Nasal cavity of the sheep In the ear of a goat
answer
Oestrus ovis is the sheep nasal bot. Flies deposit their larvae around the nares. They enter the nasal cavity and migrate to the sinuses where they mature. They then leave the nose and pupate in the soil. The word "ovis" should have been a hint that the parasite is likely found in the sheep (ovine). Cuterebra is a bot that can be found under the skin, notably under a hole found on the skin in several different species. Hypoderma bovis is the warble fly whose larvae cause "warbles" or bumps under the skin in cattle.
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Which organism causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) in the horse? Gasterophilus intestinalis Sarcocystis neurona Haemonchus contortus Micronema deletrix
answer
EPM is caused by the aberrant migration of Sarcocystis neurona through the central nervous system of the horse. This causes variable clinical signs such as ataxia and muscle atrophy in the horse.
question
What is the most accurate method to estimate a horse's weight out on a farm call? Pick up a foot and use that weight to approximate the weight Use a weight measuring tape Approximate the weight by height Approximate the weight based on body condition score
answer
Specialized measuring tapes are commonly used to approximate the weight of a horse. There are markings that show weights and the tape is wrapped around the barrel of the horse just caudal to the withers.
question
What does Eimeria stiedai cause? Cloacal coccidiosis in chickens Hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits It is a non-pathogenic coccidia in horses Intestinal coccidiosis in dogs and cats
answer
Eimeria stiedai is the species of Eimeria that causes hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits. The rabbits ingest sporulated oocysts, which contain four sporozoites that hatch and travel via the hepatic portal vein to the liver and penetrate the bile duct epithelium. The schizonts in the bile duct cause bile duct hyperplasia; they block the bile duct, causing hepatomegaly, icterus, and liver failure.
question
The best locations to administer intramuscular injections, such as penicillin, to a horse include all of the following EXCEPT? Semitendinosus Semimembranosus Pectorals Muscles of the neck Epaxial muscles
answer
Explanation - The epaxial muscles, which are at the dorsum of the horse surrounding the vertebrae, are not an acceptable location for an intramuscular injection due to their relatively small size and location near the spinal cord. All the other injection sites are acceptable.
question
Which disease can cause a severe bradycardia that could be life-threatening? Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism Cushing's disease Portosystemic shunt Addison's disease
answer
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease) can cause a high potassium level (hyperkalemia) and can be life-threatening. Addison's occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol, resulting in a crisis. A low heart rate is often associated with high potassium. Sodium chloride is the fluid treatment of choice to help reduce the potassium.
question
What is the primary defense method for a pig? Kicking Striking Biting Running
answer
Pigs bite as a method of aggression. They will scream when frightened, but bite if challenged.
question
An owner presents her puppy for severe itching. The veterinarian diagnoses Sarcoptes mites with a superficial skin scraping. The owner wants to know if this mite is contagious to her and her children. What should you tell her? No, these mites are only contagious between dogs and cats Yes, these are highly contagious and can be easily passed between all species Yes, but the infections are transient, and her dog does not need treatment Yes, there can be a temporary transmission from her dog to those with direct contact, but the mites are host-specific and the infection is temporary
answer
Sarcoptic mites (scabies) from the dog can transfer to humans and cause skin irritation. However, since humans cannot host the canine sarcoptic mite, it dies off without treatment being required for the human, just the dog. Humans have their own sarcoptic mite that is contagious between humans. Notoedres cati causes feline scabies and is host-specific to the cat. It can also temporarily infect humans.
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Which of the following is an appropriate thing to do for a horse that is diagnosed with tetanus? Placed in a UV-lighted barn Have exercise increased daily to prevent muscle atrophy Turned out to pasture Kept in a dark stable with extra padding
answer
Horses with tetanus are light sensitive and are sensitive to loud noises and handling. It is best to keep affected horses in a dark, quiet, padded stall.
question
Which of the following is the best method for killing Parvovirus? Hydrogen peroxide Bleach Direct sunlight Alcohol
answer
A 1:30 (1 parts bleach to 30 parts water) will destroy parvovirus.
question
Which of the following mostly produces endotoxins? Gram-negative bacteria Intestinal parasites such as roundworms and hookworms Gram-positive bacteria Yeast and other fungal organisms
answer
Gram-negative bacteria release endotoxins (which are found in their cell wall) when they die
question
What is the most common blood type in cats in the United States? Type O Type AB Type A Type B
answer
Cats most commonly have type A blood. Some cats have type B blood, many of which are exotic-type species. Type B cats have strong anti-A alloantibodies, so type A blood given to a type B cat results in life-threatening acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. A cat should always have a blood type test before a transfusion.
