Conversation. Katz thinks joint decisionmaking is the ideal, where doctors disclose and advise and patients choose. This is the result of a meaningful conversation (give and take). This requires that alternative treatments be discussed, not just potential risks of the treatment.

Jay Katz thinks informed consent is more effectively achieved by which of the following methods or standards? More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/biomedical-ethics-practice-test-2-36444/

Mazie’s mom is loving and nurturing, sets clear boundaries, and engages in a lot of verbal give and take. In terms of parenting styles, she would be described as

authoritative. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/final-exam-psychology/

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Public Speaking Test 3 Study Guide: – Flashcards 250 terms

Alexander Barker

250 terms

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Public Speaking Test 3 Study Guide: – Flashcards

question

Good speech delivery a. is accompanied by frequent gestures .b. requires that the speaker have a strong voice. c. sounds conversational even though it has been rehearsed. d. draws the attention of the audience away from the message. e. is best achieved by reading from a manuscript.

answer

c. sounds conversational even though it has been rehearsed.

question

Good speech delivery a. has a conversational quality. b. does not call attention to itself. c. requires a strong voice. d. all of the above. e. a and b only.

answer

e. a and b only.

question

Communication based on a speaker's body and voice, rather than on the use of words, is called a. implicit communication. b. nonverbal communication. c. unintentional communication. d. instinctive communication. e. physical communication.

answer

b. nonverbal communication.

question

In which situation would a speaker be most likely to read from a manuscript? a. a speech accepting an award at a company banquet b. a speech in honor of a retiring employee c. a speech on international policy at the United Nations d. a speech on the activities of a church social committee e. a speech of welcome to new members of the Rotary Club

answer

c. a speech on international policy at the United Nations

question

A political candidate is running for office and must give a speech that will lay out the details of her platform. The speech will be widely covered by newspapers and television. What kind of delivery is the candidate most likely to use? a. manuscript b. impromptu c. monotonous d. colloquial e. memorized

answer

a. manuscript

question

When speaking from a manuscript, you should a. practice aloud to make sure the speech sounds natural. b. be certain the final manuscript is legible at a glance. c. work on establishing eye contact with the audience. d. all of the above. e. a and b only.

answer

d. all of the above.

question

In which situation would a speaker be most likely to recite a speech from memory? a. when making a toast at a wedding b. when responding to questions during a class lecture c. when reporting earnings to the yearly stockholders' meeting d. when presenting a lengthy proposal to the city council e. when rallying a group to work for lower tuition

answer

a. when making a toast at a wedding

question

According to your textbook, the __________ speaker delivers a speech with little or no immediate preparation. a. colloquial b. extemporaneous c. conversational d. impromptu e. declamatory

answer

d. impromptu

question

Which of the following does your textbook recommend when you need to speak impromptu? a. Maintain eye contact with the audience. b. Use signposts to help listeners keep track of your ideas. c. Tell the audience how nervous you are. d. all of the above e. a and b only

answer

e. a and b only

question

Diego needs to make an impromptu response to another speaker at a staff meeting. Your textbook recommends that he should do all of the following except a. state the point he is answering. b. state the point he wishes to make. c. maintain eye contact with the audience. d. tell the audience how nervous he is about impromptu speaking. e. use signposts to help the audience keep track of his ideas.

answer

d. tell the audience how nervous he is about impromptu speaking.

question

The __________ speaker uses only brief notes or a speaking outline to jog the memory. a. after-dinner b. commemorative c. informative d. extemporaneous e. persuasive

answer

d. extemporaneous

question

A speech that is fully prepared in advance but that is delivered from a brief set of notes or a speaking outline is called a(n) __________ speech. a. extemporaneous b. declamatory c. impromptu d. manuscript e. vocalized

answer

a. extemporaneous

question

Speaking extemporaneously a. gives more control over language than does speaking from memory. b. is adaptable to more situations than is speaking from manuscript. c. offers more spontaneity and directness than does speaking impromptu. d. all of the above. e. b and c only.

answer

b. is adaptable to more situations than is speaking from manuscript.

question

Which of the following does your textbook mention as an advantage of extemporaneous delivery? a. It requires only a minimal amount of gesturing by the speaker. b. It reduces the likelihood of a speaker making vocalized pauses. c. It improves a speaker's ability to articulate difficult words correctly. d. It requires little or no preparation before the speech is delivered. e. It allows greater spontaneity than does speaking from a manuscript.

answer

e. It allows greater spontaneity than does speaking from a manuscript.

question

Which of the following does your textbook mention as an advantage of using visual aids in a public speech? a. Using visual aids enhances the clarity of the speaker's message. b. Using visual aids reduces the need for eye contact with the audience. c. Using visual aids can help combat the speaker's stage fright. d. all of the above e. a and c only

answer

e. a and c only

question

According to your textbook, which of the following is an advantage of using visual aids in a speech? a. Using visual aids can increase the clarity of a speaker's message. b. Using visual aids can increase the audience's retention of a speaker's message. c. Using visual aids can increase the persuasiveness of a speaker's message. d. all of the above e. a and b only

answer

d. all of the above

question

Visual aids can be very useful to a speaker because they a. often take the place of statistics. b. enhance the clarity of a speaker's ideas. c. can be passed among members of the audience. d. do not require a great deal of explanation. e. all of the above.

answer

b. enhance the clarity of a speaker's ideas.

question

Visual aids are often helpful to a speaker because they can a. enhance the clarity of a speaker's ideas. b. make information more interesting to listeners. c. help listeners retain a speaker's ideas. d. all of the above. e. a and b only.

answer

d. all of the above.

question

If the object you want to use as a visual aid is not available, the next best option ideally is a a. model. b. chart. c. slide. d. photograph. e. drawing.

answer

a. model.

question

As your textbook explains, if you plan to use a photograph as a visual aid in a speech, you should usually a. display the photograph with PowerPoint. b. pass the photograph among the audience so everyone can look at it. c. use a photograph in an oversize book and hold it where it can be seen. d. all of the above. e. b and c only.

answer

a. display the photograph with PowerPoint.

question

__________ are especially valuable for showing an audience statistical trends and patterns. a. Models b. Diagrams c. Transparencies d. Blueprints e. Graphs

answer

e. Graphs

question

If you were discussing statistical trends in a speech, what kind of visual aid would probably work best to clarify the trends for listeners? a. a chart b. a map c. a diagram d. a graph e. a model

answer

d. a graph

question

A __________ graph is best suited for showing changes in statistics over time or space. a. pie b. line c. distributive d. parallel e. ratio

answer

b. line

question

If you wanted to compare the changes over the last 10 years in the number of people who get their news from newspapers and the number of people who get their news from the Internet, the best kind of visual aid would probably be a a. pie graph. b. diagram. c. chart. d. line graph. e. wave graph.

answer

d. line graph.

question

Which of the following would probably be the best kind of visual aid to illustrate the rising cost of a college degree? a. a line graph b. a chart c. a diagram d. a bar graph e. a pie graph

answer

a. a line graph

question

Which of the following would probably be the best kind of visual aid to show changes in the homicide rate in Washington, D.C., over the past twenty years? a. a diagram b. a line graph c. a chart d. a bar graph e. a pie graph

answer

b. a line graph

question

A __________ graph is best suited for illustrating simple distribution patterns. a. pie b. line c. parallel d. ratio e. bar

answer

a. pie

question

A __________ graph is best suited for illustrating the relationship among parts of a whole. a. parallel b. ratio c. bar d. pie e. line

answer

d. pie

question

Which of the following is an instance of informative speaking? a. a student urging an instructor to reconsider the due date for an assignment b. a student sharing ideas about leadership based on a book she has read c. a student on stage telling jokes during the intermission of a play d. all of the above e. a and b only

answer

b. a student sharing ideas about leadership based on a book she has read

question

Which of the following is an instance of informative speaking? a. a teacher praising parents for contributing to the school carnival b. a teacher arguing that phonics is a successful method for teaching reading c. a teacher explaining the requirements for an assignment d. all of the above e. b and c only

answer

c. a teacher explaining the requirements for an assignment

question

Which of the following is an instance of informative speaking? a. an ambassador urging changes in international adoption laws b. a social worker explaining adoption laws to potential parents c. a scientist convincing colleagues to change their research focus d. all of the above e. b and c only

answer

b. a social worker explaining adoption laws to potential parents

question

Which of the following is an instance of informative speaking? a. a business manager reporting on next year's budget b. a pastor urging parishioners to give to a building fund c. a teacher lecturing about methods of speech organization d. all of the above e. a and c only

answer

e. a and c only

question

Which of the following is an instance of informative speaking? a. a lawyer exhorting a jury not to convict her client b. a teacher urging colleagues to adopt a new curriculum c. a banker explaining how the stock market operates d. all of the above e. a and c only

answer

c. a banker explaining how the stock market operates

question

Which of the following is an instance of informative speaking? a. a doctor explaining how antioxidants affect the body b. a vitamin distributor urging listeners to buy antioxidants c. a scientist arguing that antioxidants have minimal health benefits d. all of the above e. a and c only

answer

a. a doctor explaining how antioxidants affect the body

question

In an informative speech, the speaker acts as a(n) a. advocate. b. entertainer. c. teacher. d. motivator. e. evaluator.

answer

c. teacher.

question

According to your textbook, the aims of an informative speech include a. communicating the speaker's information clearly. b. communicating the speaker's information accurately. c. making the speaker's information meaningful to the audience. d. all of the above. e. a and b only.

answer

d. all of the above.

question

According to your textbook, the questions listeners ask when judging an informative speech include a. Is the information communicated clearly? b. Is the information communicated accurately? c. Is the information made meaningful and interesting to the audience? d. all of the above e. a and b only

answer

d. all of the above

question

As explained by your textbook, "To inform my audience about the role of 1940s actress Hedy Lamarr in the development of cell phone technology" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) a. procedure. b. occurrence. c. object. d. function. e. concept.

answer

c. object.

question

"To inform my audience about the major achievements of Ronald Reagan" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) a. object. b. process. c. event. d. concept. e. function.

answer

a. object.

question

"To inform my audience about the major parts of a motion-picture camera" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) a. concept. b. event. c. process. d. object. e. function.

answer

d. object.

question

As explained by your textbook, "To inform my audience about the Native Americans who transmitted coded messages for the U.S. during World War II" is an example of a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) a. object. b. function. c. concept. d. event. e. process.

answer

a. object.

question

As explained in your textbook, "To inform my audience about the steps in creating a rooftop garden" is an example of a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) a. concept. b. process. c. function. d. condition. e. object.

answer

b. process.

question

Of all the kinds of speechmaking, __________ speaking is the most complex and the most challenging. a. persuasive b. after-dinner c. ceremonial d. informative e. commemorative

answer

a. persuasive

question

Which of the following is an instance of persuasive speaking? a. a coach reviewing the offensive plays for next week's game b. a lawyer explaining the details of a plea bargaining agreement to her client c. an architectural firm recommending adoption of its building plan d. a botanist reporting the discovery of a new species e. an activist honoring past leaders of the labor movement

answer

c. an architectural firm recommending adoption of its building plan

question

Which of the following is an instance of persuasive speaking? a. a president of a company presenting an award to an outstanding employee b. a marketing manager explaining a new product to the company's sales force c. a personnel manager defining employee benefits at a meeting of workers d. a union representative urging management to avoid a strike by raising wages e. a finance officer reporting sales figures to the board of directors

answer

d. a union representative urging management to avoid a strike by raising wages

question

Which of the following is an instance of persuasive speaking? a. a friend offering a humorous toast at a wedding b. a volunteer convincing a group of citizens to sign a petition c. an academic advisor explaining the study abroad process d. all of the above e. a and c only

answer

b. a volunteer convincing a group of citizens to sign a petition

question

Which of the following is an instance of persuasive speaking? a. a United States President praising World War II veterans b. a history professor lecturing on the rise of industrialism c. a judge explaining the rules of evidence during a criminal trail d. a developer urging the city council to build a new convention center e. a geneticist reporting her research to a professional meeting

answer

d. a developer urging the city council to build a new convention center

question

According to your textbook, persuasive speakers have an ethical obligation to a. make sure their goals are ethically sound. b. learn about all sides of an issue. c. present their evidence fairly and accurately. d. all of the above. e. a and b only.

answer

d. all of the above.

question

According to your textbook, persuasive speakers have an ethical obligation to a. learn about all sides of an issue. b. use visual aids when discussing practicality. c. present their evidence fairly and accurately. d. all of the above. e. a and c only.

answer

e. a and c only.

question

According to your textbook, persuasion is a psychological process in which listeners engage in a __________ with the speaker. a. mental dialogue b. situational disagreement c. cognitive restructuring d. feedback loop e. logical debate

answer

a. mental dialogue

question

According to your textbook, you should think of your persuasive speech as a. essentially the same as a commemorative speech. b. a kind of mental dialogue with the audience. c. less challenging than speaking to inform. d. all of the above. e. b and c only.

answer

b. a kind of mental dialogue with the audience.

question

As your textbook explains, if you want to persuade a skeptical audience, you need to a. organize the speech in Monroe's motivated sequence. b. urge the audience to take immediate action. c. circulate an audience-analysis questionnaire. d. answer the reasons for the audience's skepticism. e. focus your speech on questions of practicality.

answer

d. answer the reasons for the audience's skepticism.

question

If you want to persuade a skeptical audience, which of the following is it most important for you to do in your speech? a. Define unclear terms in the introduction. b. Organize the speech in problem-solution order. c. Focus the speech on questions of value. d. Answer the reasons for the audience's skepticism. e. Include a call for action in the conclusion.

answer

d. Answer the reasons for the audience's skepticism.

question

That part of the audience a speaker most wants to persuade is called the a. specific audience. b. designated audience. c. central audience. d. special audience. e. target audience.

answer

e. target audience.

question

The __________ is that portion of the whole audience that the speaker most wants to persuade. a. core audience b. target audience c. projected audience d. intended audience e. focus audience

answer

b. target audience

question

Luna wanted to convince the technology department at her company to adopt a new database system. Some staff members supported the change, a few were opposed, and most were undecided. Luna realized that the undecided group was her __________ , so she focused most of her effort on them. a. majority audience b. target audience c. projected audience d. focus audience e. central audience

answer

b. target audience

question

What contemporary researchers term credibility, Aristotle termed a. ethics. b. logos. c. ethos. d. pathos. e. credos.

answer

c. ethos.

question

According to your textbook, the two most important factors affecting the credibility of a persuasive speaker are a. competence and character. b. prestige and charisma. c. character and reputation. d. popularity and intelligence. e. charisma and competence.

answer

a. competence and character.

question

According to your textbook, the two most important factors affecting the credibility of a persuasive speaker are competence and a. logic. b. charisma. c. character. d. pathos. e. status.

answer

c. character.

question

As explained in your textbook, the credibility of a speaker before he or she starts to speak is called _________ credibility. a. initial b. negative c. derived d. original e. terminal

answer

a. initial

question

According to your textbook, the credibility of a speaker at the end of the speech is called _________ credibility. a. final b. derived c. concluding d. terminal e. acquired

answer

d. terminal

question

According to your textbook, the credibility of a speaker produced by everything the speaker says or does during the speech itself is called a. contrived credibility. b. derived credibility. c. demonstrated credibility. d. generated credibility. e. terminal credibility.

answer

b. derived credibility.

question

According to your textbook, when is it especially important for a persuasive speaker to establish common ground with the audience? a. when presenting a plan b. at the end of the speech c. when reasoning from specific instances d. at the beginning of the speech e. when explaining visual aids

answer

d. at the beginning of the speech

question

To create common ground with an audience in the introduction of a persuasive speech, your textbook recommends that you a. show the audience that you share their values. b. use statistics to show the extent of a problem. c. confront the audience for failing to do the right thing. d. all of the above. e. a and b only.

answer

a. show the audience that you share their values.

question

Which of the following is recommended in your textbook as a way to enhance your credibility in a persuasive speech? a. Explain your expertise on the speech topic. b. Deliver your speeches fluently and expressively. c. Establish common ground with your audience. d. all of the above e. a and c only

answer

d. all of the above

question

Which of the following is recommended in your textbook as a way to enhance your credibility in a persuasive speech? a. Establish common ground with your audience. b. Avoid talking about your personal knowledge of the topic. c. Relate the topic to the audience in your introduction. d. all of the above e. a and b only

answer

a. Establish common ground with your audience.

question

According to your textbook, research has shown that a. speakers with low initial credibility do not need to use as much evidence as speakers with high initial credibility. b. the credibility of a speaker is determined above all by how the audience perceives the speaker's intelligence and prestige. c. speakers can enhance their credibility by delivering their speeches fluently and expressively. d. personal appearance is the most important factor in determining a speaker's derived credibility. e. a speaker can begin with low terminal credibility and develop high initial credibility as the speech proceeds.

answer

c. speakers can enhance their credibility by delivering their speeches fluently and expressively.

question

Which of the following statements about speaker credibility is true? a. A speaker's credibility is based on her or his reputation rather than on what happens during a speech. b. Credibility refers to the speaker's true character and competence, not merely to the audience's perception of the speaker. c. A speaker's credibility is affected by almost every aspect of the speech except delivery. d. Although credibility is an important factor for professional speakers, it does not matter in classroom speeches. e. The same speaker can have high credibility for one audience and low credibility for another audience.

answer

e. The same speaker can have high credibility for one audience and low credibility for another audience.

question

Which of the following statements about speaker credibility is true? a. A speaker's credibility is affected above all by how the audience perceives the speaker's personal appearance. b. A speaker's credibility is affected above all by how the audience perceives the speaker's competence and character. c. A speaker's credibility is affected above all by how the audience perceives the speaker's manner of delivery. d. A speaker's credibility is affected above all by how the audience perceives the speaker's personality and reputation. e. A speaker's credibility is affected above all by how the audience perceives the speaker's intelligence and prestige.

answer

b. A speaker's credibility is affected above all by how the audience perceives the speaker's competence and character.

question

Efram's audience was persuaded by his speech because they perceived him to be sincere, trustworthy, and to have their best interests at heart. Which factor of credibility influenced Efram's audience? a. dynamism b. charisma c. expertise d. character e. competence

answer

d. character

question

Which of the following is an example of a speech for a special occasion? a. a speech presenting an award to a retiring newspaper editor b. a presentation on marketing strategy at a sales meeting c. a talk to new college students about how to register for classes d. a campaign speech by a candidate for the U.S. Senate e. a lecture by a visiting professor in a college class

answer

a. a speech presenting an award to a retiring newspaper editor

question

One main purpose of a speech of introduction is to a. explain why the person being introduced is receiving her or his award. b. inspire the audience with a sense of the significance of the occasion. c. create a welcoming climate to build enthusiasm for the main speaker. d. explain why listeners should pay tribute to a person, idea, or institution. e. enhance the credibility of the speaker who is making the introduction.

answer

c. create a welcoming climate to build enthusiasm for the main speaker.

question

Which of the following is recommended by your textbook as a guideline for a speech of introduction? a. Prepare your speech so it will last between 15 and 20 minutes. b. Use a quotation at the beginning to secure the attention of the audience. c. Make sure your remarks about the main speaker are completely accurate. d. Generate humor with an embarrassing story about the main speaker. e. Assume that the audience knows nothing about the main speaker.

answer

c. Make sure your remarks about the main speaker are completely accurate.

question

All of the following are presented in your textbook as guidelines for a speech of introduction except a. Be brief. b. Adapt your remarks to the occasion. c. Bring the speech to life by using a hypothetical example. d. Try to create a sense of anticipation and drama. e. Make sure your remarks are completely accurate.

answer

c. Bring the speech to life by using a hypothetical example.

question

All of the following are presented in your textbook as guidelines for a speech of introduction except a. Make sure your remarks are completely accurate. b. Adapt your remarks to the main speaker. c. Adapt your remarks to the audience. d. Limit your remarks to ten minutes in length. e. Try to create a sense of anticipation and drama.

answer

d. Limit your remarks to ten minutes in length.

question

As your textbook explains, when you give a speech of introduction, you should be sure to adapt your remarks to the a. occasion. b. audience. c. main speaker. d. all of the above. e. a and b only.

answer

d. all of the above.

question

What does it mean to say that a speech of introduction should be "adapted to the main speaker"? a. The speech should preview what the main speaker's points will be. b. The speech should be given in the same style as the person being introduced. c. The speech should avoid creating discomfort for the main speaker. d. all of the above e. a and c only

answer

c. The speech should avoid creating discomfort for the main speaker.

question

One method recommended in your textbook for creating a sense of drama and anticipation in a speech of introduction is to a. present a brief biography of the main speaker. b. save the name of the main speaker until the final moment. c. use visual aids that focus attention on the main speaker. d. praise the speaking skills of the main speaker. e. make sure the introduction is completely accurate.

answer

b. save the name of the main speaker until the final moment.

question

According to your textbook, the best way to create a sense of anticipation and drama in a speech of introduction is to a. save the name of the main speaker for last. b. tell the audience that the main speaker is an excellent orator. c. use PowerPoint to explain the main speaker's accomplishments. d. deliver the speech word for word from a written manuscript. e. give a detailed biography of the main speaker.

answer

a. save the name of the main speaker for last.

question

At the annual basketball banquet, Clark is introducing the men's coach, a man who is well known by everyone in the room. According to your textbook, the best way for Clark to create a sense of anticipation and drama in his speech of introduction is to a. present a detailed biography of the coach's life. b. tell an embarrassing story about the coach's childhood. c. be creative by learning about the coach and casting him in a new light. d. all of the above. e. b and c only.

answer

c. be creative by learning about the coach and casting him in a new light.

question

As president of the city's historical society, Madeline is introducing the guest speaker at the society's year-end banquet. According to your textbook, the best way for Madeline to create a sense of anticipation and drama in her speech of introduction is to a. save the name of the guest speaker for last. b. use PowerPoint to explain the guest speaker's accomplishments. c. tell the audience that the guest speaker is an excellent orator. d. all of the above. e. a and c only.

answer

a. save the name of the guest speaker for last.

question

A speaker introducing the president of a university to an audience of prospective students and their families will best accomplish this goal by a. praising the president as the finest public speaker on campus. b. presenting a detailed biography of the president's entire life. c. discussing the history of the university and its excellent athletic teams. d. summarizing the president's major accomplishments at the university. e. defending the changes in graduation requirements instituted by the president.

answer

d. summarizing the president's major accomplishments at the university.

question

According to your textbook, the main purpose of a speech of presentation is to present a. the main speaker to the audience. b. thanks for a gift or an award. c. the reasons why a person deserves commendation. d. information about the importance of the occasion. e. a gift or an award to the recipient.

answer

e. a gift or an award to the recipient.

question

When giving a speech of presentation, you should usually a. tell why the recipient is receiving her or his award. b. present the main speaker briefly and accurately. c. avoid mentioning the losers of the award competition. d. adapt your presentation to the main speaker. e. give a brief biography of the main speaker.

answer

a. tell why the recipient is receiving her or his award.

question

Which of the following is an example of a speech of presentation? a. a speech presenting a new reporter to the newspaper staff b. a speech presenting reasons why a new high school needs to be built c. a speech presenting a famous professor who will lecture on economics d. a speech presenting a certificate of recognition to an outstanding worker e. a speech presenting the annual earnings report to stockholders

answer

d. a speech presenting a certificate of recognition to an outstanding worker

question

According to your textbook, a dyad is a. a group of two people. b. a group formed to solve a particular problem. c. a group organized to present a symposium. d. a group formed to plan a social event. e. a group without a leader.

answer

a. a group of two people.

question

As explained in your textbook, one of the defining traits of a small group is that a. the group has a predetermined leader. b. members of the group assemble for a specific purpose. c. the group succeeds in brainstorming for potential solutions. d. everyone in the group has a similar frame of reference. e. the group follows the reflective-thinking method.

answer

b. members of the group assemble for a specific purpose.

question

As explained in your textbook, which of the following is a defining trait of a small group? a. the group assembles for a specific purpose b. the group contains a minimum of three members c. the group has a designated leader d. all of the above e. a and b only

answer

e. a and b only

question

As explained in your textbook, a group member to whom other members defer because of his or her rank or expertise is called a(n) a. implied leader. b. specific leader. c. emergent leader. d. designated leader. e. appointed leader.

answer

a. implied leader.

question

The person who assumes a leadership role in a small group because of her or his ability, personality, or talkativeness is termed a(n) a. specific leader. b. implied leader. c. emergent leader. d. insistent leader. e. designated leader.

answer

c. emergent leader.

question

According to your textbook, a small group that meets for only one session should almost always have a(n) __________ leader. a. implied b. designated c. elected d. emergent e. dynamic

answer

b. designated

question

As the vice president for employee relations, Manuel is the only member of his company's executive team attending informal small group meetings where employees are considering proposals to revise the company's personal leave policies. Beginning at its very first meeting, the group looks to Manuel for leadership. What kind of leader is Manuel? a. task leader b. emergent leader c. authoritative leader d. maintenance leader e. implied leader

answer

e. implied leader

question

Miriam is the only member of her small group with professional experience on their subject, so her group naturally looks to her to guide the project. What kind of leader is Miriam? a. implied leader b. maintenance leader c. emergent leader d. designated leader e. task leader

answer

a. implied leader

question

Rochelle was appointed by her boss to chair a small committee to draft a policy statement on personal use of the office computers. She called a meeting of the group for 9 a.m. Wednesday morning. According to your textbook, what kind of leader is Rochelle? a. emergent leader b. designated leader c. implied leader d. dominant leader e. task leader

answer

b. designated leader

question

Randall is talkative and offers his opinions freely during small group meetings. Because he participates more than the other members, he has assumed a leadership role within the group. What kind of leader is Randall? a. task leader b. implied leader c. emergent leader d. designated leader e. accidental leader

answer

c. emergent leader

question

As explained in your textbook, the leadership needs faced by all problem-solving small groups include a. task needs. b. maintenance needs. c. procedural needs. d. all of the above. e. a and c only.

answer

D. All of the above

question

According to your textbook, what are the three kinds of leadership needs faced by all problem-solving small groups? a. agenda needs, task needs, and consensus needs b. decision needs, maintenance needs, and personal needs c. procedural needs, agenda needs, and participation needs d. research needs, schedule needs, and judgment needs e. task needs, procedural needs, and maintenance needs

answer

E. Task needs, Procedural needs, and maintenance needs

question

Which of the following is a procedural need of a problem-solving small group? a. keeping the group from going off on a tangent b. conducting research to help the group analyze the problem c. maintaining good interpersonal relations among the group d. reserving a room for the group's next meeting e. helping the group reach consensus on its final decision

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D. Reserving a room for the group's next meeting

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Which of the following is a procedural need of a problem-solving small group? a. deciding when and where the group will meet b. helping the group reach consensus on its final decision c. maintaining good interpersonal relations among the group d. conducting research to help the group analyze the problem e. keeping the group focused on achieving its objectives

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A. Deciding when and where the group will meet

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According to your textbook, each of the following is a procedural need of a small group except a. analyzing the issue facing the group. b. deciding where the group will meet next. c. preparing and distributing handouts for the group's meeting. d. summarizing the group's progress at the end of the meeting. e. setting the agenda for the group's meeting.

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A. Analyzing the issue facing the group

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T F Good speech delivery should call attention to itself.

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T F Good speech delivery conveys a speaker's ideas without calling attention to itself.

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T F Nonverbal communication is based on a person's use of voice and body, rather than on the use of words.

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T F One of the advantages of speaking from a manuscript is that it frees a speaker from the need to establish eye contact with the audience.

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T F Speaking from a manuscript allows for greater spontaneity and directness than does speaking extemporaneously.

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T F A manuscript speech is written out word for word and read to the audience.

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T F Speaking from a manuscript requires very little skill.

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T F When speaking from a manuscript, you should strive for the same directness and sincerity in your voice as in an extemporaneous speech.

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T F Speaking from memory is most effective when a speaker wants to be very responsive to feedback from the audience.

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T F When speaking impromptu, you should do your best to look calm and confident no matter how nervous you may be feeling.

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T F Impromptu speaking gives more precise control over thought and language than does extemporaneous speaking.

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T F An impromptu speech is delivered with little or no immediate preparation.

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T F Speaking impromptu and speaking extemporaneously are essentially alike.

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T F An extemporaneous speech is carefully prepared and practiced in advance.

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T F Research has shown that an average speaker who uses visual aids will come across as more credible and better prepared than a speaker who does not use visual aids.

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T F Research shows that an average speaker who uses visual aids effectively will come across as more professional than a dynamic speaker who does not use visual aids.

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T F One of the reasons to use visual aids in a speech is that you can break eye contact with the audience while discussing the aids.

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T F Research has shown that visual aids can increase both the clarity and the persuasiveness of a speaker's message.

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T F Research has shown that using visual aids can increase the audience's retention of a speaker's message.

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T F Using visual aids can help a speaker combat stage fright.

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T F If the object you want to speak about is too large, too small, or unavailable to use as a visual aid, you have little choice but to change the topic of your speech.

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T F If the object you want to speak about is too large, too small, or unavailable to use as a visual aid, you may be able to use a model instead.

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T F Models are the best type of visual aid for presenting statistical information.

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T F Because a picture is worth a thousand words, it is a good idea to pass photographs among the audience in order to illustrate your point.

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T F To be effective as visual aids, photographs must be large enough to be seen easily by everyone in the audience.

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T F The best way to show drawings and photographs is to pass them around the room during your speech.

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T F If you were giving a speech about how to lift weights, the most effective visual aid would probably be a drawing.

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T F If you were showing statistical trends in a speech, the best visual aid to use would probably be a pie graph.

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T F Your textbook discusses four kinds of informative speeches—speeches about objects, speeches about concepts, speeches about processes, and speeches about events.

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T F In an informative speech, the speaker acts as an advocate.

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T F A lawyer urging a jury to acquit her client is an example of informative speaking.

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T F When an informative speech about a process has more than five steps, the speaker should group the steps into units so as to limit the number of main points.

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T F Informative speeches about processes are usually arranged in chronological order.

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T F An informative speech about a process that has as many as ten or twelve steps is one of the few times it is acceptable to have more than five main points.

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T F If the specific purpose of your informative speech is to recount the history of an event, you will usually arrange the speech in chronological order.

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T F Informative speeches about events are usually arranged in spatial order.

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T F Speeches about concepts are often more complex than other kinds of informative speeches.

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T F Informative speeches about concepts are usually arranged in spatial order.

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T F Informative speeches about concepts are usually arranged in topical order.

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T F "To inform my audience about the role of Nikola Tesla in the discovery of electricity" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about an object.

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T F "To inform my audience how to create their own blog" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a process.

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T F "To inform my audience about what happened at the Civil War Battle of Manassas" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about an event.

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T F Persuasion is the process of creating, reinforcing, or changing people's beliefs or actions.

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T F Because everyone knows that a persuasive speaker's goal is to influence the audience's beliefs or actions, questions of ethics are less important in persuasive speaking than in other kinds of speaking.

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T F Persuasive speakers should aim to construct speeches that are both convincing and ethically sound.

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T F Even though a persuasive speaker's goal is to influence the audience's beliefs or actions, she or he still has an ethical obligation to present evidence fairly and accurately.

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T F One way for a persuasive speaker to uphold the ethical obligations of speechmaking is to learn about all sides of an issue.

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T F Of all the kinds of public speaking, persuasion is the most complex and the most challenging.

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T F Moving listeners from being strongly opposed to a speaker's position to being only moderately opposed would be a sign of a successful persuasive speech.

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T F As your textbook explains, persuasion takes place only if the audience is strongly in favor of the speaker's position by the end of the speech.

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T F As your textbook explains, when faced with an audience that strongly opposes your point of view, you can consider your persuasive speech a success if it leads even a few listeners to reexamine their views.

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T F Your success in a persuasive speech will usually depend on how well you adapt to the attitudes, beliefs, and values of your audience.

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T F Persuasion is a psychological process in which listeners engage in a mental dialogue with the speaker.

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T F Research indicates that audiences often engage in a mental give-and-take with the speaker as they listen to a persuasive speech.

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T F When speaking to persuade, you need to think of your speech as a kind of mental dialogue with your audience.

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T F Audience analysis and adaptation are usually more demanding in persuasive speaking than in speaking to inform.

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T F What many teachers refer to as source credibility was called ethos by Aristotle.

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T F Competence and character are the most important factors affecting a speaker's credibility.

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T F Education and status are the most important factors affecting a speaker's credibility.

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T F The more favorably listeners view a speaker's competence and character, the more likely they are to accept what the speaker says.

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T F Credibility is the audience's perception of whether a speaker is qualified to speak on a given topic.

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T F The credibility of a speaker before she or he starts to speak is called derived credibility.

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T F The credibility of a speaker before she or he starts to speak is called initial credibility.

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T F Derived credibility refers to the credibility of the speaker produced by everything she or he says and does during the speech itself.

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T F Terminal credibility is the credibility of the speaker at the start of the speech.

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T F Terminal credibility is the credibility of the speaker at the end of the speech.

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T F A speaker can have high credibility for one audience and low credibility for another audience.

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T F A speaker's credibility can change during the course of her or his speech.

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T F A speaker could begin a speech with high credibility but end the speech with low credibility.

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T F A speaker's credibility is affected by everything she or he says and does during the speech.

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T F The primary purpose of a special occasion speech is to convey information to an audience.

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T F A graduation address and a toast at a wedding are both examples of speeches for special occasions.

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T F The purpose of a speech of introduction is to introduce a person receiving an award or an honor.

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T F The purpose of a speech of introduction is to introduce the main speaker to the audience.

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T F One major purpose of a speech of introduction is to focus attention on the person making the introduction.

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T F One major purpose of a speech of introduction is to build enthusiasm for the upcoming speaker.

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T F As your textbook explains, speeches of introduction usually should be two to three minutes long.

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T F As your textbook explains, speeches of introduction usually should be 8 to 10 minutes long.

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T F When giving a speech of introduction, you should be sure to praise the speaking skills of the main speaker.

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T F One major purpose of a speech of introduction is to establish a welcoming climate that will boost the credibility of the main speaker.

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T F If you are introducing the same speaker to an audience of college students for a morning presentation and to the city chamber of commerce for an afternoon presentation, you should use the same speech for each occasion.

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T F When giving a speech of introduction, you should state the name of the main speaker as soon as possible to avoid confusion among members of the audience.

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T F When giving a speech of introduction, you should usually save the name of the main speaker until the final moment, even when the audience already knows who he or she is.

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T F A speech of introduction should usually be read from a manuscript.

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T F As defined in your textbook, a speech of presentation is a speech that presents someone a gift, an award, or some other form of public recognition.

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T F There is a great deal of research to show that if members of a small group work well together, they can almost always resolve a problem better than a single person can.

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T F Most experts set the maximum number of members for a small group at seven or eight.

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T F One of the defining traits of a small group is that its members assemble for a specific purpose.

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T F According to your textbook, a small group is a collection of three to twelve people who find themselves discussing a particular topic.

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T F An important feature of a small group is that all participants potentially function as speakers and listeners.

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T F To function effectively, a small group needs capable leadership.

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T F To function effectively, a small group needs a specific leader.

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T F The newest or least experienced member of a small group is usually referred to as the implied leader.

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T F A person who by ability, force of personality, or simply by talking the most, takes on a leadership role in a small group is called an emergent leader.

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T F A small group that meets for only one session should almost always have a designated leader.

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T F Each member of a small group should be prepared to assume a leadership role when necessary.

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T F The procedural needs of a small group revolve around interpersonal relations among the group's members.

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T F The procedural needs of a small group include such matters as deciding when the group will meet, taking notes during the meeting, and summarizing the group's progress at the end of the meeting.

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T F The procedural needs of a small group include such matters as whether members get along with each other and feel good about their roles in the group.

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T F Helping the group reach consensus on its final decision is an example of a procedural need in a small group.

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Communication based on a person's voice and body, rather than on the use of words, is called _______________ communication.

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nonverbal

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A speech delivered with little or no immediate preparation is called a(n) _______________ speech.

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impromptu

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A speech that is fully prepared in advance but delivered from a brief set of notes or a speaking outline is called a(n) _______________ speech.

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extemporaneous

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The relative highness or lowness of speech sounds is called _______________ .

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pitch

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Mark Twain said, "The right word might be effective, but no word was ever as effective as a rightly timed _______________ ."

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pause

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A _______________ occurs when a speaker fills the silence between words with sounds such as "um," "er," and "uh."

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vocalized pause

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Changes in a speaker's pitch, rate, and volume are referred to as _______________ .

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vocal variety

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_______________ refers to the speed at which a person speaks.

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Rate

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How we use eye contact, body movement, gestures, and other physical motions to communicate is the subject of an area of study known as _______________ .

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Kinesics

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If the object you want to use as a visual aid is not available to you, the next best option ideally is a _______________ .

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model

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If you wanted to illustrate the increase in the number of people in the U.S. who have earned college degrees since 1970, the best kind of visual aid would probably be a(n) _______________.

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graph

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While a _______________ graph is best for illustrating simple distribution patterns, a _______________ graph is best for showing comparisons between two or more items.

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pie; bar

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If you wanted to summarize the events that led to the outbreak of World War I, the best kind of visual aid would probably be a _______________ .

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chart

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If you wanted to list the steps of a process to help your audience remember them better, the best kind of visual aid to use would probably be a _______________ .

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Chart

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A(n) _______________ is a systematic series of actions that leads to a specific result or product.

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process

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"To inform my audience how to arrange flowers like a professional florist" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) _______________ .

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process

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"To inform my audience about the different sections of a medieval cathedral" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) _____________ , while "To inform my audience about the beliefs of major Christian sects during the middle ages" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) ______________ .

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object; concept

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"To inform my audience how to prepare for a triathlon" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) _______________ . "To inform my audience about the history of Hawaii's Iron Man World Championship Triathlon" is a specific purpose statement for an informative speech about a(n) _______________ .

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process; event

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If you were giving an informative speech about the major stages in building the Great Wall of China, you would probably organize your speech in _______________ order.

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chronological

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There are many ways to organize informative speeches about events. If your goal is to recount the history of an event, you would most likely arrange the speech in _______________ order.

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chronological

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If you were giving an informative speech describing the different regions of Ireland, you would probably arrange the speech in _______________ order.

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Spatial

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"To persuade my audience that there is convincing evidence of intelligent life in other parts of the solar system" is a specific purpose statement for a persuasive speech on a question of _______________ .

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fact

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"To persuade my audience that the use of torture is never ethically justifiable" is a specific purpose statement for a persuasive speech on a question of

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value

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"To persuade my audience that public officials should act now to upgrade the 911 emergency phone system" is a specific purpose statement for a persuasive speech on a question of _______________ .

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policy

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Persuasive speeches on questions of _______________ argue for or against particular courses of action.

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policy

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The following main points for a persuasive speech on a question of policy are arranged in _______________ order. I. The shortage of nurses has become a serious national problem. II. The problem can be solved by offering nurses better salaries and working conditions.

