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Chapter 7; Written Communications – Flashcards 70 terms

Brooke Sharp

70 terms

Preview

Chapter 7; Written Communications – Flashcards

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Agenda

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a brief outline of the topics to be discussed at a meeting

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Annotation

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the process of reading, highlighting, and summarizing a document for another person

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BiCaps

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words or phrases with unusual capitalization

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Block

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a type of letter format in which the date, subject line, closing, and signature are justified to the right margin; all other lines are justified left

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Enclosure

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indication for the reader that an item is accompanying the letter

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Font

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a typeface; affects the way written messages look

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Full Block

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a type of letter format in which all letter components are justified left

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Intercaps

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words or phrases with unusual capitalization

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Margin

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a blank space around the edges of a piece of paper, such as a letter or page of a book

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Memorandum

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a type of written documentation used for interoffice communication

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Proofread

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the part of editing a document in which the writer reads the draft for accuracy and clarity and corrects errors

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Salutation

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an introductory phrase that greets the reader of a letter

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Semiblock

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a type of letter format that is styled the same as block, except the first sentence of each paragraph is indented five spaces

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Template

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a skeleton of a letter or document with preset and prespaced elements

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Guidelines for Producing Professional and Medical Documents

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Good written communication skills are important for success. In the medical office, written communication is generated in several forms, such as reports and letters. Medical assistants commonly compose collection letters, patient reminders, and notifications of test results. You may also have an opportunity to produce memorandum, agendas, and minutes for meetings. Another important form of written communication is the hand written entry in a patient's medical record. No matter which form it takes, your written communication must be clear, concise, and correct. Poorly written documents reflect negatively on the physician's practice and on you. Written communication may be sent or receive through fax machines, electronic mail, delivery services, or U.S. postal service. HIPAA's privacy rule protects the confidentiality of all medical communication. Sending and receiving written communication according to the rules of confidentiality will be further discussed.

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Basic Grammar and Punctuation Guidelines

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Professional writing requires that you follow the appropriate rules of grammar and punctuation.

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Basic Spelling Guidelines

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Good spelling skills take time to acquire. Many words sound exactly alike but are spelled differently and have different meanings. Spell check in word processing programs can be a great asset, but they have limitations. Medical terminology spell check software should be added to your computer and be updated frequently. You can add medical terms into your computer's spell check dictionary, but make sure that any word you add is spelled correctly!s Spell checks can never be 100% stocked with all the needed terms, especially in the medical profession, as new technologies, medications, and treatments arise daily. Remember, spell check will not recognize words that are spelled correctly but misused. Even if you use spell check, you should proofread your document for other errors.

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Accuracy

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Many of the medical documents or letters that you will write contain information that requires precision, accuracy, and careful attention to details. Inaccurate information in some letters can lead to injury of a patient and lawsuits and can harm the physician's practice. some of your letters will be placed in the patient's permanent medical record. Most letters will start with the physician asking you to draft a letter. He or she may or may not give you some notes to follow. He or she may dictate the letter. Either way, your responsibility in typing the letter is to be as accurate as possible and to question anything about which you are unsure.

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What are three consequences that could arise from inaccurate information in a business letter?

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Inaccurate information in a business letter can lead to injuries to the patient and lawsuits and can harm the physician's practice.

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Punctuation

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Period (.) - used at the end of sentences and following some abbreviations Comma (,) - used to separate words or phrases that are part of a series of three or more. The final comma before "and" may be omitted. A comma can also be used after a long introductory clause or to separate independent clauses joined by and, but, yet, or, and nor. Semicolon (;) - used to separate a long list of items in a series and to separate independent clauses not joined by a conjunction. Colon (:) - use to introduce a series of items, to follow formal salutations, and to separate hours from minutes indicating time. Apostrophe (') - use to denote emissions of letters and to denote the possessive case of nouns. Quotation marks (" ") - used to set off spoken dialogue, some titles, and words used in a special way. Parentheses [( )] - use to indicate a part of a sentence that is not part of the main sentence but is essential for the meaning of the sentence. Also use to enclose a number, for confirmation, that is spelled out in a sentence. Ellipsis (...) - used in place of a period to indicate a prolonged continuation of a conversation or list. Also used to display individual items or to connect phrases that are loosely connected. Diagonal (/) - used in abbreviations, dates, fractions, and to indicate two or more options.

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Sentence Structure

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• Avoid long, run-on sentences • A verb must always agree with its subject in number and person. • Ensure the proper pronoun (he or she) is used. • Adjectives should be used when they add an important message. Don't over use adjectives or adverbs. Remember, double negatives use in one sentence make the sentence positive.

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Capitalization

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it is important to know when to capitalize and when to use lowercase letters. Following standard guidelines for using capital letters applies to most correspondence, but there are some exceptions and additional rules when typing medical documents. Never change how a word is capitalized unless directed to do so. Ask for clarification and mark the proof letter with a ? for the physician to assist. • Capitalize the first word in a sentence, proper nouns, the pronoun "I", book titles, and known geographical names. • Names of persons, holidays, and trademark items should be capitalized. • Expressions of time should not be capitalized.

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Abbreviations and Symbols

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Abbreviations and symbols can save time in long handwriting and with typing. When you use abbreviations in medical documents, your reader must be able to recognize or translate the abbreviation. Abbreviations are not used as often as they once were. The possibility of confusion is not worth the time saved by using an abbreviation. When in doubt, spell it out.

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Plural and Possessive

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Converting words to plural or possessive form can be tricky. Most medical terms have a Latin or Greek origin and have their own set of rules for pluralization. You should be accurate because mistakes can cause confusion.

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Numbers

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In general, numbers 1 through 10 should be spelled out, except when used with units of measurement, and numbers over 10 may be expressed as a numeral. When several numbers are used in a sentence, this rule is ignored in order to maintain consistency. All numbers in a sentence should be written in the same form.

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Why should all numbers in a sentence be written in the same way regardless of the rule?

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This practice ensures consistency, a mark of professional writing.

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Professional Letter Development

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Professional writing is different from writing letters to your friends or family members. The goal of professional writing is to get information communicated in a concise, accurate, and comprehensible manner. Slang or idiomatic terms that are commonly used in writing letters to friends are not appropriate for business letters. Writing effective business letters is a skill that requires practice and careful attention to detail. To write a professional business letter, you must: • Understand the components of a letter. • Use the correct letter format. • Ensure that the message is clear, concise, and accurate.

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Components of a Letter

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A typical business letter has 11 components.

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Letterhead

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The letterhead consist of the name of the practice or physician, address, telephone number, fax number, and sometimes the company logo. The letterhead is oftrn embossed in color and centered on the top of the page. The letterhead may also be preset into a template.

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Date

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The date includes the month, day, and year. It should be position two to four spaces below the letterhead. The date must be typed on only one line, and abbreviations should not be used.

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Inside Address

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The inside address refers to the name and address of the person to whom the letter is being sent. A 9-digit zip code should be used if available. The inside address is placed two spaces down from the date unless the letter is being mailed with a window envelope and it will not be aligned correctly. Never abbreviate city or town names. States can be abbreviated.

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Subject Line

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The subject line, an optional component, is used to state the intent of a letter or to indicate what the letter is regarding. It is placed on the third line below the inside address and is written as Re:

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Salutation

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The salutation is the greeting of the letter. It is placed two spaces down from the inside address or the subject line. Capitalize the first letter of each word in the phrase, and end the phrase with a colon. It is permissible to eliminate the saltation if the letter is formal or if a subject line has been used. When writing to a physician, write out the word doctor.

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Body of the Letter

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The body of the letter contains the message. It should be single-spaced with double spacing between the paragraphs.

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Closing

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The closing concludes the letter. Some common closings are Sincerely, Yours truly, Regards, Respectfully, and Cordially yours. Only the first word is capitalized, and a comma follows the phrase. Closing are placed two spaces down from the end of the letter. Never put the closing alone on a page.

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Signature and Typed Name

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The name of the person sending the document is typed four spaces below the closing, with the person's title typed directly below. The physician will read and sign the letter above the typed name. If you are instructed to sign the letter, sign the physician's name followed by a slash mark with your name. Example: Susan James, MD / Reyna Smith, CCMA

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Identification Line

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The identification line, an optional component, indicates who dictated the letter and who wrote it. It consists of abbreviations only. The initials of the person who dictated the letter are capitalized (generally the physician); the initials of the writer of the letter are in lowercase (generally these will be yours). The identification line can also be called the reference line.

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Enclosure

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An enclosure is something that is included with the letter. It is abbreviated Enc. and is placed two spaces down from the identification line. The number of documents included is placed in parentheses; if only one document is included, just the abbreviation Enc. is used.