question
You are asked to prepare a patient for a bone marrow aspirate. Which of the following sites are commonly used in dogs to obtain a bone marrow sample? Sternum or iliac crest Femoral head or sacrum Femoral condyle and greater tubercle of the humerus Humeral head and iliac crest
answer
The most common collection sites in the dog are the humeral head, iliac crest, and femoral canal. In cats, the femoral head can be used. In horses, bone marrow can be obtained from the sternum.
question
What is the primary reason a clinician collects an arterial blood sample (as compared to venous blood sample) when performing a blood gas analysis? Interested in knowing if the patient has an acidemia or alkalemia Interested in knowing if the patient has hypercapnea Interested in knowing the patient's anion gap Interested in knowing the patient's bicarbonate (HCO3) concentration Interested in knowing the oxygenation of the patient
answer
There will be mild-to-moderate differences in CO2, HCO3, and other variables between an arterial and venous blood gas sample. However, one of the primary reasons to collect an arterial sample is to evaluate how well the patient is oxygenating (patient's partial pressure of oxygen in blood). Thus, one of the main indications to perform an arterial blood gas is to evaluate the respiratory system of the patient.
question
The vomeronasal organ is closely associated with which sense? Taste Balance Smell Sight
answer
The vomeronasal organ is associated with olfaction, or smell. The Flehmen response sometimes seen in horses occurs when the horse extends its upper lip, facilitating exposure of this organ to better detect smells or pheromones. Next Question End Practice
question
What is the drug of choice for treating Tritrichomonas foetus in cats? Fenbendazole Metronidazole Sulfasalazine Ronidazole Sulfadimethoxine
answer
The only proven effective treatment for treating T. foetus is ronidazole. It is a nitroimidazole antimicrobial that has mutagenic properties and should be handled as would a chemotherapeutic agent. Ronidazole is not licensed for use in cats and is thus used off-label for this parasite; it should only be used with caution and with informed, signed, owner consent.
question
You are assisting with chemotherapy treatments. Which of the following is true regarding blood collection from chemotherapy patients? All chemotherapy patients should be sedated prior to blood draws The patient should not have blood drawn within 72 hours of their last chemotherapy treatment Do not use the jugular vein if possible All blood samples should be drawn from the jugular if possible
answer
- Blood should be drawn from the jugular veins when possible. Peripheral veins are spared for intravenous chemotherapy administration or for catheter placement during hospitalization stays. The other answer choices are false.
question
Socialization plays an important role in companion animal behavior. At what age is it vital that painful and/or traumatic experiences be avoided? 16-20 weeks 6 months 8-10 weeks 3-8 weeks
answer
- Between the ages of 8 and 10 weeks puppies experience a fear period. Because of this, painful and traumatic situations should be avoided. Between the ages of 3 and 8 weeks puppies socialize best with other dogs. At 16-20 weeks puppies go through a period when they are curious and exploring new environments.
question
Horner's syndrome can cause which of the following clinical symptoms? Miosis Mydriasis Exophthalmos Hind limb weakness
answer
Horner's syndrome can occur as a result of damage along the sympathetic trunk, especially as the trunk goes through the middle ear. Symptoms include miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid), enophthalmos, and third eyelid protrusion. At least three of these signs must be present to confirm the diagnosis. Weakness of the thoracic limb can also be present on the affected side.
question
You are examining a blind dog and want to know if the dog has a sense of smell. You wave a treat in front of the dog's nose, and he smells it right away. Which nerve were you testing? Cranial nerve X (ten) Cranial nerve V (five) Cranial nerve II (two) Cranial nerve I (one)
answer
The Olfactory nerve deals with the sense of smell and is Cranial nerve I. Cranial nerves: I-Olfactory nerve II-Optic nerve III-Oculomotor nerve IV-Trochlear nerve V-Trigeminal nerve VI-Abducens nerve VII-Facial nerve VIII-Vestibulocochlear nerve IX-Glossopharyngeal nerve X-Vagus nerve XI-Accessory nerve XII-Hypoglossal nerve
question
Determination of adequate passive transfer of maternal antibodies (IgG) to a neonatal foal is typically performed at what age? 10-12 hours of age 18-24 hours of age 2-4 hours of age 6-8 hours of age
answer
- Newborn foals are immunocompetent but have few antibodies in their body when they are born; thus, they rely on acquiring antibodies from their dam's colostrum. In the foal, the IgG should be checked around 18-24 hours of age to allow for the foal to absorb the maternal antibodies that are consumed. The foal's gut "closes" or loses its ability to absorb colostral antibodies around 18 hours of age.
