TF2.0 – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
1. Risks can have both negative and positive effects on meeting project objectives.
answer
T
question
2. A risk-seeking person prefers outcomes that are more uncertain and is often willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
answer
T
question
3. The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address this knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning.
answer
F
question
4. Unknown risks can be managed proactively.
answer
F
question
5. Contingency plans are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs.
answer
T
question
6. Brainstorming is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events.
answer
F
question
7. The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups.
answer
F
question
8. The Delphi technique is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events.
answer
T
question
9. Risk events refer to specific, certain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project.
answer
F
question
10. A probability/impact matrix or chart lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.
answer
T
question
11. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking is a quantitative risk analysis tool.
answer
F
question
12. The Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) includes a risk management model that includes developing and monitoring a top-ten master list of risks.
answer
T
question
13. Quantitative risk analysis need not be done for projects that are large and complex.
answer
T
question
14. The lower the earned monetary value calculation for a project, the chances of project success is higher.
answer
F
question
15. The Monte Carlo analysis can predict the probability of finishing by a certain date or the probability that the cost will be equal to or less than a certain value.
answer
T
question
16. Identified risks may not materialize, or their probabilities of occurrence or loss may diminish.
answer
T
question
17. The risk register can be created with a simple Microsoft Word or Excel file.
answer
T
question
1. Overrun is the additional percentage amount by which estimates exceed actual costs.
answer
F
question
2. The primary output of the planning cost management process is a change request.
answer
F
question
3. IT project managers must be able to present and discuss project information both in financial and technical terms.
answer
T
question
4. Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.
answer
T
question
5. Intangible costs can be easily measured in monetary terms.
answer
F
question
6. When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, one should include sunk costs.
answer
F
question
7. It is important for project managers to focus on indirect costs because they can be easily controlled.
answer
F
question
8. If an important supplier goes out of business, management reserves can be set aside to cover the resulting costs.
answer
T
question
9. Contingency reserves are also known as unknown unknowns.
answer
F
question
10. A cost management plan can include organizational procedures links, control thresholds, and process descriptions.
answer
T
question
11. A budgetary estimate is the most accurate of the three types of estimates.
answer
F
question
12. Budgetary estimates are made even before a project is officially started.
answer
F
question
13. Definitive estimates are made one year or less prior to project completion.
answer
T
question
14. Estimates should become more accurate as time progresses.
answer
T
question
15. Supporting details for an estimate include the ground rules and assumptions used in creating the estimate.
answer
T
question
16. Analogous estimates are called activity-based costing.
answer
F
question
17. Analogous estimates are the most accurate technique to estimate costs.
answer
F
question
18. In a bottom-up estimate, the size of the individual work items is one of the factors that drives the accuracy of the estimates.
answer
T
question
19. Parametric models are reliable when the models are flexible in terms of the project's size.
answer
T
question
20. One of the reasons why project cost estimates are inaccurate is because human beings are biased toward underestimation.
answer
T
question
21. It is important for project managers to understand that every cost estimate is unique.
answer
T
question
22. Determining the budget involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual work items over time.
answer
T
question
23. The project management plan and project funding requirements are inputs of the process of controlling costs.
answer
T
question
24. The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.
answer
T
question
25. If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work costs more than planned.
answer
F
question
26. A negative schedule variance means that it took lesser than planned to perform the work.
answer
F
question
27. If the cost performance index (CPI) is less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.
answer
F
question
28. A schedule performance index of one means that the project is on schedule.
answer
T
question
29. In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, it indicates that costs are less than planned.
answer
F
question
30. Spreadsheets are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.
answer
T
question
1. Scope refers to all the work involved in creating the products of the project and the processes used to create them.
answer
T
question
2. Deliverables are only product-related, such as a piece of hardware or software.
answer
F
question
3. Project scope management includes the processes involved in defining and controlling what is or is not included in a project.
answer
T
question
4. The scope management plan can be informal and broad or formal and detailed, based on the needs of the project.
answer
T
question
5. The project's size, complexity, importance, and other factors do not affect how much effort is spent on collecting requirements for scope planning.