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problem-solution

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As your textbook explains, you must deal with three basic issues whenever you discuss a question of policy. Those issues are need, plan, and _______________ .

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Practicality

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What modern scholars of persuasion refer to as credibility, Aristotle referred to as _______________ .

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ethos

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_______________ was the name used by Aristotle for the logical appeal of a speaker.

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Logos

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_______________ was the name used by Aristotle for the emotional appeal of the speaker.

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Pathos

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When used in a persuasive speech, supporting materials such as examples, statistics, and testimony are referred to as _______________ .

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evidence

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_______________ is a process of drawing a conclusion based on evidence.

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Reasoning

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According to your textbook, reasoning from _______________ moves from a general principle to a specific conclusion.

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principle

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According to your textbook, _______________ reasoning seeks to establish the relationship between causes and effects.

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causal

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According to your textbook, _______________ reasoning compares two similar cases and suggests that what is true of the one case is also true of the other.

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analogical

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According to your textbook, an error in reasoning is called a _______________ .

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Fallacy

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A speech presenting the main speaker to the audience is called a speech of _______________ .

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introduction

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A speech announcing the winner of an award and giving the award to the recipient is called a speech of _______________ .

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presentation

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A speech that gives thanks for a gift or an award is called a(n) _______________ speech.

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acceptance

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A speech paying tribute to a person, idea, or institution is called a(n) _______________ speech.

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commemorative

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A Memorial Day speech honoring U.S. soldiers who have died in defense of their country is an example of a(n) _______________ speech.

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commemorative

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Bill Clinton's speech dedicating the Monument to the Struggle against World Terrorism at the site of the 9/11 attack in New York City is an example of a(n) _______________ speech.

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Commemorative

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A(n) _______________ leader of a small group is appointed or elected when the group is formed.

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designated

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A group member to whom other members defer because of her or his rank or expertise is known as a(n) _______________ leader.

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implied

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A(n) _______________ leader is someone who takes on a leadership role through her or his ability, force of personality, or simply by talking the most during group meetings.

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emergent

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The _______________ leadership needs of a problem-solving small group include such "housekeeping" requirements as deciding when and where the group is to meet, reserving a room, and taking notes during the meeting.

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procedural

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The _______________ leadership needs of a problem-solving small group include actions necessary to help the group complete its work. Such actions include analyzing the issues facing the group, keeping the group on track, and formulating criteria for the most effective solution.

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task

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The _______________ leadership needs of a problem-solving small group include such matters as how well members get along with each other and whether members feel good about their roles in the group.

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maintenance

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When one member of a small group has a personal goal that conflicts with the goals of the group as a whole, he or she is said to have a(n) _______________ agenda.

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hidden

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The first step in the reflective-thinking method for discussion in problem-solving groups is to _______________ .

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define the problem

STUDY

Cause And Effect Comparison And Contrast Give And Take International Business Knowledge Management Knowledge Management System Linguistics Problem And Solution Writing

ENGL 210F – Chapter 4,5,6 – Flashcards 20 terms

Alice Rees

20 terms

Preview

ENGL 210F – Chapter 4,5,6 – Flashcards

question

Three-Step Writing Process

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The three-step writing process consists of planning, writing, and completing your messages.

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4 tests for purpose of message?

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1. Will anything change as a result of your message? 2. Is your purpose realistic? 3. Is the time right? 4. Is your purpose acceptable to your organization?

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Ask yourself key questions about youraudience to help achieve your purpose.

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1. Identify your primary audience. 2. Identify the secondary audience. 3. Determine audience size and geographic distribution. 4. Determine audience composition. 5. Gauge audience members' level of understanding. 6. Understand audience expectations and preferences. 7. Forecast probable audience reaction.

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Discuss gathering information for simple messages, and identify three attributes of quality information

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1. Be sure the information is accurate 2. Be sure the information is ethical 3. Be sure the information is pertinent

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List factors to consider when choosing the most appropriate medium for your message

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Media richness, the value of a medium for communicating a message,is a factor to consider for message transmission. Richness is determined by the medium's ability to (1) convey a message using more than one informational cue (visual, verbal, vocal); (2) facilitate feedback; and (3) establish personal focus. Other factors to consider when selecting media include the message's formality, media limitations, sender intentions, urgency and cost, and audience preferences.

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Explain why good organization is important to both you and your audience

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Audiences benefit from good organization in several ways. A well-organized message saves your audience time, because they don't have to read and reread a message to make sense of it. They are also better able to understand the content, so they can accept the message more easily and can make better decisions based on its information. Communicators also benefit from good organization: well-organized messages consume less creative energy, speed the drafting stage, make it easier to get input from colleagues, and allow communicators to divide portions of the writing assignment among co-workers.

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Summarize the process for organizing business messages effectively

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First,define the main idea of the message by making a specific statement about the topic. Second, limit the scope of the message by adjusting the space and detail you allocate to major points. Third, choose either a direct or an indirect approach by anticipating the audience's reaction to the message and by matching the approach to message length and message type. Fourth, group the points by constructing an outline to visualize the relationship between the ideas and the supporting material.

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Explain the importance of adapting your messages to the needs and expectations of your audience

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Audiences greet most incoming messages with a question: "What's in this for me?" To adapt your message to your audience, be sensitive to their needs, build a strong relationship with them, and control your style to maintain a professional tone.

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Explain why establishing credibility is vital to the success of your communication efforts

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Your audiences more likely accept your messages if you establish your Summary of Learning Objectives credibility with them. Behaving honestly, objectively, reliably, and sincerely, and showing your awareness of your audiences' needs, demonstrate your credibility and will make your audiences more likely to respond positively to you. Establishing your credentials and expertise will communicate your credibility to audiences that don't know you, thus making them more receptive to your messages.

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Discuss how to achieve a business like tone with a style that is clear and concise

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You can achieve a businesslike tone by using plain English, which is language that is easily understood. Plain English avoids pompous and out-of-date phrases; in their place, it uses accessible and current vocabulary that audiences with a grade-eight or grade-nine education can easily understand. Using the active voice instead of the passive voice is another way to achieve a businesslike tone. Where the passive voice tends to create a dull and indirect style, the active voice is lively and direct. However, the passive voice is useful when you must be diplomatic with your audience, because its indirect nature can create an objective tone.

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Briefly describe how to select words that are not only correct but also effective

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First, check grammar and usage guidelines. Second, make sure the words are functional and content words. Choose words that have fewer connotations and no negative connotations. Blend abstract words with concrete ones, narrowing from the general to the specific, and select words that communicate clearly and specifically. Avoid clichés, and use jargon only if your audience will understand it.

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Explain how sentence style affects emphasis within your message

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The emphasis of key ideas in your message is influenced by sentence style. For example, using more words to describe ideas will give them greater stress. You can also make your ideas the subject of sentences or place them at the beginning or end of sentences; these techniques will highlight your ideas. Being familiar with the four types of sentences (simple, compound, complex, and compound-complex) will assist you in giving emphasis to your information and thoughts.

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Cite five ways to develop coherent paragraphs

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Each paragraph should have a topic sentence that expresses the main idea and use transitional elements for unity. Paragraphs can be developed by illustration (giving examples), by comparison and contrast (pointing out similarities or differences), by focusing on cause and effect (giving reasons), by classification (discussing categories), and by focusing on the solution to a problem (stating a problem and showing how to solve it).

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Discuss the value of careful revision,and list the main tasks involved in completing a business message

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Careful revision will produce a correctly written and professional document that will impress your readers and help them in their own tasks. Revision consists of (1) evaluating content and organization; (2) reviewing style and readability; and (3) proofreading the final version after it has been produced.

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Explain four writing techniques you can use to improve the readability of your messages

answer

(1) varying sentence length (2) keeping paragraphs short to medium length to create an inviting document; (3) using headings and subheadings to guide the reader through your message and attract attention; and (4) using bullets and lists, which will clarify information through highlighting it and create a visually appealing document for complex subjects.

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Describe the steps you can take to improve the clarity of your writing

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Divide overly long sentences to tighten your writing and rewrite hedging sentences to sound confident. Use parallelism to highlight related ideas and correct dangling modifiers so that your meaning is accurate. Reword long noun sequences and replace camouflaged verbs to be concise. Clarify sentence structure and awkward references to enhance readability and avoid confusion. Moderate your enthusiasm to maintain your credibility.

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Discuss why it's important to make your message more concise,and give four tips on how to do so

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Business people are more likely to read documents that give information efficiently. To make business messages more concise, include only necessary material and write clean sentences by: (1) deleting unnecessary words and phrases; (2) shortening overly long words and phrases; 3) eliminating redundancies; and (4) recasting "It is: and :There are" starters.

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Explain how design elements help determine the effectiveness of your documents

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When selecting and applying design elements, ensure their effectiveness by being consistent throughout your document; balancing space between text, art, and white space; showing restraint in the number of elements you use; and paying attention to every detail. White space provides contrast and gives readers a resting point. Margins define the space around the text and contribute to the amount of white space. Headings and captions invite readers to become involved in the message. Fonts influence the tone of the message. Font styles provide contrast or emphasis.

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Highlight the types of errors to look for when proofreading

answer

When proofreading the final version of your document, always look for errors in grammar, usage, and punctuation and watch for spelling mistakes and typos. Ensure that nothing is missing, such as a source note, figure, text, or exhibit. Check for design errors, such as elements that appear in the wrong font, misaligned elements (e.g., columns in a table or figures on a page), and formatting mistakes (including uneven spacing between lines and words and incorrect line breaks). Finally, ensure that your layout conforms to company guidelines.

question

Discuss the most important issues to consider when distributing your messages

answer

Keep in mind cost, convenience, time, security, and privacy when distributing your message. Balance cost versus benefits when selecting your distribution method for long documents, because printing, binding, and delivering long reports can be expensive. Choose a method that works best for your audience; some people might be using slow wireless connections or devices with small screens. Furthermore, ensure that your reader needs your document immediately to justify an expensive delivery method (e.g.,overnight express). Finally, use secure transmission methods for sensitive documents, follow company guidelines for recipients, and use Adobe PDF instead of Word files to avoid viruses.

STUDY

Areas For Improvement Business Communications Business Management Give And Take Knowledge Management Knowledge Management System

Chapter 4: Business Comm – Flashcards 50 terms

Millie Miller

50 terms

Preview

Chapter 4: Business Comm – Flashcards

question

The three primary steps involved in preparing a business message are

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planning, writing, and completing

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In developing business messages, the step during which you evaluate whether you have expressed your ideas clearly is

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Completing

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In preparing business messages, you should generally devote about _______ percent of your time to planning.

answer

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Inexperienced communicators tend to

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dive directly into writing the message without taking sufficient time to plan.

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Which of the following is not a general purpose common to business communication?

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to negotiate

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An example of a specific purpose for a business message would be

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to inform employees about the new vacation policy

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Most messages should not be sent unless they will

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bring about a change

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In most cases, a message should be deferred or canceled if

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the time is wrong

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The primary audience for your message made up of

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the key decision makers in the audience

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In general, for internal communication, the higher up your message goes, the

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fewer details people want to see

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Messages should contain additional detail and background information when

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you are unsure about audience's level of understanding

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Forecasting your audience's probable reaction to your message is

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vital, because potential audience reaction affects message organization

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You're writing a proposal to allow certain employees at your company to telecommute. You know management will be skeptical, so you should

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introduce your proof gradually before revealing your conclusions and recommendations

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A knowledge-management system

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is a centralized database of experiences and insights of employees throughout an organization

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When it comes to planning business messages, social media

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enable you to quickly locate experts and vital information on a wide variety of topics

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When meeting your audience's information needs, you should emphasize ideas

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of greatest interest to the audience

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In business communication, using discovery techniques such as free writing and sketching

answer

is helpful when you need to generate ideas and uncover possible avenues to research

question

A good way to test the thoroughness of your business message is to check it for

answer

the who, what, when, where, why, and how

question

After sending project cost estimates to a longtime client, you realize you failed to include information on some discount options. The best thing to do is

answer

contact the primary audience immediately and correct the error

question

Choosing the right medium for your message

answer

is an important communication skill

question

Which media would be best for keeping in touch with a sales team whose members live in several different states?

answer

Electronic media

question

In today's high-tech business environment, the need for managers to engage in frequent "walk-arounds" (chatting with employees to get input and answer questions)

answer

still exists, according to many experts

question

Using oral media for business communication

answer

can lead to awkward conversations, but also help you earn a reputation as an honest, caring manger

question

Form letters in business

answer

can be helpful when communicating about routine matters

question

In business contexts, reports and proposals

answer

Vary in length, and maybe written in many formats, including letters and memos

question

In general, traditional business messages rely

answer

primarily on text, with occasional support from graphical elements. (such as charts and diagrams)

question

Infographics are

answer

messages that combine powerful visuals with supporting text.

question

Telephone calls are

answer

capable of conveying quite a few nonverbal signals

question

Which of the following media would be best for sending a brief internal message (requiring no response from your audience) about an upcoming software update?

answer

question

VoIP is a

answer

technology for making telephone calls via the Internet

question

When it comes to business communication, YouTube

answer

has quickly become an important medium for a variety of messages

question

In part, media richness refers to

answer

a medium's ability to facilitate feedback

question

The richest communication medium is

answer

a face-to-face conversation

question

A key advantage of oral communication is

answer

the opportunity to get immediate feedback

question

As a new supervisor, you need to introduce yourself to your team of ten employees. The best medium for this type of nonroutine message would be

answer

a face-to-face meeting

question

Learner media are best used for messages that

answer

are routine

question

Of the following media, which is the richest?

answer

an interactive website enabling audiences to participate in the communication process

question

Which of the following media would be best to make a formal introduction to a potential client?

answer

Letter

question

In high-context cultures, ________ media are often more effective than __________ ones.

answer

oral, written

question

Which of the following is not listed among factors to consider when choosing a medium for your message?

answer

Sender preferences

question

In general, audiences are likely to

answer

form inaccurate conclusions from poorly organized messages.

question

Organizing messages effectively helps readers by

answer

all of the above

question

The primary difference between the topic of a message and the main idea is

answer

the main idea is more specific than the topic

question

Which of the following is an example of a message topic?

answer

"Funding for research and development"

question

When your message is complex and includes a large amount of information

answer

a variety of techniques (such as brainstorming) can help determine your main idea.

question

Storytelling is

answer

an effective way to organize messages in a surprising number of business communication scenarios.

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In a business message, the range of information you present, the overall length, and the level of detail is known as your

answer

scope

question

The scope of a message will generally be longer when

answer

any of the above are true

question

Whatever the length of your message, you should limit the number of major support points to roughly

answer

six

question

Taking the time to outline your points as you prepare business messages

answer

will save you time in the long run and lead to better results

STUDY

Bring About Change Family Psychology Give And Take Specific Word Choice

Chapter 5: Strategic Family Therapy – Flashcards 69 terms

Charlotte Small

69 terms

Preview

Chapter 5: Strategic Family Therapy – Flashcards

question

What did strategic family therapy grow out of?

answer

The communication theory developed by Bateson's schizophrenia project

question

What does strategic family therapy emphasize?

answer

directive or task-oriented interventions over understanding the meaning of symptoms

question

What are the three distinct models?

answer

1. MRI brief therapy 2. Haley and Madanes Strategic Family Therapy 3. Milan Strategic Therapy

question

Where were all three models developed?

answer

At the Mental Research Institute in Paulo Alto

question

What and who influenced a lot of the strategic models?

answer

Influenced by hypnotic principles and Milton Erickson

question

What are the pragmatic strategies of problem solving and change?

answer

1. Brief 2. Efficient 3. Non-Pathological

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What were the major contributions

answer

1. Problems can result from family interaction sequences 2. Families often unintentionally perpetuating their problems 3. Sudden change is possible

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What was the result of the development of these models specifically the brief approach?

answer

The brief approach focused on interrupting cycles in which attempts to solve problems make the problems worse

question

Who developed Axioms?

answer

Watzlawick, Beavin, and Jackson

question

What are Axioms?

answer

Basic truths about communication

question

What are the four main basic truths of communication?

answer

1. people are always communicating 2. Communication defines the relationship between sender and receiver 3. Punctuation of communication sequences impacts the relationship 4. communication is either symmetrical or complementary

question

What does it mean that people are always communicating?

answer

- All behavior is communicative and so one cannot not communicate

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What are a report function?

answer

The content of a message that conveys information

question

What is a command function?

answer

A command function dictates the relationship between sender and receiver, it is a statement that defines the relationship

question

What is symmetrical communication?

answer

when individuals communicate in similar ways (going to escalate)

question

What is complementary communication?

answer

when individuals have different communication systems defined by distance

question

What are the four main types of pathologic communication?

answer

1. Denying that one is communicating 2. Sending paradoxical messages 3. Discrepant punctuation of communication sequences 4. Symmetrical escalation

question

What is sending paradoxical messages?

answer

Messages the contradict themselves (telling them to do something that is inconsistent)

question

How is sending paradoxical messages best resolved?

answer

Through metacommunication

question

What is metacommunication?

answer

It is talking about the way they are communicating with one another

question

What do normal families have?

answer

1. They maintain integrity in the face of environmental challenges through negative feedback 2. Are able to communicate and are flexible

question

What are the three strategic vies of problem formation?

answer

1. cybernetic 2. structural 3. functional

question

What is cybernetic problem formation?

answer

- Attempted solutions perpetuate problems (positive feedback escalation) - Families want to maintain homeostasis

question

What is structural problem formation?

answer

Family rules or hierarchy promote problems

question

What are the two types of change in structural problem formation?

answer

first order and second order

question

What is first order change?

answer

It gets the family to change an action

question

What is second order change?

answer

It gets the family to change the family rule or underlying rules

question

What is functional problem formation?

answer

When problems are the result of people trying to protect or control one another covertly so their symptom serves a function for the system

question

What didi the MRI group use as problem formation?

answer

Just cybernetic

question

What did Haley use for problem formation?

answer

He added structural and functional to cybernetic

question

What did the Milan model use for problem formation

answer

All three but mostly functional

question

What is a directive?

answer

- An assignment, telling family to do something - Getting family to do something they wouldn't ordinarily do

question

What is reframing?

answer

- Helping family members understand symptoms in a different light - It can often make people fell better about

question

What is Paradoxical Intervention?

answer

1. Prescribe the symptom - do more of the symptom 2. Pretend technique 3. Tell family member to do something that will make them want to do things less

question

What is pretend technique?

answer

Telling the family to pretend to have the symptom

question

What is the function of the pretend technique?

answer

takes away the function of the symptom, the function is met by having the pretend symptom

question

What prescribing ordeals?

answer

When you make the symptom more trouble then it is worth. Example: insomnia - every time you wake up you have to mop the floor, its ends up being more trouble then its worth and we would rather just stay asleep

question

What are second order interventions?

answer

Changing the second order family structure problem and rules and getting the root of the issue

question

What does the Milan model emphasize?

answer

Questioning family belief symptoms attached to behaviors and interrupting destructive family games

question

What was the shift in focus on changing family behavior to?

answer

It shifted to changing families beliefs about their behavior

question

What did the Milan model believe about view of problem formation?

answer

It endorsed the 3 strategic views of problem formation (cybernetic, structural, and functional)

question

How does the Milan model view problem formation?

answer

As a "Game"

question

What is "The Game"?

answer

unacknowledged strategies and destructive pattern of family interactions in which members attempt to control each others behavior

question

Do family members have control over the rules of the game?

answer

question

What as a therapist do you want to do with the game?

answer

Change the rules of the game not the players

question

What are children symptoms often a result of?

answer

Power struggles between family members, often parents

question

What are the therapeutic goals of the Milan model?

answer

Help the family play a new game or a different game

question

how was the early Milan model structured?

answer

It was a very structured team approach drawing on strategic techniques

question

How was the evolved model structured?

answer

It was a more collaborative approach

question

What did the Milan Early Model mean by Long Term Brief Therapy?

answer

1. Low # of session but spread out 2. Meeting once a month over long time

question

What were the 5 steps in the structured treatment of the Milan Early model?

answer

1.Presession 2. Session 3. Intersession 4. Intervention 5. Post-session

question

What happens in presession?

answer

- Meeting with the team to discuss any prior knowledge on the family coming in

question

What happens in session?

answer

The conductor meets with the family

question

What happens in intersession?

answer

- a break - The conductor goes and meets with the team

question

What happens in intervention?

answer

the conductor goes back in and presents the intervention the team decided on

question

What happens in post session?

answer

The team meets with conductor and goes over what happened

question

What is positive connotation?

answer

Milan's take on reframing, emphasizes that symptoms protect family harmony

question

What are Counterparadoxes?

answer

telling family members not to chain or change too quickly. This slows down attempted solutions by the family

question

What are rituals?

answer

Prescribe the family to do something highly scripted, the interactions act to interrupt patterns in the family. An example of this would be having a "funeral" for a symptom

question

What is the invariant prescription?

answer

Used with schizophrenics and eating disorders patients. You tell parents to leave in mysterious ways it separates the parents and the child d

question

What is hypothesizing in the Milan Evolved Model?

answer

It is identifying ideas/theories of what going on and allowing hypothesis to dictate the conversations with families

question

What is neutrality?

answer

It is when the therapist creates distance between themselves and the client

question

What stance is the therapist encouraged to have during therapy in the Milan evolved model?

answer

A nonjudgemental stance

question

What are the four types of circular questioning?

answer

1.Relational/interaction pattern questions 2. Future-oriented questions 3. Comparisons and ranking questions 4. Before and after change questions

question

What are relational/interaction pattern questions?

answer

Asking family member what another family member does when something happens

question

What are future oriented questions?

answer

They are about the relationship between two from the view of another, how one person responds or would respond to actions of another EX: Asking child, How does your dad react when you mom leaves unexpectedly?

question

What are comparison and ranking questions?

answer

EX: Who gets the most upset when...

question

What are before and after change questions?

answer

EX: How did things change from before a certain event happened

question

What is the metaphor that the Milan Model uses to describe the destructive patterns of a family?

answer

"The Family Game"

STUDY

Evolutionary Psychology Formal Operational Stage Give And Take Language Acquisition Device Language And Thought

Piaget, Vygotsky, and Interactionists – Flashcards 40 terms

Carmen Dawson

40 terms

Preview

Piaget, Vygotsky, and Interactionists – Flashcards

question

Interactionists

answer

These people assume that many factors affect the course of development, and that these factors are mutually dependent upon, interact with, and modify one another.

question

The causal relationships among the interactive variables that affect the course of development are:

answer

reciprocal

question

Vygotsky

answer

He believed that there is a closer relationship between language and thought than acknowledged by Piaget.

question

Vygotsky believed there is an interactive relationship between these three things:

answer

language, thought, and social conditions.

question

While language and thought are distinct and develop independently, logical reasoning does not develop until language and thought fuse with the development of:

answer

inner speech

question

For Vygotsky, unlike Piaget, language initially serves a

answer

social function.

question

Zone of Proximal Development

answer

the distance between the actual developmental level and the level of potential development

question

Sociocultural Theory

answer

Vygotsky - theorists of this group believe that thinking and learning are not as internal and individual as Piaget proposed, but rather are highly influenced by language, social interaction, and culture.

question

The most prominent sociocultural theorist is

answer

Vygotsky

question

Both Piaget and Vygotsky believe that children construct knowledge through

answer

action

question

How is Vygotsky's theory different from Piaget's theory?

answer

Vygotsky assigns greater importance to external influences -- language, social interaction, and the larger society.

question

To Vygotsky, language and thought are, at first,

answer

separate processes.

question

nonverbal thought

answer

children observe objects or events or perform actions without using language.

question

nonconceptual speech

answer

A child utters words or phrases without thinking fully about what they mean

question

a basic principle of Piagetian theory is that knowledge is constructed

answer

via the action of the child or learner

question

Piaget saw children as

answer

egocentric explorers

question

Piaget felt that adult language could not expand the thinking of a child ...

answer

beyond the limits of the child's own cognitive development.

question

Piaget's concept of Speech to self is

answer

words spoken aloud in the presence of others that doesn't require a response or even the attention of the listener.

question

Piaget viewed speech as developing from

answer

egocentric to social (because speech to self disappears as children develop social speech).

question

For Piaget, the development of language is based on

answer

the prior development of sensorimotor operations and a normal social environment in which spoken language is used.

question

Piaget thought that the development of sensorimotor operations is necessary for

answer

language development (not the other way around).

question

Piaget posited that "the child needs to complete, or nearly complete..(WHAT) before using language expressively.

answer

the sensorimotor period

question

Piaget's first stage of cognitive development

answer

Sensorimotor stage (Infants rely solely on action and the senses to know things)

question

Piaget's second stage of cognitive development

answer

Preoperational stage (Children can use symbols and internal thought to solve problems).

question

Piaget's third stage of cognitive development

answer

Concrete operational stage (age 7-11 - children are more abstract in their thinking)

question

Piaget's 4th stage of cognitive development

answer

Formal operational stage (11 through adulthood) Adolescents and adults can think abstractly and hypothetically.

question

Piaget's main thesis in his cognitive approach

answer

Mental growth develops via attempts of an organism to attain equilibrium (cognitive balance).

question

Piaget called successful attempts to attain equilibrium this.

answer

Adaptation (of an organism to its milieu).

question

Adaptation occurs as a result of these two related processes:

answer

assimilation and accommodation

question

Piaget believed that an infant is born with

answer

certain reflexive patterns of behavior or schemata which are modified through interaction with the environment.

question

the sociocultural role

answer

Vygotsky's Interactionist theories center on this role.

question

the cognitive role

answer

Piaget's Interactionist theories center on this role.

question

According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, how does child intelligence develop?

answer

Intelligence develops as children psychologically adapt to their environment and reconcile discrepancies between current forms of understanding and new physical experiences that contradict those forms of understanding.

question

What do interactionists assume?

answer

Many factors (social, linguistic, maturational/biological, cognitive) affect the course of development, and these factors are mutually dependent upon, interact with, and modify one another.

question

Social Interaction Approach

answer

According to this theoretical approach, language acquisition follows a transactional model of child-caregiver give-and-take in which the child learns to understand the rule of dialogue, not of syntax or semantics.

question

Sociocultural theorists believe that

answer

thinking and learning are not as internal and individual as Piaget proposed, but rather are highly influenced by language, social interaction, and culture

question

Vygotsky's SocioCultural Theory of Development stated that children learn

answer

through social interactions and their culture.

question

Did Piaget believe that cognition came before or after language?

answer

before. Cognition comes before language. (The child needs to complete or nearly complete the Sensorimotor period before using language).

question

Piaget - At which stage of cognitive development does oral language take off rapidly?

answer

Stage 2: Preoperational Stage

question

Interactionists are also referred to as

answer

Constructivists

STUDY

Give And Take Socialization

Adolescence Chapters 8,9, and 10 – Flashcards 262 terms

Steven Ramirez

262 terms

Preview

Adolescence Chapters 8,9, and 10 – Flashcards

question

the process by which children and adolescents socialize just as parents socialize.

answer

Reciprocal Socialization

question

constellatoin of subsystems that vary in terms of generation, gender, and role. Each family member is a participant in several subsystems. When the behavior of one family member changes, it can influence the behavior of other family members.

answer

The Family is a social system that can be thought of as

question

can influence parent-adolescent relationships.

answer

Physical, cognitive, and socioemotional changes in adolescents

question

is the most stressful during the apex of pubertal growth.

answer

Conflict between parents and adolescents

question

why they are being disciplined. Even when parents give, what seem to be logical reasons for discipline, adolescents' cognitive sophistication may call to attention to deficiencies in the reasoning.

answer

With increased logical skills, adolescents want to know

question

comes into play in parent-adolescent relationships. Parents are now evaluated against what an ideal parent is.

answer

The adolescent's increasing idealistic thought

question

may change. Preadolescent children are more compliant. As they enter puberty, children begin to question or seek rationales for parental demands. Begin to push more strongly for independence.

answer

Expecatation parents and adolescents have for each other

question

Marital satisfaction Economics burdens Career re-evaluation Time perspective Health and body concerns

answer

Parental changes that contribute to parent-adolescent relationships involves:

question

Adults follow one trajectory and children and adolescents follow another one.

answer

Multiple developmental trajectories:

question

how both adult and child/adolescent developemental trajectories mesh.

answer

It's important to consider

question

timing of entry into marriage, cohabitation or parenthood.

answer

Adult developmental trajectories include

question

timing of child care and entry into middle school.

answer

Child developmental trajectories include

question

effective monitoring. Especially important as children move into the adolescent years.

answer

A key aspect of the managerial role of parenting is

question

who find information, make contacts, help struture choices, and provide guidance.

answer

Parents can play an important role as effective managers

question

for the adolescents' social contact with peers, friends, and adults.

answer

Parents can serve as regulators of opportunies

question

emphasizes 4 styles of parenting that are associated with different aspects of adolescent's social behavior.

answer

Diana Baumrind

question

restrictive, punitivie style

answer

Authoritarian

question

parents encourage adolescents to be independent but still place limits and controls on their actions.

answer

Authoritative

question

parents are very univolved in adolescent's life

answer

Neglectful

question

parents are highly involved with their adolescents but place few demands on controls on them.

answer

Indulgent

question

positive aspects of development in adolescence.

answer

In, general researchers have found authoritative parenting to be related to

question

linked with positive outcomes in emerging adulthood children.

answer

A recent study examinded parenting styles with emerging adult children. Authoritative parenting style was

question

controlling-indulgent style on the part of both mothers and fathers.

answer

The most negative outcomes were related to a

question

The parenting styles don't capture reciprocal socialization. Many parents use a combinations of techniques rather than single technique. Some critics argue that the concept of parenting style is too board.

answer

Further thought on Baumrind's parenting styles

question

connotes self direction and independence.

answer

The term autonomy generally

question

emotional autonmoy, the capacity to relinquish childlike dependencies on parents.

answer

One aspect of Autonomy that is especially important is

question

Boys are usually given more independence than girls. Especially true in those US families with a traditional gender role orientation.

answer

Gender differences characterize autonmomy in adolescence

question

Cultures Parents Adolescents

answer

Expectations about the appropriate timeing of adolescent autonmoy often varys across

question

when they leave home and go away to college.

answer

Many emerging adults experience a transition in the developement of automony

question

As adolescents mature, they detach themselves from parents and move into a world of autonomy apart from parents. Parent adolescent conflict is intense and stressful throughtout adolescence.

answer

The old model or parent-adolescent relationships suggested that

question

Parents serve as important attachment figures, resources, and support systems as dolescents explore a complex social world. In general, parent adolescent conflict is only moderate and that everyday negotiations and minor disputes are normal.

answer

The new model of parent-adolescent relationships

question

as a secure base from which to explore the environment. Thought to be an important foundation for psychological development later in childhood, adolescence and adulthood.

answer

Securely attached infants use the caregiver, usually the mother,

question

either avoid the caregiver or show considerable resistance or ambivalence toward the caregiver. Thought to be related to difficullties in relationships and problems in later development.

answer

Insecurely attached infants

question

relationships with their parents improve when they leave home. Often grow closer psychologically to their parents and share more with them.

answer

For the most part, emerging adults'

question

yet still depending on parents in some manner. Many emerging adults continue to live at home or return to live at home.

answer

Challenges involve the emerging adult's increasing autonmoy by possessing adult statues in many areas,

question

Emotional quality of the relationship Familiarity and intimacy of the relationship Variation in sibling relationships

answer

Three important characteristics of sibling relationships

question

socializing adolescents than parents.

answer

Siblings can be more influential in

question

adolescent development, especially combined with poor parenting. Conflict decreases in emerging adulthood when less time is spent together.

answer

High sibling conflict can be detrimental to

question

effects on behavior have often been overemphasized. When all factor that influence adolescent behavior are considered, birth order itself shows limited ability to predict adolescent behavior. Some reviews show differences in intelligence, achievement, behavior, etc. Important to consider other influences aside from brith order.

answer

Family researchers have found that birth order

question

in a wider variety of famliy strutures than ever before in history. U.S has the highest percentage of single parent families, compared with virtually all other countries.

answer

More U.S adoelscents are growing up

question

will have lived a portion of their lives in a stepfamily.

answer

By age 18, 25% of all American children

question

will experience their parents' divorce. A majority of adolescents and emerging adults in divorce families don't have significant adjustment problems.

answer

Estimated that 40% of children borned to married parents

question

family processes matter a great deal.

answer

In divorced families,

question

the adjustment of adolescents is improved.

answer

When the divorced parents have a good relationship and us authoritative parenting

question

emotional problems, insecure social relationships, and antisocial behavior in adolescents.

answer

Conflict (especially when it is intense and prolonged) between divorced parents is linked to

question

Adolescent's adjustment prior to the divorce Personality and temperament Developmental Status Custody Gender Relocation Socioeconomic status

answer

Factors that are involved in the adolescent's individual risk vulnerability in a divoreced family

question

grown steadily in recent years.

answer

Number of remarriages involving children has

question

Stepfather Stepmother Blended or complex

answer

Different types of stepfamilies are based on family stucturea and relationships. Commons types of stepfamilies strutures

question

have more adjustment problems than counterparts in non divorced families.

answer

Adolescents in stepfamilies

question

the uncertanity in stepfamilies about who is in or out of the family and who is performing or responsible for certain tasks in the family system.

answer

Boundary ambiguity

question

especially difficult time for the formation of a stepfamily.

answer

Researchers have found that early adolescences is an

question

is a part of modern life, but its effects are still debated.

answer

Materanl employment

question

typically don't see their parents from the time they leave for school iln the morning until after work hours. Although latchkey adolescents can be vulnerable to problems, experiences of latchkys adoelscents vary greatly.

answer

Latchkey adolescents

question

most US adopted children were healthy, non latino white infants.

answer

In the first half of the 20th century

question

have been adopting a much wider diversity of children.

answer

US couples have increasingly

question

no income requiremtns and now allow adults from a wider range of backgrounds to adopt children. Difficult to generlaize about the average adopted adolescent or average adoptive parent.

answer

Many adoption agencies today have

question

effectively. Those adopted early are more likely to have positive outcomes than thoses adopted later.

answer

The vast majority of adopted children and adolescents adjsut

question

experience psychological and school related problems than non adopted children.

answer

Adopted children and adolescents are more likely to

question

are no difference than those for effectively parenting biological adolescents. Parents of adopted adolescents do face some unique circumstances. Ex. Recoginzing the differences involved in adoptive family life.

answer

Many of the keys to effectively parenting adopted adolescents

question

are creating families that include children and adolescents.

answer

Increasingly, gay and lesbian couples

question

sexual identity of parents of parents at the time of a childs' birth or adoption.

answer

An important aspect of gay male and lesbian familes with adolescents is the

question

differences in children and adolescents growing up with a gay fathers and lesbian mothers and in children and adolescetns growing up with heterosexual parents.

answer

Researchers have found few

question

Show them warmth and respect Demonstrate sustained interest in their lives Recognize and adapt to their changin cognitive and socioemotional development. Communicate expectations for high standards of conduct and achievement. Display authoritative, constructive ways of dealing with problems and conflict.

answer

Competent adolescent development is more likely to happen when adolescents have parents who:

question

larger number of acquaintances than children. Teens prefer a smaller number of friendships that are more intense and intimate.

answer

Adolescents typically have a

question

take on more importance.

answer

Cliques and crowds

question

become part of most adolescents' and emerging adults lives.

answer

Dating and romantic relationships

question

especially becomes important in emerging adulthood.

answer

Deciding on a specific lifestyle

question

individuals who are about the same age or maturity level.

answer

Peers

question

among peer groups is common. Would occur even if schools were not age graded and adolescents were left alone to determine the composition.

answer

Age grading

question

provide a source of information about the world outside the family.

answer

One of the most important functions of the peer groups is to

question

contexts (i.e., the type of peer the adolescent interacts, the situation or location where they are)

answer

Peer interaction is influenced by

question

influenced by factors such as how effectively parents manage adolescents' peer interactions and whether adults are present.

answer

Peer contexts also are

question

affect peer interactions.

answer

Individual differences factors and personality traits can

question

both positive and negative.

answer

Peer influences can be

question

fairness and justice by working through disagreements with peers.

answer

Individuals learn the principles of

question

and sensitive partners in intimate relationships by forging close friendships.

answer

Adolescents learn to be skilled

question

related to an individual's subsequent mental health.

answer

Rejection and neglect by peers are

question

the peer culture can be a corrupt influence that undermines parental values and control.

answer

For some adolescents,

question

parents have little authority to dictate adolescents' choices.

answer

Both parents and adolescents view peer relations as an area in which

question

Parents' choices of neighborhoods, churches, schools, and their own friends influence the pool from which their adolescents select possible friends. Parents can model or coach their adolescents in ways of relating to peers.

answer

What are some of the ways the worlds of parents and peers are in fact connnected?

question

conformity to peers peaks-especially conformity to their antisocial standards.

answer

Around the 8th and 9th grades,

question

their social identity are most likely to conform to peers. E.g low self-esteem, social anxiety.

answer

Adolescents who are uncertain about

question

when they are in the presence of someone they perceive to have higher status.

answer

Peers are also more likely to conform

question

the extent to which children and adolescents are liked or disliked by their peer group.

answer

Sociometric Status is used to describe

question

typically assessed by asking children to rate how much they like or dislike each of their classmates. It may also be assessed by asking children and adolescents to nominate the peers they like the most and those they like the least.

answer

Sociometric status is

question

5 types of peer statuses.

answer

Developmentalist have distinguished

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frequently nominated as a best friend and are rarely disliked by their peers.

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Popular children

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receive an average number of both positive and negative nominations from their peers.

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Average Children

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are infrequently nominated as a best friend but are not disliked by their peers.

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Neglected children

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infrequently nominated as someones's best friend and are actively disliked by their peers.

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Rejected children

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frequently nominated BOTH as someone's best friend and as being disliked.

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Controversial children

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involves thoughts about social matters.

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Social Cognition

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children and adolescents may have difficulty in peer relations because they lack appropriate social cognitive skills.

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From a social cognitive perspective,

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more social knowledge. Considerable individual variation in how much one adolescent knows about what it takes to make friends, to be accepted by peers. etc.

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Adolescent increasingly acquire

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related to peer popularity.

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Social intelligence is

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influences peer relations.

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Social information processing

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adolescents go through 5 steps in processing information about their social world. Decoding of social cues Interpretation Response search Selection of an optimal response Enactment

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Dodge argues that

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an important role in peer relations as well. For example, the ability to regulate emotion is linked to successful peer relations.

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Emotion plays

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who engage in mutual companionship, support and intimacy.

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Friends are a subset of peers

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Companionship Stimulation Physical support ego support social comparison intimacy/affection

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The functions that adolescents' friendships serve can be categorized in 6 ways

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the most influential theorist in the study of adolescent friendships and many of his ideas have withstood the test of time:

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Harry Stack Sullivan has been

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our emotional well-being.

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Everyone has basic social needs and whether these needs are fulfilled largely determines

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meeting social needs.

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During adolescence, friends become increasingly important in

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intensifies during early adolescence, motivating teenagers to seek out close friends.