question
You are getting the weight of a patient in the exam room and are going to write it in the record. What part of a SOAP record would you put the weight in? P A S O
answer
O is the objective part of the record. It requires facts. All other sections, S, A, and P are subjective parts. They require interpretation and opinion. S- subjective O- objective A- assessment P- plan
question
Canine parvovirus causes which of the following laboratory changes? Thrombocytopenia Hemolytic anemia Neutrophilia Neutropenia
answer
Parvoviral enteritis causes severe vomiting and diarrhea, which leads to dehydration and often sepsis and fever. The sepsis (overwhelming infection) leads to a low neutrophil count.
question
Which hormone is the main cause of milk letdown? Estrogen Oxytocin Progesterone Testosterone
answer
Oxytocin stimulates the milk letdown reflex. Progesterone and estrogen help with the growth of the mammary tissues that produce milk. Progesterone maintains a pregnancy. Testosterone is the principal male sex hormone.
question
A parrot presents because it is bleeding profusely from one of its feathers. What would likely be the best course of action to take after examination by the veterinarian? Place a tight wrap around the feather shaft Pull the feather out Cauterize the feather to stop bleeding Do not manipulate the feather and allow it to clot on its own
answer
Blood feathers are immature feathers that still have a blood supply to the shaft. The shaft usually appears dark as opposed to white or clear as would be seen in a mature feather. If one is cut or breaks from trauma, it can bleed profusely and not clot. The bird can actually die of blood loss in some cases. Typically, the best course of action is to pull the blood feather out. This is typically done using a hemostat and giving a firm pull.
question
Which of the following lists the correct order of the phases in the estrous cycle? Metestrus, proestrus, estrus, anestrus, diestrus Anestrus, diestrus, estrus, metestrus, proestrus Estrus, proestrus, diestrus, metestrus, anestrus Proestrus, estrus, metestrus, diestrus, anestrus
answer
Proestrus, estrus, metestrus, diestrus, anestrus Proestrus is the time when ovarian follicles are starting to grow. It immediately precedes estrus. Estrus is the time of actual heat when follicles are mature and ovulation occurs or can be induced depending on species. During Metestrus, estrogen stimulation subsides and the corpus luteum starts to form. The uterine lining begins to secrete small amounts of progesterone. Diestrus is regression of the corpus luteum. Anestrus is resting of the sexual cycle.
question
When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long as a minimum should the trial last? 48 hours 3 months 6 months 2 weeks
answer
For food-related skin allergies, a food trial should last at least 3 months. For possible food allergy manifesting as inflammatory bowel disease, the trial should last at least 3 weeks. A food trial should consist of a novel protein and a novel carbohydrate source such as Rabbit, Duck, Venison, etc. Another option is a diet with hydrolyzed proteins such that the body cannot form an immune response (Z/D is an example of this).
question
Horses with laminitis should be fed which type of diet? Alfalfa only Grains only Mixed hay and high-quality grains Mostly grass hay
answer
Mostly grass hay The cause of laminitis is multifactorial; however, a diet high in grains or grain overload has been identified as a potential cause. Also, alfalfa is higher in energy and protein, and consumption of this hay alone may attribute to laminitis in some horses. Therefore, horses with laminitis should be fed an average or mixed hay only and no grains.
question
What is the term given to the end of the spinal cord? Cordus altus Spinous terminata Cauda equina Corte finale
answer
The cauda equina is at the lower end of the spine and is made up of nerve roots. The base of this region includes around 3-5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and a coccygeal nerve. The reason it is called the cauda "equina" is that the appearance of this area grossly resembles a horse's tail.