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Copy

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The abbreviation c: is used to indicate that a duplicate letter has been sent. It is typed two spaces below the enclosure line. Usually, letters are copied to managers, supervisors, or to the physician who requested that the given information be dispersed.

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Letter Formats

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There are three basic types of letter formats: full block, semiblock, and block. Office policy or the physician preferences will dictate which format you use.

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Whose address is typed as the inside address? What is the purpose of the salutation? What is the purpose of the identification line?

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The inside address is the address of the person to whom the letter is going. The salutation is the greeting. The identification line shows the initials of the person who dictated the letter and the initials of the person who typed the letter.

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Composing a Business Letter

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To create a professional business letter, follow these three steps: preparation, composition, and editing.

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Composition

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The goal of composition is to ensure that your message is transmitted clearly, concisely, and accurately to your reader. As you did during preparation, focus on the message, not on the mechanics. A clear message ensures that your reader knows precisely what is expected, an unclear message leaves room for doubt. A concise message is short and to the point. Wordy phrases with many adjectives should not be used. An accurate message includes the correct date, time, figures, and information. Inaccurate messages cause delays and confusion and can lead to poor public relations.

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Editing

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After you have composed the letter, edit it for both grammatical errors and factual information. Editing is a key step in making your letter a success. Editing entails two steps; proofreading and corrections.

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Proofreading

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Whenever possible, have a colleague proof read your letter and provide constructive criticism. Be sure to maintain confidentiality. If you are using a computer, consider printing out a hard copy of your document for proofreading, some individuals find it difficult to proof read a document on the computer screen. Checking for the following items: • Accuracy of all information • Clarity and conciseness • Grammar • Spelling • Punctuation • Paragraph appropriate in length and limited to one subject • Capitalization • Logical organization and flow. Use proofreader's marks to speed up the editing process. These are standard marks used to indicate corrections. You should become familiar with these basic marks.

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Corrections

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After making corrections, print a final copy of the letter. Remember, a computer spell check should be used with caution because it highlights misspelled words but not incorrectly used words.

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What is the purpose of proofreading?

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Proofreading allows you to check the accuracy and content of the letter.

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Types of Business Letters

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You will be asked create an type various letters. Letters that you write will be sent to patients, insurance companies, other healthcare providers, pharmaceutical company, and various businesses. here are some common type of letters that you may write: • Letters welcoming new patients to the practice. • Letters to patients regarding their test results. • Consultation reports to other healthcare professionals. • Workers' Compensation letters verifying the patient's injury or treatment. • Justification or explanation of treatments to insurance companies. • Cover letters for transferring patients' records to another practice. • Clarification or explanation to patients regarding fees or billing concerns. • Thank you letters to sales representatives. • Physician changes for on-call schedules (generally sent to the hospital and covering physicians) • Announcements of new services, hours, or office location changes

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Memorandum Development

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A memorandum (often called a memo) is for communication within the office or with another department only; it is never sent to patients. It is less formal than a letter and is generally used for brief announcements.

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Components of a Memorandum

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A memorandum contains the standard elements in the following list 1. Heading The word memorandum is typed across the top of the page. 2. Date Use the same rules for letters when typing the date for memorandum. 3. To: List the names of all recipients in either alphabetical order hierarchy order. If the memorandum is going to a particular group, it can be addressed to that group. 4. From: List the name and title of the person sending the memorandum. 5. Subject Insert a brief phrase describing the purpose of the memorandum. 6. Body Write the message of the memorandum here. 7. Copy (c) Use the same rules as for letters when sending duplicate copies of memorandums. Salutations and closings are not use in memorandums. All lines in the memorandum are justified left, and 1 inch margins are used. Writing a memorandum entails the same steps (preparation, composition, editing) as writing a business letter. The memorandum should be read and initial by the physician before it is distributed. Your computer software will have a memorandum template.

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What are memorandums used for?

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Memorandums are used for communication within the office and with other departments.

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Composing Agendas and Minutes

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Two other forms of written communication are agendas and minutes.

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Agendas

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The purpose of an agenda is to outline briefly but topics to be discussed at a meeting. It allows the meeting participants to prepare any necessary reports before the meeting and to anticipate questions. Agendas usually begin with a call to order, followed by a review of previous meeting minutes, old business updates, and then new business. Adjournment is the last item on the agenda. The format and amount of detail included in an agenda is determined by the type of group that is meeting.

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Minutes

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The minutes of a meeting outline the actions of the group. Members may need to refer back to the minutes of a previous meeting. In organizations with officers, the secretary takes notes and/or records the meeting. For other meetings such as committee or board meetings, someone is assigned the task of preparing the minutes. You should type the minutes of a meeting as soon as possible. Record only motions, seconds, and the results of a vote. You may include a brief discussion of the motions, but do not include unrelated items, opinions, or individual members' statements. The minutes of a meeting become an important document in the association's history. Include the following information: • List of members present. • List of members absent. • Date and time the meeting was called to order. • Statement regarding the acceptance of the previous minutes. • Motions made and the name of the person making the motion. • Brief report of discussion. • Results of voting, whether the motion passed or not. • List of reports that are submitted. • Date and time of the next meeting. • Adjournment time. • Signature of the person who prepared the minutes and the Chairman's signature.

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Be Careful What You Report in the Minutes

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Remember, you are recording the happenings of a meeting that will stay on record for years. The minutes of a meeting should not include personal opinions or any information that is not relevant to the business of the group. The purpose of minutes is to record the actions that took place at the meeting.

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Sending Written Communication

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After the document has been written, proofread, and signed, it is ready for you to send it to its receiver. Fold the letter in thirds, and place it in an envelope. Most professional letters are sent through the postal service. Other types of written communication are sent through fax machines or by email. Here are two key steps to remember when sending any type of written communication: • All attempts must be made to ensure patient confidentiality. The outside of envelopes should be marked confidential when the correspondence contains information about a patient. Send letters only to known or confirmed addresses. • Return addresses must be use so that mail can be returned if the recipient is no longer at the given address.

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Facsimile Machines

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Fax machines allow the medical office to send and receive printed material over a phone line. These machines offer a convenient and cost-effective way to transmit records, orders, prescriptions, test results, and other materials that require quick receipt. Always use a cover sheet when sending papers through a fax machine. At minimum, a cover sheet should have the following information: • Name, address, telephone number, and fax number of the physicians practice. • Name of the intended receiver of the fax. • Number of pages being sent, counting the cover sheet. • Telephone number of the fax machine of the intended recipient. • Date and time the fax was sent. • Confidentiality statement. When you receive a fax, forward it to the appropriate person. The fax machine should be checked regularly throughout the day, and all items should be sorted quickly. Sometimes when you fax a given letter, the fax machine may be busy, or the number dialed may be busy. If the number is busy, it is not acceptable to leave the fax paper in the machine for redial unless you are sure that no one else will have access to that document. Never leave documents unattended.

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Electronic Mail

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Electronic mail, or email, allows computer to computer communications, weather within the same facility or anywhere throughout the world. The communication occurs through a modem. Each computer must be linked to an online service provider. Here are a few things you should remember about sending letters via electronic mail: • Confidentiality cannot be guarantee. • Follow the usual steps of prrparation, composition, and editing. • You can attached letters to an email by clicking on the file attachment icon, locating the letter, and inserting it. It is always a good idea to open the attachment to make sure that you are attaching the correct letter or version.

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United States Postal Service

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Written communication is commonly sent via United States Postal Service. Envelopes must be correctly prepared so that the Optical Character Reader used by the USPS can sort the mail quickly and efficiently. The OCR reads the envelope, scanning for information. The OCR scans all envelopes using these margins: 1/2 inch on either side and 5/8 inch from the top or bottom of the envelope. Addresses or notations outside of these margins will not be read.

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Addressing Envelopes

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The standard business envelope is no. 10. USPS regulations state that the minimum size of an envelope is 3 1/2 by 5 inches. It must be rectangular and no less than 0.007 inches thick. The standard no. 10 business envelope is 4 1/8 by 9 1/2 inches. The requirements for addressing an envelope are necessary because the Postal Service uses Optical Character Reader, which quickly and efficiently sorts the mail. As the mail travels through the scanning devices, it is sorted electronically. The return address is placed in the upper left hand corner. It should not exceed 5 lines. The return address is typed with the same guidelines as for letters and is single spaced. Often, medical offices have the return address preprinted on the envelope. The recipient's address is typed 12 spaces down from the top and centered on the face of the envelope. All words of the address should be capitalized. Only postal abbreviations for States should be used, and no punctuation is used between the postal abbreviation and the zip code. All addresses must include the 5-digit zip code whenever possible, the 4-digit expanded zip code should also be used. The expanded zip code allows the USPS to sort and route mail faster and more accurately. Envelopes should not be handwritten, as this does not portray a professional image. The entire address should not exceed five lines. Your software may allow you to insert a USPS PostNet ba rcode. This is generally inserted two to three lines below the address. This bar code accelerates USPS sorting. Always check your software to make sure it is certified by the USPS.