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Need for intimacy

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they experience loneliness and a reduced sense of self-worth.

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If adolescent fail to forge such close friendships,

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Who has studied peer relations across 4 decades, argues that children and adolescents use friends as cognitive and social resources regularly.

answer

Willard Hartup

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important to consider.

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The quality of friendship is

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when adolescents have friends who are socially skilled, supportive, and oriented toward academic achievement.

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Developmental advantages occur

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have coercive, conflict-ridden, and poor-quality friendships.

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It is developmentally disadvantageous to

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Many aspects of friendship are the same in adolescence as in emerging adulthood.

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Friendship in emerging adulthood

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Close relationships in emerging adulthood were more integrated and similar than in adolescence.

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One difference was found in a recent longitudinal study

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decline in satisfaction and commitment in the first year of college.

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Another study indicated that best friendships often

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in the context of friendship, intimacy has been defined in different ways.

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Intimacy and similarity

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most often defined as self-disclosure or sharing of private thoughts.

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Intimacy

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intimacy is an important feature. .

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The most consistent finding in research on adolescent friendships is that

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friends are generally similar in terms of age, sex, ethnicity, etc. Similarity is referred to as homophily, the tendency to associate with similar others.

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Throughout the childhood and adolescent years,

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some become best friends with younger or older individuals.

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Although most adolescents develop friendships with individuals who are close to their age,

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Adolescents who interact with older youth DO engage in these behaviors more frequently. Unclear whether the older youth guide younger adolescents toward deviant behavior OR whether the younger adolescent were already prone to deviant behavior before they developed the friendship with the older youth.

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Do older friends encourage adolescents to engage in delinquent behavior or early sexual behavior?

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Each of us has times in our lives when we feel lonely.

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Loneliness

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a chronic condition.

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For some individuals loneliness is

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linked with impaired physical and mental health.

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Chronic loneliness is

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from the desire for solitude

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It's important to distinguish loneliness

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interwoven with the passage through life transitions.

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Loneliness is often

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may create loneliness especially if student leave the familiar world of their hometown and family to enter college.

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The first year of college

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Childhood groups often are friends or neighborhood acquaintances. Usually aren't as formalized as many adolescent groups.

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Childhood groups differ from adolescent groups in several important ways

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a broader array of members.

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Adolescent groups tend to include

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increases during adolescence.

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Opposite sex participation in social groups

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are small groups that range from 2 to 12 individuals and average 5 to 6 individuals. Members usually of the same sex and are similar in age.

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Cliques

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because adolescents engage in similar activities. Ex. club or sports team.

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Cliques tend to form

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larger and less personal than cliques

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Crowds are

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requtation, and they may or may not spend much (if any) time together.

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Adolescents are usually members of a based on

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by the activities adolescents engage in.

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Many crowds are defined

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early adolescence and usually becomes less prominent in late adolescence.

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Reputation-based crowds often appear for 1st time in

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on group size and interaction in same sex groups.

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Evidence related to the peer group focuses

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larger clusters.

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Boy are more likely than girls to associate in

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competition, conflict, ego displays, risk taking to seek dominance.

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Boys are more likely than girls to engage in

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emphasize power and excitement

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Boys friendships tend to

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"collaborativev discourse" in which they talk and act in a reciprocla manner.

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Females are more likely to engage in

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likely to focus on intimacy.

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Femlaes' friendship in adolescence are more

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serve many functions (ex. recreation, learning about intimacy)

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Dating can

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Strong sexual and infatuation components, often predominates in the early part of a love relationship. Characterizes most adolescents love and also extremely important among college students.

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Romantice Love (passionate love or eros)

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When individuals desire to have another person near and have a deep, caring affection for that person. More characteristic of adult love than adolescent love.

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Affectionate love (companionate love)

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3 stages characterize development of adolescent romantic relationships.

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Heterosexual romantic relationships have

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11 to 13 years of age. Triggered by puberty, developing a crush is common.

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Entry into Romantic attraction and affiliations

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14 to 16 years of age, casual dating and dating in groups occur.

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Exploring romantic relationships

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17 to 19 years of age, characterized by strong emotional bonds more closely resembling those in adult romantic relationships.

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Consolildating dyadic romanitic bonds

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heterosecual adolescent dating.

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Most studies focus on

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gay, lesbian and bisexual adolescent fully. Experiences and desires likely differ in important ways.

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Important to explore romantic relationships in

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a bit later than heterosexual individuals.

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Many experience initial same sex activity

question

but few have same sex romantic relationships because of social stigma and disapproval from families.

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Many have same sex sexual experience

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Studies of romantic breakups have mainly focused on their negative aspects.

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Dissolution of a romantic relationship

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the possibility that romantic breakup might lead to positive changes. Could be many positive outcomes.

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Few studies have examinded

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that self reported positive growth was common following romantic breakups.

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One study of college students found

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different motivations to the dating experience.

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Male and female adolescents bring

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in terms of interpersonal qualities.

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Girls are more likely to describe romance

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physical attraction.

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Boys describe romance in terms of

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the cognitve models that adolescents and adults use to guide and evalutate dating interactions.

answer

Dating Scripts

question

exerts a powerful influence.

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Sociocultural context

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people in various cultures often dictate.

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Values and religious beliefs of

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when changes often take place in romantic relationships, characterized by residential and lifestyle changes.

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Emerging adulthood is a time

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lifestyles and form many types of families, don't commonly follow traditions.

answer

Emerging adults today choose many

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dramatic rise in the percentage of single adults.

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Recent decades have seen a

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forming intimate relationships with other adults, confronting loneliness.

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Common problems of single adults may include

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Having time to make decisions about one's life course. Time to develop personal resources to meet goals. Freedom to make autonomous decisions. Opportunities to explore new places and try out new things. Privacy.

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Advantages of being single include;

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living together in a sexual relationships without being married.

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Cohabitation

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number of cohabiting US couples since 1970.

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Dramatic increase in

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75% cohabitiing prior to getting married

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More than

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ongoing lifestyle as opposed to a precursor to marriage.

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Many cohabiting adults view this as a

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short lived, with one third lasting less than a year.

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Cohabiting arrangements tend to be

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down from 70% in 1960.

answer

Currently, slightly over 50% of Americans are married,

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remainging single longer today.

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More adults are

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first marrigage is higher than at any point in history.

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The US average age for a

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to the decline in marriage rates.

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The increase in cohabitation and a slight decline in the percentage of divorced individuals who remarry also contribute

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live longer, healthier lives than either divorced individuals or those who are unhappily married.

answer

Individuals who are happily married

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shorten a person's life by an average of four years.

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An unhappy marriage can

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similar to heterosexual relationships in their satisfactions, loves, joys and conflicts.

answer

In many ways, gay males and lesbian relationships are

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flexible in their gender roles than heterosexual individuals.

answer

Some have found that gay males and lesbian couples are more

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that are not supported by research.

answer

A number of misconceptions exist about gay and lesbian couples

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epidemic in the US.

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Divorce has become an

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down from recent decades.

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3.6 divorces per 1000 people in 2010,

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Youthful marriage Low educaitonal level Not having a religious affiliation Coming from families in which parents are divorced Becoming parents before marriage.

answer

Some groups have a higher incidence of divorce

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it usually takes place early in marriage (5th to 10th year)

answer

If a divorce is going to occur,

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difficluty in trusting someone else ina romantic relationship.

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Psychologically, one of the most commn characteristics of divorced adults is

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which can be positive as well as negative.

answer

However, people's lives can take diverse turns following a divorce,

question

two approaches: constructivist and direct instruction. Most teachers use a combination of both

answer

Contemporary Approaches to student learning

question

Empasizes importance of individuals actively constructiong their knowledge and understanding with guidance from the teacher.

answer

The constructivist approach is learner centered

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teacher direction and control high teacher expectations for student's progress maxium time spent by students on academic tasks effforts by the teacher to keep negative affect to a minimum An important goal is maximizing student learning time.

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The Direct instruction approach is stuctured and teacher centered, characterized by

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increased accountability from schools.

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Since 1990s, the US public and governments at every level have demanded

question

state mandated tests to measure just what students had or had not learned.

answer

One result has been the spread of

question

the No Child Left Behind (NCLB) legislation was signed into law.

answer

Became national policy in 2002 when

question

number of positive effects, including improved stuent performance.

answer

Advocates argue that statewide standardized testing will have a

question

doing more harm than good.

answer

Critics argue that the NCLB legislation is

question

presents very narrow view of students' skill

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Single test as sole indicator of student's progress and competence

question

difference critieria for what consititutes pass or failing grades. Many states have kept the standard for pass low.

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Each state has

question

difficult and stressful for many students. Takes place at a time when many changes in the individual, in the family, and in school are occurring simultaneously.

answer

The transition to middle or junior high school can be

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top dog phenomenon.

answer

When students make the transitition, they experience the

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Moving from being the oldest, biggest and most powerful students in elementary school to being the youngest, smallest and east powerful students in teh middle or junior high school.

answer

Top dog Phenomenon

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educational and societal problem for many decades.

answer

Dropping out of high school has been an

question

declined in recent years.

answer

High school dropout rates have

question

school related, economic, family related, peer related and personal reasons.

answer

Students drop out of school for

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are morely likely to drop out than those from middle income families.

answer

Students from low income families

question

friends who are also droputs.

answer

Many dropouts have

question

for personal reasons, such as pregnancy or marriage.

answer

Approximately 1/3 of girls drop out

question

Replays the top dog phenomenon. Move to a larger more impersonal school structure Interactino with peers from more diverse geographical backgrounds ande ethnic backgrounds. Increased focus on achievement and performance The transition can have positve aspects.

answer

The transitions from high school to college parallels transition to middle and high school in many ways.

question

is a strong asset.

answer

Having a college degree

question

those who don't graduate.

answer

College graduates can enter careers where they will earn more money in their lifetimes than

question

often difficult.

answer

The transition from college to work is

question

stress and are more depressed than in the past.

answer

Today's college students experience more

question

with shifting job market with fast-paced technological development.

answer

Sometimes difficult for colleges to provide training that keeps up

question

at the preschool, elementary, and secondary level.

answer

Social contexts differs

question

the classroom is the major context.

answer

In preschool and elementary school,

question

the school environment increases in scope and complexity. The social field is the school as a whole rather than the classroom.

answer

In middle or junior high schools,

question

is usually aware of the school as a social system.

answer

The student in secondary school

question

to present a positive environment for learning.

answer

It's important for classrooms

question

Using an Authoritative strategy Effectively managing the groups activities.

answer

Two effective general strategies for creating positive classroom environments are

question

encourages students to be independent thinkers and doers with effective monitoring.

answer

Authoritative Strategy

question

with much less effective strategies.

answer

The authoritative strategy contrasts

question

Restrictive and punitive, with the focus mainly on keeping order rather than on instruction and learning.

answer

Authoritarian Strategy of classroom management

question

Offers students considerable autonomy but provides them with little support for developing skills or managing their behavior.

answer

Permissive strategy of classroom management

question

fosters meaningful learning but also helps prevent academic and emotional problems from developing. Keeps students busy with active, appropriately challenging tasks. Has activities that encourage students to become absorbed and motivated and learn clear rules and regulations.

answer

A well managed classroom

question

lack of fit.

answer

Some of the negative psychological changes associated with adolescent development result from a

question

mismatch between the needs of developing adolescents and the opportunities afforded them by the schools they attend.

answer

Lack of fit

question

to make their school setting more personal, less formal, and more intrinsically challenging.

answer

Students benefit when teachers think of ways

question

family management practices are positively related to grades and self responsibility and negatively to school related problems.

answer

Parents

question

Maintaining a structural and organized family environment. Establishing routines for homework, chores, bedtime. etc. High expectations for achievement.

answer

Important to

question

Middle schools are structured in a way that encourages students to interact with larger numbers of peers on a daily basis.

answer

Peers

question

Being popular or accepted by peers is usually associated with academic success. Being rejected by peers is related to more negative academic outcomes.

answer

Peer statues have been studied in relation to school success.

question

Significant numbers of students are victimized by bullies.

answer

Bullying

question

gender differences regarding victims of boys is less clear.

answer

Boys are more likely to be bully girls but

question

most likely to be bullied.

answer

Boys and younger middle school students are

question

often the victims of bullying.

answer

Anxious, socially withdrawn and aggressive children are

question

Higher grades School engagement Less liklihood of dropping out Improved probability of going to college Higher self esteem Lower rates of depression, delinquency and substance abuse.

answer

Participation in extracurricular activities is linked to

question

Are more likely to have more students with low achievement scores and low graduation rates. Small percentages of students going to college. Are more likely to have young teachers with less experience. More non credentialed or non qualified teachers. More substitue teachers who regularly fill in. Are more likely to encourage rote learning. Don't provide adequate support for English language learners. Are still fairly segregated.

answer

Compared with schools in higher income areas, schools in lower income areas

question

Education that values diversity and includes the perspectives of a variety of cultural groups.

answer

Multicultural Education

question

civil rights movement of the 1960s and the call for equality and social justice for women and people of color.

answer

Multicultural Education grew out of

question

equal educational opportunity for all students.

answer

An importnat goal of Multicultural Education is

question

understanding or using spoken or written language. The difficulty can appear in listening, thinking, reading, writing, or spelling. Also may involve difficulty in doing mathematics.

answer

Adolescents with learning disabilities have difficulty in learning that involves

question

little to educate adolescents with disabilities.

answer

For many years, public schools did

question

mandated that all children and adolescents with disabilities receive a free, appropriate education. Increasingly, theses students are being educated in the regular classroom.

answer

In the last several decades, federal legislation has

question

the percentage of U.S students receiving special education services for a learning disability.

answer

Dramatic increases from the mid 1970s through the mid 1990s in

question

poor diagnostic practices and over identification. Teachers sometimes are too quick to label children with the slightest learning problem as having a learning disability.

answer

Some experts say that the dramatic increase reflected

question

which one or more of these characteristics are consistently shown, inattention, hyperactivity and impulsivity over a period of time.

answer

ADHA is a disability in

question

has increased substantially.

answer

The number of children and adolescents diagnosed and treated for ADHD

question

4 to 9 times more in boys than in girls.

answer

This disorder occurs as much as

question

have not been found.

answer

Definitive causes of ADHD

question

Genetic inheritance of a predisposition. Brain damage during prenatal or postnatal development.

answer

A number of causes have been proposed including

question

enhance the problems associated with ADHD.

answer

The increased academic and social demands of formal schooling and strict standards for behavioral control often

question

decreases in only about one-third of adolescents. It's increasingly being recognized that these problems may continue into adulthood.

answer

Recent estimates suggest that ADHD

question

stimulant medication (ex. ritalin or adderall) is effective in improving the attention of many children with ADHD. Usually doesn't improve attention to the same level as children who don't have ADHD. Behavior management treatments.

answer

Treatment of ADHD

question

stimulants for children with milder forms of ADHD.

answer

Critics argue that many physicians are too quick to prescribe

question

either refused enrollment to children with disabilities or inadequately served them.

answer

Until the 1970s most U.S public schools

question

that all students with disabilities be given free, appropriate public education.

answer

In 1975, Public law 94-142, the Educational for All Handicapped Children Act, requires

question

Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA). Spells out broad mandates for services to children with disabilities of all kinds.

answer

In 1990, public law 94-142 was recast as the

question

written statement that spells out a program specifically tailored for a student with a disability.

answer

Individualized education plan (IEP)

question

a setting as similar as possible to one in which children who don't have a disability are educated.

answer

Least restrictive environment (LRE)

question

education a child with special education needs full time in the regular classroom. Some education experts argue that some children with disabilities may not benefit from inclusion in the regular classroom.

answer

Inclusion

question

above average intelligence (usually defined as an IQ of 130 or higher) and or superior talent in some domain, such as art, music, or mathematics.

answer

Adolescents who are gifted have

question

Precocity Marching to their own drummer A passion to master

answer

Characteristics of children who are gifted:

question

product of both heredity and environment. Those who are gifted often recall signs of high ability in a specific area at a very young age, prior to or at the beginning of formal training.

answer

Giftedness is a

question

typically not gifted in all domains. During the childhood and adolescent years, the domain(s) in which individuals are gifted usually emerges.

answer

Individuals who are highly gifted are

question

disruptive, skip classes and lose interest in achieving.

answer

Underchallenged students who are gifted can become

question

socially isolated and underchallenged in the classroom.

answer

A number of experts argue that too often students who are gifted are

STUDY

Give And Take International Trade Linguistics Oral Communication Problem Solution Order Specific Purpose Statement

Chapter 13 Delivery – Flashcards 62 terms

Richard Molina

62 terms

Preview

Chapter 13 Delivery – Flashcards

question

Good speech delivery

answer

a. is accompanied by frequent gestures. b. requires that the speaker have a strong voice. c. sounds conversational even though it has been rehearsed. d. draws the attention of the audience away from the message. e. is best achieved by reading from a manuscript. ANSWER C

question

Good speech delivery

answer

a. has a conversational quality. b. does not call attention to itself. c. requires a strong voice. d. all of the above. e. a and b only Answer E

question

Communication based on a speaker's body and voice, rather than on the use of words, is called

answer

a. implicit communication. b. nonverbal communication. c. unintentional communication. d. instinctive communication. e. physical communication Answer B

question

In which situation would a speaker be most likely to read from a manuscript?

answer

a. a speech accepting an award at a company banquet b. a speech in honor of a retiring employee c. a speech on international policy at the United Nations d. a speech on the activities of a church social committee e. a speech of welcome to new members of the Rotary Club Answer C

question

answer

a. manuscript b. impromptu c. monotonous d. colloquial e. memorized Answer B

question

When speaking from a manuscript, you should

answer

a. practice aloud to make sure the speech sounds natural. b. be certain the final manuscript is legible at a glance. c. work on establishing eye contact with the audience. d. all of the above. e. a and b only. ANSWER D

question

In which situation would a speaker be most likely to recite a speech from memory?

answer

a. when making a toast at a wedding b. when responding to questions during a class lecture c. when reporting earnings to the yearly stockholders' meeting d. when presenting a lengthy proposal to the city council e. when rallying a group to work for lower tuition Answer A

question

According to your textbook, the __________ speaker delivers a speech with little or no immediate preparation.

answer

a. colloquial b. extemporaneous c. conversational d. impromptu e. declamatory ANSWER D

question

Which of the following does your textbook recommend when you need to speak impromptu?

answer

a. Maintain eye contact with the audience. b. Use signposts to help listeners keep track of your ideas. c. Tell the audience how nervous you are. d. all of the above e. a and b only Answer E

question

Diego needs to make an impromptu response to another speaker at a staff meeting. Your textbook recommends that he should do all of the following except

answer

a. state the point he is answering. b. state the point he wishes to make. c. maintain eye contact with the audience. d. tell the audience how nervous he is about impromptu speaking. e. use signposts to help the audience keep track of his ideas. Answer D

question

The __________ speaker uses only brief notes or a speaking outline to jog the memory

answer

a. after-dinner b. commemorative c. informative d. extemporaneous e. persuasive Answer D

question

A speech that is fully prepared in advance but that is delivered from a brief set of notes or a speaking outline is called a(n) __________ speech.

answer

a. extemporaneous b. declamatory c. impromptu d. manuscript e. vocalized ANSWER A

question

Speaking extemporaneously

answer

a. gives more control over language than does speaking from memory. b. is adaptable to more situations than is speaking from manuscript. c. offers more spontaneity and directness than does speaking impromptu. d. all of the above. e. b and c only. Answer D

question

Which of the following does your textbook mention as an advantage of extemporaneous delivery?

answer

a. It requires only a minimal amount of gesturing by the speaker. b. It reduces the likelihood of a speaker making vocalized pauses. c. It improves a speaker's ability to articulate difficult words correctly. d. It requires little or no preparation before the speech is delivered. e. It allows greater spontaneity than does speaking from a manuscript. Answer E

question

Which of the following does your textbook mention as an advantage of extemporaneous delivery?

answer

a. It encourages a conversational quality in a speaker's delivery. b. It requires little or no preparation before the speech is given. c. It allows greater spontaneity than does speaking from a manuscript. d. all of the above e. a and c only Answer E

question

According to your textbook, the skilled extemporaneous speaker

answer

a. has a conversational tone. b. prepares and practices the speech carefully. c. uses brief notes while delivering the speech. d. all of the above. e. b and c only. Answer D

question

According to your textbook, a speech that sounds spontaneous to the audience no matter how many times it has been rehearsed has a strong __________ quality.

answer

a. impromptu b. memorized c. conversational d. kinesic e. formal Answer C

question

"Conversational quality" in speech delivery means that the speech

answer

a. sounds spontaneous even though it has been rehearsed. b. is being presented from memory. c. has been rehearsed only once. d. all of the above. e. b and c only. Answer A

question

Enzo is giving a speech in his art history course. He has carefully prepared his presentation and plans to deliver it from a brief set of note cards. What kind of delivery is Enzo using?

answer

a. informal b. memorized c. extemporaneous d. impromptu e. formal Answer C

question

Sofia has prepared her speech in great detail. She is practicing to deliver it from a brief set of notes, and every time she goes through the speech, she uses slightly different wording. What kind of delivery is Sofia planning to use?

answer

a. informal b. memorized c. extemporaneous d. impromptu e. manuscript Answer C

question

The relative highness or lowness of sounds produced by the human voice is called

answer

a. rate. b. pitch. c. tone. d. quality. e. volume. Answer B

question

It is the __________ of your voice that reveals whether you are asking a question or making a statement, whether you are being sincere or sarcastic.

answer

a. spontaneity b. variety c. resonance d. inflection e. rate Answer D

question

According to your textbook, inflection refers to the

answer

a. dialect of a speaker. b. speed at which a person speaks. c. changes in the pitch of a speaker's voice. d. clarity of a speaker's articulation. e. loudness or softness of a speaker's voice. ANSWER C

question

Changes in the pitch or tone of a speaker's voice are called

answer

a. phonemes. b. polytones. c. enunciations. d. inflections. e. accents. Answer D

question

The best rate of speech depends on the

answer

a. vocal attributes of the speaker. b. mood the speaker is trying to create. c. composition of the audience. d. all of the above. e. a and b only. Answer D

question

Which of the following would probably call for a faster speaking rate than normal?

answer

a. expressing sadness or contempt b. describing the winning touchdown in last week's game c. summarizing information already familiar to an audience d. all of the above e. b and c only Answer B

question

If you hoped to convey to your audience the excitement of steering a kayak through a river rapids, you should probably

answer

a. speak at a faster rate. b. use more vocalized pauses. c. break eye contact with your audience. d. gesture less frequently. e. avoid using dialect. Answer A

question

Malcolm said "um" or "uh" every time he got to a new PowerPoint slide in his informative speech. His instructor told Malcolm to reduce the number of __________ in his next speech.

answer

a. fillers b. vocal inflections c. intonations d. vocalized pauses e. inflections ANSWER D

question

A public speaker who frequently says "uh," "er," or "um" is failing to make effective use of

answer

a. vocal variety. b. pauses. c. pitch. d. rate. e. inflection Answer B

question

According to your textbook, "uh," "er," "um," and similar expressions in a public speech are referred to as

answer

a. vocal fillers. b. signposts. c. intonations. d. vocalized pauses. e. inflections. Answer D

question

Changes in a speaker's rate, pitch, and volume are referred to as

answer

a. vocal direction. b. vocal credibility. c. vocal pronunciation. d. vocal contact. e. vocal variety. Answer E

question

Forming particular speech sounds crisply and distinctly is called

answer

a. verbalization. b. articulation. c. vocalized pausing. d. pronunciation. e. intonation. ANSWER B

question

According to your textbook, saying "dunno" instead of "don't know" is an error in

answer

a. accent. b. articulation. c. vocalization. d. intonation. e. emphasis. Answer B

question

According to your textbook, saying "didja" instead of "did you" is an error in

answer

a. vocalization. b. intonation. c. emphasis. d. accent. e. articulation Answer E

question

According to your textbook, saying "pasghetti" instead of "spaghetti" is an error in

answer

a. articulation. b. description. c. intonation. d. pronunciation. e. inflection. Answer A

question

According to your textbook, saying "Feb-u-ary" instead of "Feb-ru-ary" is an error in

answer

a. articulation. b. pronunciation. c. description. d. intonation. e. inflection. Answer B

question

Carl's mother is from England and calls oregano a "herb," but his father is from the U.S. and calls it an "erb." According to your textbook, this difference in how the word sounds is a matter of

answer

a. inflection. b. enunciation. c. personal choice. d. intonation. e. dialect Answer E

question

According to your textbook, when people in one region of the country say "warter," while people in another region of the country say "water," the difference is a matter of

answer

a. inflection. b. verbalization. c. dialect. d. enunciation. e. intonation. Answer C

question

According to your textbook, when people in one region of the country say "worsh," while people in another region of the country say "wash," the difference is a matter of

answer

a. inflection. b. verbalization. c. enunciation. d. intonation. e. dialect. Answer E

question

What does your textbook say about speech dialects?

answer

a. Most languages have dialects. b. Dialects are usually based on regional or ethnic speech patterns. c. No dialect is inherently better or worse than another dialect. d. all of the above e. a and b only ANSWER D

question

Nonverbal communication includes a speaker's

answer

a. gestures. b. eye contact. c. rate of speech. d. all of the above. e. a and b only ANSWER E

question

Nonverbal communication is based on a speaker's

answer

a. language. b. vocal delivery. c. bodily actions. d. all of the above. e. b and c only Answer C

question

What does your textbook advise regarding the use of gestures in a speech?

answer

a. Gestures should be suited to the audience and occasion. b. Speakers should have a vast number of graceful gestures. c. Gestures should appear natural and spontaneous. d. all of the above e. a and c only Answer C

question

The study of bodily motion and gestures is part of a subject called

answer

a. cybernetics. b. kinetics. c. cryogenics. d. kinesics. e. cryonics. ANSWER D

question

__________ is the study of body motions as a form of communication.

answer

a. Kinesics b. Gesturals c. Physiography d. Anatomics e. Mimetics Answer A

question

Sandra is giving a presentation in her physics class and is worried about what she should do with her hands. Which of the following recommendations would she find in your textbook?

answer

a. Gesture toward the audience with an open palm during the introduction. b. Hold your hands tightly in front of you to prevent distracting gestures. c. Focus on communicating, and your gestures will usually take care of themselves. d. all of the above e. a and c only Answer C

question

Ivory will be giving a presentation for her company to a group of prospective customers at an international trade show, and she is deciding what to wear. According to your textbook, which of the following statements about the role of personal appearance in speech-making should she keep in mind when making her decision?

answer

a. A speaker's personal appearance should be in keeping with the occasion of the speech. b. Research has shown that bright-colored clothing has a more favorable impact on listeners. c. In most cases, listeners' attitudes are not influenced by the way a speaker is dressed. d. all of the above e. a and b only ANSWER A

question

In which of the following situations will the personal appearance of the speaker have an impact on the audience?

answer

a. a politician presenting a campaign speech b. a business executive giving a financial report c. a professor giving a lecture d. all of the above e. a and b only Answer D

question

What does your textbook say about eye contact for public speakers who address audiences in the United States?

answer

a. To appear credible and trustworthy, a speaker should gaze intently at one section of the audience. b. In classroom speeches, it is most important to maintain steady eye contact with the instructor. c. Speakers should look at the audience about 80 to 90 percent of the time they are talking. d. Speakers who establish strong eye contact with the audience lose credibility as a result. e. Even with a large audience, engaging the eyes of each person is preferable to scanning the audience in general. ANSWER C

question

During her speech on malpractice insurance, the head of the local branch of the American Medical Association consistently avoided making eye contact with her audience. According to research on the role of nonverbal communication in public speaking, the audience was likely to perceive her as

answer

a. insincere. b. trustworthy. c. inexperienced. d. credible. e. inconsistent Answer A

question

What advice does your textbook give for practicing speech delivery?

answer

a. Concentrate on gaining control of the ideas instead of learning the speech word for word. b. Practice your speech in front of a mirror to check for eye contact and distracting mannerisms. c. Put delivery cues on your speaking outline to remind you where to pause, slow down, and the like. d. all of the above e. a and c only Answer D

question

What advice does your textbook give for practicing speech delivery?

answer

a. Give your speech to friends and family members. b. Practice delivering your speech with your visual aids. c. Concentrate on learning your speech word for word. d. all of the above e. a and b only Answer E

question

What advice does your textbook give for practicing speech delivery?

answer

a. Record the speech to check how it sounds. b. Prepare a speaking outline at the end of your rehearsal process. c. Try to limit yourself to a single practice session. d. all of the above e. a and c only Answer A

question

What does your textbook recommend as the first step of practicing delivery?

answer

a. Record your speech and listen to it so you can refine your delivery. b. Prepare your speaking outline so it is brief and easy to read at a glance. c. Go through your preparation outline aloud to see if what is written works orally. d. Rehearse your speech in front of a mirror to check your body language. ANSWER D

question

What does your textbook recommend regarding the last step of practicing delivery for a speech?

answer

a. Listen to a tape of the speech and make last-minute changes in it. b. Practice the speech in front of a mirror to check your body language. c. Prepare your speaking outline so it is brief and easy to read at a glance. d. Rehearse under conditions as close as possible to the actual speech situation. e. Time yourself as you practice the speech out loud and as you use visual aids. Answer D

question

When approaching the lectern and beginning your speech, you should

answer

a. start immediately so your audience does not become impatient. b. create a bond with the audience by acknowledging your nervousness. c. establish eye contact with the audience before you start to speak. d. all of the above. e. a and b only. ANSWER C

question

When you get to the lectern at the start of a speech, you should

answer

a. take time to arrange your notes how you want them. b. create a bond with the audience by acknowledging your nervousness. c. stand quietly and wait to make sure everyone is paying attention. d. all of the above. e. a and c only. Answer A

question

As your textbook explains, when preparing for a question-and-answer session, you should

answer

a. anticipate possible questions. b. write out your answers in full. c. practice the delivery of your answers. d. all of the above. e. a and c only. Answer E

question

When conducting a question-and-answer session, you should

answer

a. allow each questioner to ask as many followup questions as they wish. b. try to bluff your way through when faced with a question you can't answer. c. direct your answers primarily to the audience as a whole. d. all of the above. e. a and b only. Answer C

question

When conducting a question-and-answer session, you should

answer

a. respond to hostile questions in a hostile manner. b. view the session as one more opportunity to communicate your ideas. c. allow each questioner to ask as many followup questions as they wish. d. all of the above. e. b and c only. Answer B

question

Which of the following are mentioned by your textbook as guidelines for managing a question-and-answer session?

answer

a. Direct answers to the entire audience. b. Be honest and straight-forward. c. Stay on track. d. all of the above. e. a and b only. ANSWER D

question

The Dean of Students is introducing a new campus policy on alcohol use. After the presentation, he will respond to questions from students, local residents, and reporters. To prepare for this question-and-answer session, the Dean should

answer

a. ask his staff to anticipate potential questions. b. write out answers to potential questions. c. practice the delivery of his answers. d. all of the above. e. a and b only. Answer D

STUDY

1954 Supreme Court Decision Cause Effect Relationship Fairness And Justice Give And Take Linguistics Problem Solution Order Public Speaking Speaker And Listener

Speech quiz 9 – Flashcards 20 terms

Margaret Bruce

20 terms

Preview

Speech quiz 9 – Flashcards

question

The time given to each main point in the body of a speech should be exactly the same.

answer

False

question

Clear organization is usually less important in speaking than in writing.

answer

False

question

"The most important point to remember about . . ." is an example of a signpost.

answer

True

question

A speech explaining the steps involved in making bread from beginning to end would be arranged in spatial order.

answer

False

question

According to your textbook, transitions, internal previews, internal summaries, and signposts are examples of

answer

connectives.

question

Strategic organization means putting a speech together in a particular way to achieve a particular result with a particular audience.

answer

True

question

Which organizational pattern would probably be most effective for arranging the main points of a speech with the specific purpose "To inform my audience about the three major kinds of drone aircraft used by the U.S. military"?

answer

topical

question

If a speech is 45 minutes long, an audience can be expected to keep track of as many as a dozen main points.

answer

False

question

According to your textbook, brief statements that help listeners follow your ideas by indicating exactly where you are in the speech are called

answer

signposts.

question

According to your textbook, if the following statement occurred in the body of a speech, it would be an example of what kind of connective? Now that we have learned about the history of Mormonism, let's consider its major beliefs.

answer

transition

question

According to your textbook, it is usually best to prepare the body of the speech before the introduction.

answer

True

question

According to your textbook, if the following statement occurred in the body of a speech, it would be an example of what kind of connective? In addition to helping people in need, working as a hospital volunteer provides you with valuable job experience.

answer

transition

question

When the main points of a speech follow a time pattern, they are organized in

answer

chronological order.

question

If the following connective were used between the last two main points in an informative speech, the speech would most likely be organized in __________ order. So far we have seen that the earliest roller coasters were developed in Russia and by the mid-1920s were very popular throughout the United States. Today, U.S. amusement parks attract millions of visitors because of their adventurous roller coasters. Let's take a look now at what the future holds for roller coasters.

answer

chronological

question

"Now that we have explored the problem, let's turn to the solution" is an example of an internal preview.

answer

False

question

Which organizational pattern is used in a speech with the following the main points? I. Soda lime glass is used in almost all ordinary glass products. II. Lead crystal glass is used mostly for luxury glass products. III. Heat resistant glass is used for cooking and scientific products.

answer

topical

question

"Now that we have seen the causes of unrest in central Africa, we shall turn to their effects . . ." is an example of a(n)

answer

transition.

question

Here are the main points for an informative speech about the accomplishments of Leonardo da Vinci. I. As a painter, da Vinci produced the Mona Lisa and other masterpieces. II. As an inventor, da Vinci drew plans for a parachute and a flying machine. III. As an astronomer, da Vinci concluded that the earth revolves around the sun. These main points are arranged in __________ order.

answer

topical

question

Having worked in the personnel department of a local retailer, Violet decided to give her informative speech on how to have a successful job interview. In moving from one of her main points to another, she said: Now that we've seen how important the handshake is in creating a first impression, let's move to the way eye contact can make or break your interview. What kind of connective did Violet use in this statement?

answer

transition

question

Which organizational pattern would probably be most effective for arranging the main points of a speech with the specific purpose "To persuade my audience that our state legislature should enact tougher laws to deal with the problem of motorists who run red lights."

answer

problem-solution

STUDY

Cause Effect Relationship Connotative Meaning Of A Word Denotative Meaning Of A Word Facts And Figures Give And Take Linguistics Public Speaking Speaker And Listener Specific Purpose Statement

Public Speaking Unit 2 Test – Flashcards 40 terms

August Dunbar

40 terms

Preview

Public Speaking Unit 2 Test – Flashcards

question

According to your textbook, it is usually best to prepare the body of the speech before the introduction.

answer

true

question

"Above all, you need to know..." is an example of a signpost.

answer

True

question

The most effective order for the main points of a speech depends upon the topic, the specific purpose, and the audience.

answer

True

question

"Now that we have explored the problem, let's turn to the solution" is an example of an internal preview.

answer

False

question

Speeches arranged in chronological order follow a time pattern.

answer

True

question

In topical order, the main points proceed from top to bottom, left to right, front to back, east to west, or some similar route.

answer

False

question

How well a speech is organized affects how listeners view the speaker's competence and trustworthiness.

answer

True

question

Speeches arranged in problem-solution order are divided into four main parts.

answer

False

question

If a speech is 45 minutes long, an audience can be expected to keep track of as many as a dozen main points.

answer

False

question

According to your textbook, an internal summary must be used after every main point in a speech.

answer

False

question

When making a preparation outline, you should state your main points and subpoints in full sentences to ensure that you develop your ideas fully.

answer

True

question

According to your textbook, the introduction, body, and conclusion should all be labeled in a speech preparation outline.

answer

True

question

In the most common system of outlining, main points are identified by Roman numerals and sub points by capital letters.

answer

True

question

Including the specific purpose with your preparation outline makes it easier to assess how well you have constructed the speech to accomplish your purpose.

answer

True

question

The speaking outline follows a different pattern of symbolization and indentation from the preparation outline.

answer

False

question

"Are Our Bridges Safe?" would be an appropriate title for a speech on bridge safety.

answer

True

question

It is seldom necessary to write out quotations in full in a speaking outline.

answer

False

question

The visual framework of a preparation outline shows the relationships among the speaker's ideas.

answer

True

question

Delivery cues should be included on both the preparation and speaking outlines.

answer

True

question

The speaking outline is essentially a manuscript of your speech.

answer

False

question

The words we use to label an event determine to a great extent how we respond to that event.

answer

True

question

Connotative meaning is precise, literal, and objective.

answer

False

question

A speaker should avoid using familiar words because they make a speech sound trite.

answer

False

question

Language needs to be appropriate to a speaker herself or himself, as well as to the audience, topic, and occasion.

answer

True

question

A speech dominated by abstract words will almost always be clearer than one dominated by concrete words.

answer

False

question

"The Olympic flame burns inside every competitor, igniting their desire to win gold" is an example of a metaphor.

answer

True

question

Antithesis and alliteration are excellent ways to enhance the imagery of a speech.

answer

False

question

"Ask not what your country can do for you; ask what you can do for your country" is an example of antithesis.

answer

True

question

Using language with a strong rhythm can increase the impact of a speaker's words.

answer

True

question

As your textbook explains, using inclusive language in a speech is important primarily as a matter of political correctness.

answer

False

question

If you were showing statistical trends in a speech, the best visual aid to use would probably a pie graph.

answer

False

question

Your textbook recommends that you make a PowerPoint slide for every point in your speech.

answer

False

question

Research has shown that an average speaker who uses visual aids will come across as more credible and better prepared than a speaker who does not use visual aids.

answer

True

question

When you are going to give an audience material to take home from a speech, you should usually distribute the material at the beginning of the speech.

answer

False

question

In most circumstances, you should keep your visual aids on display throughout your speech.

answer

False

question

Research has shown the visual aids can increase both the clarity and the persuasiveness of a speaker's message.

answer

True

question

Printing your visual aid in ALL CAPITAL letters is a good way to make sure it will be easy for the audience for the audience to read.

answer

False

question

A visual aid is only as useful as the explanation that goes with it.

answer

True

question

Using visual aids can help combat stage fright.

answer

True

question

It is important to maintain strong eye contact with your audience when you are presenting a visual aid.

answer

True

STUDY

Cause And Effect Extemporaneous Speaking Give And Take Linguistics Maintain Eye Contact Martin Luther King Jr Problem Solution Pattern

Chapter 10: The Body of the Speech – Flashcards 10 terms

Robert May

10 terms

Preview

Chapter 10: The Body of the Speech – Flashcards

question

How many main points should you have in a speech?

answer

Most speeches should have no more than two or three (or occasionally four) main points

question

How many ideas should be represented in each main point?

answer

Only one idea should be expressed in each main point

question

What is meant by the advice to "customize points for each audience"?