question
Colic is a common condition in horses. Which of the following is not a common cause of colic? Enterolithiasis Displaced abomasum Intestinal incarceration Intestinal volvulus
answer
Horses are not ruminants and therefore do not have an abomasum. The abomasum is the fourth stomach in ruminants and functions in a similar fashion to a monogastric stomach. Enteroliths are stones that can form in the gastrointestinal tract that result in an obstruction. Intestinal incarceration is the trapping of intestines through a small opening. Finally, an intestinal volvulus occurs when a section of intestine spins about its axis and occludes its own blood supply.
question
Where is the sinoatrial node located? Ventricular septum Left ventricle Right atrium Left atrium
answer
- The sinoatrial node provides automaticity to the heart and is located on the right atrium. The impulse then travels to the atrioventricular node which then conducts the impulse down the Bundle of His to the Purkinje fibers. This pattern of depolarization results in a very coordinated contraction of the heart, allowing for smooth blood flow.
question
Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium? Testosterone Cortisol Progesterone Estrogen Prolactin
answer
The correct answer is estrogen. As estrogen rises during proestrus, the vaginal epithelium proliferates, cornifies, and keratinizes, presumably in preparation for mating.
question
Ocular larval migrans is a zoonotic disease caused by which parasite? Toxocara canis Taenia taeniaformis Ancylostoma caninum Uncinaria stenocephala Dipylidium caninum
answer
Toxocara canis (a roundworm) is the cause of Ocular and Visceral larva migrans. It is transmitted fecal-oral. Backyards, sandboxes, parks, and beaches accessible to dogs are often contaminated with Toxocara ova, which can remain infective for years. These areas can be exposure sites for people (especially children) who accidentally ingest the infective eggs. Ancylostoma and Uncinaria are hookworms and can cause Cutaneous larva migrans.
question
Which parasite is commonly passed from a mother to her young via the transmammary route? Coccidia Giardia Whipworms Tapeworms Hookworms
answer
A common mode of hookworm transmission (Ancylostoma) is transmammary (nursing) through infected milk
question
What is the most common location of an intravenous catheter in the horse? Saphenous vein Cephalic vein Auricular vein Jugular vein Femoral vein
answer
The jugular vein is very accessible and carries a low risk of injury to the person placing the catheter when compared to trying to place a catheter on a limb. Jugular veins are large and easy to find along the neck of the horse as well as easy to maintain.
question
What zoonotic pathogen might a technician contract from treating a 10 day old dairy calf with diarrhea? Leptospira pomona Staphylococcus aureus Cryptosporidium parvum Francisella tularensis E. coli 0157
answer
Cryptosporidium is a major cause of calf diarrhea, and just a few oocysts can be infective to humans and cause diarrhea lasting several days.
question
You are assisting with a bone marrow aspirate on a dog with suspected neoplasia. You are asked to make slides to send to the laboratory with the samples the veterinarian is collecting. Which describes proper technique for this? Place a drop on the slide and place another slide on top in an up-and-down motion to press the cells firmly onto the slide Place a drop on the slide but do not make a pull smear or press the cells, just let air dry as-is Place a drop on one end of the slide, tilt slightly and make a pull smear Place a drop on the slide and place 1 drop of 0.9% saline onto the drop to dilute and let dry
answer
Pull smears should be made of bone marrow samples. The pull smear should be in a light fashion as to spread the fluid but not to crush the samples. The sample should be dried immediately to preserve integrity of the cells. A blow dryer can assist by quickening drying time. A stain of one of the slides should be performed to make sure the sample appears adequate before submission
question
Newborn mice are often called which of the following? Colts Kits Pups Squabs
answer
Newborn mice are also referred to as pups or sometimes pinkies. They are pink and hairless and blind and deaf when born. Newborn rabbits are called kits and are also blind, deaf, and hairless when born. Ferrets are also called kits. Guinea pigs are also referred to as pups and are "precocious" when born. This means their eyes are open and they are aware and can see and hear and walk from birth.
question
What is a pulse deficit? When a pulse is synchronous with a heartbeat When an extra pulse occurs sporadically When no pulses are palpable in a patient When some heart beats do not result in a palpable pulse
answer
When some heart beats do not result in a palpable pulse A pulse deficit is the condition in which a peripheral pulse rate is less than the ventricular contraction rate because some heart beats do not create a palpable pulse. This can be indicative of a lack of peripheral perfusion.
question
Feline toxoplasmosis most often presents with which type of symptoms? Neurologic Intestinal Respiratory Cardiovascular
answer
Most cats infected with Toxoplasma gondii will not show any symptoms. When disease does occur, it typically occurs when the cat's immune response is suppressed. Fever, loss of appetite, and lethargy can be symptoms. Most commonly, neurologic symptoms occur including seizures or circling. Uveitis can be seen. Toxoplasmosis is treated with Clindamycin.