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What does an Pptical Character Reader do?

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The USPS uses Optical Character Readers to quickly and efficiently sort the mail electronically.

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Affixing Postage

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Proper postage must be affixed to the envelope buy a stamp, permit imprint, or a postage meter machine. Postage meter machines are in-house machines that are regulated by the USPS. They contain a prepaid amount of postage and can imprint the postage stamp either directly on the envelope or onto an adhesive tape that is applied to the envelope. Some machines weigh, stuff, and seal the envelope. The date on the postage machine must be change daily, and the ink roller must be kept full. The physician may opt to use the USPS permit imprint program. In this case, you take the mail, sealed and ready to be sent, to the post office. The postal clerk passes the letters through the USPS machine, and a permit stamp is placed on the envelope. The postal clerk deducts the postage charges from your prepaid account. The advantages to this system are that it saves time and does not require the office to care for the postal meter machine.

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USPS Mailing Options

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Mail can be sent in a variety of ways based on its urgency and value. The following is a brief description of the services offered by the USPS: • Express Mail, the fastest service, ensures delivery of your package by the next day. Express Mail is delivered 7 days a week. Express Mail is automatically insured for $500. Additional insurance is available. • Priority Mail, the second fastest service, offers 2-day delivery to most destinations. The maximum weight is 70 pounds, and the maximum size is 108 inches combined length and girth. The rate is based on the weight of the package. You can purchase up to $5,000 of insurance for packages. • First-Class Mail is the service used for sending standard mail (letters and postcards) weighing up to 13 ounces. Mail weighing more than 13 ounces will be considered Priority Mail. • Standard Mail (A) is used by companies to mail books and catalogs. Standard Mail (B) is used to mail packages weighing more than one pound. The maximum weight is 70 pounds, and the maximum measurement is 130 inches combined length and girth. • Postal rates, fees, and services are subject to change. You must stay abreast of the latest information. Use the USPS website for additional information and updates.

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USPS Special Services

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A certificate of mailing is used to prove that a document was mailed. No record is kept at the post office. It does not provide proof that the letter was received by the addressee. Certified mail provides a mailing receipt and a record of the mailing at the local post office. This service is available for First-Class and Priority Mail. Return receipts can be purchased in conjunction with this. Return receipts are used to prove that the recipient received the document. Registered mail provides the most protection for valuables. It is available only for Priority and First-Class mail. The maximum insurance that can be obtained is $25,000. This service can be combined with return receipts. International rates are available from your local post office. Type the address as discussed earlier, and type the name of the country on the last line without abbreviations. All physician's offices should have a supply of Express and Priority Mail envelopes along with a current fee schedule.

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Other Delivery Options

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Many other companies specialize in document and package delivery, particularly with next day or second day delivery services. Examples of these companies include Airborne Express, Federal Express (FedEx), and United Parcel Services (UPS). Use the company with which the physician has an account. Fees vary, so you may have to contact each company for prices and available services. These companies offer services such as tracking, pick-up services, money back guarantees, and proof of delivery. The tracking service can be done through their website.

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Receiving and Handling Incoming Mail

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Part of the daily routine for a medical assistant is handling the incoming mail. Sort the mail quickly and promptly to ensure efficient functioning of the office.

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Types of Incoming Mail

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Many types of mail are receive daily in the physician's office. • Advertisements • Bill for office services • Consultation letters • Hospital communications and newsletters • Laboratory and radiographic reports • Office supply magazines • Patient correspondences • Payments from insurance companies and patients • Professional journals • Literature from professional organizations • Samples (drugs, laboratory test kits) • Waiting room magazines

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Opening and Sorting Mail

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Each physician will have an individual policy on which mail you should open and how you should process it. Any mail marked urgent should be handled first, followed by mail about patient-related issues. Promotional material should be handled last. Some physicians will have you sort, file, and respond to mail without their review. In some practices, however, all mail is place in a special file folder and handled only by the physician or office manager. Most physicians will open and handle their own mail. If the physician is on vacation, he or she will apply an auto reply response to his or her email address. When the physician is away, personal mail is placed on his or her desk and left for the physician to handle when they return. Mail that pertains to patient care issues should be opened and handled appropriately. Ask your supervisor if you are unsure which pieces of mail you should open. If the mail requires an urgent response, the covering physician should be contacted unless otherwise directed. Mail should never be allowed to accumulate inside mailboxes because patient information is confidential.

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What mail must be opened first?

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Annotation

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Some physicians request that letters be annotated. Annotation involves reading a document and highlighting the key points. If the letter is very detailed, a summary of the key points should be written in the margins. The summary should be factual and not editorialized.

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Date And Time First Class Mail Goods And Services

USPS Exam 421 Window Clerk – Flashcards 112 terms

Cara Robinson

112 terms

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USPS Exam 421 Window Clerk – Flashcards

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End to end process to ensure mail is collected, distributed and delivered the type of clock the usps runs on

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24 hour clock

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Items sent within the US APO, FPO, UN, and its territories and possessions.

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Domestic mail

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sets forth the policies, regulations and procedures governing domestic mail

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DMM- Domestic Mail Manual

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sets forth policies, regulations, and procedures governing international mail

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IMM- International Mail Manual

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contains policies and procedures for administrative ad support functions within the postal service

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ASM-Administrative and Support Manual

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all manuals are found on line via?

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Policy Net

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Guarantees overnight or next day delivery $100 insurance and free tracking

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Express Mail

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Premier Shipping service of the USPS

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Express Mail

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Fast and affordable max 70lbs $50 insurance another premier shipping service of the USPS 2-3 DAYS delivery

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Priority Mail

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Bulk mail usually handled at distribution centers

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Parcel Select

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Merchant pays postal fee returning merchandise bulk parcel return product

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Parcel Return Services

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First class mail, periodicals, standard mail, package services

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Mailing services

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proof of mailing uses PS Form 3800

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Certified Mail

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Provides up to $5000 in coverage extra service requires PS Form 3813 or 3813-p

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Insured Mail

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Provides date and time of delivery, free when you purchase Priority mail now called USPS Tracking

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Delivery Confirmation

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POM

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Postal Operations Manual

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Official Source for updates and updated bi-weekly

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Postal bulletin

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Does this package contain anything liquid, fragile, potentially hazardous' such as/like perfume or lithium batteries?

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6 Part of HAZMAT question

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Tells you when and how to display the POW flag

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Postal Bulletin

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POW

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Prisoner of War

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Bears only stamps as postage weights more than 13 oz and was not excepted at retail counter.

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Anonymous Mail

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PVI

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Postage Validation Imprinter

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AMU

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Anonymous Mail Unit

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DDD1

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Weighs less than 13 oz

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DDD2

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Weighs more than 13 oz

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Magazines, newspaper, must be printed at least 4x's times a year from a creditable organization

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Periodicals

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Parcel post, bonded printed matter media mail, library mail

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package services

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printed matter weighs less than 16 oz must pay annual presort fee min. of 200 pieces or over 50 lbs

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Standard Mail

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can be used for gifts weighs up to 70lbs measures max of 130in price based on weigh distance and shape

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Parcel Post

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Delivery time 2-3 days( not guaranteed )

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Priority Mail

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Delivery time 1-2 days ( overnight and next day ) * Guaranteed

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Express mail ( Priority Mail Express )

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Letters size max

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6 1/8in in height and 11 1/2in in length max 1/4in in thickness

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Flats size max

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15in in length and 12in in height and 3/4in in thickness

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Machinable Parcels

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min 3in max 17in weight 6 oz min and 25lbs max

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Rolls that are longer than machinable parcels

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Irregular Parcels

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How many zones

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effects zones 1-4 piece weighs less than 20lbs but longer than 84in and is charged the 20lb price

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Balloon Price

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Effects zones 5-8 can't exceed 1728cu ft max 108in in girth

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Dimensional Price

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How often is the Postal bulletin printed

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Bi-weekly

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Where do we find a list of lost or stolen MO (money orders)

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Postal Bulletin and POS

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Postal Service___________ are available online and provide guidance on regulations for domestic/international/administrative/personnel fields support?