answer

Tailor a speech to the needs and interests of each audience. Main points that work with one audience might not work with another.

question

Which pattern of organization would be best suited for a speech on the solar system?

answer

The spatial pattern would be ideal, such as Sun, Mercury, Venus, Earth, etc

question

Which pattern of organization would be ideal for a speech on food contamination and how the problem can be corrected?

answer

Problem-solution pattern

question

Which pattern of organization would be best suited for a speech on the three major reasons why businesses declare bankruptcy?

answer

Topical

question

Why are transitions important in a speech?

answer

Transitions help the listeners stay with you as you move from one part of your speech to another.

question

In terms of speech organization, what is an internal summary?

answer

An internal summary—given during a speech—reviews material that has been covered up to that point.

question

Describe the transitional device called bridge

answer

A bridge links what went before with what will now come in the speech

question

Describe the transitional device called spotlight

answer

A spotlight alerts listeners to important points

STUDY

Business Management Give And Take Human Resource Management Project Management Plan Updates Project Management: Leadership And Managing The Project Team

Chapter 9 IT Project Manager – Flashcards 35 terms

Elizabeth Hill

35 terms

Preview

Chapter 9 IT Project Manager – Flashcards

question

Resource leveling results in fewer problems for project personnel and accounting departments.

answer

question

Project managers must try to avoid conflict at all costs as all conflict within groups is bad.

answer

question

According to Herzberg, hygiene factors such as larger salaries, more supervision, or a more attractive work environment would motivate workers to do more if present.

answer

question

A staffing management plan describes when and how people will be added to and taken off the project team.

answer

question

According to Covey, project managers must use a win/lose approach in making decisions.

answer

question

People who need institutional power or social power want to organize others to further the goals of the organization.

answer

question

Maslow suggests that each level of the hierarchy of needs is not necessarily a prerequisite for the levels above.

answer

question

Microsoft Project 2010 does not lend itself to project human resource management.

answer

question

Managers who believe in Theory Y assume that workers dislike and avoid work if possible, so managers must use coercion, threats, and various control schemes to get workers to make adequate efforts to meet objectives.

answer

question

aslow's hierarchy of needs states that people's behaviors are guided or motivated by a sequence of needs.

answer

question

_____ issues that affect how people work and how well they work include motivation, influence and power, and effectiveness.

answer

Psychosocial

question

According to Maslow, only after meeting _____ needs can individuals act upon growth needs.

answer

deficiency

question

_____ a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology and proposed the hierarchy of needs theory.

answer

Abraham Maslow

question

When an organization needs a new direction, the ________ leadership style is appropriate.

answer

visionary

question

According to Blake and Mouton, project managers who use the _____ method use a give-and take-approach to resolving conflicts.

answer

compromise

question

According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivational factor?

answer

Recognition

question

At the bottom of Maslow's structure are _____ needs.

answer

physiological

question

_____ is the concept that the whole is equal to more than the sum of its parts.

answer

Synergy

question

_____ is the potential ability to influence behavior to get people to do things they would not otherwise do.

answer

Power

question

The bottom four needs in Maslow's structure are referred to as _____ needs.

answer

deficiency

question

_____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y.

answer

Douglas McGregor

question

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, _____ is the ability to improve a worker's position.

answer

promotion

question

_____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance.

answer

Managing the project team

question

_____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things.

answer

Reward power

question

The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is _____.

answer

finalizing the project requirements

question

The acquiring of the project team is a subprocess associated with the _____ process of project human resource management.

answer

executing

question

The _____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story.

answer

TAT

question

_____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do.

answer

Coercive power

question

A(n) _____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time.

answer

resource histogram

question

Psychologist David Merril describes _____ as reactive and task-oriented.

answer

"Analyticals"

question

Key outputs of _____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates.

answer

acquiring the project team

question

According to Lencioni, which of the following qualities is present in organizations that succeed?

answer

Teamwork

question

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, _____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders.

answer

authority

question

_____ is at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

answer

Self-actualization

question

_____ refers to matching certain behaviors of the other person.

answer

Mirroring

STUDY

Conflict Theory Cross Cultural Give And Take Win Win Solution

Chapter 13: Negotiation – Flashcards 43 terms

August Dunbar

43 terms

Preview

Chapter 13: Negotiation – Flashcards

question

process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources

answer

definition of negotiation

question

- bargaining over price of a car you want to buy - any gain one person makes is at the other's expense - who gets what share of a fixed pie (set amount of goods needs to be divided up) - labor-management negotiations over wages - each wants to meet target point, won't go higher or lower than resistence point, will probably meet in the middle (settlement range)

answer

Distributive bargaining

question

make the first offer, and make it aggressive. - shows power, also anchoring bias (ppl fixate on initial information) - ambitious, but justifiable

answer

best thing to do in distributive bargaining

question

- a clothing store does well and then in bad economic times, designers set-up payment plans with the store to help them out financially bcuz they've trusted the store for so long - assumes one or more of the possible settlements can create a win-win situation - preferable to distributive in OB because builds long-term relationships and trust - feeling positive about one negotiation is more likely to be lenient in next negotiation - requires two parties that are open with information, sensitive to each others needs, and maintain flexibility

answer

Integrative bargaining

question

- reach more intagrative agreements than when bargaining alone

answer

Bargaining in teams

question

- achieves higher joint-gain settlements (intagrative) because more opportunity for "logrolling" where issues are traded off according to individual preferences - creates better outcomes for each side

answer

putting more issues on the table

question

- better to understand why an employee wants/deserves or doesn't deserve a raise rather than just the raise amount - stay focussed on broad overlying goals rather than immediate incremental outcomes

answer

focus on underlying issues of both sides

question

- reduces pressure to bargain integritavely - if opponent caves in easily, no one needs to reach a settlement - ppl settle for less than they could have obtained if they had been forced to consider the other party's interests, trade-off issues, and be creative.

answer

compromise in integrative bargaining

question

1) preparation and planning 2) definition of ground rules 3) clarifiction and justification 4) bargaining and problem solving 5) closure and implementation

answer

steps in the negotiation process (5)

question

- what's the nature of the conflict, what's the history leading up to the negotiation, who's involved and what are their perceptions of the conflict, what do you want from the negotiation, what are your goals?? - put your goals in writing to keep you focused ("most helpful" and "minimally acceptable" - what is the other party likely to ask, how can you combat it? - consider how the negotiation may affect relationship: if you win, would they hate you? so should you pursue more of a compromise? - if you don't care, maybe chose a more aggressive style - employees who felt more positive about the negotiation were less likely to turnover regardless of outcome - DEVELOP STRATEGY: determine best alternative to a negoatiated agreement (BATNA), any offer higher than your BATNA is better than nothing; you also shouldn't expect much success if the other side doesn't reach or go over their BATNA

answer

Preparation and planning

question

- develop with other party - exchange initial proposals and demands who will do the negotiating? where will it take place? time constraints? to what issues will we be limited?

answer

Definition of ground rules

question

- once you've explained initial conditions, you and other party must explain, amplify, clarify, and justify your initial demands - not confrontational, but an opportunity to educate other

answer

clarification and justification

question

now you make concessions, employ your bargaining techniques, whichever you felt appropriate in preparation stage

answer

bargaining and problem solving

question

formalizing agreement and developing procedures necessary for implementing and monitoring it - like hammering out specifics in a normal contract - handshake

answer

closure and imlementation

question

- related weakly, so you can only sort of predict outcomes based on each others persoanlities - research focuses on big five trait of agreeableness cooperative, compliant, conflict-averse), but still it's weakly related to negotiations - depends on situation - tendencies of one personality trait may pull you in two different directions in a negotiation - agreeableness is compliant but also warm and empathetic; former hinders outcomes, latter helps

answer

personality traits in negotiation

question

- depends on emotion and context - negotiator who shows anger induces concessions, because other party believes no further concessions from angry party are possible - should show anger only if you have at least as much power as your counter part - anger must be genuine (not surface0-acting, deep-acting) - disappointment shown in one party makes other party concede more because they feel guilty - experiencing more anxiety may lead you to be more deceptive than your opposing party; another study found anxious negotiators have lower outcomes and exit bargaining process more quickly - negative emotions matter most to negotiation

answer

moods/emotions in negotiations

question

- different cultures negotiate differently, depending on context - generally negotiate more effectively within cultures than between them (colombian better with colombian than sri lankan) - high openness is important in cross cultural negotiations - avoid time constraint bcuz they inhibit on party - emotions are culturally sensitive (chinese negotiators increase distributive negotiation when reacting to angry counterpart while US negotiators back down more)

answer

culture in negotiation

question

- men and women negotiate differently - men place higher value on status, power, and recognition, economic outcomes - women place higher value on compassion and altruism, relationship outcomes - women are less assertive, less self interested, and more accommodating - women are more reluctant to initiate negotiations and more likely to settle to get out of one - hurts women in managerial positions -women are more likely to engage when bargaining on behalf of someone else than when bargaining on their own behalf

answer

gender differences in negotiation

question

bjbj

answer

LECTURE

question

your goal

answer

target price

question

Your "bottom line," or minimum acceptable agreement

answer

resistance point

question

Your best alternative if they or you walk away from this deal

answer

BATNA

question

zone of possible agreement, your "settlement range"

answer

ZOPA

question

- it seems fair to just split down the middle - but the midpoint is often based on sudjective calculations and is meaningless - midpoint isn't anymore fair than any other point in the ZOPA`

answer

the lure of the midpoint

question

the more you work and prepare for the negotiation, the more you just want to make a deal. So, you will settle for terms that are worse than your current position - sunk costs; need for closure

answer

agreement bias

question

- one person makes offer, other person immediately accepts, so you assume you offered too low/high and feel bad about yourself and walk away from the negotiation unhappy, even though you made a deal.

answer

winner's curse

question

- you didn't do enough research, your target price was too low or too high. - you may have settled for too little/too high

answer

why does winners curse happen

question

- lack of planning and preparation for the negotiation - lack of research (your BATNA, opponent's BATNA, your target price) - being satisfied with the negotiation, rather than optimizing - many people find negotiating uncomfortable, so want to just get it over with - feel bad for pushing for your own interests

answer

common causes for ineffective negotiation

question

- what do I deserve? what do they deserve? what's fair? - need a lot of external information to determine this (list price, blubook) - ex//reference points, justification

answer

claiming value: rights based

question

- I can walk away, so you have to comply with what I want because I have more power. You need this deal.

answer

claiming value: power based

question

distributive (fixed pie, you lose some, I win some. )

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what's the most basic negotiation strategy?

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- Know what you want - Should be ambitious, but justifiable - Do not base your target on your BATNA - Commit to your target - Focus on your target first; later you can shift to your RP

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how to set a target with distributive strategy

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- Decide what you need, to ensure you're better off - Commit to your RP - Do not reveal yours, do try to discover theirs

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how to set your reservation price in distributive?

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- Don't "fall in love" with what you're negotiating for, leaves you vulnerable to going below/above reservation price and becoming worse off- consider your alternatives aka "Fall in love with three" rule (Bazerman) - Know your BATNA - Grow your BATNA - Don't reveal your BATNA, except as a last resort

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guidelines for BATNA in distributive

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1) first offer 2) explanations 3) concessions

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what are the tactics for claiming value (3 of them)

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- make the first offer!! - this anchors the negotiation around that price, anchoring bias - use a value, not a range, bcuz they'll chose one end of the range that works best for them - first offer must be ambitious but justifiable to anchor the negotation

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tactics for claiming value : first offer

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- if you think they might offer more than your target (winners curse) - if you didn't do enough research/ don't have good information - there is a strong social norm in that situation, like a job offer

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what are the exceptions to offering the first value (when to hold back)

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IMMEDIATELY counter offer at your target point, try not to get anchored

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If you don't make the first offer...

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- provide explanations for why you need it at this price that will appeal to your opponent (for this, use objective criteria and norms, like "the bluebook value is actually..." - ask about your opponents subjective standards, and then use them (what is fair to you?)

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another tactic for claiming value: explanation

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- don't make a big concession (don't go from 4k to 5k) - don't make concessions too quickly - don't concede before you start, before you give your target price - never double concede, should be you concede a little, then them, then you - provide explanations and expectations for concessions

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tactics for claiming value: concessions

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- Reciprocity - The power of silence - Looking shocked or surprised - Create time pressure like deadlines, exploding offers - Create competition - Real or feigned - Escalation of commitment (sunk costs) (you've already put so much into it, don't you want to just make the deal already?) - Be patient - most concessions happen in the last few minutes

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how to get your opponent to make concessions

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- Stonewalling (not budging, not talking) - High-balling or low-balling - Good cop/bad cop (if someone calls their wife and you feel bad, they are the good cop and you feel like the bad cop, then you feel bad and want to help them out) - Nibble - Bogey and other types of bluffing - Leaving the table and threats to leave the table - Overwhelming the opponent with incomprehensible information

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hardball negotiation tactics

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- play hardball back - walk away - address the process (this is what you're doing, you need to stop, or else no deal)

answer

what do you do if someone uses these tactics on you?

STUDY

Business Management Chinese And Japanese Give And Take International Business Language And Culture Nonverbal Communication

Ch. 13 International Negotiation – Flashcards 45 terms

Marguerite Castillo

45 terms

Preview

Ch. 13 International Negotiation – Flashcards

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Q: International negotiation

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Is the process of making business deals across national and cultural boundaries.

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Q: All of the following are true about international negotiation EXCEPT

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Most successful international negotiators use their home country negotiation styles.

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Q: The Whorf hypothesis

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Suggests that language determines the nature of culture.

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Q: High context languages

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Are languages in which people state things indirectly and implicitly.

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Q: Languages in which people state things directly and explicitly where the words provide most of the meaning are

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Low context languages.

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Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding high context languages?

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In high context languages, what is left unsaid is often as important as what is said.

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Q: The degree of formal communication refers to

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None of the above

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Q: Nonverbal communication

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All of the above

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Q: Kinesics is

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Communicating through body movements.

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Q: Proxemics

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Focuses on how people use space to communicate.

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Q: Touch

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Is related to proxemics and is a basic form of human interaction.

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Q: Attribution

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Is the process by which we interpret the meaning and intent of spoken words or nonverbal exchanges.

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Q: When communicating with nonnative speakers, which of the following would make communication harder and less accurate?

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Using slang

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Q: Gathering of extensive information on the negotiation issues, on the setting in which the negotiation will take place, and on the firm and people involved occurs in which stage of the steps in international negotiation?

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Preparation

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Q: In the relationship building stage of the International Negotiation Process

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None of the above

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Q: All of the following are true about the steps in the Negotiation Process EXCEPT

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All of the above are true.

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Q: At the __________ stage in the negotiation, both parties exchange the specifics of their needs for the agreement.

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Exchanging Information and the First Offer

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Q: All of the following are true about the Exchanging Information and the First Offer Step of the International Negotiation process EXCEPT

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Both sides usually present their final offer.

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Q: In the _____ stage, each side in the negotiation attempts to get the other side to agree to its position.

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Persuasion

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Q: All of the following is true about the persuasion stage EXCEPT

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The emphasis and mix of tactics do not vary by the cultural background of the negotiators.

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Q: Dirty Tricks in International Negotiations refer to

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Negotiation tactics that pressure opponents to accept unfair or undesirable agreements or concessions.

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Q: Deliberate deception, one example among some common ploys in international negotiations, refers to

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Negotiators presenting flagrant untruths either in the facts they present or in their intentions for the negotiation.

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Q: Negotiators who make an agreement and then reveal that it must be approved by senior managers or the government is an example of which type of dirty trick?

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Escalating authority

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Q: If negotiators are using deliberate deception as a dirty tricks, the best way to deal with the deception is

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To point out directly what you believe is happening.

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Q: All of the following are true about the final agreement EXCEPT

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Successful negotiations do not necessarily result in the final agreement

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Q: The sequential approach to concession-making

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Implies that negotiators expect each side to give and take on individual issues in sequence.

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Q: All of the following are true about the holistic concession-making approach EXCEPT

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Implies that negotiators expect each side to give and take on individual issues in sequence.

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Q: In competitive negotiation

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Competitive negotiators use dirty tricks and any plot that leads to their advantage.

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Q: __________ negotiators search for possible win-win situations where the outcome of the negotiation is mutually satisfactory to both sides.

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Problem-solving

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Q: All of the following are personal characteristics of the successful international negotiator EXCEPT

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Be a competitive negotiator.

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Q: Olfactics

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Is the use of smells as a means of nonverbal communication.

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Q: Communication through eye contact or gaze is known as

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Oculesics.

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Q: Which of the following is NOT one of the suggestions for proper use of interpreters?

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Insist on minimization of interruptions and have the interpreter translate after you end each statement.

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Q: Which phase of the negotiation process consists of an evaluation of the success of the completed negotiation?

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The post agreement phase

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Q: Which one of the following is NOT one of the personal success characteristics of successful international negotiators as discussed in the text?

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Focus on achieving negotiation goals without making concessions

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Q: Haptics

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Refers to communication through body contact.

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Q: Which of the following represents one possible solution to the "Old Friends" dirty trick?

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Keep a psychological distance that reflects the true nature of the relationship.

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Q: Which of the following regarding proxemics is FALSE?

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North Americans prefer closer spacing than the Latin and Arab cultures.

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Q: Which of the following statements regarding interpreters is FALSE?

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Interpreters are not needed if some of the negotiators can understand both languages.

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Q: Which of the following statements regarding formal communication is FALSE?

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U.S. Americans have the highest degree of formal communication.

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Q: All of the following are true of the Whorf hypothesis EXCEPT

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most experts agree that there is no relationship between language and culture.

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Q: Are any of the following forms of nonverbal communication such that they would not be offensive in any country or culture?

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All of the above could be offensive.

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Q: In one study involving people from the U.S. and Malaysia, compared to the Americans, the Malaysians

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none of the above.

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Q: The prevailing view of the contract by the Chinese and Japanese is all of the following EXCEPT

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The Japanese prefer to avoid general principles and to specify detailed rules and obligations.

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Q: As used in the text, cultural intelligence refers to

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the total body of knowledge obtained by cultural anthropologists.

STUDY

Areas For Improvement Conflict Give And Take Meet Your Needs Strengths And Weaknesses Win Win Solution

Negotiations Midterm 1 – Flashcards 83 terms

Bernice Cooper

83 terms

Preview

Negotiations Midterm 1 – Flashcards

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Negotiation is the art and science of securing agreements between two or more parties who are interdependent and who are seeking to maximize their outcomes.

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How do you define negotiation?

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-Two or more parties -Conflict of differences needing agreed -Choose to negotiate to obtain a better deal (maximize outcomes) -Expect give and take -Prefer to negotiate than to fight openly -Manage tangibles and resolve intangibles -Successful when resolves a dispute or creates something new

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What characterizes an exchange as a negotiation?

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-When you could lose everything -When you couldn't meet the terms of the agreement -When demands are unethical -When the other party is untrustworthy -When you have no stake in the outcome -When you don't have time -When waiting would improve your position -When you're not prepared

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When should you avoid negotiation?

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-Win-lose goals -Misperception and bias -Emotionality -Decreased communication -Rigid commitments -Magnified differences, minimized similarities -Escalation of conflict

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What are roadblocks to negotiation?

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Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement. It is a point that shows why you could walk away.

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What is a BATNA and how do you use it?

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The more options you have, the less interdependent you are, which means your negotiation position is strengthened. You can use it to gain confidence and leverage.

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How does the BATNA influence who has power in a negotiation?

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Interlocking goals (win-win); depending on each other

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What is interdependence?

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If you have no back-ups, interdependence increases. If you have many options, your interdependence decreases.

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What increases and decreases interdependence?

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The way negotiations are conducted and their outcomes (interests, issues, position) Will it be cooperative or competitive?

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How does interdependence impact a negotiation?

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It shows the importance of relationships on the Y axis and the importance of outcomes on the X axis.

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What is the dual concerns model and how do you use it?

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A) Accommodating B) Cooperative C) Avoiding D) Competitive E) Collaborative

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What are the five different strategies laid out in the dual concerns model?

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(+) increased understanding improves negotiations, there is more focus on issues, it can create value (increase the size of the pie), and it produces long-term solutions (-) requires more self-understanding, requires more understanding of one party, and you can be vulnerable in negotiation with a competitive opponent.

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What are the advantages and disadvantages of collaborative negotiation?

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(+) initially requires less effort, best response to a competitive negotiator (-) emphasizes rights and power, ignores interests, divisive - impedes communication and understanding, and it may produce short-term success but long-term failure

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What are the advantages and disadvantages of using the competitive strategy?

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-Ignore it -Respond in kind -Co-opt the other party before the negotiation -Call and name their tactics

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How can you improve your outcomes in a negotiation where a competitive strategy is being used?

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A negotiation technique in which the framer defines the issue at stake in a certain way to close a deal. The bargaining range: -Don't settle for "win-lose" -Create "I win, you think you win" -Determines perspective: Fear of loss, anticipation of gain

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What is framing?

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-Emphasize the other party's loss if you fail to reach an agreement -Emphasize the other party's gain if you do reach a negotiation -Influence the bargaining range: Ask for more than you expect, never say yes to the first offer, play reluctant, don't offer to split the differences -Make the other party think they won: Claim you need approval, set difficult issues aside, progressively reduce size of concessions, negotiate for a long time, hold an agreement at closing

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How can you shape/influence the bargaining range?

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-Settle as close to possible to the other party's resistance point -You have an anchor or initial offer -You want to reduce the other party's confidence -You try to increase the other party's perception of your position

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How does framing impact negotiations?

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Buyer's initial offer, target price, seller's starting price

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What points are included in the bargaining range?

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The lowest agreement you are willing to come to. You will walk away if you have to go lower than this.

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What is a reservation point?

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A BATNA is a current offer that you may be willing to go lower than if you can get something better/more important out of a negotiation or have more to give.

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How is it different from a BATNA?

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An offer that is supposed to be high but that gives you some room to work down and make appropriate concessions.

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What is an opening offer?

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This is what you are hoping to end the negotiation at. It is what you are aiming for.

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What is a target price?

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An inverse relationship. As you go lower on one end, you are going higher for the other party.

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What is the relationship between the different points in the bargaining range?

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-Close to your target -Did you take a deal worse than your reservation price? -Did you take a deal worse than your BATNA?

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What are three tangible/measurable ways you can determine whether you were successful in a negotiation?

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-Good cop/bad cop -Lowball/highball -Bogey: pretend you care about something when you really don't -Nibbling: last minute demand for a small concession (come in at the very end and say "oh can I have this one last thing?") -Chicken: use a big bluff to force the opponent to chicken out (pretend to be completely out, but in reality never walk out) -Intimidation -Aggressive behavior -Snow job: overwhelm the other party with too much information

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What are hardball tactics?

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-Ignore them -Respond in kind/the same manner/fire back -Name and discuss them

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How can you respond to hardball tactics?

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-Make a planning document Preparation: defining goals and priorities Relationship building: develop trust Information gathering: learn about issues Information application: assemble your case -3 objectives: assess your position (target point, reservation point, BATNA) -Rational analysis: strengths, weaknesses, arguments -Non-rational analysis: expectation, emotions, norms and standards -Assess the other party's position -Evaluate how they fit together

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How do you prepare for a negotiation?

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-Tangible & intangible outcomes of the negotiation -SMART (specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, timely) -Must recognize independence of parties and acknowledge limits (set a walkaway point) -Strategy: the overall plan to achieve your goals -Tactics: short-term, adaptive moves to enact broad strategies Subordinate to and driven by strategy

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What are they key elements of negotiation planning?

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-Identify the joint issue to resolve -Assemble a bargaining mix (prioritize issues and identify links between them) -Understand the underlying issue -Define interests - not issues -Define limits - reservation and BATNA -Bargaining Range - targets and openings -Understand players and context A - Direct actors on our side B - Opposing actors C - indirect actors D- Interested observers E - Environmental factors -Analyze the other party -Plan your presentation What supports my view? What documents should I present? What do I expect? How can I be convincing? -Define protocol Agenda, location, time, how to handle deadlock, how to record and agreement

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Tactics can:

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-Gives clear objectives for evaluating offers -Helps to understand other parties' strengths and weaknesses -Prepared to address other party

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What are several ways that the planning document can help you during a negotiation?

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*Superior: label behavior, test understanding and summarize, ask questions, share internal thoughts and feelings, reflect on negotiation, regain balance (prepare for response, let go of trying to control reactions, imagine it's 6 months down the line, take a break) *Unsuccessful: self promotion, direct counter proposals, defend/attack exchanges, disagree then explain, use many reactions to back claim

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How does the behavior of successful and unsuccessful negotiators differ?

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-Expand the pie (try and make both people win -Logroll (make a range of requests, some of which are important and some that are not; concede on items that are lower priority) -Offer nonspecific compensation -Cut costs -Bridge (inventing new options that meet the needs of both)

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What are several ways to implement a collaborative strategy?

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-Fake it until you BECOME it -Posture can make you more powerful -Body language can change other people's perceptions of you as well as how you view yourself -Posture can change chemistry -We do the opposite of people in regards to power -Our minds change our bodies and our bodies change our minds

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What are the takeaways from Amy Cuddy's research?

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-The situation is more complex than either party can see -It is about conflicting perceptions, interpretations, and values -It is about what is important and NOT ABOUT BEING RIGHT -Must look at the real intentions -Defend and protect your own position, but do not assign blame -We are visitors in each other's stories and we have very different stories -We need to understand their stories to understand their conclusions -truth assumption: we argue for our view (I am right, you're wrong) -intention invention: we assume we know the other person's intentions, but we don't

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What are the "What Happened?" conversations

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-Know that the situation is emotionally charged -difficult conversations are about feelings -we are shaped by an emotional footprint -"engaging in a difficult convo without talking about feelings, is like staging an opera without music"

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What are the "Feelings" conversations?

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-may be the most subtle and the most challenging -looks inward, who we are/how do we see ourselves? -difficult conversations threaten our identity -revolves around, I am competent, I am a good person, and I am worthy of love

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What are the "Identity" conversations?

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-think about it as they're selfish -they're naive, controlling, & irrational -we never put blame on ourselves -stories can only come from available info, our observations (which we observe the world differently and have different access to info), our interpretations (past experiences), our conclusions -our assumptions about intentions are usually wrong (we assume bad things and jump to that they're bad people)

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What are the core problems or mistakes people tend to make in the "What Happened?" conversation?

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-If unaddressed, feelings will leak or burst out and leave us disengaged (block our ability listen)

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What are the problems of the "Feelings" conversations?

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The all or nothing syndrome - we become hypersensitive to feedback

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What are the problems of "Identity" conversations?

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-we need to understand their story -shift from certainty to curiosity -look for understanding, not being right -disentangle impact from intent -hold view as a hypothesis -look to see how each contributed

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How can you overcome common mistakes in "What Happened" conversations?

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-describe your feelings and negotiate with them -know your feelings & how they transform themselves -must look for what our story is missing -describe feelings carefully, don't evaluate them; full spectrum of feelings

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How can you overcome common mistakes in "Feelings" conversations?

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-ground your identity -become aware of your identity issues -complexify your identity with the "and stance" -accept that you will make mistakes -learn to regain balance and not control others' reactions -prepare for their response and imagine it's the future and take a break

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How can you overcome common mistakes in the "Identity" conversations?

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Emotion is at the heart of a difficult conversation and we need to work with it, not against it.

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What is the role of emotion in difficult conversations?

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We go from, "I was hurt" to "you intended to hurt me" We need to look at: *actions (what was said or done) *impact (what it was on me) *assumption (what assumptions am I making about their intentions?) To resolve this, we must hold our views as an assumption/hypothesis. We must inquire, listen, and be open to reflecting.

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What does it mean to "disentangle intent from impact" and why would you want to do this?

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Our emotions and others are more complex than just one dimension, so it is important to add more dimensions, "i can be mad AND so can he" There is no bottom line, we need to complexify our identity. It will help us deliver bad news and help us be curious and clear.

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What is the "And Stance" and why is it important?

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The strength or importance of each of the two key concerns (relationship with the other negotiator and the importance of the outcome of the negotiation) and its relative priority should direct the selection of the optimal negotiation strategy.

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What is the Dual Concerns Model?

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-Reconciling interests -Determining who is right -Determining who has the power

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What are the three approaches to resolving disputes?

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Ex. A superintendent giving employee boots to reconcile his interests & diminishes anger resentment & frustration, prevented the strike, joint problem (wants the miner to be at his assigned shift and miner wants bots to not miss a work shift)

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Give an example of a negotiation based on interests.

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Ex. Two lawyers fighting for which case has more merit.

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Give an example of a negotiation based on rights.

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Ex. Nations exchange threats and counter-threats.

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Give an example of a negotiation based on power.

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Interests are needs, desires, concerns, fears, cares, and wants. They are tangible items they say they want. Ex. Husband and wife get a new care. The husband wants to impress his friends while the wife wants good transportation.

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What roles do interests play in negotiation?

question

answer

What roles do rights play in negotiation?

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Financial resources, perceptions that don't coincide, effects.

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What roles does power play in negotiation?

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(+) can help uncover hidden problems, most beneficial for problem solving, lowest costs in resources, higher satisfaction (-) emotions could cause hostility if not addressed

answer

What are the advantages and disadvantages of interests in negotiation?

question

(+) get you to a negotiation, need to clarify boundaries, public importance & social justice (-) never clear who is right, need a third party (mediator), timely, expensive, difficult, sometimes ends as a "loser", contests

answer

What are the advantages and disadvantages of rights?

question

(+) (-) destructive power contests, power is a matter of perception, perception is that someone ends up as a loser, highest transaction costs, leads to more and worse disputes, strain on relationships, contests

answer

What are the advantages and disadvantages of power?

question

Not only do you have to make compromises, you can also damage relationships as well. They will generate transaction costs (emotional, time, financial, energy, resources), satisfaction with outcomes (mutual satisfaction of interests or fairness), effect on the relationship, recurrence of the dispute

answer

What are the potential costs of negotiation?

question

Ask for more than you expect to get. This raises perceived value and prevents deadlocks (less you know about opposition, the more you should ask for) MPP (maximum plausible position) to seem credible.

answer

How can you influence the bargaining range?

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-Claim you need approval -Set difficult issues aside -Progressively reduce size of concessions -Negotiate for a long time -Hold agreement at closing -Use the bogey method

answer

How can you win and make the other party think that they have won?

question

-tend to be overly affected by the frame or form of presentation of information -tend to non-rationally escalate commitment to a previously selected course of action when it is no longer the most reasonable alternative -tend to assume that their gain must come at the expense of the other party and thereby miss opportunities for mutually beneficial trade offs between the parties -judgments then are anchored upon irrelevant info - such as an initial offer -tend to rely on readily available info -tend to fail to consider info that is available by focusing on the opponent's perspective -tend to be overconfident concerning the likelihood of attaining outcomes that favor the individuals involved

answer

What are some common cognitive mistakes that negotiators make?

question

-The referent point that we choose determines the frame we impose on our options and subsequently, our willingness to accept or reject options -Posing problems as choices among potential gains rather than choices among potential losses can significantly influence the negotiator's preference for specific outcomes -Affects cognitive biases and negotiators behavior

answer

How does the way in which information is framed affect negotiators?

question

Perhaps directly negotiating for advantage - asking for what you want - is a male strategy and women simply enjoy other equally effective strategies to get what they want (partly true). Women often worry more than men about the impact their actions will have on their relationships (thus, not getting what they want). In many cases, the only way to get something is to ask directly for it.

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What is the "asking advantage"?

question

-Men are asking for things they want and initiating negotiations (2 to 3 times) --> women just don't ask. -Negotiating your starting salary can produce a gain of more than $0.5M by the end of your career (managers want to pay employees at their lowest cost) -Minor instances of group-based bias will eventually lead to major inequalities between men and women

answer

Why might it be important for managers to understand the differences between men and women described in this reading?

question

(Regarding ME/OTHER PARTY) 1. What is your overall goal? (basic needs, why am I talking to this person? what do I hope to accomplish?) 2. What are the issues? (what issues must be negotiated?) 3. How important are those issues to you? (what is/isn't important, where can I stand my ground and where can I concede?) 4. What is your BATNA? The situation: -What deadlines exist? -What fairness norms or reference points exist? -What topics or questions should we avoid? The relationship: -Are they of a continuing series? -Can I trust the other party? -What do I know of the other parties' style and tactics? -What is the limit of their authority? -Consult with them in advance

answer

What four components of negotiation should you focus on during planning?

question

(+) comparing different alternatives, keep you analytically focused and puts emotions in check, can be a conversation in the negotiation (-) takes a long time

answer

What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a scoring system?

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-Should encompass all points -Not vague

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What are the qualities of an effective reservation point?

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Try to satisfy both parties' needs (ex. 2 weeks in a beachy area and 2 weeks in a mountainous area)

answer

Redefine the problem tactic: Expand the pie

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Tradeoffs to make both groups of people happy (ex. Go to the mountains but stay in a fancy hotel)

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Redefine the problem tactic: Logroll

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This is the sweetener. (ex. Buy your husband golf clubs so he will be happy to go anywhere)

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Redefine the problem tactic: Offer nonspecific compensation

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What can I do to make x as painless as possible? Easier?

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Redefine the problem tactic: Cut costs

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Invent new options completely (ex. She wants to go to the beach & he wants to go to the mountains --> go to Hawaii)

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Redefine the problem tactic: Bridge

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-Brainstorming (ideas must not be evaluated as they are suggested) -Piggybacking (build on someone else's idea) -Nominal groups (negotiator works with small groups) -Surveys

answer

What are four tactics for generating a list of potential solutions?

question

A deliberate, calculated strategy that is typically offered together with an extremely short, artificially imposed time limit. FUNCTION: force a quick acceptance by ending the negotiation. To restrict the ability of the recipient to comparison ship, and discover that the market was willing to pay at a significantly higher level.

answer

What is an exploding offer?

question

-the ultimate hard bargaining tactic -defines an end to the negotiation process -rejection will automatically terminate the negotiation, sometimes the relationship as well -purpose" force a quick acceptance to end the negotiation (this way they don't have to sweeten the deal with high costs) -incentivizing to say yes, salary or price offer, (if you walk away now then you might not get this deal)

answer

Why would anyone make an exploding offer?

question

-try to be reasonable first -then fight fire with fire: the farpoint gambit -defuse it by "embracing it" -"I accept. Provisionally." -key is to make requests that are completely reasonable, by which will eventually result in a deadline being violated, due to the need for further clarification -simply ask "can we talk about it on monday? Extension? -Prepare for a counter offer -Set a date that you would be in a position to accept and explain why this date would be beneficial

answer

How can you effectively respond to an exploding offer?

question

-power asymmetry (lack of equality between parties) -pressure inducing "test of faith" -situation becomes more complex when the pressure is excessive and built on power imbalances -restricting choice (ex. doesn't want the person to search for other cars or other job offers) -lack of consideration and respect (arbitrary deadlines, unnecessarily rigid, ex. some people might break other commitments that cause hardships in order to accept) -lack of good faith (interchangeable person: if accept then good, but if not, the offerer just moves to next options)

answer

Characteristics of exploding offers

question

Vicious cycles: frequently grow out of widespread human tendency to take an exaggerated view of others' perceived hostility or unreasonable behavior; leads us to reciprocate with negative behavior Vicious cycle triggers: self-fulfilling prophecy, naive realism, confirmatory bias, sincerity gap, accuser and excuser bias, winning traits

answer

What are vicious cycles?

question

A particularly powerful trigger of virtuous relationships is fairness perceptions. Researchers have long understood the importance of people's perceptions of the fairness of a negotiation outcome. More recently, it's been discovered that we also attend closely to whether the negotiation process was itself fair. We tend to judge a negotiation to have been fair when we ourselves had ample opportunity to voice our point of view. Our sense of fairness increases the more we sense that the other side has genuinely considered our perspective

answer

What are virtuous cycles?

question

-test your assumptions: before mounting an aggressive response to other side's perceived unreasonable behavior, check your perspective with others who don't have a stake in the issue -before assuming ill intent, look for extenuating circumstances that might provide an alternative explanation

answer

How can you avoid vicious cycles?

question

-keep in mind that having a close, positive relationship with the party is no guarantee that a negotiation will result in a mutually beneficial outcome -good will should always be combined with the active pursuit of joint gains -our sense of fairness increases the more we sense that the other side has genuinely considered our perspective

answer

How do you promote virtuous cycles?

question

Finding information on our preexisting beliefs. There is a tendency to seek out information that verifies our pre-existing beliefs and to ignore or find flaws with the dis-confirming info. Providing the same info to two opposing parties can further polarize their beliefs.

answer

What is confirmatory bias?

question

-increased contentiousness -diminished info sharing -diminished inter party process cooperation -diminished privacy -diminished trust -increased effect of negative attribution -diminished commitment, motivation, and focus

answer

What are some problematic ways people often behave or think differently when they negotiate via e-mail?

question

-stay on top of things -bridge the gap - make the illusion of an actual conversation -stay focused -keep an eye on your own motivation level

answer

What are some techniques for preventing or mitigating these problems?

STUDY

Give And Take Needs And Desires Strategies And Tactics

Negotiation and Management Study Guide – Flashcards 30 terms

Brandon Ruffin

30 terms

Preview

Negotiation and Management Study Guide – Flashcards

question

Understand the various disciplines which are involved in the subject of negotiation.

answer

Theory, economics, political science, communication, labor relations, law, psychology, sociology, anthropology

question

What are the characteristics of a negotiation situation?

answer

Two or more parties; Conflict of needs or desires; Parties negotiate by choice; We expect there to be a "give and take"; The parties prefer the negotiation to the alternative; Successful negotiation involves management of tangibles and intangibles

question

Win-lose bargaining is also known by another name - what is it?

answer

Distributive

question

What is BATNA?

answer

Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement

question

What is the Dual Concerns Model?

answer

Concerns about own outcome vs concern about others outcome Yielding- concern about others > own Inaction- not concerned about either Contending- concern about own > other Problem solving- lots of concern about both Compromising- same amount of concern about both

question

What characterizes a dysfunctional dispute resolution system?

answer

Triangle is upside down, power at the top, rights in the middle, interests at the bottom Power is the biggest and most important thing, rights are medium, interests are of very little importance

question

What are the characteristics of Distributive Bargaining?

answer

Goals of one party are often in direct conflict with those of the other party.; Resources are fixed and limited.; Both parties want to maximize their share; Each party will use a set of strategies and tactics to maximize outcome; These strategies and tactics often dictate whether one of both parties will achieve their objectives

question

What is a "target" in the context of negotiations?

answer

The preferred outcome

question

Understand the concept of a starting point or opening position.

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An opening offer is the first offer made in a negotiation. Can be competitive, moderate, or accommodating

question

What is the difference between an opening position and an opening stance? Is there (or should there be) any relationship between the two?