question
Of the choices below, which tick is correctly matched with the corresponding disease transmitted? Rhiphacephalus, Lyme disease Ixodes, Lyme disease Dermacentor, Ehrlichia Ixodes, Ehrlichia
answer
The correct tick to rickettsial disease pairs: Rhiphacephalus (brown dog tick), Ehrlichia Ixodes (deer tick), Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi) Dermacentor, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (Rickettsia rickettsii)
question
Which of the following disorders is caused by a Type IV hypersensitivity, also known as delayed type hypersensitivity, as a result of a T-cell response to an antigen? Glomerulonephritis Contact allergy to plastic Atopy Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
answer
There are 4 types of hypersensitivity. Type I is known as immediate hypersensitivity and results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. Common examples are atopy and anaphylaxis. Type II hypersensitivity is known as antibody-mediated hypersensitivity and results from antibodies directed against one's own cells. An example is autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Type III hypersensitivity is known as immune complex disease and occurs when antibodies and antigens form complexes that collect and cause problems. Glomerulonephritis can be caused by type III hypersensitivity. Type IV hypersensitivity is a delayed hypersensitivity that results from T-lymphocytes reacting against antigens. Examples include certain contact allergies (such as poison ivy) or from plastic food dishes (in some dogs).
question
After parturition, it is normal for the bitch to have a reddish brown vaginal discharge for a few weeks. This discharge is referred to as which of the following? Lochia Pyuria Melena Meconium
answer
- Lochia is the term for the reddish brown discharge following birth. Melena is digested blood in the stool. Meconium is the dark intestinal excretion (first stool essentially) from a newborn. Pyuria is the presence of pus in the urine.
question
Flea allergy dermatitis is a very common cause of pruritus in dogs in endemic areas. This is usually an allergy to what? Flea feces Flea eggs Flea cytoskeleton (chitin) Flea saliva
answer
Many pets are allergic to flea saliva and it causes a dermatologic hypersensitivity. It may manifest with symptoms of pruritus, erythematous skin, secondary pyodermas, and hot spots.
question
What is the best way to restrain a foal? Use a halter It is too dangerous to restrain a foal, it is best just to corner them and not use restraint Remove the foal from its mother and cradle one hand under the neck and the other under the abdomen Cradle one hand under the neck and grasp the base of the tail with the other hand
answer
It is best to keep the foal with the mother. Foals are unpredictable and not trained to use a halter. Best control is achieved when cradling one hand under the neck and grasping the tail base with the other hand.
question
What is the biggest complication in patients with megaesophagus? Aspiration pneumonia Anemia Spinal cord compression Glaucoma
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Megaesophagus patients are at a high risk of aspirating due their high incidence of regurgitation.
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The fetlock joint of a horse refers to what structure? Metacarpophalangeal joint Distal interphalangeal joint Proximal interphalangeal joint Carpometacarpal joint
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The fetlock in a horse is the common or lay term for the metacarpophalangeal joint. In the horse, the proximal phalanx (pastern bone) lies immediately distal to the third metacarpal bone (also known as the cannon bone), with which it articulates to form the condylar metacarpophalangeal joint (fetlock joint). The middle phalanx or second phalanx lies distal to the proximal phalanx, forming the proximal interphalangeal joint known as the pastern joint. The distal phalanx (coffin bone), is the most distal bone of the forelimb, and lies completely within the hoof capsule. The distal phalanx articulates with both the middle phalanx and the distal sesamoid, forming the distal interphalangeal joint known as the coffin joint.
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Most distemper-parvo vaccinations are of which type? Modified live virus Canarypox Killed virus Cellular antigen extract
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Most distemper and parvo vaccinations are modified live virus vaccinations. Rabies is a killed virus vaccination in general. There is a feline-only rabies vaccination that is a canarypox vaccine. The injectable form of Bordetella vaccine is a cellular antigen extract vaccine.
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The natural ovulatory season for mares in the northern hemisphere occurs during approximately which months? March - May April - August September - November December - February
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The natural ovulatory season for mares occurs during April through August and September in the northern hemisphere. Some horse breeders will induce early ovulatory cycles in mares by supplying artificial lighting during the winter months.