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Directives

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Priority Mail is delivered in

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2-3 days

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any mailable item that weighs less than 13 oz

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First Class Mail

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Global Express Guarantee (GXG) is shipped in

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1-3 days

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No mail piece can weigh more than except standard post

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70lbs

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EDDM

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Every Door Direct Mail

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Express mail is delivered in

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1-2 days

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what surcharge applies to items/parcels over 108 but no more than 130in

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oversize /parcel post

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PS Form 3816

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COD

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PS Form 3816-AS

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More than 3 COD articles are mailed at one time

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Parcel Post and zones 5-8 larger than 1 cubic foot use

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Dimensional Pricing

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Ensures that mail is delivered to a specific addressee or the addressee agent for a fee

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Restricted delivery

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Post Office motto for providing the ideal customer experience

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Clean, Stocked, and Friendly Everyday

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What are the three P's that influence customer perception

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Personal, Professional, Postal

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What does G.I.S.T. stand for

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Greet, Inquiry, Suggest, and Thank

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Words that generate a negative feeling

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Trigger Words

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Words that make us feel relaxed and composed

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Calming Words

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What does POS stand for

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Point of Service

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Postal Bulletin, Retail Digest, LMS, Emails, service talks, postal message center, news link are all

answer

Retail Communication Channels

question

SSK, ATM, Stamps by mail, USPS.COM, CPU, Village post offices, mobile retail units, stamps-to-go, stamps by phone, approved shippes,

answer

10 expanded access channels

question

PS Form 1412

answer

End of the day report

question

SSA is accountable for ______ at the retail floor

answer

$100 in cash(AIC753) and blank money orders

question

Available at designated PO for transients and people waiting to get PO Boxes and the mail is help for a max of 30 days unless extended my Postmaster

answer

General Delivery

question

SIA

answer

Segmented Inventory Accountability

question

what credit is it when the stock custodian holds unit resolve and transfer to retail floor SSA and the abbreviation for it

answer

SIA - Segmented Inventory Accountability

question

on the due date a PO Box powered mail is distributed to the box but not delivered

answer

1st day of the month (10 day grace period)

question

on this day a reminder letter is generated from webbats and placed in the PO Box

answer

20th day

question

on this day the PO Box is returned to sender

answer

11th day

question

When customer goes on vacation the post office can hold their mail for a max of

answer

30 days

question

What does RCE stand for

answer

Retail Customer Experience

question

Max weight for a 1st class letter

answer

13 oz

question

PS Form 3849

answer

Delivery Notice/Reminder/Receipt

question

PS Form 153

answer

Signature Confirmation

question

PS Form 152

answer

Delivery Confirmation

question

How often is the Retail floor stocked

answer

Bi-weekly

question

SSA are audited for SIA how often

answer

quarterly

question

what does BMEU

answer

Business mail entry Unit

question

PS Form 3800

answer

Certified Mail Receipt

question

PS Form 8105-B

answer

Reporting Suspicious Transaction

question

PS Form 8105-A

answer

Completed by the customer when purchasing more than $3,000 in money orders or cashed money orders of $10,000 or more.

question

Insurance claims should be filed no later than

answer

60 days

question

Anonymous Mail is separated at

answer

AMU

question

Change of address takes how long to complete

answer

5 days

question

Refunds should be requested within how may days

answer

30 days

question

Stamps are replenished how often

answer

weekly

question

Commercial mail or Business related mail customers must be processed by what unit

answer

BMEU

question

Customers are charge what fee to pay to have their PO Box back after the 10th day

answer

late fee or lock change fee of $21

question

Customers can check their claim online after how many days

answer

question

A second or finally notice is issued after how many calendar days from the first attempted delivery of certified mail article

answer

5 days

question

PS Form 3816 COD must show

answer

the article number

question

How many bait many orders does the SSA get assigned to and where are they kept

answer

3 and they are kept under the largest currency bill in the draw

question

Units with Individual accountability have fixed credits/stamps and are audited how often

answer

every 4 months

question

BSA IS

answer

Bank secrecy Act a law that requires every business that provides financial services to report these transactions

question

what are the two types of money orders and their colors

answer

Domestic- green and International - pink

question

Money orders can be purchased with

answer

cash, travelers check, credit and debit cards

question

RCE stands for

answer

Retail Customer Experience

question

What is the main benefit of the RCE Program

answer

Test the skill of our retail work force through the eyes of our customer (mystery shopper)

question

The post website is

answer

usps.com

question

Does the post office give cash back if so how much

answer

yes, as long as they purchase something up to $50 in $10 increments

question

POW flags are given

answer

for burial purposes

question

What class of mail does the PO have a monopoly on

answer

Mailing services

question

Perceptions is _____________

answer

reality

question

What is the time limit that COD undeliverable packages can be held for

answer

30 days

question

Certified Mailing may be only used with what type of mail class

answer

First Class or Priority

question

Provides preferential handling to the extent practicable in dispatch it does not provide preferential delivery usually used for honey bees live poultry

answer

Special Handling

question

caller services are done for how long

answer

6 month period

question

PO Box customers are issued how many keys

answer

question

The postmaster can cancel Firm Holdout if

answer

the mail pieces fall below 50 pieces each day for a 30 day period or the mail is not picked up within 10 consecutive days

question

AIC

answer

Account Identifier Code

question

Used to aid postal inspection service in postal burglary and robbery investigations

answer

Bait Money Orders

question

Can forward mail for up to how long

answer

12 months

question

How long is a change of address kept on file

answer

18 months

STUDY

American Sign Language First Class Mail Managed Care Plan

Certified Medical Administrative Assistant – Flashcards 263 terms

Elizabeth Mcdonald

263 terms

Preview

Certified Medical Administrative Assistant – Flashcards

question

Medical Assistant Duties & Responsibilities

answer

Telephone coverage, scheduling, maintenance of medical records, management of all correspondences

question

Qualities of a Medical Assistant

answer

Dependability, courtesy, initiative, interpersonal skills

question

Medical Profession Liability

answer

The physician-patient relationship is an implied contract in which the physician is expected to assess & treat the pt with the same amount of knowledge, skill, & judgement as another physician under the same circumstances.

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Rules that must be followed under physician-patient relationship

answer

1.Patient is expected to compensate the physician for all services provided 2. The patient is expected to adhere to any directions/guidance provided by the physician 3. If the physician terminates the contract, the pt must be provided with advance notice of these intentions as well as given enough time to seek the services of another physician.

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Consent To Treat

answer

Once the physician-patient relationship has been entered, the physician must have consent to treat the patient. In most cases, the patient's implied consent is apparent through their action of seeking the services of the physician. In certain situations, the patient's informed consent is necessary, in a written form that states their understanding of the prescribed treatment as well as its risks.

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Good Samaritan Act

answer

States that a volunteer is not held liable for any civil damages that may occur as a result of their efforts to provide emergency care.

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Patient's Bill of Rights

answer

Developed to ensure the fairness and effectiveness of the healthcare system, as well as to encourage people to take an interest in the improvement of their health. -8 sections -Patient is provided with a copy on first visit, or it is visibly posted within the facility.

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HIPPA Patient Privacy Rule

answer

Establishes regulations for the use & disclosure of PHI and mandates that all patients be provided a copy of privacy polices when treated in a doctor's office or when admitted to any HCF (health care facility).

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Vocabulary

answer

1. Abandonment: The discontinuation of medical care without proper notice. 2. Arbitration: The usage of an impartial third party for the hearing and determination of a dispute. 3. Battery: The unlawful use of force or violence. 4. Negligence: The failure to provide the necessary care that is required. Statutes: Laws enacted by the legislative branch of a government.

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Phone Etiquette: Steps to ensure proper phone etiquette

answer

1. Answer promptly & kindly 2. Properly speak into phone 3. Give caller undivided attention 4. Speak clearly & distinctly 5. Be courteous 6. Ask permission before placing on hold if necessary. 7. Never get upset at an angry caller; remain calm & composed.

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Verbal & Nonverbal Communication

answer

Verbal: The use of words spoken; sounds, words, speaking, & language Nonverbal: Eye contact, body language, facial expressions, symbolic expressions.