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An opening offer is the first offer made in a negotiation. The opening stance is the attitude the negotiator adopts at the beginning of a negotiation. It can be a competitive stance, or even an accommodating stance. There can be a relationship between the two. A negotiator can have a competitive stance and also make a competitive opening offer. This will make your your negotiation tactic more solid by having your stance align with your offering strategy.

question

Understand the importance of the pattern of concessions. What can you infer when a party's concessions are progressively smaller? When they are the same amount?

answer

When a party's concessions are progressively smaller, there's a clear signal that they're almost done making concessions; When a party's concessions are the same amount, they're sending the wrong signal if they're reaching the end of the road.

question

What are some of the ways to deal with the other sides' "hardball" tactics?

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Ignore them Discuss them Respond in kind Co-opt the other party

question

What are the elements or characteristics of integrative negotiation?

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Allows both sides to achieve objectives Situation often appears distributive at first Mutual explorations and discussion will often suggest integrative alternatives

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What is a collaborative strategy? What are its characteristics?

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Working together to achieve each side's objectives Characteristics: 1. Both relationship and outcome are important 2. Intangibles are important and must be respected 3. Parties must be willing to make concessions to accomplish their goals 4. Deadlines are not used for manipulation 5. Similarities are emphasized

question

What are the various types of underlying interests which are often present in bargaining?

answer

Substantive; Process; Relationship; Principle

question

What are the methods used to generate alternative solutions in integrative bargaining?

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Redefine the problem Expand the pie Logroll - different people have different priorities Use non-specific compensation Cut costs for compliance Bridge solution - meet in the middle on the important issues Finding the solutions to the problem as given Brainstorming

question

What factors predict success in integrative bargaining?

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Common goal/objective Faith in one's own problem solving ability Belief in validity of one's own position and that of other party Motivation and commitment to work together Trust Clear and accurate communication Understanding how integrative bargaining works

question

Why should goals be concrete and measureable?

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So the negotiator knows where they are going with the negotiation and what they are doing.

question

When is it best to use the strategy of avoidance?

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When you can meet your need without negotiating When it's not worth your time and effort When your alternatives are either very good or very bad

question

How can you analyze the other party's resources and likely issues they will raise?

answer

analysis, past experience, information gathering, and consultation with others

question

What factors should you consider when planning your presentation to the other party?

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-What facts support your argument and how you can validate these facts; -what records or documents exist to help; -is there an expert with whom I can talk?; -what is the other party's view likely to be?; -how can I maximize the persuasiveness of my presentation?

question

What is the main theme of the article entitled "Where Have All of the Washington Dealmakers Gone?"

answer

There is a structural problem in our society • The 2 parties have moved toward opposite ends of the political spectrum, leaving fewer in the middle ground where compromises are made • There are machines in both parities working hard to keep away from the middle ground

question

What was the integrative solution to the Pakistani Prunes exercise?

answer

Compatible Goals; Capitalized on differences

question

What did the union do to prepare for negotiations in the Magic Carpet Airline case?

answer

Did research to find out what other similar airline carriers were supplying for their flight attendants (i.e. average working conditions, benefits, and wage rates).

question

Know what hardball tactics are, how do you counter them, and what kind of negotiation is most suited for their use.

answer

What are they? good cop/bad cop low ball/high ball bogey nibble chicken intimidation aggression snow job How do you counter them? Ignore them Discuss them Respond in Kind Co-Opt the other party Distributive Bargaining

question

What is Pareto's Efficient Frontier?

answer

is a state of allocation of resources in which it is impossible to make any one individual better off without making at least one individual worse off.

question

Did the Knight/Excalibur negotiation regarding the sale of pistons have any opportunities for integrative bargaining? What were they?

answer

question

Carefully read the article about the Reddit corporation: "Haggle Over Salary—It's Not Allowed". Be able to name at least one reason for Reddit's policy on salary negotiation?

answer

-Level playing field-So that bad negotiators are not penalized

question

What is the relationship between strategy and tactics when applied to negotiation?

answer

Tactics are actions to further strategy.

question

What is the "field analysis" as discussed in class?

answer

Analyzing your "playing field" making note of who is sitting where and what side they are "playing" for

STUDY

Give And Take Needs And Wants Non Verbal Cues

Negotiation Chapter 9 and Terms – Flashcards 34 terms

Ruth Blanco

34 terms

Preview

Negotiation Chapter 9 and Terms – Flashcards

question

Distributive negotiation

answer

the outcome is more important than relationships.

question

Adequacy of Established Approaches to Research for Understanding Negotiation within Relationships

answer

Current negotiation theory is based on transactional research (between individuals). Only recently have researchers begun to examine negotiations in a relationship context: Negotiating within relationships takes place over time Negotiation is often not a way to discuss an issue, but a way to learn more about the other party and increase interdependence Resolution of simple distributive issues has implications for the future Example: Married couple deciding which parents to spend holidays with will always occur. Ongoing negotiations in a relationship. Parties that seek information about the other party can establish an integrative negotiation and have the chance to reach a satisfactory outcome. How one issue is settled may set a precedent for future decisions. If you have to have to fight to get something, it will affect how you solve things in the future. What is the relationship between individuals and how does that affect the negotiation? Ex: When the lawyers know each other, it makes it easier to collaborate.

question

Distributive issues within relationships can be emotionally hot Negotiating within relationships may never end Parties may defer negotiations over tough issues in order to start on the right foot Attempting to anticipate the future and negotiate everything up front is often impossible Issues on which parties truly disagree may never go away

answer

If one party feels very strongly about an issue a distributive negotiation by occur, this might prohibit them from spending time on the relationship. Anticipating future issues—two people who start a business venture have no idea how their relationship will evolve over time and what issues they might strongly disagree on. Never go away—two roommates, one is clean the other is messy, this probably won't be resolved

question

In many negotiations, the other person is the focal problem. In some negotiations, relationship preservation is the overarching negotiation goal (accommodating strategy), and parties may make concessions on substantive issues to preserve or enhance the relationship

answer

Roommate who is messy is the problem Accommodating strategy

question

Parties in a communal sharing relationship:

answer

Are more cooperative and empathetic Craft better quality agreements Perform better on both decision making and motor tasks Focus their attention on the other party's outcomes as well as their own (because you're already in a relationship so you know the value of that) Focus attention on the norms that develop about the way that they work together I.e. Fraternity Projection

question

Parties in a communal sharing relationship (continued):

answer

Are more likely to share information with the other and less likely to use coercive tactics Are more likely to use indirect communication about conflict issues, and develop a unique conflict structure May be more likely to use compromise or problem solving strategies for resolving conflicts, Data does not support the fact that parties in close relationships produce better solutions. Why - both parties are too willing to give in, which can hinder the outcome at the end. Studies found that parties who did not have a close relationship produced better integrative solutions. Parties in a relationship may not push hard for a preferred solution to try to minimize the conflict level in the relationship.

question

Key Elements in Managing Negotiations within Relationships

answer

Reputation Trust Justice

question

What is your reputation?

answer

Perceptual and highly subjective in nature An individual can have a number of different, even conflicting, reputations Shaped by past behavior Influenced by an individual's personal characteristics and accomplishments. Develops over time; once developed, is hard to change. Negative reputations are difficult to "repair"

question

Shaped by past behavior

answer

direct reputations (what we perceive) may be different than hearsay reputations (what others say). The hearsay reputation may have been totally different circumstances, you heard it from somebody else or it's just a perception and you don't actually know.

question

Repairing a negative reputation

answer

this is especially true if the reputation is help by many people Lance Armstrong

question

Trust

answer

"An individual's belief in and willingness to act on the words, actions and decisions of another" Three things that contribute to trust Individual's chronic disposition toward trust Situation factors History of the relationship between the parties

question

3 things that contribute to trust:

answer

You can miss out on opportunities. Or you can get taken advantage of. You have to know your instincts. When something is really important, you may be more skeptical Establishing trust - credibility over time. Trust takes time.

question

Summary of findings about the relationships between trust and negotiation behavior:

answer

Many people approach a new relationship with an unknown other party with remarkably high levels of trust (Start at zero and most people want to believe they can trust the other party and usually do until something happens to prove them wrong. It's like a default. ) Trust tends to cue cooperative behavior (As trust strengthens so does the willingness to have an integrative negotiation) Individual motives also shape trust and expectations of the other's behavior(People who are more cooperatively motivated report more initial higher trust of the other party) Trustors, and those trusted, may focus on different things as trust is being built (Focus can be on risk initially and move toward the benefits that can be gained later.) The nature of the negotiation task can shape how parties judge the trust (Little trust may be expected in an distributive negotiation where much trust might be expected in a integrative negotiation.)

question

Summary of findings about the relationships between trust and negotiation behavior (continued):

answer

Greater expectations of trust between negotiators leads to greater information sharing(similarly, greater expectation of mistrust leads to minimal information sharing) Greater information sharing enhances effectiveness in achieving a good negotiation outcome (This might not be because of trust) Distributive processes lead negotiators to see the negotiation dialogue, and critical events in the dialogue, as largely about the nature of the negotiation task (Focusing only on task can reduce trust)

question

Summary of findings about the relationships between trust and negotiation behavior (continued):

answer

Trust increases the likelihood that negotiation will proceed on a favorable course over the life of a negotiation (When mistrust occurs the frame of the negotiation can change quickly) Face-to-face negotiation encourages greater trust development than negotiation online - why? You can see emotions. No planning. Seeing somebody solidifies a relationship. (Negotiating face to face forces a personal relationship) Negotiators who are representing other's interests, rather than their own interests, tend to behave in a less trusting way. They say they're just representing their clients. (They do not perceive that they are personally involved in a relationship and can rationalize that they are merely looking out for their client.) Ex. Dealing with agents

question

Repairing Trust

answer

The more severe the breach of trust, the more difficult it is to repair trust If the parties had a good past relationship, it was easier to repair trust The sooner an apology occurs the more effective the apology is likely to be The more sincere the apology is, the more effective it is in repairing trust - Clinton

question

Reparing Trust Con't

answer

Apologies where the party took personal responsibility for creating the breach were more effective than apologies that blamed external causes Apologies were more effective when the trust breach was an isolated incident rather than habitual and repetitive. "I did it but it wasn't really my fault" Story: Mr. Garner admitted that the late delivery was his fault and the customer was ok with it. His District Manager lies about it and the customer was very upset with him.

question

Justice

answer

Can take several forms: Distributive justice Procedural justice Interactional justice Systemic justice

question

Distributive justice

answer

The distribution of outcomes, we need to take everything and divide it up equally. - If you took all the money and divided it up equally, in 5 years or 10-15 years (according to Garner) it would end up exactly where it is before the divide. Equal opportunity is not equal outcome.

question

Procedural justice

answer

The process of determining outcomes, Is the process fair? Rich people involved in the legal system, they're more likely to succeed?

question

Interactional justice

answer

How parties treat each other in one-to-one relationships

question

Systemic justice

answer

How organizations appear to treat groups of individuals

question

Repairing a Relationship

answer

Diagnostic steps in beginning to work on improving a relationship: What might be causing any present misunderstanding, and what can I do to understand it better? What might be causing a lack of trust, and what can I do to begin to repair trust that might have been broken? What might be causing one or both of us to feel coerced, and what can I do to put the focus on persuasion rather than coercion? What might be causing one or both of us to feel disrespected, and what can I do to demonstrate acceptance and respect? What might be causing one or both of us to get upset, and what can I do to balance emotion and reason?

question

Acceptance Time

answer

Time allotted for buyer or seller to accept the changes that occur during a negotiation.

question

Big Pot Tactic

answer

Creating issues, some real some made of straw, designed to reduce the sellers aspiration level, provide themselves with trading room, assure others in their own organization that they are hard bargainers, make it easier for the salesperson to take a lower package back to their own people.

question

Bogey Tactic

answer

Complementing the seller on the product but setting a limit on the amount the buyer can spend.

question

Plumber Principle

answer

Value of service rendered is greater before it is rendered than after

question

Change of Pace in Tactics

answer

changing tactics throughout the negotiation process to refrain from telegraphing your motivations or desire to close

question

Change the negotiator Tactic

answer

Bringing in a new negotiator after the negotiation has begun.

question

Cherry picking

answer

optimizing tactic where the buyer gets multiple bids then compares each individual line item against the competitors

question

Decoy, the briar patch

answer

dissuading an opponent from taking action by directing their attention to an area that is less threatening or better protected.

question

Escalating authority tactic

answer

pass the approval level higher so that your opponent is forced to literally renegotiate or repeat arguments at each level.

question

Escalation

answer

Changing the terms after an agreement has been reached

question

Good Cop/Bad Cop

answer

Tactic where one person begins the negotiation with very tough demands, then later another person takes over with a nicer demeanor .

STUDY

Areas For Improvement Creative Problem Solving Duties And Responsibilities Functional Behavior Assessment Give And Take Height And Weight Three Years Old Writing A Cover Letter

Principal – Flashcard 29 terms

Daniel Hardy

29 terms

Preview

Principal – Flashcard

question

Describe your training/experiences/background that have prepared you for this position?

answer

About myself: Describe your training/experiences/background that have prepared you for this position? Struggles in School Hmong Imigrants came in MHS Inspirational Teachers Left swore not to come back College for Art Degree Graphic Designer • Managed and Evaluated Staff • Oversaw the budget • Worked with the Community (UC Merced) During that time had two very different children • All Students Struggle • SPED Process Loved my job, but wanted to do something where I was making more of a difference in peoples lives Back to CSU Stan - Teaching Degree Student Taught at Franklin and Bellevue in Kindergarten and 3rd grade I taught for five years at Hoover Middle School. • District Curriculum Council • SAIT Team • Site Leadership Team • Taught a variety of subjects: Art, Advanced Art, 6th grade English/Social Science, 7th Grade English/Social Science, Read 180, and Gave me a strong understanding of instruction and reaching struggling students. This is also when I fell in love with education. I love my job. I love that I have an opportunity every day to come to work and make a difference in a student's life. After five years at Hoover Middle School, I decided to take a position at Merced high School, where I could teach art at a more rigorous level. • All levels of Art including AP, Started Computer Graphics, Yearbook • Technology Committee • District Advisory Board • Assistant WASC Coordinator • 6 Year Plan Coordinator • Intervention Specialist - Decreased tardiness by 20% • CTE Articulation for Graphic Arts • Teacher of the Year for MHS, MUHSD, County • Led RTI Intervention Tea- lee a group of over 39 teachers, in a six month process, to plan and develop an embedded intervention plan for MHS that was voted on by staff and will be implemented in the next school year. During that time I faced a lot of adversity from some older staff members, who were unwilling to participate in the process but very willing to criticize, and I also faced pushback from CTA. Through this all, I learned that if you keep the focus on what is best for students, teachers will ultimately make the right choices. Completed Admin Credential and Masters Degree in Education Administration The same desire that brought me into teaching, a desire to make a difference, brought me into administration. I wanted to be in a place where I had more say in how the school was run and be able to provide supports for students to succeed and I knew I would have more opportunities to make change at an admin level. Associate Principal, Activities and Athletics • PBIS - Urban Essentials - increased instructional time, reduced minor classroom disruptions • Discipline for 9th and 11th graders - reduction in suspensions, expulsions, and bullying and threatening incidents • Student Recognition Plan • Balanced SBO Budget • Increased student club offerings by 20% • Established Pursuing Victory with Honor program for athletes, which encourages student athletes to model the six pillars of character in competition. As a result, student leadership and responsibility was built through the formation of a student Captain's Club who oversee the program and student athletes were recognized for positive behavior. This year I was moved up to Associate Principal of Guidance and Counseling. I was excited to get a new challenge and have truly enjoyed working more closely with the master schedule, counselors, teachers, parents and having a bigger impact on instruction. • Balanced Master Schedule - supports for struggling students • Directly supported and guided instruction for a cohort of multi-disciplinary teachers • Planning and curriculum development for Freshmen Social Science and Academic Support • Expanded 6 Year plan activities for students • Analyzed grade data every four weeks to guide placement of students • Created monthly parent guidance workshops • Developed and facilitated a Common Core literacy training for Visual Arts teachers • One to Web • Improved the RTI program through regular coordinator meetings, well planned and relevant staff intervention meetings, disseminating data, addressing concerns quickly, and providing transparent communication. As a result, staff and student satisfaction with the RTI program increased and the program ran efficiently. I believe with my strong knowledge of instruction, my diverse business, teaching and administrative background, and my ability work, collaborate and lead staff have prepared to be an principal.

question

Describe your philosophy of discipline. How have you been formally trained?

answer

I was trained in discipline procedures in my adnin program. I was also in charge of discipline for 9th and 11th graders last year at Golden Valley and received training from our district. During that time we also implemented a Positive Behavior Intervention System, Urban Essentials. Urban essentials promotes positive student-teacher relationships. I was involved in the implementation of the program as well as working with teachers to follow the steps of the PBIS process. My philosophy on discipline is that all students should be held responsible and accountable for their behavior. Discipline should be consistent and fair and should follow the discipline rules of the school, district and California Ed Code. I do believe that whenever you are dealing with students it is an opportunity to build a relationship with that student and their parents. Most students and parents understand when they have done something wrong. However, issues with teachers, poverty, drugs, foster care, divorce and much more. They want to know they are heard and they want to know they are cared about. So I believe in dealing with students on discipline it is also an opportunity to find out what is going on in their lives, to talk to them about their academic progress, and to provide other supports that may be available. Many times students just want to be heard. They know they have done something wrong. They know their our consequences. When they are heard and listened too and you are consistent in your discipline than I think this creates accountability and boundaries for students. I have a group of girls, I call them the fabulous five. They were in lots of trouble their freshmen year. A couple of them had got into fights, they were being disrespectful to teachers and they just had a lot of girl drama. Their grades were low. In dealing with them in discipline last year I built relationships with them. I talked to them about their grades and really listened to them about what their concerns were. This year I have really worked with these young ladies to make sure they are in intervention classes where they get the support they need. I also review their grades with them regularly and make contact with them at lunch. I have encouraged them to be positive role models within their group and help each other to succeed and be to class on time. All of the girls have made a turn around. Their grades have improved, their attendance has improved and their attitude has improved. Yes, they still our disciplined occasionally but because they know they have someone to come to at school and they are treated fairly they are doing much better.

question

What are you three best leadership qualities?

answer

One of my biggest strengths is that I am an Instructional Leader. I have a strong knowledge of instructional strategies, lesson design, curriculum as well as instructional technology. I am able to evaluate instruction and give effective instructional feedback to staff, which is extremely important right now with the onset of the Common Core State Standards. I have high expectations for myself, my staff and my students. I convey this through how hard I work, being in classrooms daily and giving consistent and relevant instructional feedback, bringing back decisions to what is best for students, and by not ignoring problems or concerns but by dealing with them immediately and communicating clearly so staff and/or parents know that you have dealt with it. When staff see that you have high expectations for not only students but staff then they are motivated to work harder and do what is right for students. I am also a transformative leader and I work to build a school culture that is collaborative where teachers are motivated to work with a sense of purpose. This last year, I have had a huge leadership role in leading our RTI team and RTI Program. Within this program, I led a team of teachers to support and grow the RTI program and as a result we have increased staff satisfaction with the program. When I talk about transformative leadership, I think this is a good example. At the beginning of the year our admin team identified that our RTI program needed to be provided with more support and by support I mean we needed to listen to our teachers concerns, address them and improve the program to ensure that we were providing our students with effective interventions. Additionally, it was my goal to grow student leadership with this program which was shared with the intervention team and also became a goal of the team. The intervention team met every month to discuss feedback from staff, look at data, plan for upcoming staff meetings, and identify areas that needed improvement and make adjustments to the program accordingly. My goal was to build the leadership capacity of the intervention coordinators. To make that happen, the intervention coordinators became the leads of the program with each one working with specific groups within the intervention program: study hall, tutorial, freshmen advisory, and extended lunch. As a group, we identified the topics we needed to talk about with staff about and developed the staff presentation together but it was the intervention coordinators that gave the presentations, listened to and responded to staff feedback. To ensure that communication was open with staff, data on student progress was provided to the staff every four weeks and we also regularly addressed staff concerns and made adjustments to the program based on those concerns and communicated that to staff. Additionally, we conducted student and staff surveys several times throughout the year to gage staff and student satisfaction with the program and get input. I think by building the leadership of intervention coordinators, listening to staff concerns and making adjustments based on those concerns and regularly sharing data with staff ultimately built staff satisfaction with the program. I also think through building student leadership, listening to the students, and providing students with support has built student satisfaction with the program and ultimately this has led to more effective interventions for students.

question

What are your best qualities and greatest assets as an employee?

answer

Strong understanding of instructional strategies, lesson building and curriculum Good at building relationships - get along well with other - product of being a middle child Hardworking, Dedicated Extremely Organized Love what I do CTE Knowledge Technology Knowledge Connections with Students

question

What qualities do you need to develop, or what is your greatest weakness? What do you plan to do improve these weaknesses?

answer

I am someone who is determined and I like to get a lot done, but I've needed to recognize that at times it's hard for me to take a step back and get perspective. I've learned that I have to make time for myself a priority too. To do that I have been working on prioritizing my to do list to allow for time in my schedule for activities that are important to me and give me down time that allow me to destress and build balance in my life.

question

What are your top three professional achievements? Describe your role in bring these about.

answer

-Master schedule -Improved the RTI program through regular coordinator meetings, well planned and relevant staff intervention meetings, disseminating data, addressing concerns quickly, and providing transparent communication. As a result, staff and student satisfaction with the RTI program increased and the program ran efficiently. -Directly supported and guided instruction for a cohort of multi-disciplinary teachers through regular instructional walkthroughs, providing instructional feedback, ensuring implementation of district instructional norms and Common Core State Standards, and assisting with instructional resources. As a result, instructional practices and student learning improved. -6 Year Plan - having all students at our school explore career interests and develop a 6 Year Plan Google Site -RTI - Leading a group of staff to develop and implement a RTI embedded intervention program unique to MHS. -Teacher of the Year - being teacher of the year for MHS, MUHSD, and Merced County were huge honors for me and somewhat humbling. It was nice to be recognized for hard work but also to be able to share how students struggle. I was also voted teacher of the year at Hoover Middle School, and this was a big honor also because that was a teacher vote not an admin vote. -Accepted to three CTE Conferences to build lesson plans and curriculum for CTE Online. This was a big honor because it recognizes the strength of my lesson plans and curriculum. -Naviance, 6 Year Plan -Urban Essentials, Discipline

question

Who has influenced your life? Who is your personal hero?

answer

I had a great teacher in high school who believed in me and my skills. My parents, I believe, thought I wouldn't be able to make much of my life with an Art Degree and although they encouraged me I never felt that they thought I would do anything with an art degree. Carol Kamerer, my ROP instructor, showed me that I could, that there were jobs out there in art, and mainly she just believed in me. This has taught me not to underestimate just how much your belief in a student and their skills can influence their life.

question

How do you handle change?

answer

Change is a part of life. Things are always changing. I think once you accept that it is easy to adjust to change because you expect it to happen. I also think change is important because it challenges us and helps us to step out of our comfort zone. So when something does change I take it one step at a time, figure out what it is that I need to know or learn in this process and go out and learn it.

question

How do you handle conflict?

answer

Life is full of conflict. It would certainly be my dream world if there was none. I think the first step when there is conflict is to truly listen to what the other person is saying and try to put yourself in their place. I think many times you can understand where they might be coming from and they may have some valid points. Sometimes, when a person is complaining, really the only thing they want is to be heard and for someone to know and understand what they are experiencing. In an educational setting I have faced many conflicts throughout the RTI process. Quite a few of the teachers were resistant to change, to say the least, and were unwilling to even participate in discussions on how to help our students who are struggling. Many of these teachers did have valid concerns about embedding instruction and how it would affect our high students and how it would affect instructional minutes. By listening to their complaints/concerns we were able to end some of that conflict and use what these teachers said to come up with a more comprehensive program. We were also able to challenge some of the teachers who had the biggest complaints to become a part of the team, which they did. With that being said, not all of the conflicts were resolved. I think you have to realize that not everybody is going to be happy. A book I just read quoted Mark Zuckenberg, founder of Google, as saying, "If you do please everyone, you aren't making enough progress." I believe this. You have to focus on the people who are there working with you to make change and not the few that are complaining (because generally it is just a few, but they make such a large stink it seems like a lot). So to deal with conflict I try to look for the positive in situations. And in the RTI process the positive was over 39 staff members, many who had not stepped up before, stepping up to do what was best for our struggling students. Middle Child - Peacemaker Listen Education - always go back to what's best for students.

question

What are your personal and professional goals?

answer

Clear my admin credential. Increase my knowledge of the Common Core State Standards Expand my knowledge on best leadership practices Get more involved in ACSA and CALSA - possibly go through one of their principal mentorship programs Personally, ensure that I am enjoying my life, staying healthy, and spending time with my family

question

What is the most exciting thing going on in education today?

answer

Technology - 1 to web: Providing students with technology, training teachers, training students, the endless possibilities available with technology...and using technology as a tool not a replacement for instruction Common Core - the rigor it will demand out of our students and how it will bring back more project based learning which helps build student creative problem solving skills and gives them choice in their work, which will ultimately lead to students who are more engaged in their education and who have developed their ability to think outside the box which this world truly needs. Project Based Learning Vocational Ed - I think we are starting to see a swing back to preparing students for vocations instead of college. College doesn't guarantee a job anymore and a large majority of our students are not going to college or are attending the JC where they get stuck. Our students are disengaged in their education because they don't understand the why behind the classes they are taking. Not all students are destined for college. We need to open up more opportunities for our students to choose their future and their destination after high school. By providing more vocational opportunities to our students we will engage students in school and give them a viable training for work after high school. New Accountability measures LCAP/LCFF Districts will have broad discretion over how to use the base grants. The funding law says that districts must expand or improve services for high-needs students in proportion to the additional funding that these students bring to the district. School districts will have more authority than before to decide how to spend their money. But they will also face new obligations to show that their spending improved student performance. Districts must adopt a Local Control and Accountability Plan (LCAP), after soliciting suggestions from teachers, parents and the community, and update it annually. The plan must spell out the district's goals for improving student outcomes according to eight priorities set by the state, and align spending to meet the goals. Districts that fail to meet their goals and improve student outcomes will receive assistance from county offices of education and through a new agency, the California Collaborative for Educational Excellence. Districts that are persistently failing could be subject to state intervention or even a state takeover.

question

How would you determine priorities for our new job?

answer

I think to determine the priorities of a new school I would need to observe what is going on at the school, talk to teachers, talk to students, talk to parents, talk to administration and identify what the strengths and weaknesses of the school are. Also, I would need to know what the district's goals and LCAP plan and how the school I am at is progressing on those goals. I would also want to look at the school's test scores, WASC report, School Site Plan, and above all get into classrooms and see what's going on. I think being in the classrooms and seeing instruction, what the students are doing, what the teachers are doing is the best way to determine what your school needs. I think some other topics that would play into any school's priority at this time would be Common Core implementation and technology integration.

question

Why did you apply for this job

answer

I am truly excited about the opportunity to become a Principal. It is the same desire that brought me into teaching, to make a real contribution to peoples' lives, that has motivated me to become an principal. I believe my leadership style and experience will fit well with Merced City School District's focus on 21st Century Student Achievement, Professional Learning and Communication and Technology.

question

What is a recent professional development-related book you have read recently and what did you gain from reading it?

answer

Collin Powel, It Worked for Me - In Life and Leadership It ain't as bad as you think. I'm t will look better in the morning. This rule reflects an attitude and not a prediction. I have always tried to keep my confidence and optimism up, no matter how difficult the situation. Things will get better. You will make them better. Many times facing a tough meeting, and unpleasant encounter the last thing I would do before hand was go into the restroom washing dry my hands and face, look into the mirror and say myself, "Fast Eddie, let's play some pool." Have a vision. Be demanding. Purpose is the destination of a vision. It energizes that vision, gives it force and drive. It should be positive and powerful, and serve the better angels of an organization.(Good leader set vision, missions, and goals. Great leaders inspire every follower at every level to internalize their purpose, and to understand that their purpose goes far beyond the mere details of their job. When everyone is united in purpose, positive purpose that serves not only the organization but also, hopefully, the world beyond it, you have a winning team. What Great Principals Do Differently by Todd Whitaker It's People Not Programs Open classrooms our successful because the best teachers apply Assertive discipline - best teachers apply both positive and negative discipline Individual teacher development Great principals never forget that it is the people, not programs, who determine the quality of the school. Set Expectations at the Start of the School Year Express clear expectations at the first faculty meeting Effective principals establish expectations that express their core beliefs Decide what your personal needs and desires are for your school and set the expectations at the start of the year, focus on the future, and consistently reinforce your expectations Great principals establish clear expectations at the start of the year and follow them consistently as the year progresses.

question

Principal positions require intense time-management. Please give examples of how you organize your day to meet the various demands and commitments required as a school principal.

answer

question

What does an effective leader look like? What is our leadership style? How would you describe your leadership style?

answer

I am an Instructional Leader. I have a strong knowledge of instructional strategies, lesson design, curriculum as well as instructional technology. I am able to evaluate instruction and give effective instructional feedback to staff, which is extremely important right now with the onset of the Common Core State Standards. I have high expectations for myself, my staff and my students. I convey this through how hard I work, being in classrooms daily and giving consistent and relevant instructional feedback, bringing back decisions to what is best for students, and by not ignoring problems or concerns but by dealing with them immediately and communicating clearly so staff and/or parents know that you have dealt with it. When staff see that you have high expectations for not only students but staff then they are motivated to work harder and do what is right for students. I also see myself as a leader who is transformative. I want to develop a school culture that is collaborative where teachers are motivated to work with a sense of purpose and that purpose is what do we need to do to help all students succeed. I think within this process you have to be a leader who can motivate those individuals that don't step out all the time to step out with a purpose. I think this is done by consistently building relationships with people. By listening to them and recognizing what they do, sharing with them, inviting them to collaborate and fostering an environment where they can fight for what is best for students even when others are not. Additionally, when you involve all staff you are able to look at problems through different eyes and come up with new ways of solving problems. In this last year, I have had a huge leadership role in leading our RTI team and RTI Program. Within this program, I have led a team of teachers to support and grow the RTI program and as a result we have increased staff satisfaction with the program. When I talk about transformative leadership, I think this is a good example. At the beginning of the year we identified that our RTI program needed to be provided with more support and that we needed to ensure that we were providing our students with interventions. Additionally, it was my goal to grow student leadership with this program which was shared with the group and also became a goal of the group. The intervention coordinators met every month to discuss feedback from staff, look at data, plan for upcoming staff meetings, and identify areas that needed improvement and make adjustments to the program accordingly. My goal was to build the leadership capacity of the intervention coordinators. To make that happen, the intervention coordinators became the leads of the program with each one working with specific groups within the intervention program: study hall, tutorial, freshmen advisory, and extended lunch. We had 5 full staff intervention meetings this year. As a group, we identified the topics we would talk about and developed the staff presentation together but it was the intervention coordinators that gave the presentations, listened to and responded to staff feedback. To ensure that communication was open with staff, information was regularly provided to the staff on data on how students were progressing, feedback from staff and how we were addressing their concerns. Additionally, we conducted student and staff surveys several times throughout the year to gage staff and student satisfaction with the program and get input. I think by building the leadership of intervention coordinators, listening to staff concerns and making adjustments based on those concerns and regularly sharing data with staff ultimately built staff satisfaction with the program. I also think through building student leadership, listening to the students, and providing students with support has built student satisfaction with the program. I also believe that leaders should have high expectations for their staff. I think this is conveyed mainly by the leaders actions. How hard do they work, what do they tolerate, do they stand up for what is right, and are they there for the right reasons. When staff see that you have high expectations for not only students but staff then they are motivated to work harder and do what is right for students. As Associate Principal of Guidance, I have had to have many hard conversations with teachers about my expectations. Because I am second in line, all of the parent concerns come to me first. If you have built relationships with your teachers and your teachers know that you are a hard worker and doing what is right, those hard conversations won't be as hard because you will have built trust. However, you can't avoid those conversations. A lot of times teachers will respect that you are having that conversation, but if it is a teacher who is unaware they are doing anything wrong, they will continue doing it wrong. Recently I had to have a hard conversation with a new teacher. Next year this teacher will be in their second year, and if we don't see improvement next year the teacher will be let go. I wanted to be very honest with this teacher about what my expectations were and where I expected to see improvement. I also think a leader is a role model. Their own accomplishments provide an example of their character to staff. How a leader acts and behaves has a large influence on their staff. I think I am a good role model. I try always to treat everyone with kindness. I also try to always put myself in the other persons shoes, so I can understand better where the come from. I am a good listener and observe and I learn a lot through that process. I have a hard worker and am often one of the first ones in the office and almost always the last one to leave. When I say I am going to do something, I do it or I follow up if I cannot. If someone asks me about something, I get back to them. If someone emails me, I email them back. My staff has learned that they can count on me to do what I say I am going to do. With all of that being said, I do believe there on times when you just have to be a boss. There are times when staff will be unwilling or unable to perform will need more specific direction and it will need to be given. As a leader, if you have done your work in developing interpersonal relationships with staff, it won't be as hard to have those difficult conversations with staff members because you have already built a relationship with them. This year, in particular, we had one teacher who is often unwilling to do what is asked of them. To make a change with this teacher I consistently visited their room, gave consistent directed feedback, provided supports when needed, and also praised the teacher when they did what was asked of them. I have seen real change in this teacher's classroom. I will never be able to inspire this teacher to be a leader on campus. However, I know that consistent, direct feedback he will be held accountable and will be a much better teacher because of that.

question

How do you build a positive school culture or climate? Give examples of how you would do that here.

answer

question

A student enrolled in special education is reported to have a knife in their backpack. From start to finish (knife or no knife), how would you handle this situation. Consider all the staff involved.

answer

First to ensure the safety of the school, I would go get the student. I would take along another AP or staff member with me so I had a witness. I would also ask for a campus liason or the school resources officer to come with us. I'd bring the student back to my office. I'd notify them of the rule I had reason to believe they had broken and ask if I can search their backpack. If the student says no I will search based on reasonable suspicion. Again, I would have a staff member with me to be a witness to the search. If the student has a knife then i would have a discussion with the student; notifying them of what they did wrong, telling them what my evidence was and then giving them a chance to tell their side of the story. I would then write a suspension up based on Ed Code 490000b. If the knife was larger than 5" and locking I would immediately contact the police. Possessing a knife of this type is a mandatory expulsion in ed code 48915c. However, because the student is special education, he would have to have a manifest IEP first to determine if the student's actions were a results of his/her disability. I would also contact the district special ed department and the school's special ed department to let them know what is happening. The special ed department would need to ensure that the student's IEP has been followed before the begin the Manifest IEP. I would complete the suspension and notify the parent and recommend the student for expulsion. Special Ed: No more than ten days of suspension. Must have a manifest IEP before 10 days of suspension to determine if there is a relationship between the child's behavior and disability. A change of placement violates IDEA, because students can received ed services. If there is not a relationship then the student can be suspended and expelled like any other student. If there is a relationship then the IEP must be changed to address the behaviors and a functional behavior assessment must take place and a behavior plan created to become part of the IEP. Members of an IEP meeting: reg ed, sp ed, LEA, school pschologist intro, agenda, positive statements, parents rights, testing/grades, objectives and goals, modifications and special services, signature

question

If you were an assistant principal on the campus where you were a teacher, how would you balance friendships and improving instruction?

answer

I believe I have already established myself as an instructional leader and leader in general on campus. Staff already come to me and ask me for help with lessons. What I believe is that if you have truly built relationships with people, where they know you care about them and are interested in them succeeding than it is easier to have those conversations with teachers.

question

You are assigned to conduct the formal observation on a veteran science teacher. You and this teacher have never been friends and struggle even being cordial. How would you create a professional environment, conduct the required meeting, evaluate the teacher and be subjective in your evaluation?

answer

Factual Focus on their instruction not the person Positive, meat, Positive - Sandwich the meat of what you think the teacher needs to improve upon with the positive the teacher does Schedule visitation

question

FRISK

answer

Facts - what did they do Rule - what rule did they violate? What should the employee have done? Impact - What was the impact or possible impact of the action? Suggestions - Corrective - What do you want them to do to improve? Knowledge - Copy placed in employees file.

question

Please share what professional development activities you have actively participated in over the last two years and what specific steps you would take to promote and encourage continued professional development in your staff.

answer

question

What experiences have you had in working with low income and "at risk" students?

answer

RTI2-multi-tier approach to identifying and supporting students with educational or behavioral needs

question

Walk Through's:

answer

Instructional practices improve, non-threatening, help teachers see where they are doing well and what they need to work on Builds communication Helps monitor the implementation of instructional strategies Helps administrators understand the needs of teachers and staff for curriculum development Helps teachers be reflective

question

EDI

answer

Objective: based on standard and is measurable 1.1 Analyze and discuss complex ideas, such as distortion, color theory, arbitrary color, scale, expressive content, and real versus virtual in works of art. Students will analyze how color theory is used in a piece of historical artwork. Prior knowledge - how does it relate to what they already know or have learned What have they learned about color - how color expresses mood, how color is used for certain holidays, how colors are used together to be pleasing Importance - why is it important that the students learn this It's important they understand how to use color accurately in their artwork in order to express their ideas and emotions in their work Concept Development - what concepts do they need to know Lesson on different color theories: cool/warm, arbitrary color, complementary colors, analogous colors, etc. Skill Development - what skills will they have to develop Skills in mixing those colors using the three primary colors Guided Practice - teacher guides students through the process Teacher would guide students through mixing colors Teacher would guide students through analyzing a piece of artwork Closure - What did they learn Independent Practice Students would create a piece of artwork using a specific color theory Students would analyze the color theory used in a piece of artwork Throughout instruction the teacher should be checking for understanding by asking questions to ensure that students understand what is being taught. This should be done every 3-5 minutes to ensure students are on track. This allows the teacher to stop and relate the material in a different way if students are getting it instead of realizing after the lesson is done that the students didn't understand. There are a variety of ways to do CFU's: random calling, whiteboards, pair shares, etc. Questioning should move through the level of Higher Order Thinking skills from remember to create.

question

The district's primary focus is improving instruction. How can you assist the district in reaching this goal (as an assistant principal)?

answer

One of my biggest strengths is my knowledge of instruction. I have taught a diverse range of subjects including art, english, social studies, Read 180, computer graphics, yearbook, Students Success Summer School, and study hall. This diversity in my teaching experiences has helped me to understand and relate to the instructional needs of teachers. I also have strong pedagogy in instruction. I completed EDI training in my former district and have a sound understanding of EDI and the benefits of EDI. I have also completed district trainings on course and unit organizers, HOTS, literacy, objectives, and various technology workshops. I have developed curriculum for all of the art classes I have taught. Based on my strong instructional skill and ability to write curriculum, I have been accepted and attended three CTE conferences where I have written lessons and units that are featured on the CTE Online Site. I have also been a leader in developing the curriculum for Computer Graphics that was articulated to Merced College. I also ran a training for the CG teachers in the district on this curriculum. Curriculum and instruction are certainly one of my biggest strengths, and my ability to lead other teachers in improving instruction would be an asset to the district. Pedagogical background - developed my own curriculum for at based on state standards. At MUHSD developed course and unit organizers for art classes and computer graphics classes. Developed curriculum for Computer Graphics class that was articulated. Helped to share and train Art teachers underneath me.

question

How will you identify the educational needs and values of the community?

answer

question

What role do you think technology should play in the classroom and in the school? How important is the integration of technology into the curriculum?

answer

question

Questions to ask:

answer

What do you see as the biggest challenge facing the school? What kind of support and professional development do you provide for your principlas? "When can I start?