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The menace test will elicit which response? Which two nerves is this testing? Ear twitch, Cranial nerves V and III Gag reflex, Cranial nerves XII and VIII Blink, Cranial nerves II and VII Smell, Cranial nerves I and IV
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The menace is when you wave your hand to the eye to try and elicit a blinking response. This is testing vision via the Optic nerve (Cranial nerve II). I-Olfactory nerve (smell) II-Optic nerve III-Oculomotor nerve IV-Trochlear nerve V-Trigeminal nerve (sensory to the face) VI-Abducens nerve VII-Facial nerve VIII-Vestibulocochlear nerve IX-Glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory for gag reflex) X-Vagus nerve (motor for gag reflex) XI-Accessory nerve XII-Hypoglossal nerve
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The parathyroid gland is responsible for which of the following? Making insulin Releasing catecholamines Maintaining blood calcium level Causing milk letdown
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The parathyroid gland is responsible for regulating and maintaining blood calcium levels. The four parathyroid glands are located on or near the thyroid gland. When parathyroid hormone is released into the blood, it circulates to act in a number of places to increase the amount of calcium in the blood (ie. removing calcium from bones). When the calcium level in the blood is too high, the cells of the parathyroids make less parathyroid hormone (or stop making it altogether), thereby allowing calcium levels to decrease. Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) are released by the adrenal medulla. Insulin is made by the pancreas. Milk letdown and uterine contractions are stimulated by oxytocin, which is released by the pituitary gland.
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What is the basic structural and functional unit of the kidney? Glomerulus Nephron Neuron Hepatocyte
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The nephron's job is to regulate the concentration of water and salts by filtering the blood, absorbing what is needed, and excreting the rest as urine. It eliminates waste from the body, regulates blood volume and blood pressure, controls electrolyte and metabolite levels, and regulates blood pH. The glomerulus is a cluster of vessels located within Bowman's capsule and is the main filter of the nephron. Hepatocytes are liver cells.
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Counting 20 heartbeats in a 15 second time period means the patient's heart rate is how many beats per minute? 60 120 40 80
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The number of heartbeats counted in 15 seconds is multiplied by 4 because there are FOUR 15 second blocks within a 1 minute time frame. 15 x FOUR= 60 seconds. 4 x 20= 80 beats per minute.
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Which of the following areas should be avoided when giving intramuscular injections in cattle? Gluteal muscles Shoulders Neck Pectoral muscles
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The gluteal region should be avoided because of increased chance of injection-induced abscesses at this site.
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What is the best way to restrain a unwilling rat for an exam? Sitting in the palm of your hand Scruffed just like a cat Thumb and forefinger under front legs, other hand at base of tail Grab at tip of tail and compress body to table
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Rats require restraint when they have not been handled much. The best restraint method is to place your thumb and forefinger under their front legs while applying gentle tension on the base of the tail. Rats cannot be handled by the tip of the tail because they can slough the skin, leaving the vertebrae exposed. Scruffing a rat produces an exaggerated fear response and is best not done.
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Regarding fluid types, which cannot be given subcutaneously? 0.9% NaCl Lactated Ringers 5% Dextrose Isolyte
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Only use isotonic fluids for subcutaneous administration. This means that the osmotic properties are equal to that of the extracellular fluid. Dextrose given subcutaneously can cause sloughing of the skin and abscess formation.
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On average, cows have their estrous cycle how often? Every 30 days Every 6 months Every 60 days Every 21 days
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Cows are non-seasonal polyestrous (have estrous cycles year-round). The average estrous cycle in the cow is 21 days (every 18-24 days).
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The heart rate of an adult cat should range between which of the following? 30-60 bpm 80-120 bpm 120-150 bpm 150-220 bpm
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- An adult cat typically has a resting heart rate between 150-220 bpm. Keep in mind that if the cat is very excited the heart rate might be faster. A dog's heart rate ranges between 70-160 bpm. As with the cat, there may be variation. Remember that puppies and kittens will have faster heart rates.
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Which of the following is NOT considered a clinically important large strongyle in the horse? Strongylus edentatus Strongylus equinus Strongylus vulgaris Strongylus equorum
answer
Strongylus vulgaris, Strongylus edentatus, and Strongylus equinus are the large strongyles of horses. Strongylus equorum does not exist. Although Parascaris equorum is a relevant parasite (round worm) in foals,
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The "hock joint" of a horse is more appropriately identified as what structure? Distal interphalangeal joint Tarsometatarsal joint Tarsocrural joint Metatarsophalangeal joint
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The hock joint, more specifically called the tarsocrurual joint in the horse, is a high-motion joint composed of numerous bones.