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Appointments: Considerations when selecting an appointment book

answer

Size in consideration of desk space available, accommodation of # of appointments made, comfort for writing, space for details necessary.

question

Usage of Matrix

answer

Times physician is not available, hospital rounds, meetings, days off, holidays, breaks for meals.

question

Types of Scheduling: Wave Scheduling

answer

Usually see 4 patients an hour. All are scheduled for the top of the hour, and are seen in order of their arrival.

question

Modified Wave

answer

In 1 hour time frame; two patients are given own specific time, and two are told to arrive at the same time (e.g., 10:30)

question

Double Booking

answer

2 or more patients scheduled with the same physician at the same time, overbooking. Not good schedule planning; causes many delays.

question

Scheduling New Patients

answer

1. Obtain and verify general information 2. Gather appropriate information regarding a patient referral (if applicable) 3. Determine patient's cc (chief complaint). 4. Make patient aware of various dates & times available to be seen. 5. Enter appropriate time for appointment. 6. Determine financial arrangements (insurance, cash, etc.). 7. Provide directions as needed. 8. Verify information and appointment time/date.

question

Scheduling Conflicts

answer

1.Late patients: Advise to arrive 30 minutes prior to appointment time. 2.Emergency Calls: Arrangements made to be seen same day if available 3.Cancelled Appointments: Remove original time, schedule new appointment. 4.Unscheduled Patients: Accommodate as best as possible, ensure patient that making appointment is the best way to ensure care. 5.Failed appointments: Notate in patient's chart and appointment book, and attempt to reschedule. 6.Delayed patient wait time: Explain reason (without giving too much detail) and provide patient with the option to reschedule if desired by the patient.

question

Types of Mail

answer

1. Express Mail: available 365 days per year, for items up to 70lbs in weight, and up to 108" in height. 2. First Class Mail: letters, postal cards, postcards, and business reply mail 3. Priority Mail: First Class mail weighing more than 13oz. 4. Certified Mail: proof of delivery 5. Bulk Mailing: mailing large volumes of information which is presorted by zipcode.

question

Health Insurance: Verification of Insurance Benefits

answer

1. Identify type of insurance or managed care plan. 2. Make copies of card; front and back. 3. Call carrier to verify services and benefits. 4. Record this information in medical record and VOB (verification of benefits) form. 5. Provide patient with form listing requirements and restrictions of plan, and have them read and sign the form. 6. Collect deductible/co-payment if applicable.

question

Types of Health Insurance

answer

1. Individual Policies: Usually ineligible to receive government paln; high premiums and limited benefits. 2. Group Policies: Provides coverage for employees under a single contract. This type of coverage is characterized by greater benefits, and low premiums. 3. Government Plans: Available to large groups of people who meet specific eligibility criteria. TRICARE, Medicare, Medicaid, and Worker's Compensation are examples.

question

Insurance Terms

answer

1. Assignment of Benefits: An arrangement by which a patient requests that their health benefit payments be made directly to the physician. 2. Benefit: The amount payable by the carrier toward the cost of services for which the patient is eligible for. 3. Deductible: The amount an individual must pay for health care expenses before insurance covers the cost. 4. Co-payment: The portion of a service fee that the patient must pay. 5. Policy: A document that describes the insurance coverage for an individual or property. 6. Premium: The amount the patient pays for an insurance contract.

question

Usual, Customary, and Reasonable (UCR) or Covered Expenses

answer

An amount customarily charged for or covered for similar services and supplies which are medically necessary, recommended by a doctor, or required for treatment.

question

Waiting Period

answer

A period of time when you are not covered by insurance for a particular reason or problem.

question

Medical Records Management: Creating a Medical Record

answer

1. Determine if new or established patient. 2. Obtain required general information. 3. Enter the information into patient history form. 4. Review the form for accuracy 5. Enter patient's name into computerized ledger 6. Assemble forms, prepare folder, and file.

question

Components of the Medical Record

answer

1. Personal and Medical History: Past illnesses, surgical operations, patient's daily health habits. 2. Patient's Family History: Health/diseases of family members and a record of causes of death. 3. Patient's Social History: Included information regarding the patient's lifestyle: e.g., tobacco use, alcohol use, drug use. 4. Patient's CC (Chief Complaint): A statement of the patient's symptoms. 5. Diagnosis: A decision made based on the information regarding the patient's history and the results of the doctor's examination.

question

SOAP approach to documenting

answer

A format for progress notes based on the letters of the word SOAP. S: Subjective Impressions: given by patient O: Objective Clinical Evidence: test results, observed A: Assessment/Diagnosis: probably diagnosis P: Plans for further studies, treatment, or management: treatment

question

SOMR record organization

answer

Source-Oriented Medical Record. Divided into sections: Laboratory, progress notes, etc. In chronological order, most recent is on top in each section.

question

POMR record organization

answer

Problem-Oriented Medical Record. Problems are numbered. Has database: Demographics, profile history, cc, past assessments and test results; Treatment plan: procedures, medications, instructions; Progress notes: continuous care notes.

question

Filing: Indexing Rules

answer

1. last name, first name, middle/initial. 2. Hyphenated portion of name is one unit. Ex: Anna Smith-Meyer = Smithmeyer, Anna. 3. Apostrophes are NOT used in filing. 4. Titles and terms of seniority are only used to distinguish from an identical name. 5. When indexing a company, articles such as "the" and "a" are not used. Ex: The Mandarin Office = Mandarin Office

question

Alphabetical Filing

answer

Folders are arranged in the same sequence of the alphabet. Ensure the filing cabinet has enough space for proper distribution of files within each letter.

question

Numerical Filing

answer

An alphabetic cross-reference is used to categorize materials with digits. Patients are assigned in a consecutive order. Records are filed backwards in groups. Ex: Terminal digit filing.

question

Subject Filing

answer

Either an alphabetic or alphanumeric code is assigned to general correspondence.

question

Tickler File

answer

A collection of date labeled file folders used as a reminder for time sensitive matters or other important information. Used as a follow up method. Checked daily.

question

Medical Terminology

answer

Combining forms, prefixes, and suffixes

question

Arthr/o

answer

joint

question

Bi/o

answer

Life

question

Cardi/o

answer

heart

question

Carcin/o

answer

cancerous

question

Cephal/o

answer

head

question

Cerebr/o

answer

cerebrum

question

Cyt/o

answer

cell

question

Denti/o

answer

teeth

question

Derm/o

answer

skin

question

Electr/o

answer

electrical activity

question

Enter/o

answer

intestines

question

Fet/o

answer

fetus

question

Gastr/o

answer

stomach

question

Hepat/o

answer

liver

question

Iatr/o

answer

treatment, physician

question

Leuk/o

answer

white

question

Nephr/o

answer

kidney

question

Oste/o

answer

bone

question

Path/o

answer

disease

question

Ren/o

answer

kidney

question

Rhin/o

answer

nose

question

Sarc/o

answer

flesh

question

Thromb/o

answer

clotting

question

Ur/o

answer

urinary tract

question

-al

answer

pertaining to

question

-algia

answer

pain

question

-dynia

answer

pain

question

-ectomy

answer

excision, removal

question

-emia

answer

blood condition

question

-genic

answer

produced by/ pertaining to producing

question

-globin

answer

protein

question

-itis

answer

inflammation of

question

-oma

answer

tumor

question

-osis

answer

condition, usually abnormal

question

-pathy

answer

disease condition

question

-sis

answer

state of; condition

question

-ectomy

answer

removal of

question

-graphy

answer

process of recording

question

-metry

answer

process of measurement

question

-scopy

answer

a visual examination

question

-stomy

answer

a new opening

question

-tomy

answer

incision

question

-tripsy

answer

process of crushing

question

-graph

answer

instrument for recoring

question

-meter

answer

instrument to measure

question

-scope

answer

instrument to visually or aurally examine

question

-tome

answer

instrument to cut

question

-tripter

answer

instrument to crush

question

-trite

answer

instrument to crush

question

Ante-

answer

before, in front of

question

Anti-

answer

against

question

Brady-

answer

slow

question

Dia-

answer

through, complete

question

End-, Endo-

answer

within

question

Epi-

answer

above, upon

question

Hyper-

answer

excessive, above

question

Hypo-

answer

deficient, below

question

Peri-

answer

around, surrounding

question

Pre-

answer

before

question

Sub-

answer

below, under

question

Body Systems

answer

Systems are groups of organs working together to perform complex functions. Viscera is the term for internal organs.

question

Musculoskeletal System

answer

Functions: support, movement, protection. Organs: muscles, bones, joints, bone marrow.

question

Integumentary System

answer

Functions: protection Organs: skin, hair, nails

question

Gastrointestinal System

answer

Functions: nutrition Organs: stomach, intestines

question

Urinary System

answer

Functions: elimination of nitrogenous waste Organs: kidneys, bladder, ureters, urethra

question

Reproductive System

answer

Functions: reproduction Organs: ovaries, testes

question

Blood/Lymphatic System

answer

Functions: transportation Organs: blood cells

question

Immune System

answer

Functions:protection Organs: lymph glands

question

Cardiovascular System

answer

Functions: transportation Organs: heart, vessels

question

Respiratory System

answer

Functions: delivers oxygen to cells and removes carbon dioxide Organs: lungs, bronchi, trachea.

question

Nervous/Behavioral System

answer

Functions: receive/process information Organs: brain, nerves, mind

question

Endocrine System

answer

Functions: effects changes through chemical messengers Organs: pancreas, thyroid

question

Body Cavities

answer

5 Cavaties: Cranial, Spinal, Thoracic, Abdominal, Pelvic

question

Cranial Cavity

answer

Brain; dorsal cavity; on posterior of body.

question

Spinal Cavity

answer

Spinal cord; dorsal cavity; on posterior of body.