STUDY

Give And Take Identifying The Problem International Relations Leadership Linguistics Nursing

Leadership and Management Questions – Flashcards 180 terms

Brandon Ruffin

180 terms

Preview

Leadership and Management Questions – Flashcards

question

Conflict is all of the above except ______. a. normative b. to be avoided at all costs c. a metaphor for difference d. often ideological e. due to intellectual differences

answer

b. to be avoided at all costs

question

Embedded in the fear of conflict are issues of all of the following except ____. a. personal security b. identity c. safety d. relational integrity e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

The early identification of conflict is important to help prevent escalation. Many stressors are manifested in particular modes of ______. a. communication b. relationships c. interactions d. expression of personal emotions e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

The next stage of conflict is seen with _____. a. verbalizations b. snide remarks c. statements of discomfort d. cynicism e. negative assessments f. b, c, and d are true. g. All of the above are true.

answer

g. All of the above are true.

question

All of the following are true except _____. a. Challenges that differences in personalities create need to be addressed. b. Values must have a voice, and that voice must be honored, respected, and included. c. All problems can be solved. d. Challenges that exist in matching demand to available resources need expression if conflict about them is to be allayed.

answer

c. All problems can be solved.

question

The leader needs to be comfortable with conflict. Factors which are important to this occurring are the following: a. The leader must be comfortable with self-expression of feelings, personal insights, and challenges to prevailing views and circumstances. b. The leader needs an environment that is not constraining or controlling or creates structural barriers that make it difficult to express personal feelings. c. The good leader embraces his or her own feelings regardless of intensity. d. The leader must assess their level of comfort and self-expression in the presence of conflict or conflict situations. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Creating a context of trust is the essential framework for ____. a. a place where the employee can share with you all of their problems. b. a truly safe place where conflict can be dealt with as easily and effectively as any other function, process, or relationship. c. quicker discovery of mistakes, allowing the proper punishments to be delivered more quickly. d. None of these is true.

answer

b. a truly safe place where conflict can be dealt with as easily and effectively as any other function, process, or relationship.

question

The sense of lack of justice comes from what is considered ___. a. unfair work conditions b. unfair procedures c. unfair relationships d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Examples of poor communication in fully sharing personal views, insights, or opinion include all of the following except ___. a. Staff vocalizes affirmatively. b. You see people nodding their heads or sitting in silence in response to a statement or question raised. c. You notice people stop questioning or raising issues because they fear being labeled as not being team players.

answer

a. Staff vocalizes affirmatively.

question

10. Alienation____. a. is encouraged by permitting the reflective work of the profession to be sacrificed by unrelenting work expectations. b. is encouraged when team members are kept busy doing without the opportunity to think about what they're doing. c. that flourishes prevents individuals from ever arriving at that unique fellowship and strong sense of professional relationship that is a sign of a committed team. d. causes members of the team to give up participating. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

11. Five personal barriers that have a dramatic impact on the individual leader's ability to understand, engage, and manage conflict include ____. a. willingness to confront conflict b. uncertainty about the capacity to handle the conflict emotionally and personally c. recognizing that most people's attitude toward conflict is a negative one d. lack of skill e. lack of exposure and experience f. previous family conflicts experienced g. a, b, c, d, and e are true. h. All of the above are true.

answer

g. a, b, c, d, and e are true.

question

12. Steps in handling conflict include ___. a. identifying the problem b. immediately reporting the problem to hospital administration c. making sure issues are expressed d. a and c are true.

answer

d. a and c are true.

question

The five types of conflicts are ___. a. relationship conflicts b. information conflicts c. interest conflicts d. organizational conflicts e. values-based conflicts f. conflicts with administration g. a through e are true h. All of the above are true.

answer

g. a through e are true

question

14. Values conflicts ______. a. are the easiest to address in the workplace b. are difficult to resolve because they relate to who people are c. are difficult to resolve because they relate to what people believe d. b and c are true

answer

d. b and c are true

question

15. Areas to include in the mediation process as relationship issues are explored include all of the following except ___. a. mutual respect b. needs versus wants c. compassion and empathy d. blaming others.

answer

d. blaming others.

question

Patient workforce management includes five highly interconnected and interrelated components, which include all of the following except ____. a. Establishment of a patient care delivery model. b. Patient needs and nurse interventions identification. c. Creation of a core staffing schedule to support patient needs. d. Daily staffing process that is consistent each day. e. Evaluate value and outcome.

answer

d. Daily staffing process that is consistent each day.

question

A patient care delivery model ___. a. is the method or system of organizing and delivering nursing care. b. includes work delegation and resource utilization. c. emerges from the organizational mission, vision, values and structures. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Areas of focus necessary to get the work done in healthcare settings include a system that requires ____. a. clear delineation and assignment of work based on skills. b. licensure and competence. c. recruitment and retention of competent caregivers. d. assurance of value-based outcomes. e. integration of the work of all caregivers into a whole that meets the needs of patients. f. All of the above are true.

answer

f. All of the above are true.

question

The historical usage approach to staffing involves___. a. looking at usage from the year before. b. the assumption that all patients are similar in needs. c. identifying nurse-to-patient ratios based on experiences and perceptions of nurses. d. use of a patient classification system.

answer

a. looking at usage from the year before.

question

5. Patient care needs categories include___. a. cognitive needs. b. pain and comfort needs. c. family information and support needs. d. treatments and interventions. e. a and c f. All of the above are true.

answer

f. All of the above are true.

question

Times and motion studies involve _____. a. sampling activities at systematic or random intervals. b. continuous timed observations of a single person during a typical time period or shift of work. c. asking the individual to log the work performed using a data collection tool with start and stop times of each activity recorded. d. using time standards developed from past experiences.

answer

b. continuous timed observations of a single person during a typical time period or shift of work.

question

The expert opinion or expert panel technique to measure work _____. a. identifies time requirements for certain work. b. is a consensus approach. c. uses professional judgment to determine staff required. d. provides a flexibile approach that focuses on a critical review of nursing practice. e. a and d f. All of the above are true.

answer

f. All of the above are true.

question

8. Validity measures___. a. the extent to which data is reproducible. b. the extent to which a workforce management system measures what it is designed to measure. c. the ability to quantify and/or predict patient needs for nursing care. d. b and c e. All of the above are true.

answer

d. b and c

question

One of the problems with patient classification systems has been low validity. This problem includes the following: a. failing to account for the full scope of nursing practice. b. belief that patient classification systems are a vehicle to increase or decrease staffing levels inappropriately. c. wrongly projecting patient care needs for the next shift or time period. d. failing to use the data that is generated.

answer

a. failing to account for the full scope of nursing practice.

question

The problems with prospective versus retrospective prediction of patient care needs includes___. a. the amount of staff and skill mix has been nearly impossible to determine without an acceptable error range without using a computerized solution. b. it is nearly impossible to accurately predict patient condition changes, new admissions, and discharges. c. a and b d. Neither is true.

answer

c. a and b

question

The following are important considerations in constructing the basic core schedule: a. anticipated patient needs volume. b. shift length. c. experience. d. available research evidence for staffing effectiveness. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

All of the following are true about nursing staff skill mix except ____. a. it consists of the numbers of licensed and nonlicensed staff. b. it is determined based on who is available to work. c. it is determined based on the work that needs to be done. d. it is difficult and challenging to determine due to the multifaceted nature of patients and caregivers.

answer

b. it is determined based on who is available to work.

question

The role of advanced practice nurse providers and clinical experts includes___. a. writing orders. b. providing general patient care oversight. c. providing care. d. assisting staff in the care of more complex patients using the latest evidence in a cost-effective approach. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Variance management is____. a. analysis of the difference between actual hours of staff and required hours of care and then using this information to create effective workload management systems. b. using multiple indicators to evaluate staffing effectiveness. c. assisting less-experienced staff in organizing and providing care. d. eliminating non-value-added work.

answer

a. analysis of the difference between actual hours of staff and required hours of care and then using this information to create effective workload management systems.

question

Examples of interventions to address the gap between needs and actual staffing are the following ___. a. reevaluating patient acuity ratings. b. postponing admissions. c. postponing nonemergent patient care, d. floating existing staff to the unit of need. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Autonomy is ___. a. The right to self-determination b. the duty to do good c. a problem that confronts one, with a choice of solutions that seem or are equally unfavorable d. duty to keep one's promise

answer

a. The right to self-determination

question

Ethics is ____. a. the elimination of arbitrary distinctions and the establishment of a structure of practice with a proper share, balance, or equilibrium among competing claims b. duty to keep one's promise c. the philosophical study of right and wrong action d. duty to do no harm

answer

c. the philosophical study of right and wrong action

question

A problem that confronts one, with a choice of solutions that seem or are equally unfavorable is a (n) ___. a. ethical erosion b. ethical dilemma c. ethical fading d. boundary crossing

answer

b. ethical dilemma

question

When a health care professional performs favors for a patient that are outside the therapeutic relationship, this is called _____. a. boundary violation b. boundary crossing c. ethical fading d. whistle-blowing

answer

a. boundary violation

question

Bioethics is__. a. the sum total of individual and collective experience, knowledge, and good sense b. guidelines for behavior specific to a moral framework for professional practice c. supporting and promoting patients' healthcare rights and enhancing community health and policy initiatives that focus on the availability, safety, and quality of care d. a subdiscipline of applied ethics that studies questions surrounding biology, medicine, and the health profession

answer

d. a subdiscipline of applied ethics that studies questions surrounding biology, medicine, and the health profession

question

Care at the end of life for which there is little hope of benefit is an example of ____. a. medical futility b. organizational integrity c. nonmaleficence d. rationalization

answer

a. medical futility

question

An American school of philosophy that rejects the esoteric metaphysics of traditional European academic philosophy in favor of more down-to-earth, concrete questions and answers is ____. a. morality b. utilitarianism c. pragmatism d. bioethics

answer

c. pragmatism

question

All of the following are true about the ethics of care moral theory except ____. a. it is based on the insights of Carol Gilligan b. it is a process that obscures the ethical dimension of a decision c. it rejects the traditional male-centered ethics that focused on rationality, individuality, and abstract principles d. it is based on emotion, caring relationships, and concrete situation

answer

b. it is a process that obscures the ethical dimension of a decision

question

Examples of resources for ethical decision making would include ____. a. ethics committees b. ethics textbooks c. ethics journals d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Sources of ethical dilemmas include ____. a. values b. diversity c. political views d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Inappropriate communication with patients could involve all of the following ethical issues except ____. a. autonomy b. betrayal c. pragmatism d. nonmaleficense

answer

c. pragmatism

question

Legislative issues could impact the following ethical issues ___. a. boundary violations b. betrayal c. code of ethics d. rationalization e. a, b, and c f. a, c, and d

answer

f. a, c, and d

question

You have just witnessed an incident where a patient could have been harmed by the care of another nurse. The type of ethical dilemma you are facing is a ____. a. boundary crossing b. nurse-nurse ethical dilemma c. whistle-blowing d. nurse-patient ethical dilemma

answer

b. nurse-nurse ethical dilemma

question

All of the following are examples situations that could lead to nurse-patient ethical dilemmas except ____. a. pain management b. patient restraint c. patient privacy d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Practice breakdown is ____. a. disruption or absence of any of the aspects of good practice b. brief excursions from an established boundary for a therapeutic purpose c. a process that obscures the ethical dimensions of a decision d. when a person knows what is right and doesn't want to do it

answer

a. disruption or absence of any of the aspects of good practice

question

All of the following are true about evolution of interdisciplinary teams except ____. a. Digital technology has helped to create the demand for interdisciplinary teams. b. The complexity-based biopsychosocial model lends itself to health along a continuum, and therefore a role for a wide variety of clinical members. c. The physician is always the team leader and therefore guides the team. d. In this increasingly complex health environment no one discipline has all of the information, skills, and resources necessary to address the many intersecting needs of individual patients and patient populations.

answer

c. The physician is always the team leader and therefore guides the team.

question

Elements essential for viable team construction are___. a. purpose b. goals c. roles d. relationships e. activities and functions f. a, b, and d g. All of the above are true.

answer

g. All of the above are true.

question

The purpose for creating teams is all of the following except ___. a. to provide a general framework for care delivery b. to advance the capacity of professionals to fully engage particular planning activities c. to guide problem solving in a way that addresses patient care and improves team effectiveness d. To make staffing ratios easier to calculate

answer

d. To make staffing ratios easier to calculate

question

The following is true about goals _____. a. they give the team clear and specific direction b. they create a point of reference where teams can evaluate their progress and determine movement toward completion c. they are generally frowned upon by hospital administration d. they involve both the team and individual members in defining the performance expectation of the team e. A, b, and d are correct. f. All of the above are correct.

answer

e. A, b, and d are correct.

question

The following is information to be gathered by the team leader prior to assigning roles _____. a. discerning the character of the work b. discerning the distribution of the work c. determining the best way to break down elements of the work into meaningful components. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

The following elements need to be included in the assignment of work ___. a. individuals charged with responsibility for a particular goal need to be clear about the specifics and the expectations. b. members working on an activity need to be clear about the time and resources needed to undertake the work. c. the work timetable is generally not as important as the resource utilization. d. measures of success must be incorporated into the team member work. e. A, b, and d are correct. f. All of the above are correct.

answer

e. A, b, and d are correct.

question

All of the following are team fables except ____. a. team members are not always committed to implementing a good team process b. all team members are created equal c. team members generally use good critical thinking to resolve their questions and issues d. team members will set aside their emotional issues in the interest of effective team decision making

answer

a. team members are not always committed to implementing a good team process

question

Team progress related response strategies that the team leader could initiate within the team process are all of the following except ____. a. reaffirm specific goals and activities that were identified as essential to the team's progress toward fulfillment of the purpose of the team b. place the problem, barrier, or challenge specifically within the context of particular stages or elements of change management. c. when the context of the issue has been delineated, help break the problem down into smaller issues d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Collaboration ___. a. is the essential central methodology through which the diverse team stakeholders work b. advances the interactions that define the team's response to patient needs c. advances the team's competence in serving their population well d. implies the capacity to have team members work well together e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Setting the table means ___. a. knowing how all the decisions need to be served b. making all of the decisions for the team c. selecting team members based solely on how well they work together d. limiting the diversity of the group

answer

a. knowing how all the decisions need to be served

question

Terms of engagement contain all of the following elements except ____. a. each member of the team will have an opportunity to speak b. avoid the use of judgment terms, such as "I agree" or "I disagree" c. team members should never use "I" statements d. the use of appreciative strategies in conversation should be encouraged and stimulated

answer

c. team members should never use "I" statements

question

Major factors that are critical to the effectiveness of the team leader's role relate specifically to ____. a. the adequate structuring of the team b. the type of health care setting c. the use of good process d. the progress of the team toward its goals or in fulfillment of its purpose e. a, c, and d f. All of the above are true.

answer

e. a, c, and d

question

The impact of technology on the team process means that ____. a. communications become available to team members more quickly b. communication may be more succinct c. body language and emotions are not available to factor in with electronic communication d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

All of the following are team fables except ____. a. team members usually do not use good critical thinking to resolve their questions and issues b. each team member fully understands why they act the way they do c. people always want to work with others d. building trust is an important role of the team leader

answer

a. team members usually do not use good critical thinking to resolve their questions and issues

question

All of the following are true about the team leader and their role except ___. a. It is the role of the team leader to both monitor and moderate the effect of progress and challenges to an effective team dynamic. b. The team leader must not be overwhelmed by the seesaw between small successes as they intertwine with moments of challenge. c. The team's small successes should be celebrated by members as they progress. d. The leader should never point out signs of progress until a goal is totally achieved.

answer

d. The leader should never point out signs of progress until a goal is totally achieved.

question

Major resources in a healthcare organization include ____. a. fiscal support b. physical setting c. supplies d. technology e. All of the above.

answer

e. All of the above.

question

Healthcare economics is ___. a. a branch of economics focused on efficiency, effectiveness, and behavior in production and consumption of healthcare goods and services. b. the study and science of how human needs are perceived in relationship to what supply is available. c. a topic that only managers need to be aware of. d. a and b

answer

d. a and b

question

All of the following are true about price except ____. a. It is based on available dollars and the need for a good or service. b. Prices are considered from the perspective of actual costs of services. c. The seller of goods does not determine the price for the goods. d. Prices are considered from the perspective of overall expenditure of dollars.

answer

c. The seller of goods does not determine the price for the goods.

question

Supply of healthcare goods and services includes ___. a. people b. supplies c. technology d. time f. funds to pay for services g. All of the above.

answer

g. All of the above.

question

Material supply levels are impacted by ___. a. types of services provided b. available staff c. access to supplies d. cost of supplies e. a, c, and d f. All of the above

answer

e. a, c, and d

question

The process of recruiting nurses ___. a. involves identifying and selecting individuals who closely match the needs of the unit and organization b. involves defining or anticipating needs for services c. includes advertising, interviewing, selecting, and hiring d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Insured individuals include ____. a. those with employer-sponsored health plans b. older citizens c. military d. illegal aliens e. a, b, and c

answer

e. a, b, and c

question

The following is not true about material resources ___. a. Material resources include those resources needed for the environment and supplies and equipment to provide the required patient care. b. There is significant variation in material resources and continuing demand for new and improved material resources. c. Material resources comprise a small percentage of the cost of health care. d. All of the above are true.

answer

c. Material resources comprise a small percentage of the cost of health care.

question

The following are strategies for assessing one's time management ___. a. Determine what your personal abilities are in managing your work across s span of time. b. Take into consideration both your own personal assessment and the feedback from others on your team. c. Personal reflection specific to meeting deadlines, feeling stressed or overwhelmed, and managing interruptions are areas that should be considered. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

The following are true about productivity ____. a. It is a ratio comparing what is produced to what is required to produce it. b. It is a measure of output from a production process, per unit of input. c. Aggregate productivity ratios are helpful in determining the overall efficiency of processes and individuals at a macro level. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Examples of productivity metrics include___. a. registered nurse hours/day b. admissions, discharges, and transfers/shift c. new staff orientation hours/ total worked hours d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

A balance sheet is ___. a. a financial statement that includes assets, liabilities, and equity. b. a financial statement that includes information about revenue sources and expenses at a specific point in time. c. a financial report that shows the cash inflow and outflow activities of financial stability of the organization.

answer

a. a financial statement that includes assets, liabilities, and equity.

question

Cash flow operating activities is ______. a. a financial statement that includes assets, liabilities, and equity. b. a financial statement that includes information about revenue sources and expenses at a specific point in time. c. a financial report that shows the cash inflow and outflow activities of financial stability of the organization.

answer

c. a financial report that shows the cash inflow and outflow activities of financial stability of the organization.

question

Criteria for assessing and monitoring meaningful measures includes ____. a. Prioritize consumer and purchaser needs. b. Focus measurement on areas where there is a potential for improvement in outcome quality. c. Require that all patients fitting clinical criteria be included in analysis. d. Measure provider performance at all levels. e. All of the above is true.

answer

e. All of the above is true.

question

Dashboards are ___. a. a combination of graphics and numbers to quickly display important data elements. b. a discrepancy between needs and resources. c. financial statements that include information about revenue sources. d. a way to chart medications given.

answer

a. a combination of graphics and numbers to quickly display important data elements.

question

Structure in the healthcare system that best supports healthcare leadership is ____. a. resource-effective b. timely c. value-based d. works to advance the mission and vision of the healthcare system e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Complex adaptive systems theory ____. a. is grounded in work generating out of biology, mathematics, physics, and complexity science b. as applied to human behavior is represented in the study of a number of different approaches to understanding the relationship among behavior, organizations, and the larger systems that form the context. c. Both are true. d. Neither is true.

answer

c. Both are true.

question

All of the following fall within the realm of complexity science except ___. a. behavioral economics b. linguistics c. gaming theory d. nonlinear dynamics

answer

b. linguistics

question

Of the following statements ____ is true. a. Optimization in the system is a reflection of the strong goodness of fit between the human organizational dynamics and the technological functional processes that comprise the overall structure of the work environment. b. Complex thinking that focuses on either social or technical processes increases the predictable. c. Health care contains little interaction between social and technical forces.

answer

a. Optimization in the system is a reflection of the strong goodness of fit between the human organizational dynamics and the technological functional processes that comprise the overall structure of the work environment.

question

In complex adaptive systems, power is ____. a. located in the formal structure. b. closely-aligned with the point-of-care decision making. c. Both of the above are true. d. Neither of the above is true.

answer

b. closely-aligned with the point-of-care decision making.

question

Individuals at the point of service will need to be ___. a. more self-directed b. more collaborative c. more reliant on management d. a and b

answer

d. a and b

question

Significant shifts underway in health care include ___. a. Tertiary care is slowly being deconstructed. b. Digital technology is making it possible to create an increasingly portable diagnostic, therapeutic, and interventional environment making it increasingly mobile, fluid, flexible, and portable. c. Systems compete for value and quality. d. The fundamental value of practice is no longer embedded in volume measures related to how much an individual has done but in what difference and impact action had. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Critical influences that are creating shifts in health care include all of the following except ___. a. Change forces are usually just seen on a local level. b. The financial model now reflects a strong emphasis on value rather than the volume. c. Focus on healthcare system structures, processes, and evidence is reflected in dynamics that clearly demonstrate impact, effectiveness, and significant measures of the levels of health. d. Evidentiary dynamics and improvement science now guide mechanisms of advancing practice within the context of a strongly interfaced digital information infrastructure.

answer

a. Change forces are usually just seen on a local level.

question

All of the following are true about a shift to the health model except ___. a. The health model requires a network. b. A preventive health service structure is key. c. Patients must access services earlier. d. Patients are seen only when ill.

answer

d. Patients are seen only when ill.

question

The foundations of shared governance include ___. a. ownership b. accountability c. vertical structures d. partnership e. equity f. a, b, and c g. a, b, d, and e

answer

g. a, b, d, and e

question

Reasons why shared governance organizational structure operates effectively in complex adaptive systems like the healthcare environment include ___. a. The sustainability of healthcare services fully depends on how the point-of-service professionals function individually and collectively. b. The emergence of knowledge organizations demonstrates that knowledge is not fixed or finite and does not operate simply as a capacity. c. In a continuum of care approach, no one healthcare organization can own, control, or unilaterally mandate all of the service linkages and connections necessary to fully serve a specific population. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

For complex adaptive systems to thrive, the following principles must operate ___. a. The whole is never greater than the parts. b. A problem in one part of the system ultimately affects the whole system. c. All disciplines serve the user and/or serve someone who serves the user. d. In complex adaptive systems, form and function interact with each other, otherwise they are not a dependent relationship. e. a, b, and d f. b, c, and d g. All of the above are true.

answer

f. b, c, and d

question

For a system to be effective the following considerations must be addressed ___. a. Complex adaptive system providers are integrated in a collaborative and linked relationship that synthesizes well around the needs of the user. b. The primary driving point of decision making in a complex clinical delivery system is the place where the provider and the user meet. c. Data must be available at point-of-service to support caregivers in decision making, in clinical activities, and in evaluation of impact and value. d. a and b e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

All of the following are true about accountability in shared governance except ___. a. Accountability drives the work of professionals. b. Accountability is the foundation for all knowledge work performance. c. Every member of a complex adaptive system has both rights and obligations that generate from the full participation in the life and activities of the system. d. Every member of the system must fully contribute to the extent of his or her capacity in a way that ensures that the system thrives and fulfills its essential value. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

The role of management in shared governance is ___. a. stewardship b. unilateral decision making c. servant leadership d. assure seamless interface between the system's purpose and resources e. a and c f. a, c, and d

answer

f. a, c, and d

question

Nursing is ____. a. a scientific process founded on a professional body of knowledge. b. a learned profession based on an understanding of the human condition across the lifespan. c. an art dedicated to caring for others. d. a dynamic discipline that increasingly involves more sophisticated knowledge, technologies, and client care activities. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Transition to nursing practice is sometimes difficult because ____. a. an adequate support system for new graduates may not be in place. b. subtle hazing may occur to a new employee. c. new ideas they present are quickly dismissed and discouraged. d. a and b are true. e. all of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Settings where nursing opportunities may be found include all of the following except ___. a. healthcare organizations b. community centers c. outpatient settings d. insurance industry e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

The novice to expert skill acquisition model for nursing was developed by ___. a. Pat Benner b. Florence Nightingale c. Madeline Leininger d. Dorothea Orem

answer

a. Pat Benner

question

The underlying reasons for advancing to management and leadership positions are ____. a. the desire to advance quality practices b. to advance excellence c. because of a dislike for the clinical role d. to introduce new ideas for a better work environment e. a, b, and d f. All of the above are true.

answer

e. a, b, and d

question

Informatics and related technology include ___. a. researching new medications b. designing complex documentation and monitoring systems c. electronic monitoring of patients from remote locations d. a and b e. b and c f. All of the above are true.

answer

e. b and c

question

Applying for a new position leads to the following changes ___. a. It changes the individuals you socialize with. b. It changes your abilities to manage policies and practices. c. It changes your salary and benefits. d. It changes your work location. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Maintaining one's competence as a professional nurse includes ___. a. role b. licensure c. technology d. completing a graduate degree e. a, b, and c f. All of the above is true.

answer

e. a, b, and c

question

The multistate licensure ___. a. allows a nurse to have one license in a primary state of residence and be able to practice in other states with multistate statutes. b. increases the cost of licensure fees when nurses practice in more than one state. c. is available in 24 states. d. is available in all states. e. a and c are true. f. b and d are true.

answer

e. a and c are true.

question

Challenges with technology include ____. a. computer and technology competency b. identification of the boundaries between employer and personal electronic products c. use of social media d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

All of the following are examples of elements of a professional nurse portfolio except ____. a. continuing education records b. attendance record c. committee contributions d. contributions to the community

answer

b. attendance record

question

Nurses are encouraged to avoid relationships in which individuals are known to have the following characteristics ____. a. bully and harass others b. engage in routine gossip c. be unreliable and need constant reminders to complete work d. All of the above should be avoided.

answer

d. All of the above should be avoided.

question

Strategies to enhance personal balance include ____. a. minimizing negative thoughts b. specific time for reflection and planning for the future c. being mindful of self within or after professional practice situations d. stress management e. All of the above are helpful.

answer

e. All of the above are helpful.

question

A coach is ___. a. a wise and trusted advisor who guides others on a particular journey. b. one who assists others to develop viable solutions, prioritize them, and then act on them. c. a unit manager or leader. d. None of the above.

answer

b. one who assists others to develop viable solutions, prioritize them, and then act on them.

question

Mentors and coaches address ___ with the mentored nurse. a. professional role behaviors b. appearance c. attitude d. conflict management e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

The study of healthcare policies includes ___. a. national or state legislation initiatives and processes b. organizational policies necessary for order and progress c. external agencies d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

The Federal Register is ___. a. a policy that refers to rules that govern the workplace b. the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of the federal government and an unbiased source of information c. a document that regulates nursing practice d. the overarching federal administrative agency concerned with quality healthcare in the United States

answer

b. the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of the federal government and an unbiased source of information

question

Social policy is ___. a. policy intended to enhance public welfare b. laws passed by the legislature c. policies that are authoritative rulings related to those decisions made by government d. policy directed toward promoting the health of citizens

answer

a. policy intended to enhance public welfare

question

The provision of tangible recognition of professional achievement in a defined functional or clinical area of nursing is ___.

a. the state nurse practice act

b. nursing certification

c. nursing licensure

d. none of the above

answer

b. nursing certification

question

Policies that are authoritative rulings relating to those decisions made by government are ___.

a. social policy

b. organizational policy

c. public policy

d. institutional policies

answer

c. public policy

question

Organizations providing healthcare services are required to have policies specific to ___.

a. provider roles

b. patient care procedures

c. safety practices

d. equipment management

e. staffing and scheduling

f. All of the above.

answer

f. All of the above.

question

Policies are generated from ___.

a. state legislatures

b. state agencies authorized by legislation

c. state professional associations

d. All of the above.

answer

d. All of the above.

question

The federal statute enacted in March 2010 that was designed to ensure that all Americans have access to health care is ___.

a. the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

b. the Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health

c. the Transition of Care Program

d. the Patient Self-Determination Act

answer

a. the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

question

The committee of Future of Nursing: Leading Change, Advancing Health developed the following key messages ___.

a. Nurses should practice to the full extent of their education and training.

b. Nurses should achieve higher levels of education and training through an improved education system that promotes seamless academic progression.

c. The diploma model for nurses training should be revived.

d. a and b

answer

d. a and b

question

The law passed in 1996 which focused on the patient's right to confidentiality and the improvement of the portability and continuity of health insurance coverage is ___.

a. the Good Samaritan Law

b. the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act c. Informed Consent

d. the Patient Self-Determination Act

answer

b. the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

question

Activities which all nurses should embrace as they become more involved in the profession include ___.

a. becoming competent in the processed of policy development and the differing approaches that are effective at the local, state, and national levels

b. developing focused partnerships with stakeholders who know and understand the evidentiary support for policy making or changing

c. taking a risk and proposing a new policy that is of great personal interest

d. examining a current policy to identify its effectiveness

e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Considerations in being "media ready" include ___.

a. practicing with internal public relations staff

b. avoiding off-the-record comments

c. defining key messages and staying on message

d. All of the above.

answer

d. All of the above.

question

The agency whose mission is to improve the quality, safety, efficiency, and effectiveness of health care in the U.S. is ___.

a. the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality

b. the Commonwealth Fund

c. the Institute of Medicine

d. the Organization of Nurse Executives

answer

a. the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality

question

The Institute of Medicine is ___.

a. an organization that serves to promote health care that emphasizes access, quality, and greater efficiency, particularly for society's most vulnerable people

b. a non-profit organization that works outside of government to provide unbiased and authoritative advice to decision makers and the public

c. the U.S. government's principal agency for protecting the health and well-being of all Americans through the provision of essential human services, especially for those who are most needy

d. None of the above are true.

answer

b. a non-profit organization that works outside of government to provide unbiased and authoritative advice to decision makers and the public

question

The following is true about the APRN role ___.

a. there is currently no uniform model of regulation across the states

b. each state independently determines the APRN legal scope of practice

c. education, accreditation, certification, and licensure of APRNs needs to be effectively aligned to continue to ensure patient safety

d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Delegation is ___.

a. required whenever there is a hierarchal order of individuals working together to accomplish goals.

b. both a management and a legal concept.

c. discussed in terms of authority, responsibility, and accountability.

d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Autonomy is all of the following except ____.

a. the power to do a job.

b. the right to do a job.

c. embedded in a job description.

d. is identified within the expectation for specific work.

answer

b. the right to do a job.

question

All of the following are true about accountability except___.

a. It is being answerable for actions or inactions of self or others.

b. It is the obligation to account for or explain the events.

c. There is individual accountability and organizational accountability for delegation.

d. It describes the distribution of work that each staff member is to accomplish in a given period of time.

answer

d. It describes the distribution of work that each staff member is to accomplish in a given period of time.

question

Critical thinking takes ___ into consideration when deciding what to believe or do.

a. focus

b. reasoning

c. assignments

d. implications

e. a, b, and d

f. All of the above are true.

answer

e. a, b, and d

question

Decision making ___. a. is a complex cognitive process. b. involves choosing a particular course of actions from among alternatives. c. is an essential component of the problem-solving process. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Supervision ___. a. is the provision of guidance or direction, evaluation, and follow-up by the delegator for accomplishment of a task delegated to another. b. is to watch over a particular activity or task being carried out by people and ensure that it is carried out correctly. c. is the transfer of responsibility for the performance of a selected nursing activity or task from a licensed nurse authorized to perform the activity or task to someone who does not have the authority. d. a and b

answer

d. a and b

question

The delegator is responsible for all of the following except ____. a. accepting only those tasks or assignments for which he or she is qualified. b. assessment of the situation. c. ascertaining the competence of the delegate. d. follow-up supervision. e. management of results.

answer

a. accepting only those tasks or assignments for which he or she is qualified.

question

Step one of the basic actions in delegation is assessing the patient or client, the situation, and the appropriateness for delegation. Important considerations within this step are ___. a. Knowing your personal delegation strengths and weaknesses as well as those of the members of your team. b. Base decisions on the needs of clients, the stability of client conditions, the complexity of the task, the predictability of the outcome, and the available resources to meet those needs and the judgment of the nurse. c. Be sure to understand the importance and expectations of the state nurse practice act, practice limitations, and job requirements. d. All of the above are considerations.

answer

d. All of the above are considerations.

question

The following is true__. a. Physicians cannot delegate physician work to nurses. b. Physicians can delegate physician work to nurses. c. If the activity or task is not within the nurse's scope of practice, it can be delegated by the nurse. d. Delegation is necessary even if the particular activity or task is already within the legally recognized scope of practice of the individual who is to perform the activity or task.

answer

a. Physicians cannot delegate physician work to nurses.

question

Step three in the delegation process is planning for the work to occur. The following are steps which provide guidelines for preparing with the delegate ____. a. Clearly identify the work that needs to be done. b. Clearly identify the importance of requesting assistance when needed. c. Create a plan for daily feedback between the delegator and delegate specific to delegation principle performance. d. Discuss strategies to increase effectiveness of delegation and supervision activities, including frequency of supervision and potential for additional delegation. e. All of the above are steps.

answer

e. All of the above are steps.

question

The following is not true ___. a. The nurse is accountable for selection and delegation of tasks to the delegate. b. The delegator is responsible for the actual work of the delegate. c. The delegate is fully responsible for his or her work. d. The delegator is responsible for the process.

answer

b. The delegator is responsible for the actual work of the delegate.

question

The delegation can be improper if any of the five rights are violated. These include ___. a. right task b. right patient c. right circumstance d. right directions e. right supervision f. All of these are rights.

answer

f. All of these are rights.

question

Underdelegation is when __. a. not enough work is delegated. b. the workload is beyond what the delegate can reasonably do in the assigned time. c. the delegator is constantly looking over the shoulders of those asked to do the work. d. any of the five rights are violated.

answer

a. not enough work is delegated.

question

The following are strategies to support effective delegation ___.

a. Clearly identify the importance of requesting assistance when needed.

b. Gain an understanding of personal delegation competence.

c. Provide feedback on tasks according to the guidelines specified by the delegator.

d. Access evidence-based resources for delegation and supervision.

e. b and d

answer

e. b and d

question

All of the following are principles of delegation from the ANA or NCSBN website except ___. a. delegation to competent individuals. b. care coordination and the use of assistants in providing patient care. c. ensuring the integrity of the physical plant. d. the essence of professional responsibility and accountability.

answer

c. ensuring the integrity of the physical plant.

question

All of the following are true about negotiation except ___. a. Effective negotiation is a skill one is born with. b. Negotiation is learned through the process of discipline and application. c. Much of the skill and talent necessary to negotiate well can be improved through continuous and effective use and refinements of skill development and learning. d. In all negotiation it is important to be able to develop and utilize good listening skills.

answer

a. Effective negotiation is a skill one is born with.

question

An essential characteristic of negotiation is ___. a. Win-lose b. Win-win c. Lose-lose d. None of the above.

answer

a. Win-lose

question

Core skills that must be developed and refines in order to assure successful negotiation include(s) ___. a. It is important that the individual can discern, identify, and declare specific goals for which the risk of negotiation is worth undertaking. b. There must be a certain level of flexibility and fluidity with regard to wants and needs. c. Good negotiators are well informed, clearly prepared, and understand as much about the matter under negotiation as possible. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

The following are phases of negotiation ___. a. readying for negotiation b. establishing the framework for negotiation c. intensive interaction d. bargaining e. closing the interaction f. a and c g. All of the above.

answer

g. All of the above.

question

All of the following are elements of readying for negotiation except ___. a. understanding the issues at the table b. determining the personal bottom line c. understanding the bottom line of each participant d. practicing the approach to the interaction e. determining how to defeat the opponent

answer

e. determining how to defeat the opponent

question

Establishing the framework for the negotiation and the terms of the engagement satisfies the goals of ___. a. providing a structured and positive environment as the negotiation requires b. allowing the parties to more clearly establish expectations with regard to the process c. allowing the parties to operate within the context of fairly formal rules of dialogue d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

The following is a major element of the role of dialogue ___. a. have limited breaks b. negative language is acceptable c. establish rules of speaking without interruption d. remind the parties of prior failures

answer

c. establish rules of speaking without interruption

question

The following is true about negotiation sessions ___. a. each session stands on its own merits and reflects only the activities that occurred within that session b. subsequent sessions always build on previous sessions c. early agreements on particular issues of conflict can provide the floor for subsequent clarity and agreement on more difficult issues (called chunking) d. All of the above were true.

answer

d. All of the above were true.

question

The leader completely orchestrates and manages ____ associated with the negotiation. a. the atmosphere b. the discussions c. the space d. the processes e. a, c, and d f. All of the above are true.

answer

e. a, c, and d

question

Nonverbal signs the leader must be able to read include ___. a. body language b. gestures c. eye movements d. facial expressions e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

The following are included in the guidelines for interaction in negotiation ___. a. never say "never" b. make many concessions early in the negotiations c. do listen carefully to all parties d. a and c e. All of the above are true.

answer

d. a and c

question

Bargaining is ___. a. the phase of negotiation that emphasizes the give and take related to the variety of positions at the table b. the work of exchange c. initiates the serious give and take necessary to determine which legitimate positions emerge and the degree of support for any particular position or view d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

At the closure of negotiations the following should have occurred ___. a. new positions should be clarified and well-defined b. trade-offs noted c. bargaining trades clearly articulated d. both sides dissatisfied with the results e. a, b, and c f. All of the above are true.

answer

e. a, b, and c

question

Collective bargaining is protected by ___. a. the Department of Commerce b. the Nation al Labor Relations Act c. the Taft-Hartley Act d. Public Law 93-360 e. a and b f. b, c, and d g. All of the above.

answer

f. b, c, and d

question

Collective bargaining agreements include all of the following except ___.

a. salaries

b. benefits

c. working conditions

d. health care costs

answer

d. health care costs

question

The obligation for social accountability represents the social contract between the society that licenses the profession and ___. a. those who practice a profession b. the persons who act in the best interests of the society c. employees of a healthcare institution d. None of the above.

answer

b. the persons who act in the best interests of the society

question

The debate related to nursing as a profession relates to ___. a. the predominant level of minimum education of the majority of the profession b. its dependency role in relationship to other disciplines c. its lack of clarity with regard to its specific contribution to the health of society d. an ongoing lack of a disciplined profession e. a and c f. All of the above are true.