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Delivering puppies and kittens can be a rewarding experience and a procedure that the technician should always be ready to perform. What are the basic steps that need to be taken once a puppy or kitten is delivered? Bathe newborn in dilute chlorhexadine solution, massage gently, remove secretions from mouth and nose Inject with vitamin B complex subcutaneously, flip patient upside down, dry newborn, massage gently, and remove secretions from mouth and nose Massage gently, vaccinate for rabies virus, dry and suction any secretions from mouth and nose Dry the newborn, massage gently, dry and suction any secretions from mouth and nose
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The correct handling of a newborn kitten or puppy involves drying the infant, massaging the body gently to help stimulate breathing, and removing any secretions from the mouth or nose. One of the most important concerns is maintaining a warm body temperature for the newborn. Bathing would result in hypothermia and is not recommended. An injection of vitamin B complex is not necessary, and the neonates are also too young to receive a rabies vaccination. Rabies vaccinations are typically not administered until the kittens or puppies are 4 months of age.
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An individual believes that no kill shelters are the correct moral standard for professional behavior. This is an example of which branch of ethics? Normal ethics Official ethics Administrative ethics Descriptive ethics
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Normal ethics are defined as: An individual's attempt to discover what he or she believes to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior.
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Mulberry heart disease in swine is caused by which of the following? Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae Toxicity of eating the fruit of mulberry plants Strict confinement Vitamin E deficiency
answer
Mulberry heart disease is a common form of Vitamin E and selenium deficiency in pigs. It typically occurs due to a lack of these vitamins in the feed. It can cause sudden death and difficulty breathing due to fluid accumulation around the muscles, including the heart, in which the pericardial sac becomes grossly distended. It also causes cardiac muscle necrosis.
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Gout is an accumulation of which of the following? Urea Uric acid Cholesterol Bilirubin Albumin
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Uric acid Gout occurs when uric acid accumulates, usually due to poor nitrogen metabolism and excretion.
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Which test checks for keratoconjunctivitis sicca? Fluoroscein stain Schirmer Tear Test Tonometry Nasolacrimal flush
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The Schirmer Tear Test is the test for keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS), or most commonly known as "dry eye". Tonometry is the measurement of intraocular pressures and tests for glaucoma, which is increased pressure in the eye. Fluoroscein stain checks for corneal ulcers or abrasions; it is a yellow dye that these defects will uptake on the cornea and can be seen under a blue light. Nasolacrimal flush is used to flush/clear out the nasolacrimal duct (tear duct) if it becomes clogged.
question
The fetlock joint of a horse refers to what structure? Metacarpophalangeal joint Proximal interphalangeal joint Carpometacarpal joint Distal interphalangeal joint
answer
The fetlock in a horse is the common or lay term for the metacarpophalangeal joint. In the horse, the proximal phalanx (pastern bone) lies immediately distal to the third metacarpal bone (also known as the cannon bone), with which it articulates to form the condylar metacarpophalangeal joint (fetlock joint). The middle phalanx or second phalanx lies distal to the proximal phalanx, forming the proximal interphalangeal joint known as the pastern joint. The distal phalanx (coffin bone), is the most distal bone of the forelimb, and lies completely within the hoof capsule. The distal phalanx articulates with both the middle phalanx and the distal sesamoid, forming the distal interphalangeal joint known as the coffin joint.
question
A pet-sitter is holding a 4-year old male intact Bichon while the veterinarian examines a rash on the dog's abdomen; you are assisting with a skin scraping. The dog reaches back and bites the pet-sitter on the arm. She had insisted on holding the dog for examination despite the posted sign (see image). This dog has been known to be aggressive in the past. If the pet-sitter seeks compensation for being bit, who is most likely to be found liable for her injury? The dog's owner This would be considered an accident and fault of both parties, therefore no one is liable. The veterinarian The pet-sitter is liable and therefore no damages can be claimed You, the technician
answer
Even though the owner insisted on holding the dog for the exam, the veterinarian could still be liable for the owner's injury. While most clients would not pursue damages for an incident such as this, courts have ruled that veterinarians are liable if a pet hurts its owner while the two are located on the premises of a veterinary hospital. The best solution to prevent this is to have a technician or assistant trained to restrain animals hold the patients for examination. It is a good idea for a veterinary practice to post a sign in each exam room stating that owners please not ask to restrain pets during exam and this rule should be enforced. In animals that are known to be aggressive, a muzzle should be placed prior to the exam for the safety of all involved.