question

Thoracic Cavity

answer

Contains two smaller cavities: pleural and mediastinum; ventral cavity; on anterior of body. Pleural: space surrounding each lung. Mediastinum: contains heart, aorta, trachea, etc.

question

Abdominal Cavity

answer

Stomach, small & large intestines, spleen, pancreas, liver, and gallbladder; ventral cavity; on anterior of body.

question

Pelvic Cavity

answer

Rectum, urinary bladder, urethra, ureters; uterus and vagina in females. Ventral cavity; on anterior of body.

question

Abdominal and Pelvic Cavities

answer

There is nothing separating these two cavities. Often referred to as the abdominopelvic cavity.

question

Thoracic and Abdominal Cavities

answer

The diaphragm separates these two cavities.

question

Planes of the Body

answer

Dividing the body into planes or flat surfaces is an additional way to describe the body. (useful in CT scans, MRI, etc.) Sagittal Plane, Midsagittal plane, Frontal plane, Transverse Plane

question

Sagittal Planes

answer

Vertical planes that separate the sides from each other.

question

Midsagittal Plane

answer

Separates the body into right and left halves.

question

Frontal Plane

answer

Divides the body into front and back portions.

question

Transverse Plane

answer

Divides the body horizontally into an upper and lower part.

question

Positional and Directional Terms

answer

1. Anterior (ventral): Front surface of the body. 2. Posterior (dorsal): Back side of the body 3. Deep: Away from the surface 4. Proximal: Near the point of attachment to the the trunk or near the beginning of a structure. 5. Distal: Far from the point of attachment to the trunk or far from the beginning of a structure. 6. Inferior: Below another structure 7. Superior: Above another structure 8. Medial: Middle or near medial plane of the body 9. Lateral: Pertaining to the side 10. Supine: Lying on the back 11. Prone: Lying on the abdomen.

question

Musculoskeletal System

answer

Includes bones, muscles, and joints. Bones are connected to one another by ligaments (fibrous bands on tissue). Muscles are attached to bone by tendons. Acts as a framework for the organs, protects many organs, and provides the ability to move.

question

Bones

answer

Complete organs made up of osseous, a connective tissue. Inner core is comprised of heatopoietic tissue (where red blood marrow manufactures blood cells).

question

Types of Bones

answer

Categorized as belonging to either the axial skeleton or the appendicular skeleton. Axial, appendicular, long bones, short bones, flat bones, sesamoid bones.

question

Axial Bones

answer

Skull, rib cage, and spine

question

Appendicular Bones

answer

Shoulder, collar bone, pelvic, arms, and legs.

question

Long Bones

answer

Very strong, broad at the ends, and large surfaces for muscle attachment ie: humerus and femur.

question

Short Bones

answer

Small with irregular shapes. Found in wrist and ankle.

question

Flat Bones

answer

Covering soft body parts. Shoulder blades, ribs, and pelvic bones.

question

Sesamoid Bones

answer

Small, rounded bones found near joints. Increase efficiency of muscles near a joint. ie: knee cap.

question

Axial Skeleton

answer

Skull, spine, rib cage. Skull is made up of two parts, the cranium and facial bones.

question

Cranial Bones

answer

1. Frontal Bone: forms the anterior part of skull and forehead. 2. Parietal bones: forms the sides of the cranium. 3. Occipital Bone: forms the back of the skull. Large hole @ ventral surface (foramen magnum) which allows the brain communication with the spinal cord. 4. Temporal Bone: forms the two lower sides of the cranium. 5. Ethmoid Bone: forms the roof of the nasal cavity. 6. Sphenoid Bone: anterior to the temporal bones.

question

Facial Bones

answer

1. Zygoma: cheekbone. 2. Lacrimal Bones: paired bones at the corner of the eyes that cradle tear ducts. 3. Maxilla: upper jaw bone. 4. Mandible: lower jaw bone. 5. Vomer: bone that forms the posterior/inferior part of nasal septal wall between nostrils. 6. Palatine Bones: make up part of the roof of the mouth. 7. Inferior Nasal Conchae: make up part of the interior of the nose.

question

Spinal/Vertebral Column

answer

Divided into 5 regions from neck to tailbone. 26 bones in spine called vertebrae. Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccygeal.

question

Cervical

answer

Neck bones

question

Thoracic

answer

Upper back

question

Lumbar

answer

Lower back

question

Sacral

answer

Sacrum

question

Coccygeal

answer

Coccyx (tailbone)

question

Rib Cage

answer

12 pairs of ribs. First 7 pairs join the sternum anteriorly trough cartilaginous attachments called costal cartilages.

question

True Ribs

answer

#1-7. Attach directly to the sternum in the front of the body.

question

False Ribs

answer

#8-10. Are attached to the sternum by cartilage.

question

Floating Ribs

answer

#11 & 12. Not attached at all.

question

Appendicular Skeleton: Upper Appendicular Skeleton

answer

Includes shoulder girdle which is made up of the scapula, clavicle, and upper extremities.

question

Scapula

answer

Shoulder blade; flat bone that helps support the arm.

question

Clavicle

answer

Collarbone; curved horizontal bones that attach to the upper sternum at one end. Helps stabilize the shoulder.

question

Upper Extremities

answer

1. Humerus: Upper arm bone 2. Ulna: Lower medial arm bone 3. Radius: Lateral lower arm bone (in line w/ thumb) 4. Carpals: Wrist bones. 2 rows of 4 bones in each wrist. 5. Metacarpals: Five radiating bones in the fingers; the bones the in the palm. 6. Phalanges: Finger bones. Each finger has 3 phalanges except the thumb. 3 phalanges: proximal, middle, distal phalanx. Thumb has a proximal and a distal phalanx.

question

Lower Appendicular

answer

Divided into the pelvis and the lower extremities. Pelvis, Ischium, and Pubic Bone.

question

Pelvis

answer

Superior and widest bone

question

Ischium

answer

Lower portion of the pelvic bone

question

Pubic Bone

answer

Lower anterior part of the bone.

question

Lower Extremities

answer

1. Femur: thighbone 2. Patella: knee cap 3. Tibia: Shin 4. Fibula: Smaller, lateral leg bone 5. Malleolus: ankle 6. Tarsal: hind foot bone 7. Metatarsal: midfoot bone 8. Phalanx: toe bones, 14 total (2 in large toe, 3 in each other toes)

question

Joints

answer

Parts of the body where 2 or more bones of the skeleton join. Different joints have different ROM (range of movement) ranging from no movement to full ROM.

question

No ROM

answer

Most synarthroses are immovable joints held together by fibrous tissue.

question

Limited ROM

answer

Amphiathroses are joints joined together by cartilage that is slightly moveable, such as the vertebrae of the spine, or the pubic bone.

question

Full ROM

answer

Diathroses are joints that have free movement. Ball-and-socket joints (hip) and hinge joints (knee) are common diathroses joints (synovial joints)

question

Synovial Joints

answer

Free moving joints that are surrounded by joint capsules. many have bursae (sacs of fluid) that are located between the bones of the joint and the tendons that hold the muscles in place.

question

Muscles

answer

Muscles are tissues composed of cells. Have the ability to contact and relax. Has 3 functions. 1. Allow skeleton the move 2. Responsible for movement of organs 3. Pump blood to circulatory system

question

Tendons

answer

Strong fibrous bands of connective tissue that attach muscles to bones.

question

Muscle Actions

answer

1. Extension: to increase the angle of the joint 2. Flexion: to decrease the angle of a joint 3. Abduction: movement away from the midline 4. Adduction: movement towards the midline 5. Supination: turning the palm or foot upward 6. Pronation: turning the palm or foot downward 7. Dorisflexion: raising the foot, pulling toes toward the shin 8. Plantar flexion: lowering the foot, pointing tows away from shin 9. Eversion: turning outward 10. Inversion: turning inward 11. Protraction: moving a part of the body forward 12. Retraction: moving a part of the body backward 13. Rotation: revolving a bone around its axis.

question

Fractures

answer

Broken bone; most occur as a result of trauma; some diseases like cancer or osteoporosis can also cause spontaneous fractures; classified as simple or compound.

question

Simple Fracture

answer

Does not rupture the skin

question

Compound Fracture

answer

Punctures the skin

question

Types of Fractures

answer

1. Comminuted: the bone is crushed and/or shattered. 2. Compression: the fractured area of the bone collapses on itself. 3. Colles: the break of the distal end of the radius at the epiphysis often occurs when the patient has attempted to break his/her fall. 4. Complicated: the bone is broken and pierces an internal organ. 5. Impacted: the bone is broken and the ends are driven into each other. 6. Hairline: a minor fracture appears as a thin line on an x-ray and may not extend completely through the bone. 7. Greenstick: the bone is partially bent and partially broken; common in children because the bones are still soft. 8. Pathologic: any fracture occurring spontaneously as a result of disease. 9. Salter-Harris: a fracture of the epiphyseal plate in children. 10. Sprain: traumatic injury to a joint involving the soft tissue. Includes muscles, tendons, and ligaments. Usually as a result of overuse or overstretching.