answer

f. All of the above are true.

question

Issues related to the development of professionalism in the 20th century include ___. a. political equity of women b. changes in women's role expectations c. advances in women's educational opportunities d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Responsibility ___. a. is embedded in work b. sees the individual from the perspective of the work c. assumes some level of intensity of the individual and any investment and ownership of the role, tasks, and activities d. a and b e. All of the above are true.

answer

d. a and b

question

For professionals ____ is the definitive foundation for work. a. accountability b. responsibility c. competence d. functionalism

answer

a. accountability

question

Performance evaluations review the worker within the context of the capacity to function and ___. a. the ability to do the work b. the ability to get the job done c. the ability to get along with others who are doing their jobs d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

The following is true ---. a. The relationship between the individual and the workplace unfolds through the lens of job categorization. b. The job is the contextual framework for the relationship between the individual and the workplace. c. Creating a job context for work cannot produce professional outcomes. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Leadership must create an organizational context that doesn't impede membership and ownership of the work. For this to happen, the following circumstances and conditions need to be present: ___. a. Professional ownership implies that the ownership of the work belongs to the profession, not to the workplace. b. Contemporary research on the orientation of the professional/knowledge worker suggests that the traditional incentives often seen in employee-driven models do not succeed to motivate the action of this worker. c. Leaders must on-board new professionals through the use of well-identified professional processes, such as granting privileges instead of hiring, and peer-based selections of incoming members instead of management hiring practices. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Critical elements of professional ownership include ___. a. The individual nurse values his or her specific gifts, talents, and skills and agrees to commit to the full application of them in undertaking the work of the profession. b. The individual professional member of the staff recognizes that his or her competence depends on continuous and dynamic lifelong learning. c. Competency and skill enhancement depends on the individual's commitment to membership. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

The following is true about teams ___. a. Teams can't be constructed simply because people want to meet or work together. b. Teams are purposeful. c. Accountable teams are relational bodies. d. The work of teams is the sum total of its members contributions. e. a, b, and c f. All of the above are true.

answer

f. All of the above are true.

question

Job descriptions ___. a. have been used historically as a vehicle for delineating role functions, tasks, and activities of the nurse. b. do not always match the dynamic nature of the work of nursing. c. are written so that they fit all possibilities in the work environment. d. a and b e. All of the above are true.

answer

d. a and b

question

The primary point of accountability is ___. a. to be responsible for a stated task. b. to be able to demonstrate impact and results. c. to achieve long-term viability. d. b and c

answer

d. b and c

question

Value is about ___. a. doing the right work rather than doing a good job b. work that is informed by purpose c. the product of a measured and defined relationship between effective process and meaningful outcome d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Risk is ___. a. a sign of the continuous and dynamic reach of the human experience in new directions in new ways b. exploring new territory in a way that advances the human experience and improves it in important ways c. to be avoided in the healthcare arena d. present at some level with all meaningful change e. a, b, and d f. All of the above are true.

answer

e. a, b, and d

question

The central characteristics of accountability that are nonnegotiable for the profession represent the following principles ___. a. Accountability generally reflects the individual professional commitment to performance and to action. b. Accountability demands a dynamic convergence between ownership, action, impact, and outcome. c. Individual accountability cannot be sustained if the system structure does not allow it to be legitimately expressed by those who own it. d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

The role of the leader in an era of change is ___. a. helping the staff to anticipate change b. translate change into a language that colleagues can understand c. actively engage in change d. All of the above are true.

answer

d. All of the above are true.

question

Healthcare reform involves ___. a. move from a volume service framework to a value-driven model b. a change to user-driven healthcare service c. increasing the use of digital technology d. decreasing the number of people on Medicare e. a, b, and c f. All of the above are true.

answer

e. a, b, and c

question

The following is true about conflict and conflict management ___. a. Principles of conflict management are essential to navigating the landscape of transformation and change. b. Conflict is a normative dynamic. c. A good conflict process includes identifying conflict in its earliest stages. d. Conflict resolution and mediation is a learned and developed skill that comes with practice and application. e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Accountability is ___. a. the cornerstone of professional expression b. the same as responsibility c. to be avoided by professionals d. All of the above are true.

answer

a. the cornerstone of professional expression

question

Accountability needs ____ for it to be expressed. a. autonomy b. responsibility c. authority d. competence e. a, b, and c f. a, c, and d

answer

f. a, c, and d

question

All of the following are true about accountability except ___. a. Accountability can be delegated. b. Accountability is invested in individuals, not group. c. Accountability is about the products of work, not the processes of work. d. Accountability implies change.

answer

a. Accountability can be delegated.

question

All of the following are essentials that evidence a good fit between supporting infrastructure and the capacity for sustainable professional practice except ___. a. Professionals organize around decisions, not positions. b. Decisions are never driven from the point of service. c. A grid of accountability demonstrates the locus of control for all decisions in the system and clearly identifies where decisions should be made and by whom. d. Clarification and distinction of decisions that are a priori management driven and owned and those that are staff owned is an important distinction of accountability in professional organizations.

answer

b. Decisions are never driven from the point of service.

question

Issues that impact ethics in health care include ___. a. the values of the patient b. the values of the caregivers c. errors in the clinical setting d. moral courage e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

Approaches to staffing decisions include ___. a. nurse-patient ratios b. patient classification systems c. legislative requirements d. different skill levels e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

question

The following is not true about change ___. a. Learning how to thrive in the presence of continual change requires both art and science in the healthcare environment. b. All change is urgent. c. Not all change is value laden. d. Some good ideas just don't need to happen unless there is evidence and rationale for the change.

answer

b. All change is urgent.

question

Policy making takes place ___. a. at the national level. b. at the state level c. at the local level d. within agencies e. All of the above is true.

answer

e. All of the above is true.

question

Nurses should know ___. a. the source of healthcare policies b. the content of healthcare policies c. the consequences of healthcare policies d. the role of the professional in providing feedback to policy makers when policies are no longer effective e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above is true.

question

Effective delegation ___. a. distributes the workload equitably b. distributes the workload effectively c. enhances collaboration with other healthcare providers d. All of the above is true.

answer

d. All of the above is true.

question

Nursing career management includes all of the following except ___. a. maintaining a current license b. maintaining continuing competence c. participating in professional organizations d. exploring alternative careers

answer

d. exploring alternative careers

question

Knowledge workers (professionals) ___. a. a need a very specific organizational context in order to facilitate good practice and positive outcomes b. are intrinsically motivated c. see their work as more than simply a job d. a and b e. All of the above are true.

answer

e. All of the above are true.

STUDY

Cost Benefit Analysis Economics Give And Take Personal Finance

Bargain Shopping — Dave Ramsey Chapter 7 – Flashcards 49 terms

Jamie Hutchinson

49 terms

Preview

Bargain Shopping — Dave Ramsey Chapter 7 – Flashcards

question

Getting the best deal on a purchase

answer

Involves Negotiating, Shopping around to find the best deal, Having Patience

question

Good places to find a good deal

answer

Consignment shops, Online Auctions, Individuals

question

What you should you do when selling an item

answer

Make it clear that, as a seller, you have walk-away power; Be armed with information so that you can be sure it's a win-win deal; Get antiques or collectible items appraised and sell them slightly below that price.

question

To ensure the best possible store return process

answer

Familiarize yourself with the store's return policy prior to your purchase, Hold on to your receipt and keep the labels and price tags on the item, Return the item to the store as quickly as possible

question

To make your money go further

answer

Negotiating for a lower price, Buying clothing at end-of-the-season sales, Comparison shopping

question

When buying things at an auction

answer

Don't get caught up in the excitement and end up paying more than retail price, Set a limit on the amount you are willing to pay, Familiarize yourself with the item you want to purchase (quality, condition, age, etc.)

question

"The Lucky Seven" rules

answer

Can get you incredible deals on the stuff you buy every day, but they only work if you use them.

question

Consignment shop

answer

A retail store where people sell items and the owner of the shop gets a percentage of the sale

question

cost-benefit analysis

answer

The process of quantifying costs and benefits of a decision.

question

great deal

answer

Do not happen by accident.

question

Auction

answer

A public sale in which property or items of merchandise are sold to the highest bidder.

question

estate sale

answer

A type of yard sale with more items, usually the entire contents of a household.

question

Barter

answer

The exchange of goods or services without the use of money.

question

Based on a survey by the Federal Trade Commission, the most common types of consumer fraud

answer

bogus weight-loss products, nonexistent foreign lotteries, unauthorized buyer club enrollments, dishonest prize promotions and fraudulent work-at-home programs.

question

Being a wise consumer

answer

Involves developing a variety of skills, from product research to careful comparative analysis.

question

Being emotionally attached to a purchase

answer

Will cause you to lose bargaining power.

question

Being the first in line for a new product

answer

Will not get you the best deal possible.

question

Cash

answer

has immediacy.

question

Cash

answer

is emotional.

question

Cash

answer

is visual.

question

Do NOT lie

answer

To get a bargain. Always tell the truth.

question

Most countries excluding the United States

answer

most countries use negotiating as a way of life.

question

Foreclosure

answer

The process by which the holder of a mortgage sells the property of a homeowner who has not made interest and/or principal payments on time as stipulated in the mortgage contract.

question

If negotiation is done correctly

answer

it will end up being a win-win deal.

question

What you should to if you bargain at a store but are unable to negotiate the price down

answer

You should then just walk away.

question

If you're trying to buy something, it's not your job to come up with a good price

answer

Make the seller work for your business.

question

wise consumers

answer

Enjoy improved health and have a positive impact on the larger social and even global environment as well as In addition to economic savings.

question

Integrity

answer

Has to do with a person's honesty and moral attributes.

question

Just asking for a great deal

answer

doesn't always mean that you'll get one.

question

Learning to be quiet

answer

a powerful tool in negotiation.

question

Making informed choices as a consumer

answer

Will usually yield savings.

question

Malls

answer

Generally not the best place to find a good deal.

question

Markup

answer

The difference between the wholesale price and retail price.

question

Most of the items at a pawnshop

answer

NOT stolen.

question

Negotiate

answer

To bargain for a lower price.

question

Negotiation

answer

Involves a conversation of back-and-forth, give-and-take.

question

Researching a product prior to purchase

answer

Makes you an informed consumer.

question

Good negotiators

answer

Are always armed with information about the product.

question

Shopping for bargains

answer

Part of a healthy financial plan because it makes your hard-earned money go further.

question

People who reported having more debt than they could handle

answer

More likely to be victims of consumer fraud involving credit repair and debt consolidation

question

The good guy, bad guy technique

answer

A negotiating tool that you should be aware of.

question

slightly outdated products

answer

There is very little difference in quality and performance but the price difference may be significant.

question

This "IF I" take-away technique

answer

Involves negotiating the lowest price possible, then throwing something else into the deal.

question

Using a cost-benefit analysis approach to your buying decisions

answer

Will make you a wise consumer.

question

Using cash

answer

Gives you more bargaining power than using credit.

question

Using cash is a great bargaining tool

answer

Because Cash is emotional, Cash has immediacy, and Cash is visual.

question

Walk-away power

answer

The ability to walk away from a purchase when negotiating.

question

When trying to make your money go further

answer

you should try to avoid buying only name-brand products.

question

You must not get emotionally attached to the purchase

answer

Because it's only if you're prepared to walk away from the purchase that you will have the ability to negotiate.

STUDY

Across The Country Give And Take Grow And Develop

Research Paper Test 29 terms

Misty Porter

29 terms

Preview

Research Paper Test

question

What do research papers do?

answer

Explore an idea, probe an issue, solve a problem, and make an argument

question

In research papers you use materials beyond _____ resources.

answer

personal

question

Primary sources

answer

Study of a subject through firsthand knowledge Analyzing literary or historical text Film Performance

question

examples of primary sources

answer

Statistical data Historical documents Works of literature Works of art like a DBQ

question

Secondary sources

answer

Examination of studies that other researchers have made of a subject

question

examples of secondary sources

answer

Articles and books on political issues Historical events Scientific debates Literary works

question

What does research do to your thinking?

answer

it shapes it

question

The main purpose of doing research is

answer

not to summarize the work of others but to assimilate and to build on it and to arrive at your own understanding of the subject.

question

What can research do to your ideas?

answer

It can validate them or challenge them

question

When you select a topic to research, the first thing to consider is

answer

The nature of the assignment; Some assignments can be over many topic choices Some maybe a narrow scope of topics

question

Research papers aren't just for schools what else are they for?

answer

Reports and proposals required in business; government and other professions rely on secondary research Learning how to write and being able to write research papers can help you prepare you for your professional career.

question

When trying to find an appropriate topic or focus try thinking about

answer

Find something of personal interest...something that will keep you engaged throughout research and writing.Think about time allotted for research and length of the paper/project. You might think about starting with a broad topic and then narrowing your focus. Preliminary reading is essential. Consult various resources: (in print and electronic forms) encyclopedias, articles and books in the areas you are considering.

question

A paraphrase is

answer

A paraphrase is your own rendition of essential information and ideas expressed by someone else, presented in a new form. It's a legit way to borrow from a source when you document it correctly. It involves a more detailed restatement than a summary.

question

Why is paraphrasing valuable?

answer

It is valuable because it prevents and is better than quoting accessibly. The mental process that is required to help you be successful in doing this helps make sure you grasp the full meaning of what you read.

question

Checklist for evaluating print sources

answer

•Does the author have expertise to write on this topic? •Is the information is this source up to date? (medicine and science fields are areas where you should probably double check) •Does the publisher affect the information in the source? •Is the source appropriate for your research?

question

Checklist for evaluating online information

answer

•Is it credible? Is the author clearly identified? •Is it linked to some kind of organization? •Is it accurate? (grammatical issues; have they corrected their grammar and punctuation) Can factual information be verified? •Is it timely? (When was it published? How often do they refresh information?) •Is it objective? (Satirical websites)

question

6 steps to effective paraphrasing

answer

1.Reread the original passage until you understand its full meaning. 2.Set the original passage aside and then write your paraphrase to see what you remember from the original passage. 3.Jot something down next to your paraphrase to remind you what it's about so you can use it properly. 4.Check it with your original to make your you are accurately expressing the information and make sure the wording doesn't too closely resemble the original. 5.Use quotation marks to identify any unique term or phraseology you have borrowed exactly from the source (4 words or more). 6.After the paraphrasing make sure you include the source somewhere either on T notes or bibliography so then it is easy to find later.

question

Whenever you're paraphrasing, quoting, or summarizing you need a ____________ at the end.

answer

internal citation

question

What is a thesis statement?

answer

a.A road map for the paper- tells reader what to expect b.Directly answers the question asked- an interpretation of a question or subject... not the subject itself c.Makes a claim that others might dispute

question

How do I get a thesis?

answer

a.Result of a length thinking process b.Not the first thing you do after reading an essay assignment c.Before you develop an argument, you have to collect and organize evidence, look for possible relationships between known facts (contrasts or similarities), and think about the significance of these relationships. d.After, you will have a \"working thesis\", a basic or main idea, and argument that you think can support with evidence but that may need adjustment along the way

question

How do I know if my thesis is strong?

answer

a.Do I answer the question? b.Have I taken a position that others might challenge or oppose? c.Is my thesis statement specific enough (broadly specific)? d.Does my thesis pass the \"so what?\" test? e.Does my essay support my thesis specifically and without wandering? f.Does my thesis pass the \"how and why?\" test?

question

Strong thesis

answer

i.Takes a stand ii.Justifies discussion iii.Expresses one main idea iv.Broadly specific

question

A works cited _____ starts on a new page

answer

always

question

Works Cited for a website

answer

Author. \"Title of Page.\" Title of Website. (underlined) Publisher or Sponsor, Date of Publication. Format. Date of Access.

question

Works Cited for a book

answer

Author. Title of Book(underlined). City of Publication: Publisher, Year. Format.

question

When doing a works cited always remember

answer

Last name, first name (of author) HANGING INDENTIONS OR REVERSE INDENTIONS

question

If some thing is common knowledge...

answer

ALWAYS cite info because what is considered common knowledge to some may not be for others

question

Remember with quotes to

answer

always lead up to it never let them stand alone. Cite it correctly. And elaborate on it.

question

If you use 4 or more words directly from your source remember to...

answer

quote it.

STUDY

Cause And Effect Comparison And Contrast Give And Take Knowledge Management Knowledge Management System Linguistics Problem And Solution Research And Development

BCOM Test 2 Test Questions 300 terms

Marvel Brown

300 terms

Preview

BCOM Test 2 Test Questions

question

1) The three primary steps involved in preparing a business message are A) planning, writing, and completing. B) informing, persuading, and collaborating. C) defining the purpose, the main idea, and the topic. D) satisfying the audience's informational, motivational, and practical needs.

answer

A) planning, writing, and completing.

question

2) Which one of the following is an element of the completing phase of the three-step writing process? A) Organizing the information B) Interpreting the research C) Proofreading the message D) Selecting the right medium

answer

C) Proofreading the message

question

3) All of the following except ________ are elements in the planning phase of the three-step writing process. A) gathering information B) adapting to the audience C) selecting the right medium D) organizing the information

answer

B) adapting to the audience

question

4) Planning is essential when writing business messages because A) it helps you provide the right information to the right people in the right format. B) it makes the writing process faster and less stressful. C) it can save you from embarrassing blunders that could hurt your company or your career. D) all of the above.

answer

D) all of the above.

question

5) If you devote sufficient time to planning a business message before you begin writing it, you can expect all of the following outcomes except A) expediting the writing process. B) avoiding embarrassing blunders. C) experiencing extra work and stress in the writing and completing stages. D) delivering concise, compelling information that your audience wants and needs to know.

answer

C) experiencing extra work and stress in the writing and completing stages.

question

6) In order to optimize your writing time, reserve about ________ of that time for revising, producing, proofreading, and distributing your message. A) 10 percent B) 20 percent C) 25 percent D) 15 percent

answer

C) 25 percent

question

7) Which of the following is not a general category common to business communication? A) To inform B) To persuade C) To negotiate D) To collaborate

answer

C) To negotiate

question

8) An example of a specific purpose for a business message would be A) to impart information to the audience. B) to inform employees about the new vacation policy. C) to persuade readers to take action. D) to obtain audience participation and collaboration.

answer

B) to inform employees about the new vacation policy.

question

9) Most messages should not be sent unless they will A) bring about a change. B) increase your chances of being promoted. C) please your boss. D) do all of the above.

answer

A) bring about a change.

question

10) The best reason to defer or cancel a message is if A) your news is bad. B) someone else wants to deliver it. C) your audience is highly receptive. D) the time is wrong.

answer

D) the time is wrong.

question

11) The primary audience for your message should always include A) all who receive it. B) the key decision makers in the audience. C) those people with the highest status. D) those people who represent the opinions and attitudes of the majority.

answer

B) the key decision makers in the audience.

question

12) In general, for internal communication, the higher up your message goes, the A) more details people want to see. B) fewer details people want to see. C) less likely you are to run into ethical problems. D) more likely you are to run into ethical problems.

answer

B) fewer details people want to see.

question

13) Messages should contain supporting detail and background information when A) you expect a favorable response. B) you and your audience do not share the same general background. C) you and your audience share the same general background. D) all of the above are the case.

answer

B) you and your audience do not share the same general background.

question

14) Forecasting your audience's reaction to your message is A) impossible—there's no way to know what it will be. B) vital, because potential audience reaction affects message organization. C) helpful only for internal communication. D) helpful only for external communication.

answer

B) vital, because potential audience reaction affects message organization.

question

15) You're writing a proposal to give permission to some employees at your company to telecommute. You know management will be skeptical, so you should A) be as straightforward as possible about stating your conclusions and recommendations. B) avoid stating your conclusions and recommendations. C) use less evidence in support of your points. D) build your case carefully, stating clear reasons for each conclusion you draw and recommendation you make.

answer

D) build your case carefully, stating clear reasons for each conclusion you draw and recommendation you make.

question

16) A knowledge-management system A) helps companies limit the amount of information employees store on the network. B) enables organizations to test employees periodically to ensure they are doing adequate research. C) is a centralized database of experiences and insights of employees throughout an organization. D) is a tool for creating a bibliography when writing long reports.

answer

C) is a centralized database of experiences and insights of employees throughout an organization.

question

17) Informal techniques for gathering insights and focusing your research efforts do not include A) listening to the community. B) asking the audience for input. C) distributing questionnaires and surveys. D) reviewing reports and other company documents.

answer

C) distributing questionnaires and surveys.

question

18) When gathering information for a business message, keep in mind that audiences respond best to information that A) they could have found by doing their own research. B) has not been categorized or grouped in any way. C) has been filtered and prioritized according to their needs. D) pertains to a broad cross-section of possible scenarios.

answer

C) has been filtered and prioritized according to their needs.

question

19) When meeting your audience's informational needs, you should emphasize ideas A) of greatest interest to the audience. B) that are uncontroversial. C) that will have the least impact on the audience. D) that don't need supporting evidence.

answer

A) of greatest interest to the audience.

question

20) A good way to test the thoroughness of your business message is to check it for A) a main idea. B) a purpose. C) the who, what, when, where, why, and how. D) accuracy.

answer

C) the who, what, when, where, why, and how.

question

21) After sending project cost estimates to a longtime client, you realize you failed to include information on some discount options. The best thing to do is A) take no action. B) blame someone else. C) contact the primary audience immediately and correct the error. D) start looking for a new job.

answer

C) contact the primary audience immediately and correct the error.

question

22) Choosing the right medium for your message A) is not important as long as the content of your message is accurate. B) is important only when communicating with managers and supervisors. C) is vital for external communication, but not important for internal communication. D) can make an important difference in how your message is perceived.

answer

D) can make an important difference in how your message is perceived.

question

23) Which one of the following is the "leanest" communication medium? A) Podcasts B) Posters and signs C) Telephone conversations D) Multimedia presentations

answer

B) Posters and signs

question

24) Which media would be best for keeping in touch with a sales team whose members live in several different states? A) Written media B) Oral media C) Electronic media D) Presentations

answer

C) Electronic media

question

25) Telephone calls are A) completely incapable of conveying nonverbal signals. B) now acceptable only for external communication. C) capable of conveying quite a few nonverbal signals. D) no longer practical when compared to email.

answer

C) capable of conveying quite a few nonverbal signals.

question

26) Which of the following media would be best for sending a brief message (requiring no response from your audience) about an upcoming software update? A) Podcast B) Email C) Blog D) Videoconference

answer

B) Email

question

27) VoIP is a A) widely used format for sending documents electronically. B) technology for making telephone calls via the Internet. C) highly technical videoconferencing program. D) type of voice-to-text translation software.

answer

B) technology for making telephone calls via the Internet.

question

28) According to the concept of media richness, the richness of a medium does not depend on its ability to A) facilitate feedback. B) establish a personal focus. C) handle multiple information cues simultaneously. D) convey a sense of affluence and exclusivity.

answer

D) convey a sense of affluence and exclusivity.

question

29) A ________ is the richest communication medium. A) telephone conversation B) retweet with a comment C) video podcast D) face-to-face conversation

answer

D) face-to-face conversation

question

30) A key advantage of oral communication is A) the ability to plan and control the message. B) the opportunity to meet an audience's information needs. C) the ability to transmit highly complex messages. D) the opportunity to get immediate feedback.

answer

D) the opportunity to get immediate feedback.

question

31) As a new supervisor, you need to introduce yourself to your team of ten employees. The best medium for this type of non-routine message would be A) a face-to-face meeting. B) an email message. C) a conference call. D) a text message.

answer

A) a face-to-face meeting.

question

32) A potential downside to the use of electronic media in business communication involves A) delivering messages quickly. B) maintaining employee productivity. C) promoting audience interaction. D) reaching geographically dispersed audiences.

answer

B) maintaining employee productivity.

question

33) Of the following media, which is the richest? A) An electronic slide presentation that includes a series of images that are arranged to persuade the audience to take a specific position B) An interactive website enabling audiences to participate in the communication process C) A presentation on DVD D) A formal business letter

answer

B) An interactive website enabling audiences to participate in the communication process

question

34) The ________ of a message is its overall subject, while the ________ is a specific statement about that overall subject. A) medium, theme B) topic, main idea C) scope, purpose D) focal point, rationale

answer

B) topic, main idea

question

35) In high-context cultures, ________ media are often more effective than ________ ones. A) leaner, richer B) oral, written C) foreign, domestic D) none of the above

answer

B) oral, written

question

36) Which of the following is not listed among factors to consider when choosing a medium for your message? A) Urgency B) Cost C) Sender preferences D) Audience preferences

answer

C) Sender preferences

question

37) In general, audiences are likely to A) ignore poor organization if the message is important. B) draw inaccurate conclusions from poorly organized messages. C) fully understand most messages, even those that are poorly organized. D) none of the above.

answer

B) draw inaccurate conclusions from poorly organized messages.

question

38) When you want to confirm, illuminate, or expand on the supporting points in a business message, use ________ if you believe that dramatic tension will stimulate your audience's interest. A) facts and figures B) narration or storytelling C) references to authority figures D) examples and quotations

answer

B) narration or storytelling

question

39) Use the ________ to organize a message if you believe your audience will be receptive to what you have to say. A) direct approach B) didactic approach C) dialectical structure D) diametric pattern

answer

A) direct approach

question

40) The scope of a business message pertains to A) a specific statement about the overall subject of the message. B) the range of information you present to support your main idea. C) the efforts you expend when you proofread the message. D) the act of conveying the message through more than one informational cue.

answer

B) the range of information you present to support your main idea.

question

41) If your audience will be skeptical of or resistant to your message A) state your main idea and then present your evidence. B) start with the evidence and build your case before presenting your main idea. C) start by asking rhetorical questions to arouse the audience's interest in your message. D) open your message with a humorous anecdote to establish rapport with the audience.

answer

B) start with the evidence and build your case before presenting your main idea.

question

42) As it applies to business communication, presenting information in a well-organized manner A) helps your readers understand the message. B) encourages your readers to accept the message. C) allows your readers to save time. D) all of the above.

answer

D) all of the above.

question

43) Which of the following is an example of a message topic? A) "To get the board of directors to increase the research and development budget" B) "Competitors spend more than our company does on research and development" C) "Funding for research and development" D) "The research and development budget is inadequate in our competitive marketplace"

answer

C) "Funding for research and development"

question

44) Whatever the length of your message, you should limit the number of major support points to roughly A) two. B) three. C) six. D) ten.

answer

C) six.

question

45) Storytelling is A) inappropriate for professional communication. B) acceptable in business, but only for messages organized in the direct approach. C) an effective way to organize messages in a surprising number of business communication scenarios. D) none of the above.

answer

C) an effective way to organize messages in a surprising number of business communication scenarios.

question

46) When allocating your time among the three stages of the writing process, you should use about a fourth of the time for planning, half the time for writing, and a quarter of the time for completing.

answer

FALSE

question

All business messages have both a general purpose and a specific purpose.

answer

TRUE

question

The three general purposes of business messages are to inform, to persuade, and to collaborate.

answer

TRUE

question

Even if nothing will change as a result of your message, you should send it if you believe it is important

answer

FALSE

question

Once you have established your purpose, it's best to consider whether it is worth pursuing at this time.

answer

TRUE

question

No matter how you feel personally about a situation, your communication should reflect your organization's objectives.

answer

TRUE

question

When analyzing your audience, you should ignore everyone except the key decision makers.

answer

FALSE

question

As long as your message is clear, the size of your audience should not influence the approach you choose to take.

answer

FALSE

question

One effective informal method for learning more about your audience's information needs is to ask them directly for input.

answer

TRUE

question

When you get a vague request for information, the best way to handle it is to provide all the information you can and allow the audience to pick and choose what is useful to them.

answer

FALSE

question

Skilled communicators include only the information that their audience has specifically requested.

answer

FALSE

question

Accuracy of information is less important in business communication than in other types of communication—everyone is busy, and mistakes are simply unavoidable.

answer

FALSE

question

When it comes to business research, online sources generally require more careful evaluation than other types.

answer

TRUE

question

If you provide inaccurate information in a business message, the best course of action is to say nothing and hope that no one notices.

answer

FALSE

question

Messages can be unethical simply because certain details have not been included.

answer

TRUE

question

As long as your message is clear and interesting, the medium you choose doesn't really matter.

answer

FALSE

question

As business communication models evolve, the lines separating oral, electronic, and written media have become more distinct and easier to define.

answer

FALSE

question

In today's fast-paced environment, traditional business messages rely primarily on graphical elements, with occasional support from text.

answer

FALSE

question

Infographics refers to messages that combine powerful visuals with supporting text.

answer

FALSE

question

Despite the advantages of electronic media, the growth of electronic communication options has caused great frustration for many audiences.

answer

TRUE

question

Face-to-face communication is the richest medium.

answer

TRUE

question

A real drawback of most visual media is that it requires skill to create effective images.

answer

TRUE

question

Poorly organized messages are unlikely to be effective, regardless of their content.

answer

TRUE

question

"Latest Investment Performance" is an example of a message topic, whereas "Poor Investment Performance Continues" is an example of a main idea.

answer

TRUE

question

The indirect approach is best when your audience is likely to be skeptical.

answer

TRUE

question

Step one of the writing process is ________, in which you analyze the situation, gather information, select the right medium for the message, and organize the information.

answer

PLANNING

question

The final step in the writing process is ________ your message, which involves revising, producing and distributing it.

answer

completing

question

The three general purposes of business messages are to inform, to persuade, or to ________ with the audience.

answer

collaborate

question

In addition to having a general purpose, each business message has a (an) ________ purpose.

answer

specific

question

During the planning step you need to analyze your ________, including its size and composition, existing knowledge about the subject, and probable reaction to your message.

answer

audience

question

A good way to test the thoroughness of your message is to use the ________ approach and ask whether the message answers who, what, when, where, why, and how.

answer

journalistic

question

Speeches, presentations, and meetings are all examples of ________ media.

answer

oral

question

________ refers to the use of two or more media to craft a single message, typically some combination of audio, video, text, and visual graphics.

answer

multimedia

question

Media ________ is the ability of a medium to convey a message using more than one informational cue, facilitate feedback, and establish personal focus.

answer

richness

question

In deciding which ________ to use for a message to a manager in another department, you should consider factors such as formality, confidentiality, feedback, time, and cost.

answer

medium

question

Good ________ helps readers understand and accept your message, and saves them time in the process.

answer

organization

question

Your entire message supports, explains, or demonstrates your ________ ________—a specific statement about the topic of your message.

answer

main idea

question

The ________ of your message is the range of information you present, the overall length, and the level of detail—all of which need to correspond to your main idea.

answer

scope

question

No matter how long your message is, you should limit the number of major support points to roughly ________.

answer

six

question

A positive email announcing a new, more convenient travel reimbursement policy should follow the ________ approach for organizing messages.

answer

direct

question

Describe at least three of the tasks involved in developing an audience profile.

answer

Answer: - identifying your primary audience - determining Audience size - geographic distribution - composition - gauging your audience's level of understanding - considering their expectations and preferences - forecasting their probable reaction to your message

question

You've been asked to prepare a report on whether or not your company should consider other health insurance providers. List four informal techniques for gathering information to include in your report.

answer

Informal strategies for gathering information include (1) considering other viewpoints; (2) reading reports and other company documents; (3) talking with supervisors, colleagues, or customers; and (4) asking your audience for input.

question

How can the journalistic approach help you include all required information in your business messages?

answer

The journalistic approach enables you to check the thoroughness of your message by seeing whether it answers who, what, when, where, why, and how.

question

Briefly describe how to meet an unfamiliar audience's informational needs.

answer

Answer: When you don't know your audience, use common sense to identify points of particular interest. Audience factors such as age, job, location, income, and education can give you a clue.

question

List at least three strategies to help ensure the accuracy of information you include in business messages.

answer

Answer: - double-checking every piece of information you collect - ask yourself whether they are current and reliable - Be particularly careful when using sources you find on the Internet - review any mathematical or financial calculations. - Check all dates and schedules examine your own assumptions and conclusions to be certain they are valid.

question

Briefly explain how the growth of electronic communication has become both a blessing and a curse for business communicators.

answer

The proliferation of electronic communication media has advantages and disadvantages. You have more tools than ever to choose from, with more ways to deliver rational and emotional content. However, the sheer range of choices can complicate your job because you often need to choose among multiple media and you need to know how to use each medium successfully.

question

Briefly define media richness, and provide at least one example each of a rich medium and a lean medium.

answer

Media richness is the value of a communication medium in a given situation. It is determined by a medium's ability to convey a message by means of more than one informational cue, facilitate feedback, and establish personal focus. Face-to-face conversation is the richest medium, while unaddressed documents such as posters and signs are the leanest.

question

Briefly explain the difference between the topic of a message and the main idea.

answer

The topic of a message is its broad subject, condensed to one idea. In contrast, the main idea is a specific statement about the topic.

question

In preparing a letter to a vendor regarding a missing part of your order, would the direct or indirect approach be preferable? Briefly explain your choice.

answer

In this case, the direct approach would be best because the audience is likely to be receptive to the message. The indirect approach should be used when the audience will probably react with skepticism or resistance.

question

Briefly distinguish between the direct and indirect approaches to organizing business messages.

answer

Messages organized with the direct approach begin with the main idea and then provide supporting evidence. Those organized with the indirect approach build a case with supporting evidence before presenting the main idea.

question

What are the four tasks involved in planning business messages?

answer

Answer: (1) analyzing the situation (defining your purpose and developing a profile of your audience) (2) gathering information that will meet your audience's needs (3) selecting the right medium to deliver your message (4) organizing the information by defining your main idea, limiting your scope, selecting a direct or an indirect approach, and outlining your content.

question

Explain each phase of the three-step writing process.

answer

The three-step writing process includes planning, writing, and completing the business message. Planning involves analyzing the situation, gathering information, selecting the right medium for your message, and organizing the information. Writing the message involves adapting to your audience and composing your message. Completing a business message includes revising, producing, proofreading, and distributing it.

question

List at least three helpful questions to ask in evaluating the purpose of a message.

answer

Once you have determined the specific purpose of a business message, you can decide whether that purpose merits the time and effort required for you to prepare and send the message. In order to test the purpose of a message, one should ask (1) Will anything change as a result of this message? (2) Is my purpose realistic? (3) Is the time right? and (4) Is the purpose acceptable to my organization?

question

How can your audience's level of understanding help you determine the appropriate amount of information to include in a business message?

answer

If audience members do not share your general background, your message will likely need to include an element of education. You should try to include only enough information to accomplish the specific purpose of your message. If the members of your audience have various levels of understanding, gear your coverage to your primary audience (the key decision makers).

question

Briefly describe at least three factors to consider when choosing media for business messages.

answer

- media richness - facilitate feedback - establish personal focus - formality - media limitations - Urgency and cost - audience preferences

question

1) Which of the following statements that would appear in a business message best reflects the "you" attitude? A) You failed to enclose a check for $25. B) We need a check from you for $25 so that we can send the merchandise by May 15. C) We will send you the merchandise as soon as we receive your check for $25. D) You will have your merchandise by July 15 if you send us your check for $25 today.

answer

D) You will have your merchandise by July 15 if you send us your check for $25 today.

question

2) The best way to convey the "you" attitude is to express your message in terms of A) the needs and interests of your organization. B) your own personal needs and interests. C) a universal set of needs and interests. D) the needs and interests of your audience.

answer

D) the needs and interests of your audience.

question

3) Use ________ to avoid categorizing or stigmatizing people based on their gender, race, ethnicity, age, level of ability, or other personal characteristics. A) abstract language B) descriptive language C) bias-free language D) denotative language

answer

C) bias-free language

question

4) Select the sentence with the best "you" attitude: A) Because your report was poorly written, we cannot accept it. B) Your report failed to meet company requirements. C) When we receive a report that is professional, we can act on your recommendations. D) Once your application is complete, you should receive a response within two weeks.

answer

D) Once your application is complete, you should receive a response within two weeks.

question

5) It is best to limit your use of the word "you" in business messages if A) you know your audience well. B) your organization prefers an informal, personal style. C) you are filling your audience's informational needs. D) it will make your message sound overly authoritative or accusing.

answer

D) it will make your message sound overly authoritative or accusing.

question

6) In part because of limited opportunities for feedback, written and most forms of electronic communication require ________ than oral communication. A) less care B) fewer nouns C) more tact D) more informality

answer

C) more tact

question

7) Select the sentence with the most positive emphasis: A) We failed to complete the process audit on time. B) We hope to complete the process audit by Friday. C) We haven't completed the process audit. D) Because of Joan's inaccurate figures on the Haymen project, we are not finished with the process audit.

answer

B) We hope to complete the process audit by Friday.

question

8) When you are criticizing or correcting, it is best to A) focus on what the audience members can do to improve. B) emphasize the audience's mistakes so that they will not make the same ones again. C) be honest and call attention to the audience's failures or shortcomings. D) single out the guilty audience members as an example for everyone else to learn from.

answer

A) focus on what the audience members can do to improve.

question

9) A euphemism is a word or phrase that is A) possibly offensive. B) general or abstract in meaning. C) highly technical. D) a milder term for one with negative connotations.

answer

D) a milder term for one with negative connotations.

question

10) The preferred title for women in business is ________, unless the individual says otherwise. A) Mrs. B) Miss C) Ms. D) Madam

answer

C) Ms.

question

11) Using the term crippled in business communication is an example of A) the "you" attitude. B) emphasizing the positive. C) disability bias. D) none of the above.

answer

C) disability bias.

question

12) To establish credibility with your audience, you should A) impress them with a long list of your accomplishments. B) be modest and deferential. C) show that you are confident and that you believe in yourself and in your message. D) use hedge words ("maybe," "perhaps") to demonstrate your knowledge that no issue is fully cut and dried.

answer

C) show that you are confident and that you believe in yourself and in your message.

question

13) In business messages, using terms such as "if," "hope," and "trust" is A) usually a bad idea since it takes away from the writer's credibility. B) a good way to show your modesty. C) common courtesy. D) acceptable for very formal contexts.

answer

A) usually a bad idea since it takes away from the writer's credibility.

question

14) The acronyms and shortcuts used in texting and IM are A) incompatible with professional business writing. B) your ticket to the inside track in today's multinational corporations. C) a great way to show coworkers and managers that you're tech-savvy. D) commonly used to communicate with top management.

answer

A) incompatible with professional business writing.

question

15) What's the problem with phrases such as "attached please find" and "we are in receipt of"? A) They are rude. B) They are too intimate. C) They are stale and pompous. D) They involve preaching and bragging.

answer

C) They are stale and pompous.

question

16) Most business communication should aim for a ________ tone. A) formal B) colloquial C) conversational D) confrontational

answer

C) conversational

question

17) Using humor in business messages is A) an effective way to build strong relationships with international clients you are not familiar with. B) usually not effective, and is always inappropriate for formal and intercultural messages. C) appropriate for external messages, but never for internal. D) none of the above.

answer

B) usually not effective, and is always inappropriate for formal and intercultural messages.