answer
F
question
6. Information from the project charter provides a basis for further defining the project scope.
answer
T
question
7. Project scope statements must include the project boundaries, constraints, and assumptions.
answer
F
question
8. The scope of a project is clear and specific from the start.
answer
F
question
9. Many information technology projects also require detailed functional and design specifications for developing software, which also should be referenced in the detailed scope statement.
answer
T
question
10. The project scope statement should reference supporting documents, such as product specifications that will affect what products are produced or purchased, or corporate policies, which might affect how products or services are produced.
answer
T
question
11. The project scope statement, stakeholder requirements documentation, and organizational process assets are the primary inputs for creating a WBS.
answer
T
question
12. The scope baseline in a WBS consists of the requirements documentation and enterprise environmental factors.
answer
F
question
13. The WBS is organized solely around project phases.
answer
F
question
14. A work package represents one component of the product that the project aims to deliver.
answer
F
question
15. A work package must always represent less than 80 hours of work.
answer
F
question
16. The tasks in a WBS must be developed as a sequential list of steps.
answer
F
question
17. The executing tasks of the WBS remain constant from project to project.
answer
F
question
18. Many organizations provide different guidelines and templates for developing WBSs.
answer
T
question
19. Mind mapping allows people to write and even draw pictures of ideas in a nonlinear format.
answer
T
question
20. The format of the WBS dictionary is essentially the same for all projects.
answer
F
question
21. A unit of work should appear at only one place in the WBS.
answer
T
question
2. In project time management, the primary output of defining activities is a schedule management plan.
answer
F
question
3. In project time management, the next step after sequencing activities is to define these activities.
answer
F
question
4. Project schedules grow out of basic documents such as the project charter.
answer
T
question
5. A schedule management plan includes information which describes the format and frequency of schedule reports required for the project.
answer
T
question
6. To define activities, the project team should start with reviewing the schedule management plan, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational processes.
answer
T
question
7. It is important for the activity list and activity attributes to be in agreement with the work breakdown structure.
answer
T
question
8. Milestones are easy to achieve and are always achieved through one main activity.
answer
F
question
9. After defining project activities, the next step in project time management is developing the schedule.
answer
F
question
10. A dependency pertains to the sequencing of project activities or tasks.
answer
T
question
11. Network diagrams are the preferred technique for showing activity sequencing.
answer
T
question
12. The arrows in a network diagram represent missed milestones in a project.
answer
F
question
13. In a network diagram, it is mandatory for every item on the WBS to be shown instead of only those activities with dependencies.
answer
F
question
14. A merge occurs when one node precedes mutiple nodes.
answer
F
question
15. Start-to-finish relationships are the most frequently used dependencies between activities.
answer
F
question
16. A drawback of the precedence diagramming method is that it cannot be used unless dummy activities are employed.
answer
F
question
17. In project time management, one should control the scheule before estimating the duration for each activity.
answer
F
question
18. In a Gantt chart, thick black bars represent milestones achieved in a project.
answer
F
question
19. A Tracking Gantt chart is based on the percentage of work completed for project tasks or the actual start and finish dates.
answer
T
question
20. A disadvantage of using Gantt charts is that they do not provide a standard format for displaying planned project schedule information.
answer
F
question
21. In a critical path analysis, the shortest path is what drives the completion date for the project.
answer
F
question
22. The critical path on a project can change as the project progresses.
answer
T
question
23. A backward pass through the network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.
answer
F
question
24. Knowing the amount of float allows project managers to know whether a project schedule is flexible.
answer
T
question
25. The main disadvantage of crashing is that it lengthens the time needed to finish a project.
answer
F
question
26. The technique of fast tracking can result in lengthening the project schedule.
answer
T
question
27. Critical chain scheduling assumes that resources multitask and maximizes multitasking.
answer
F
question
28. One of PERT's main disadvantages is that it does not address the risk associated with duration estimates.
answer
F
question
29. The final process in project time management is developing the schedule.
answer
F
question
30. A drawback of the project management software is that it does not have the capacity to calculate the critical path(s) for a project.
answer
F