question

Integumentary System

answer

The skin and its accessory organs make up the integumentary system. The skin covers an area of 22 sq. ft. on an average adult. Complex system of specialized tissues containing glands, nerves, and blood vessels. main function is to protect the deeper tissues from excessive loss of minerals, heat, & water. Protects body from diseases by providing a barrier. Largest organ in the body.

question

Sebaceous (oil) Glands and Sudoriferous (sweat) glands

answer

Produce secretions that allow the body to be cooled or moisturized. nerve fibers help the body to adjust to the environment by sensory messages relayed to the brain & spinal cord. Also help blood vessels to dilate & sweat glands to produce sweat.

question

Epidermis, Dermis, & Subcutaneous Layer

answer

The 3 layers of the skin.

question

Epidermis

answer

Thin, cellular membrane layer that contains keratin

question

Dermis

answer

Dense, fibrous connective tissue that contains collagen

question

Subcutaneous Layer

answer

Thick, fatty tissue

question

Hair, Nails, and Glands: Hair Fibers

answer

Composed of tightly fused meshwork of cells filled with hard protein called keratin

question

Hair Follicles

answer

The hair has its roots in the dermis & together with their coverings, is hair follicles. Main function of hair is to assist in the regulation of body temp. It holds in heat by standing on end and holding a layer of air as insulation

question

Nails

answer

Cover and protect the dorsal surfaces of the distal bones of the fingers and toes

question

Nail Body

answer

The part of the nail that is visible

question

Nail Root

answer

Under the skin at the base of the nail

question

Nail Bed

answer

Vascular tissue under the nail that appears pink when blood is oxygenated and blue/purple when it is oxygen deficient.

question

Lunula

answer

The moon-like white area at the base of the nail

question

Eponychium

answer

The cuticle of the nail

question

Sebaceous Glands

answer

Located in the dermal layer of the skin over the entire body, except for the palms of the hand, and soles of the feet. Secretes and oily substance called sebum.

question

Sebum

answer

Oily substance that contains lipids that help lubricate the skin and minimize water loss

question

Sweat Glands

answer

Tiny, coiled glands found on almost all body surfaces. Most numerous in palms and soles of feet. Coiled sweat glands originate in the dermis and straighten out to extend up through the epidermis. Two types: eccrine and apocrine sweat glands.

question

Pore

answer

The tiny opening on the surface of the skin

question

Eccrine Sweat Glands

answer

Secreting glands; far more numerous and are abundant on palms, soles of feet and forehead. Each is a simple, coiled, tubular gland. Ducts connect to pores. Sweat: 99% water, NaCl, vitamin C, antibodies, dermcidin, metabolic wastes.

question

Apocrine Sweat Glands

answer

Located mainly in skin of axilla, groin, areolae, and bearded facial regions of adult males, open at hair follicles this sweat is secreted during emotional stress or sexual excitement called "cold sweat"

question

Integumentary Vocabulary

answer

1. Albino: deficient in melanin (pigment) 2. Collagen: Structural protein found in the skin and connective tissue 3. Melanin: Major skin pigment 4. Lipoctye: Fat Cell 5. Macule: discolored, flat lesion, freckles, tattoo marks 6. Polyp: benign growth extending from the surface of the mucous membrane. 7. Fissure: groove or crack-like sore 8. Nodule: solid, round or oval elevated lesion more than 1 cm. in diameter 9. Ulcer: Open sore on the skin or mucous membranes 10. Vesicle: small collection of clear fluid; blister 11. Wheal: smooth, slightly elevated edematous (swollen) area that is redder/paler than the surrounding skin 12. Alopecia: baldness 13. Gangrene: death of tissue associated with loss of blood supply 14. Impetigo: bacterial inflammatory skin disease characterized by lesion, pustules, and vesicles

question

Common Medical Record Abbreviations

answer

ALL: allergy BM: bowel movement bx, bi: biopsy CA: cancer CC or cc: chief complaint CNS: central nervous system CXR: chest x-ray DNR: do not resuscitate Dx: diagnosis ENT: ears, nose, throat Ex, CPX, PE: exam, examination FH: family history f/u: follow-up GI: gastrointestinal HPI: history of present illness Hx: history N/O: no complaints PERRLA: pupils equal/round/reactive to light PH: past history PT: physical therapy Px: prognosis R: respiration ROM: range of movement ROS: review of systems Rx, Tx: treatment, prescription SH: social history SOB: short of breath Sx: symptoms UA: urinalysis VS: vital signs WNL: within normal limits w/o: without

question

Telephone Message

answer

-Name of person whom the call is for -Date and time of call -Name of individual calling -Caller's phone number they wish to be reached at -Detailed reason for call, if caller wishes to leave reason -Action required (call back, Rx refill, etc.) -Initials of person taking the message

question

Size of General Business Correspondence Paper

answer

8.5" x 11"

question

Business Envelope

answer

No. 10

question

E-mail

answer

If patient-related, remains confidential, hard copy placed in patient chart.

question

Contents of Medical Record

answer

-Personal Demographics -Medical History -Progress Notes -Encounter forms/superbills -Radiology Reports -Laboratory Reports -Consultations -Med Sheet including allergies -Hospital Discharge Summaries -Consent and disclosure forms -Insurance authorizations and referrals

question

Making a Handwritten Correction in the Medical Record

answer

-Draw a line through the error -Write "error" or "corr." and initial in margin including date and time -Insert the correct immediately after the error -Never use white out, black marker, or eraser on errors -Do not hide errors, bring to the attention of provider if it could affect patient's health and well-being

question

Record Maintenance

answer

-Always verify correct medical chart has been pulled - Mend chart as necessary -File documentation in a timely manner -Make sure required forms are kept up to date -Verify patient information periodically

question

Retention of Records

answer

-Laws regarding retention vary from state to state -10 years or length of time on statute of limitations -Minors: 3 years after age of majority -Medicare/Medicaid patient: a minimum of 6 years -Deceased patient: 2 years

question

Classification of Records

answer

-Active: Currently receiving treatment -Inactive: Not seen for 6 months -Closed: Moved, terminated, or deceased

question

Types of Files

answer

-Drawer files -Shelf files -Rotary circular files -Lateral files -Compactable files -Automated files

question

Filing Supplies

answer

-Chart covers or folders -Labels: color coded, alpha and numeric -OUTguides -Special notation labels: allergies, same name, copays, primary care physician

question

Filing Procedures

answer

-Conditioning -Releasing -Indexing and Coding -Sorting -Storing and Filing

question

Conditioning Files

answer

-Mending damaged records -Removing pins, paper clips, brads, staples -Stapling related papers together

question

Releasing Files

answer

Indication that the record is ready to be filed -Signature -Initials -Date -Stamp

question

Indexing and Coding Files

answer

-Deciding where document is to be filed -Underline name or subject of how it is to be filed -Every paper in patient's chart should have a name and date

question

Sorting Files

answer

Arranging papers in a filing sequence -Alphabetical -Numeric -Days of the week -Days in the month -Months of the year

question

Storing and Filing Files

answer

-Inserted face up -Most recent date on top -Document completely in file

question

Locating Misplaced Files

answer

Missing Document Only -In the folder in front of or behind the correct folder -Between folders -Under the files -Patient with a similar name Entire medical record -Physician's desk -Billing department -Nursing station -Office manager

question

12 Rules of Indexing (some repeat from earlier study cards)

answer

1. Last names are considered first, then first name second. 2. Nothing comes before something -Smith, T. -Smith, Thomas 3. Hyphenated names are considered one unit 4. The apostrophe is disregarded 5. When a determination of order cannot be made, index in the order the name is written. -Chang Liu 6. Names with prefixes are considered part of the name -Von Hagen 7. Abbreviated names are filed as written 8. Mac and Mc are filed in alphabetical order 9. Married women are indexed by their legal name 10. Titles are not used as filing units 11. Terms of seniority, profession or academic degree are only used to distinguish same names 12. Articles (The and A) are disregarded when indexing

question

Which block is the physician's signature located in?

answer

Block #31

question

OCR (Office of Civil Rights)

answer

Federal government division that enforces the privacy standards

question

How many provisions does HIPPA contain?

answer

Two

question

Sentinel Event

answer

An unexpected occurrence involving death, or serious physical or psychological injury or the risk thereof. ie: mistaken identity of a patient

question

Subjective Information

answer

Information that is documented in the medical record that is from answers obtained by asking questions from the patient ie: patient's family history

question

How many diagnoses can the CMS-1500 form have?