question

18) Plain language is a style of writing A) used only for casual correspondence. B) designed to make complex materials more understandable to the audience. C) aimed primarily at readers for whom English is a second language. D) inappropriate for business communication.

answer

B) designed to make complex materials more understandable to the audience.

question

19) Which of the following sentences contains the strongest and most effective wording? A) Given the parameters of the situation, the most propitious choice would be to make adjustments in certain budget areas. B) We need to cut the operating budget by 12 percent or profits will decrease. C) Someone's going to need to do some budget cutting around here or heads will roll. D) Perusal of budgetary figures reveals that a 12 percent reduction in operations is called for if we are to stave off a negative impact on profits.

answer

B) We need to cut the operating budget by 12 percent or profits will decrease.

question

20) Identify the voice in the following sentence: "Based on negative client feedback, the marketing department abandoned the campaign." A) Active B) Passive C) Vocative D) State of being

answer

A) Active

question

21) Using the passive voice makes sense when A) you want to be diplomatic in pointing out a problem or error. B) you want your sentence to be easier to understand. C) you need to make your sentences shorter. D) you want to emphasize the subject.

answer

A) you want to be diplomatic in pointing out a problem or error.

question

22) If your workplace writing contains grammar errors and word choice mistakes, your readers will A) suppose that you're uninformed. B) question your professionalism. C) think that you don't respect them. D) all of the above.

answer

D) all of the above.

question

23) The connotative meaning of a word is A) its dictionary meaning. B) its literal meaning. C) all the associations and feelings the word evokes. D) its objective meaning.

answer

C) all the associations and feelings the word evokes.

question

24) When choosing words to convey a message, successful writers pay attention to A) convenience and mannerisms. B) correctness and effectiveness. C) metaphors and euphemisms. D) connotation and vocalization.

answer

B) correctness and effectiveness.

question

25) The ________ of a word is its literal or dictionary meaning. A) figurative meaning B) denotative meaning C) connotative meaning D) contextual meaning

answer

B) denotative meaning

question

26) As you create and refine your messages, evaluate your writing at all of the following levels except A) strong words. B) effective sentences. C) coherent paragraphs. D) multimedia enhancements.

answer

D) multimedia enhancements.

question

27) Some terms and phrases called ________ have become so common that they have lost some of their power to communicate, and ________ are newly coined terms often associated with technology, business, or cultural changes. A) euphemisms, idioms B) clichés, buzzwords C) colloquialisms, clichés D) pull quotes, derivations

answer

B) clichés, buzzwords

question

28) Most ________ express a concept, quality, or characteristic. Most ________ represent something you can see, touch, or visualize. A) abstract words, concrete words B) interpretive words, explanatory words C) incisive words, generalized words D) selective words, common words

answer

A) abstract words, concrete words

question

29) Which of the following words are the most abstract? A) Two, contract, performance comm B) Software, code, signal C) Kick, move, walk D) Productivity, excellence, motivation

answer

D) Productivity, excellence, motivation

question

30) "Although our servers are stable, the telephone system is a serious concern" is a A) simple sentence. B) compound sentence. C) complex sentence. D) compound-complex sentence.

answer

C) complex sentence.

question

31) "Insurance premiums have increased, and cost-of-living raises have not kept up" is a A) simple sentence. B) compound sentence. C) complex sentence. D) compound-complex sentence.

answer

B) compound sentence.

question

32) Which of the following is a compound sentence? A) Interest rates are low, and now is an excellent time to buy a home. B) Because interest rates are low, now is an excellent time to buy a home. C) Low interest rates make this an excellent time to buy a home. D) With interest rates low, now is an excellent time to buy a home.

answer

A) Interest rates are low, and now is an excellent time to buy a home.

question

33) A complex sentence consists of A) two independent clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction. B) a single subject and a single predicate plus any modifying phrases. C) two or more independent clauses along with all modifying phrases. D) one main thought and one or more subordinate thoughts.

answer

D) one main thought and one or more subordinate thoughts.

question

34) You can emphasize key points by A) using extra words to describe them. B) making important ideas the subject of the sentence. C) placing them at the beginning or end of a sentence. D) doing all of the above.

answer

D) doing all of the above.

question

35) To downplay a dependent clause in a complex sentence, you should A) place it at the beginning of the sentence. B) place it at the end of the sentence. C) place it in the middle of the sentence. D) set it off with a semicolon.

answer

C) place it in the middle of the sentence.

question

36) A typical paragraph contains the three basic elements of A) a topic sentence, support sentences, and transitional words and phrases. B) simple, compound, and complex sentences followed by compound-complex sentences. C) the main idea, supporting ideas, and evidence. D) a problem, discussion, and a solution.

answer

A) a topic sentence, support sentences, and transitional words and phrases.

question

37) Words such as "nevertheless," "however," "but," and "therefore" A) are called pointer words. B) introduce modifiers. C) occur only in complex sentences. D) are useful for making transitions.

answer

D) are useful for making transitions.

question

38) Skillful writers use transitional elements to A) automate text entry and correction. B) track footnotes and endnotes. C) ensure consistent formatting throughout a document. D) connect ideas and show the relationships between them.

answer

D) connect ideas and show the relationships between them.

question

39) In business writing, the topic sentence of a paragraph is A) usually implied and is rarely included in the paragraph. B) generally explicit and is often the first sentence in the paragraph. C) often vague and is usually placed in the middle of the paragraph. D) most often understated and normally is the last sentence in the paragraph.

answer

B) generally explicit and is often the first sentence in the paragraph.

question

40) In ________ paragraph, a writer analyzes the reasons for and/or the consequences of an action, an event, or a decision. A) an illustration B) a comparison and contrast C) a cause and effect D) a problem and solution

answer

C) a cause and effect

question

41) When you want to develop a paragraph by showing how a general idea is broken into specific categories, which of these methods would you use? A) Illustration B) Comparison and contrast C) Cause and effect D) Classification

answer

D) Classification

question

42) To ensure a consistent look for all company documents, many organizations provide employees with approved A) autocompletion software. B) spreadsheets. C) macros. D) style sheets.

answer

D) style sheets.

question

43) Two common examples of ________ are the mission statements of companies and the biographies of executives. A) key frames B) boilerplate text C) pulled quotations D) automatic writing

answer

B) boilerplate text

question

44) A piece of text copied from the main body of the document and formatted as a large, eye- catching visual element is known as a A) boilerplate. B) pull quote. C) template. D) style sheet.

answer

B) pull quote.

question

45) Which type of software feature inserts a ready-made block of text when you type the first few characters? A) Machine translation B) Mail merge C) Autocompletion D) Autocorrection

answer

C) Autocompletion

question

46) Adopting a "you" attitude in business writing is simply a matter of using the pronoun "you" as much as possible.

answer

Answer: FALSE

question

47) In general, the word "you" should be avoided when you are assigning responsibility for a mistake or problem.

answer

Answer: TRUE

question

48) You should always avoid using euphemisms, because they are inherently dishonest.

answer

Answer: FALSE

question

49) Using the word "young" to describe an employee can have negative implications.

answer

Answer: TRUE

question

50) Being too modest can reduce your credibility with your audience.

answer

Answer: TRUE

question

Bragging about your company's accomplishments can be offensive to readers.

answer

TRUE

question

A conversational tone is not appropriate for most business messages.

answer

FALSE

question

Plain language is a style of writing used primarily for communicating to those who do not have a college degree.

answer

FALSE

question

"The evaluator noted several shortcomings" is written in the active voice.

answer

TRUE

question

Most companies expect you to use texting acronyms in professional business writing.

answer

FALSE

question

When composing a draft, you should never skip to another section of the document until you've finished the current one.

answer

FALSE

question

Grammarians and professional editors agree on the rules of grammar.

answer

FALSE

question

In business communication, it is best to use words that are low in connotative meaning.

answer

TRUE

question

Honor and progress are concrete words.

answer

FALSE

question

Abstract words should be completely avoided in business writing.

answer

FALSE

question

Clichés are a valuable tool in business writing, as readers find such words and phrases to be comfortable and familiar.

answer

FALSE

question

The amount of jargon you use in a message should reflect your audience's level of familiarity with your topic.

answer

TRUE

question

A compound sentence contains one main thought (independent clause) and one or more subordinate thoughts (dependent clauses).

answer

FALSE

question

"Our clients have become more knowledgeable, and we need to accommodate them" is a complex sentence.

answer

FALSE

question

"The startup costs on this project increased considerably" is a simple sentence.

answer

TRUE

question

"If we can't meet the deadline, our losses will be significant" is a compound sentence.

answer

FALSE

question

To emphasize a dependent clause, it is better to place it at the end of a sentence rather than in the middle.

answer

TRUE

question

Coherence between thoughts is achieved through the use of transitional words and phrases.

answer

TRUE

question

When developing paragraphs, you should use only one method within each paragraph and throughout a document.

answer

FALSE

question

Templates and style sheets can both help to ensure a consistent look for all company documents.

answer

TRUE

question

Using the ________ attitude allows you to establish empathy with your audience.

answer

"you"

question

In messages that need to deal with difficult negative situations, it is best to emphasize the ________ aspects of your topic.

answer

positive

question

Replacing harsh, unpleasant terms with milder words, or ________, can avoid negative connotations for your audience.

answer

euphemisms

question

To avoid embarrassing blunders in language related to gender, race, ethnicity, age, or disability, use ________ language.

answer

bias-free

question

Terms such as "handicapped employees" are examples of ________ bias.

answer

disability

question

If your audience is unfamiliar with you, you need to devote the initial part of your message to establishing ________: a measure of your believability based on how reliable you are and how much trust you evoke in others.

answer

credibility

question

Style is the way you use words to achieve a certain ________, or overall impression.

answer

tone

question

________ ________ is a way of presenting information in a simple, unadorned style so that your audience can easily grasp your meaning.

answer

Plain language

question

A sentence is in the ________ voice when the subject performs the action and the object receives the action.

answer

active

question

The ________ meaning of a word is its literal, dictionary meaning, whereas the ________ meaning includes all the associations and feelings it evokes.

answer

denotative, connotative

question

________ words express a concept or quality, not a tangible object.

answer

Abstract

question

________ sentences express two or more independent but related thoughts of equal importance.

answer

Compound

question

________ sentences express one main thought and one or more subordinate thoughts related to it.

answer

Complex

question

A(n) ________ is a cluster of sentences related to the same general topic.

answer

paragraph

question

A standard block of text used in various documents without being changed is called ________.

answer

boilerplate

question

List three strategies to become more sensitive to your audience's needs.

answer

You should adopt the "you" attitude, maintain good standards of etiquette, emphasize the positive, and use bias-free language.

question

You are scheduled to discuss a negative performance evaluation with one of the employees you supervise. How can you emphasize the positive during your conversation?

answer

In cases like this, it is best to emphasize what the person can do to improve, rather than dwelling on his or her mistakes and shortcomings. Emphasizing the positive is more likely to yield the results you want.

question

Define bias-free language.

answer

Bias-free language avoids words and phrases that unfairly and even unethically categorize or stigmatize people in ways related to gender, race, ethnicity, age, or disability.

question

List at least two types of biased language and explain how to avoid each type.

answer

(1) Gender bias: Avoid sexist language by using the same label for everyone—police officer instead of policeman. (2) Racial and ethnic bias: Avoid language that suggests that members of a racial or ethnic group have stereotypical characteristics. (3) Age bias: Mention the age of a person only when it is relevant. (4) Disability bias: Avoid mentioning a disability unless it is pertinent. Put the person first.

question

List at least three personal characteristics that can help establish credibility with your audience.

answer

Audiences assign credibility to individuals who display (1) honesty, (2) objectivity, (3) awareness of audience needs, (4) credentials, knowledge, and expertise, (5) endorsements, (6) performance,, and (7) sincerity.

question

What is the difference between tone and style in business writing?

answer

Your communication style involves the choices you make to express yourself: the words you select, the manner in which you use those words in sentences, and the way you use individual sentences to build paragraphs. Your style creates a certain tone, or overall impression, when you write. The right tone depends on the nature of your message and your relationship with the reader.

question

List at least three guidelines to follow if you want to achieve a conversational tone in business messages.

answer

(1) Understand the difference between texting and writing; (2) Avoid obsolete and pompous language such as "in due course" or "we are in receipt of"; (3) avoid preaching and bragging; (4) be careful with intimacy—don't be overly friendly or chatty; and (5) be careful with humor.

question

Briefly explain the difference between the active voice and the passive voice. Include an example of each one.

answer

You are using the active voice when the subject performs the action, and the object receives the action: "John rented the office." You are using the passive voice when the subject receives the action: "The office was rented by John."

question

How is the denotative meaning of a word different from its connotative meaning?

answer

The denotative meaning is the literal, or dictionary, meaning of a word. The connotative meaning includes all the associations and feelings evoked by the word.

question

Give the definition of a complex sentence, then provide an example of one.

answer

A complex sentence expresses one main thought (the independent clause) and one or more subordinate thoughts (dependent clauses). An example is, "Our company's financials are impressive, despite current challenges in the economy." (Answers will vary.)

question

What is the difference between delivering negative news and being negative?

answer

Sensitive communicators understand the difference between delivering negative news and being negative. Without hiding the negative news, they look for ways to emphasize positive aspects. When offering criticism or advice, for example, they don't focus on a person's shortcomings; instead, they focus on what he or she can do to improve. In persuasive situations, they help audiences see the benefits of taking specific actions. Finally, they use euphemisms carefully and ethically to soften the impact of negative news and avoid words that carry negative or unpleasant connotations.

question

List three situations in which the passive voice can help you demonstrate the "you" attitude.

answer

(1) pointing out a problem or error (2) when you want to point out what's being done without taking or attributing either the credit or the blame (3) when you want to avoid personal pronouns in order to create an objective tone.

question

Explain what it means to choose "words that communicate well," then list four techniques for selecting the best words when writing business messages.

answer

(1) choosing powerful words (2) choosing familiar words (3) avoiding clichés and buzzwords (4) using jargon carefully.

question

What are the five most common techniques for developing paragraphs?

answer

There are several common techniques for developing paragraphs. - Illustration Comparison and contrast Cause and effect Classification problem and solution

question

Briefly describe at least four software capabilities that can help business writers shape their writing.

answer

Although the names and details vary from system to system, most word processing programs contain features that can help you write more efficiently and effectively. These include (1) style sheets—collections of formatting choices for words, paragraphs, and other elements; (2) templates, which usually set overall document parameters such as page size and provide a specific set of styles to use; (3) boilerplate, which refers to a standard block of text that is reused in multiple documents; (4) autocompletion, which inserts a ready-made block of text when you type the first few characters; (5) autocorrection, which instantly corrects spelling and typing errors and converts texts to symbols; (6) file merge, which makes it easy to combine files; (7) mail merge—a feature that makes it easy to personalize form letters by inserting names and addresses from a database; and (8) endnotes, footnotes, indexes, and tables of contents—all of which are easy to produce with the help of word processing software.

question

Regarding the three-step writing process, all of the following except ________ are important elements of the completing step. A) proofreading the message B) revising the message C) forecasting the message D) producing the message

answer

C) forecasting the message

question

When you begin the ________, focus your attention on content, organization, style, and tone. A) production process B) editing process C) revision process D) research process

answer

C) revision process

question

In business communication, the ________ of a message usually have the greatest impact on the readers. A) body paragraphs B) bulleted and numbered lists C) topics and subtopics D) beginning and ending sections

answer

D) beginning and ending sections

question

When you need to revise a long, complex document, A) start the process as soon as you've finished your first draft. B) start by focusing on misspelled words and grammar errors. C) save time by multitasking while you're revising the document. D) try to put your draft aside for a couple of days before you start.

answer

D) try to put your draft aside for a couple of days before you start.

question

When reviewing your document for content, you should be concerned with A) grammar and usage. B) punctuation and spelling. C) the accuracy and relevance of the information. D) style and tone.

answer

C) the accuracy and relevance of the information.

question

When evaluating the work of others, you should A) make sure you understand the writer's intent before you begin suggesting or making changes. B) talk with the writer about his or her intent only after you suggest changes, since this is a good way to test the effectiveness of the document. C) avoid talking with the writer about the document, since other readers may not have that opportunity. D) compare the other person's writing style with your own, and if yours is better, rewrite the document in your own style.

answer

A) make sure you understand the writer's intent before you begin suggesting or making changes.

question

For general business messages, gear your writing toward readers at the A) first-grade to fourth-grade level. B) fifth-grade to sixth-grade level. C) eighth-grade to eleventh-grade level. D) twelfth-grade to fourteenth-grade level.

answer

C) eighth-grade to eleventh-grade level.

question

Because readability indexes are able to measure ________, they offer a useful reference point for improving your writing. A) document design B) sentence length C) tone of voice D) proper word usage

answer

B) sentence length

question

Using short paragraphs will help you improve the readability of your business messages because A) they will make your writing look inviting. B) they can help you emphasize your ideas. C) they are easier to read than long paragraphs. D) all of the above.

answer

D) all of the above.

question

Business writers use bulleted and numbered lists to accomplish all of the following except A) simplifying complex subjects. B) helping readers locate key points. C) enhancing the visual impact of their ideas. D) adding decorative elements to their messages.

answer

D) adding decorative elements to their messages.

question

When you're writing a business message, use headings and subheadings to A) reveal how your document is organized. B) capture the attention of your readers. C) indicate shifts from one idea to the next. D) all of the above.

answer

D) all of the above.

question

Which of the following is not a technique for helping readers who skim your document? A) Using lists and bullets instead of narrative B) Keeping all sentences the same length C) Including headings and subheadings D) Using shorter paragraphs

answer

B) Keeping all sentences the same length

question

Skilled business writers A) use long sentences to emphasize important information. B) keep their sentences to an average length of 40 words or fewer. C) vary the length of their sentences. D) do all of the above.

answer

C) vary the length of their sentences.

question

When it comes to paragraph length, A) use long paragraphs with detailed information for direct-mail letters. B) use long paragraphs if you want your document to look more inviting. C) keep all paragraphs to fewer than 60 words. D) use one-sentence paragraphs only occasionally, for emphasis.

answer

D) use one-sentence paragraphs only occasionally, for emphasis.

question

When creating a list for a business document, A) always use bullets, rather than numbers or letters. B) keep in mind that the items need not be parallel. C) be sure to introduce it clearly. D) any text in the list should be typed in all caps.

answer

C) be sure to introduce it clearly.

question

Informative headings and subheadings A) simply identify topics covered in the document. B) guide readers to think a certain way about the topics covered. C) are easier to write than descriptive headings. D) are less helpful to readers than descriptive headings.

answer

B) guide readers to think a certain way about the topics covered.

question

Do all of the following except ________ when you're editing a document for conciseness. A) eliminate redundancies B) shorten long words and phrases C) delete unnecessary words and phrases D) convert sentences to "it is" or "there are" structures

answer

D) convert sentences to "it is" or "there are" structures

question

Which of the following is an example of a hedging sentence? A) The employee's performance appears to be less than satisfactory. B) The deadline is next Tuesday. C) The financial statement needs to have two sections. D) None of the above are hedging.

answer

A) The employee's performance appears to be less than satisfactory.

question

What is wrong with the following sentence? "To waste time and missing deadlines are bad habits." A) Similar ideas are not parallel. B) It contains a dangling modifier. C) It contains a split infinitive. D) Nothing—it is grammatically correct as written.

answer

A) Similar ideas are not parallel.

question

What is wrong with the following sentence? "Having stalled for two days, the assignment was now late." A) It lacks parallelism. B) It contains a dangling modifier. C) It contains an awkward pointer. D) Nothing—it is grammatically correct as written.

answer

B) It contains a dangling modifier.

question

"Environmental impact consultant study results" is an example of A) redundancy. B) a dangling modifier. C) a dependent clause. D) a long noun sequence.

answer

D) a long noun sequence.

question

Which of the following sentences contains a camouflaged verb? A) Some do; others don't. B) She is a marketing manager but also serves as ad manager. C) The recommendation of the committee is to proceed as planned. D) He slowly, deliberately added the numbers.

answer

C) The recommendation of the committee is to proceed as planned.

question

"The above-mentioned book" is an example of A) a redundancy. B) a strung-out sentence. C) an indefinite pronoun starter. D) an awkward reference.

answer

D) an awkward reference.

question

Which of the following sentences is the most concisely worded? A) The project manager is in charge of furnishing specifications until such time as the project gets underway. B) All specifications should be provided by the project manager prior to the start of a project. C) Project managers have the capability of changing specifications before the official start date. D) The project manager must give the engineers the revised specifications before the project starts.

answer

D) The project manager must give the engineers the revised specifications before the project starts.

question

"Visible to the eye" is an example of A) a cliché. B) redundancy. C) the passive voice. D) obsolete language.

answer

B) redundancy.

question

Starting a sentence with "It is" or "There are" is A) usually a sign that the sentence could be shorter and more active. B) perfectly acceptable, and you need not try to rewrite the sentence. C) a sign that you are using active voice. D) a sign that you are using passive voice.

answer

A) usually a sign that the sentence could be shorter and more active.

question

The "replace all" feature in word-processing programs A) tracks down words or phrases and automatically changes them all. B) can save you time when revising messages. C) must be used with care, since it can make undesirable changes. D) is characterized by all of the above.

answer

D) is characterized by all of the above.

question

A spell checker A) cannot automatically correct misspelled words as you type. B) highlights words it doesn't recognize. C) suggests synonyms. D) has eliminated the need for proofreading.

answer

B) highlights words it doesn't recognize.

question

A computer thesaurus A) catches punctuation as well as grammar errors. B) highlights phrases in passive voice. C) suggests correct spelling. D) can help you find just the right word for a given situation.

answer

D) can help you find just the right word for a given situation.

question

You can count on grammar checking software to ________ when you're using technology to revise a message you've written. A) assess the readability of your message B) show proposed changes and a history of revisions C) determine whether you've stated your message clearly and completely D) highlight potential concerns, such as long sentences and passive voice

answer

D) highlight potential concerns, such as long sentences and passive voice

question

Which of the following design elements would be the easiest to measure objectively? A) Paying attention to the details of design B) Balancing the various elements on a page C) Exercising restraint when applying design elements D) Using margins, typeface, type size, and spacing consistently

answer

D) Using margins, typeface, type size, and spacing consistently

question

32) The ________ of a message involves the total effect of elements such as page or screen design, typography, and graphics. A) resonance B) semantic structure C) production quality D) information value

answer

C) production quality

question

The term type style refers to A) the space around text and between text columns. B) any modification that lends contrast or emphasis to type. C) a combination of text, graphics, photographs, audio, video, and interactivity. D) the letters, numbers, and other text characters in a message.

answer

B) any modification that lends contrast or emphasis to type.

question

For effective document design, you should A) fit as much material as possible on each page. B) use a mix of several typefaces and type sizes and include a variety of decorative touches to make the pages look more interesting. C) balance the space devoted to text, artwork, and white space. D) do all of the above.

answer

C) balance the space devoted to text, artwork, and white space.

question

Using white space in a document A) is considered "cheating." B) is only an option when you can't use color. C) makes your document look unappealing. D) provides contrast.

answer

D) provides contrast.

question

Justified type is type that is A) set flush or "lined up" on the right and left. B) centered. C) set flush left and ragged on the right. D) set flush right and ragged on the left.

answer

A) set flush or "lined up" on the right and left.

question

Centered margins A) make the document easier to read. B) create a cleaner look because of increased white space along the right margin. C) are best for headings and tables. D) help get audience members' attention, even before they start to read.

answer

C) are best for headings and tables.

question

Which type sizes are best for a business document? A) 10 point text and 10 point headings B) 12 point text and 16 point headings C) 12 point text and 24 point headings D) 18 point text and 36 point headings

answer

B) 12 point text and 16 point headings

question

Serif typefaces are generally preferable to sans serif fonts for A) display treatments. B) headings and captions. C) regular paragraph text. D) none of the above.

answer

C) regular paragraph text.

question

When selecting typefaces for most business documents, you should A) generally avoid using more than two typefaces on a page. B) make generous use of such styles as all caps, underlines, and boldface. C) choose a nice sans serif face for your main body text. D) use a large type size (at least 14 points) for your basic text if you need to fill up space.

answer

A) generally avoid using more than two typefaces on a page.

question

Multimedia documents A) are generally too expensive to produce to be useful in business. B) require highly technical training in order to create. C) convey information more slowly than traditional documents. D) can allow recipients to personalize the communication process to their own needs.

answer

D) can allow recipients to personalize the communication process to their own needs.

question

When you're proofreading a workplace document, treat the process as a A) survey of convenience, security, and privacy issues. B) casual scan up and down the page or the screen. C) methodical procedure in which you look for specific problems that may occur. D) review of the content, organization, style, and tone of the document.

answer

C) methodical procedure in which you look for specific problems that may occur.

question

Which of the following techniques can help you proofread more effectively? A) Read each page backward, from the bottom to the top. B) Proofread the document as soon as you complete the draft. C) To ensure consistency, proofread long documents from beginning to end without stopping. D) Always proofread using your monitor (rather than printing out a hard copy of the document).

answer

A) Read each page backward, from the bottom to the top.

question

If you're sending extremely large files, you should A) use overnight delivery to send a hard copy rather than sending them electronically. B) consider using a file compression utility, as long as your recipients have the ability to expand the file. C) always send them as MS Word attachments. D) send them through the mail to avoid excessive costs.

answer

B) consider using a file compression utility, as long as your recipients have the ability to expand the file.

question

When you're determining the best way to distribute a business message, consider A) cost of distributing the message. B) convenience for you and your audience. C) security and privacy concerns. D) all of the above.

answer

D) all of the above.

question

After you have completed the first draft of your business message, the next step is to make a final, quick pass through it to check for typos and spelling errors.

answer

FALSE

question

With practice, most writers can create first drafts that do not need to be revised.

answer

FALSE

question

The best approach to completing your business message is to focus on the details first before addressing the document as a whole.

answer

FALSE

question

With more complex messages, it is a good idea to set aside a first draft for a day or two before beginning the revision process.

answer

TRUE

question

At the beginning of the revision process, you should evaluate the content of your message, then review the effectiveness of its organization.

answer

TRUE

question

The items in a bulleted or numbered list should be parallel; that is, they should all use the same grammatical pattern.

answer

TRUE

question

Although readability formulas are easy to apply, they ignore some factors that contribute to reading ease.

answer

TRUE

question

Skilled business writers keep all their sentences as short as possible.

answer

FALSE

question

Although you should vary the length of paragraphs in your business messages, in general you should strive for short paragraphs.

answer

TRUE

question

An example of an informative heading would be "Redesigning to Cut Material Costs."

answer

TRUE

question

Readers can get a more out of a document just by reading its descriptive headings than by reading its informative headings.

answer

FALSE

question

One way to make your messages clearer is to break up overly long sentences into shorter sentences.

answer

TRUE

question

"The qualification of the runner in the race took one hour" is an example of a sentence with a camouflaged verb.

answer

TRUE

question

The subject and predicate of a sentence should be kept as close together as possible.

answer

TRUE

question

To increase the sophistication of your message, make liberal use of references such as "the latter," "the former," "the aforementioned," and "as mentioned above."

answer

FALSE

question

Words that do not affect the meaning of a sentence are usually unnecessary and contribute to sentence clutter.

answer

TRUE

question

Short words are generally more vivid and easier to read than long words.

answer

TRUE

question

"Three AM in the morning" is an example of a redundancy.

answer

TRUE

question

Using a spell checker guarantees that your documents will be free of spelling errors.

answer

FALSE

question

Today's powerful grammar checkers can easily determine whether your document states your message correctly and communicates it clearly.

answer

FALSE

question

Because the first thing that readers will notice about your message is its appearance, you should pay special attention to design and page layout.

answer

TRUE

question

To make your message more interesting and accessible, you should use as many design elements and decorative touches as possible.

answer

FALSE

question

One advantage of justified type is that it makes a message look more personalized and less like a form letter.

answer

FALSE

question

To draw attention to important points or terms italic type is more effective than boldface.

answer

FALSE

question

If you find graphics, photos, videos, and other elements online, you can use them in your own documents without worrying about copyright violations.

answer

FALSE

question

Using a ________ formula will give you a rough idea of how educated your audience must be to read and comprehend your message.

answer

readability

question

An effective alternative to using conventional sentences is to set off important ideas in a(n) ________, which is a series of words, names, or other items.

answer

list

question

________ headings identify a topic but do little more; ________ headings guide readers to think in certain ways about a topic.

answer

Descriptive, informative

question

A(n) ________ sentence uses words such as may and seems to avoid stating a judgment or fact directly.

answer

hedging

question

With ________ construction, two or more similar ideas are expressed with the same grammatical pattern.

answer

parallel

question

A modifier is said to be ________ when it has no real connection to the subject of the sentence.

answer

dangling

question

________ verbs are those that have been changed into nouns or adjectives.

answer

Camouflaged

question

Word combinations that are needlessly repetitive are called ________.

answer

redundancies

question

A(n) ________ ________ compares your document with an electronic dictionary, highlights unrecognized words, and suggests correct spelling.

answer

spell checker

question

An electronic ________ gives you alternative words and helps you find synonyms.

answer

thesaurus

question

________ ________ provides visual contrast for your readers and gives them a resting point.

answer

White space

question

Typeface or ________ refers to the physical design of letters, numbers, and other text characters.

answer

font

question

________ typefaces have small crosslines at the ends of each letter stroke and are best for text.

answer

Serif

question

A(n) ________ document can contain any combination of text, graphics, photographs, audio, animation, video, and interactivity.

answer

multimedia

question

Every document requires ________ to ensure that it contains no errors in grammar, usage, and punctuation.

answer

proofreading

question

Briefly explain what the opening of a document should accomplish.

answer

The opening of any document should be relevant, interesting, and geared to the reader's probable reaction. For longer messages, the first few paragraphs should also establish the subject, purpose, and organization of the material.

question

Conclusions should accomplish what two tasks?

answer

Conclusions should (1) summarize the main idea and (2) leave the audience with a positive impression.

question

Briefly describe at least three advantages of using lists in business documents.

answer

Lists can show the sequence of your ideas, heighten their impact visually, and help readers find your key points. They also provide readers with clues, simplify complex subjects, highlight the main point, break up the page visually, ease the skimming process, and give readers a breather.

question

What three functions do effective headings serve in business documents? Explain each one.

answer

Headings contribute to the document's organization by showing the reader at a glance how the document is organized. They act as labels to group related paragraphs and organize material into short sections. Headings also control the reader's attention, making the text easier to read and helping the audience find the parts they need to read—or skip. Finally, headings help readers make connections between subordinate ideas and main ones.

question

Briefly explain the difference between descriptive headings and informative headings.

answer

Whereas descriptive headings do little more than identify a topic, informative headings guide readers to think in certain ways about the topic of your message. Well-written informative headings are self-contained, which means a reader can read just the headings and subheadings and understand them without reading the rest of the document.

question

Rewrite the following sentence to improve clarity and avoid the long noun sequence: "The financial estimates and accounting consulting firm will be closed next week."

answer

The consulting firm that provides financial estimates and accounting services will be closed next week.

question

Rewrite the following sentence to avoid camouflaged verbs: "The customer will ultimately make a determination about whether or not a purchase will occur."

answer

The customer will ultimately decide whether or not to purchase.

question

Briefly describe two strategies for clarifying sentence structure.

answer

Keep the subject and predicate of a sentence as close together as possible, and keep adjectives, adverbs, and prepositional phrases as close as possible to the words they modify.

question

Rewrite the following sentence to eliminate the unnecessary phrases: "In view of the fact that the customer service department is closed, we do not have the capability of offering refunds until such a time as they reopen."

answer

We can offer refunds as soon as the customer service department opens.

question

Rewrite the following sentence to eliminate redundancies: "The engineers collaborated together in order to produce the uniquely original final outcomes of their research."

answer

The engineers collaborated to produce original research.

question

Explain at least three of the steps involved in editing documents for clarity.

answer

Editing for clarity involves breaking up overly long sentences and rewriting sentences that contain hedging (words such as may and seems). It also requires imposing parallelism, or using the same grammatical pattern to express two or more similar ideas. Correcting dangling modifiers is another necessary step, along with rewording long noun sequences. Improving the clarity of a document also involves eliminating camouflaged verbs, clarifying sentence structure and awkward sentences, and moderating your enthusiasm.

question

Explain why editing for conciseness is important, then list the four steps it involves.

answer

Editing business documents for conciseness is important because readers appreciate it and are more likely to read your documents if you have a reputation for efficient writing. Improving the conciseness of a message involves removing unnecessary words and phrases, shortening long words and phrases, and eliminating redundancies. It also requires shortening sentences that begin with indefinite pronouns such as it and there.

question

Describe at least three software tools that can help you revise and polish a document.

answer

Software tools such as revision marks and commenting keep track of proposed editing changes electronically and provide a history of a document's revisions. A spell checker compares your document with an electronic dictionary, highlights unrecognized words, and suggests correct spellings. A computer thesaurus gives you alternative words much more quickly than a printed thesaurus does. A grammar checker provides limited help with issues such as noun-verb agreement problems and items you should consider changing (such as passive voice, long sentences, or words that tend to be misused or overused). Finally, a style checker monitors your word choice and sentence structure and suggests alternatives that might produce more effective meaning.

question

Explain the importance and process of proofreading. Why does it matter and what should you look for?

answer

Proofreading is important because it is your last chance to make sure that your document is ready to carry your message—and your reputation—to the intended audience. When proofreading, you should check the document for errors from the writing, design, and layout stages, and mistakes that crept in during production. More specifically, you should be on the lookout for writing errors (such as typographical mistakes and misspelled words), missing elements (text sections and visual aids), and design and formatting errors (such as incorrect font selections and page numbers).

question

Describe four important issues to consider when distributing business messages.

answer

-cost - convenience - Time - security and privacy

STUDY

Family Psychology Give And Take Health And Wellness Non Verbal Communication Personal Health

Medical Self Assessment: Chapter 4 Quiz 25 terms

Joan Grant

25 terms

Preview

Medical Self Assessment: Chapter 4 Quiz

question

"Revealing personal information that we ordinarily wouldn't reveal because of the risk involved" describes a) non-verbal communication b) self-disclosure c) feedback d) constructive listening

answer

b) self-disclosure

question

By age 30, what percentage of men and women have lived together without being married (cohabitated)? a) 20 percent b) 35 percent c) 50 percent d) 60 percent

answer

c) 50 percent

question

The most long lasting element of love is a) euphoria b) preoccupation with the loved one c) commitment d) idealization of the loved one

answer

c) commitment

question

The arrival of the first child is most likely to a) cause very little change in a marriage b) reinforce traditional marital roles c) cause an equal degree of job changes for fathers and mothers d) reduce relationship stress

answer

b) reinforce traditional marital roles

question

One difference between heterosexual and homosexual couples is that same-sex partnerships tend to a) be more equal b) be more organized around gender role c) have one partner provide for the other financially d) place more emphasis on role assignment and less on partnership

answer

a) be more equal

question

Approximately what percentage of divorced people marry again? a) 15 percent b) 50 percent c) 75 percent d) 90 percent

answer

c) 75 percent

question

Of the following, which is the MOST constructive conflict resolution strategy? a) providing selective information to minimize conflict b) identifying alternatives to get what each person wants c) using avoidance d) using intimacy to smooth over disagreements

answer

b) identifying alternatives to get what each person wants

question

Intimate partnerships differ from friendships, in that intimate partnerships a) do not require exclusiveness b) are more accepting and less critical c) are more stable and enduring over time d) include the presence of sexual desire

answer

d) include the presence of sexual desire

question

Individuals who had an anxious/ambivalent relationship with a parent may find that, as adults, they a) avoid relationships with others b) avoid becoming dependent on others c) worry about being abandoned by others d) maintain their independence in a relationship

answer

c) worry about being abandoned by others

question

It appears that our partner may NOT be interested in what we are saying if he or she responds by a) looking in our eyes b) touching our hand c) looking around the room d) leaning toward us as we speak

answer

c) looking around the room

question

Which of the following statements is false regarding gender roles in marriage? a) Married women, even those who work, do most domestic tasks b) Married men suffer more job-related stress than married women c) There is a move toward equalization of responsibilities in marriages d) Married men have assumed an equal share in child care responsibilities

answer

d) Married men have assumed an equal share in child care responsibilities

question

The roots of our identity and sense of self are in our a) childhood b) peer group c) heredity d) community

answer

a) childhood

question

Having strong social relationships may a) reduce the risk of illness b) speed recovery from illness c) improve measures of mental health d) do all of the above

answer

d) do all of the above

question

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of many gay and lesbian relationships? a) They provide intimacy, security, and support b) Household tasks are often shared or split between partners c) Each partner assumes a traditional gender role d) Both partners are usually self-supporting

answer

c) Each partner assumes a traditional gender role

question

Jake and Sally have dated for several months. They have talked briefly about marriage and more extensively about living together. They have a strong sexual attraction to each other and describe their relationship as passionate. Sally feels very lucky to have met someone like Jake and wants to spend all of their free time together. She is even willing to take up Jake's hobbies so that they can be together all of the time. Lately, Sally has developed an intense jealousy over Jake spending time with his friends from work. Jake cares for Sally but wants to maintain some degree of freedom. Sally's jealousy is an indicator of: a) possessiveness b) love c) a need for intimacy d) commitment

answer

a) possessiveness

question

Characteristics of friendships include all of the following, EXCEPT a) respect b) trust c) dependence d) loyalty

answer

c) dependence

question

The primary problems for single-parent families headed by women are a) social b) scholastic c) religious d) economic

answer

d) economic

question

The four general parenting styles include all the following, EXCEPT a) authoritarian b) authoritative c) uninvolved d) indulgent

answer

d) indulgent

question

In cultures where parent-arranged marriages are common, marriages are a) stable b) likely to end in divorce c) generally part of polygamous relationships d) dependent on the fertility of the partners

answer

a) stable

question

A characteristic of friendship includes reciprocity, which means a) give-and-take between friends b) mutual respect c) acceptance d) loyalty

answer

a) give-and-take between friends

question

Anxious/avoidant relationships with parents may produce children who, when they reach adulthood, a) find it easy to establish relationships b) are satisfied living a solitary lifestyle c) tend to be married to the same person for a lifetime d) are inclined to run from relationships

answer

d) are inclined to run from relationships

question

Our gender role is first defined for us by our a) heredity b) culture c) teachers d) sexual orientation

answer

b) culture

question

One advantage cohabitation has over marriage is a) health insurance benefits are better b) most societies are more accepting of cohabitation c) inheritance rights are better d) partners have a greater sense of autonomy

answer

d) partners have a greater sense of autonomy

question

Based on current rates, what percentage of people marrying today will eventually divorce? a) 30-35 percent b) 40-45 percent c) 50-55 percent d) 60-65 percent

answer

c) 50-55 percent

question

Jealousy is: a) proof that love exists b) a harmless emotion c) a measure of insecurity d) unrelated to self-esteem

answer

c) a measure of insecurity

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