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Which of the following are treatments for hyperthyroidism? Methimazole and radioactive iodine Levothyroxine and I-131 Metronidazole and Levothyroxine Levamisole and I-131
answer
Hyperthyroidism (elevated thyroid level) in cats is treated with radioactive iodine or methimazole. I-131 and radioactive iodine are the same thing. Levothyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism (thyroid level is too low).
question
A cat is starting weekly subcutaneous fluid administration for renal failure at the clinic where you work. The client asks how long it will take for him to absorb the fluids after they are given. You tell him most cats will absorb the fluid within: 1 hour 24 hours 48 hours 5-8 hours
answer
- Subcutaneous fluids are most commonly absorbed within 5 to 8 hours of administration. However, fluids are absorbed when they are needed, and absorption is dependent on having adequate SQ blood flow, which can be decreased in severely hypothermic or dehydrated patients.
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Why should pigs be fed from a bin or trough and not on the ground? It causes them to swallow excessive amounts of air It causes gastroesophageal reflux They cannot swallow well unless their food is elevated from the floor To prevent development of trichobezoars
answer
A trichobezoar is a ball of swallowed hair that collects in the stomach and can fail to pass through the intestines. Pigs are constantly shedding hair, so it accumulates on the ground; when eating food off that ground, pigs will ingest enough over time to put them at risk for formation of a trichobezoar.
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What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host of a parasite? The parasite's adult or sexual stage lives on the animal The animal is where the parasite develops from larval to nymph form The animal is where the parasite develops from nymph to adult form The animal is another vertebrate that serves as a source of infection for humans or domestic animals The parasite does not undergo development on the animal
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- A paratenic host is also known as a transport host. This indicates a type of intermediate host on which a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage. The definitive host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite. The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite. A reservoir host is another vertebrate host for a parasite that serves as a source of infection for people or domestic animals.
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What are hoof testers used for in horses? Test hardness Test for pain Test if wide enough to support weight Test thickness
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Explanation - The hoof tester is use to apply pressure over parts of the hoof, to see if a pain response results.
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The fetus does most of its growing during which time period? Third trimester Second trimester It grows at the same rate throughout gestation First trimester
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Most of the development of the fetus occurs in the first trimester; most of the growth occurs in the third trimester.
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What is commonly done to get a mare to cycle out of season? Administration of oxytocin Keep a stallion in the same barn Artificial lighting Manual manipulation of the ovaries via rectal palpation
answer
Artificial lighting Most breeders prefer for a foal to be born early in the year. This is because all horses are considered 1 year old on January 1 no matter when they are born. Many mares are not cycling at the right time for this to occur, so artificial lighting is used to trick the mare that it is the breeding season. While keeping a stallion in the barn may be of benefit, horses are seasonally polyestrous, so they cycle when there are longer days, typically March-September. 16 hours of artificial light mimics this time period. Oxytocin is the hormone responsible for milk letdown. Palpation of the ovaries does not cause cycling.
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What equine gastrointestinal parasite, when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mucous membranes, is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores? Strongylus vulgaris Habronema spp. Strongyloides westeri Onchocerca cervicalis Oxyuris equi
answer
Habronema spp. and Draschia spp. are stomach worms of the horse. The larvae in feces are ingested by the maggots of flies, and the flies can deposit them at susceptible moist skin areas, damaged skin areas, or mucous membranes where the larvae cause an eosinophilic granuloma as a reaction to their migration.
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What does bog spavin describe? Rotation of the coffin joint Abscessation of the hoof wall Tarsocrural effusion Inflammation of the superficial digital flexor tendon
answer
Bog spavin is a term used in the equine field. It describes the accumulation of synovial fluid in the tarsocrural joint. Rotation of the coffin joint occurs with laminitis. "Bowed tendon" and tendonitis are the descriptive terms for inflammation of a tendon. If in the correct location the abscessed hoof wall may be termed a subsolar abscess. These result in extreme pain and lameness and must be distinguished from laminitis.