answer

Four

question

Why is it usually poor policy to accept third-party checks from patients?

answer

You cannot verify the reliability of the maker

question

JCAHO (Joint Commission)

answer

The non-profit organization that assists healthcare facilities by providing accreditation

question

Audit

answer

The process done before claims submission to examine claims for accuracy and completeness

question

Medicare Part D

answer

Drug services

question

Legal owner of the patient's medical record

answer

The physician or agency where services were provided. "The Maker" of the record.

question

TRICARE

answer

Health insurance designed for military dependents and retired personel

question

PHI stands for

answer

Protected Health Information

question

Hard Copy

answer

A claim that is printed and mailed to the carrier

question

Healthcare Information is used to

answer

-Determine how many patients enter a facility with the same diagnosis -Decide what equipment is needed to meet the needs of the patient population -Help the facility plan for the needs of next week and next year

question

Medicaid

answer

The federal and state-sponsored health insurance program for the medically indigent

question

Worker's Compensation

answer

A type of insurance that protects workers from loss wages after an industrial accident that happened on the job

question

Professional Courtesy

answer

Charging reduced or no-fee for services rendered to other medical professionals

question

Assets

answer

The properties owned by a business

question

Medicare Part B

answer

Physician office visits

question

Accounting

answer

A system of recording, classifying, and summarizing financial transactions

question

Blanket-position bonding

answer

Covers all employees in a facility

question

Patient privacy complaints

answer

Patients have 180 days from the time the patient knew the act occurred to file a complaint

question

Common appointment book abbreviations

answer

CPE/CPF: complete physical exam NP/New Pat: new patient NS: no show Px: physical OV: office visit FU: follow up ReC: recheck Ref: referral Can: cancelled N&V: nausea & vomitting Pgt: pregnancy test RS: reschedule

question

Common time slots for appointments

answer

Physical: 1 hour School Physical: 30 minutes Recheck: 15 minutes Dressing Change: 10 minutes BP Check: 5 minutes Patient Teaching: 30 minutes-1 hour

question

What must a letter of withdrawal of care state?

answer

-That professional care is being discontinued. -The physician will provide copies of the patient's records to new physician -The patient should seek new care provider as soon as possible

question

How should a letter of withdrawal be mailed?

answer

Certified

question

US Supreme Court

answer

The ultimate appellate court in the United States

question

Ways to increase appointment show rates

answer

automated call reminders appointment cards conformation calls email reminders mailed reminders

question

Medical Term for a Stroke

answer

Cardiovascular Accident

question

Suspected Diagnosis

answer

a diagnosis that is questionable, probable, or likely

question

E codes

answer

codes that describe the circumstances of an accident or injury

question

Where should you begin the search for a code?

answer

Alphabetic index

question

Etiology

answer

The cause of a disorder

question

Manifestation

answer

The signs and symptoms of a disease

question

ICD-9 Codes

answer

Consist of 3 primary digits, and up to 2 additional digits.

question

Benign

answer

A non-malignant cancerous growth

question

CBMR

answer

Computer-based medical record

question

Shingling

answer

The method of filing in which one report is laid on top of older reports

question

V Codes

answer

(V01-V82) are the codes that refer to factors that influence the health status of a patient. A definite diagnosis cannot be stated, but a valid reason for seeing the provider exists. (ie: well baby check up, annual p.e.)

question

Continuity of Care

answer

Continuation of care smoothly from one provider to another, so the patient receives the most benefit and no interruption in care.

question

CC (Chief Complaint)

answer

-Nature and duration of pain, if any -When symptoms were first noticed by patient -Patient's opinion of causes of problem -Remedies patient may have applied -Patient has had same/similar condition in the past -Other treatment received for condition in the past

question

Differential Diagnosis

answer

The process of weighing the probability of one disease causing the patient's illness against the probability that other diseases are causative

question

CHEDDAR

answer

C- Chief Complaint H- History E- Examination D- Details (of problem and complaint) D- Drugs & dosages A- Assessment R- Return visit information, if applicable

question

Medicine and Law: Act

answer

The formal action of a legislative body; a decision or determination of a sovereign state; a legislative council or a court of justice

question

Allegation

answer

A statement by a party to a legal action of what the party undertakes to prove; an assertion made without proof

question

Nosocomial Infection

answer

hospital-acquired infection

question

NCHS (National Center for Health Statistics)

answer

Collects data from birth and death records, medical records, interview surveys. Health statistics agency; mission: provide statistical information that guides actions and policies to improve the health of American people

question

Clustering

answer

Patients with similar problems are booked consecutively. A block of time is set aside for particular types of cases.

question

Underuse of Medical Care

answer

When Doctors or hospitals neglect to give patients medically necessary care or to follow proven health care practices

question

Misuse of Medical Care

answer

Medical errors; when patient doesn't fully benefit from a treatment because of a preventable problem- or when the patient is harmed by a treatment

question

Overuse of Medical Care

answer

Occurs when a drug or treatment is given without medical justification

question

HITECH Act

answer

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act

question

Purpose of HITECH Act

answer

Designed to increase safeguards that will protect the privacy of a patient's PHI from being compromised

question

OUTfolder

answer

A folder used to provide space for the temporary filing of materials

question

OUTguide

answer

A heavy guide used to replace a folder temporarily removed from the filing space

question

How does OSHA regulate and enforce safety and health in the workplace?

answer

By setting safety standards

question

Addendum

answer

An error discovered at a later date. (Corrected in the same manner as a real-time error)

STUDY

Aids Executive Summary First Class Mail Professionalism The Body Word Processing Software

Business Comm. Chapters 13-16 – Flashcards 100 terms

Michael Seabolt

100 terms

Preview

Business Comm. Chapters 13-16 – Flashcards

question

As you're revising the content of an online report

answer

strip out all information that doesn't directly meet audience needs.

question

You've used information from several websites to support your argument in a formal report. You should

answer

clearly document the sources in the report.

question

Information such as the report title, the writer's name, and the submission date are usually found

answer

on the cover

question

The text of a proposal

answer

consists of the introduction, body, and close.

question

Minor flaws in the final draft of a report

answer

may affect your credibility.

question

For printed reports, the letter of transmittal is most often positioned

answer

right before the table of contents.

question

An executive summary

answer

gives a fully developed "mini" version of the report.

question

The term ________ is another name for a synopsis in a technical or professional report.

answer

abstract

question

The letter of authorization and the letter of acceptance are used to

answer

make sure everyone is clear about the report's intent.

question

All appendices should be

answer

mentioned in the text of the report and listed in the table of contents.

question

What is the purpose of the bibliography section in a formal report?

answer

It fulfills your ethical obligations to credit sources and allows readers to consult the sources.

question

A descriptive synopsis

answer

tells what the report is about in moderately greater detail than the table of contents.

question

An ideal approach to proofreading a formal report or proposal is to

answer

have two people review it-one who is an expert on the topic and one who is not

question

Which of the following is the best heading for the close of a formal report?

answer

Summary

question

Using FedEx or UPS to deliver a formal report or proposal

answer

allows you to track the report and ensure that it is delivered on time.

question

The close of a report

answer

spells out exactly what should happen next

question

A letter of ________ is a specialized cover letter that introduces your report to the audience.

answer

transmittal

question

Placing detailed supporting materials online instead of in a traditional appendix

answer

can make it much more convenient for readers to access

question

When should charts, graphs, and other visual elements be incorporated into the report?

answer

when you are satisfied with the quality of your text

question

Urging readers to act in the close of a proposal

answer

is an effective and reasonable strategy.

question

One advantage in using a PDF file to send a report is the author's ability to

answer

control how the document is displayed on a computer

question

One way to indicate a major shift in the flow of the report is to incorporate

answer

page breaks.

question

An informative synopsis

answer

presents the main points of the report in the same order as the text.

question

In a complex formal report, it is often helpful to include

answer

two tables of contents: a high-level table that shows only major headings, followed by a detailed table that includes all headings and subheadings

question

For electronic distribution of reports and proposals, you should

answer

always send documents as PDF files, unless the audience requests otherwise

question

One advantage of developing a presentation as a webcast is

answer

the ability to download it and view at later.

question

Sending preview materials to the audience prior to an online presentation

answer

can help audience members become familiar with important background information.

question

When it comes to slide design

answer

consistency is critical because audiences assign meaning to visual elements beginning with the first slide

question

An effective introduction to a presentation will

answer

establish your credibility

question

Rehearsing your presentation will

answer

help you check your voice, timing, phrasing, and equipment

question

To hold your audience's attention during the body of your speech, you should

answer

relate your subject to your audience's needs

question

For business presentations, time constraints are usually

answer

rigid, permitting little or no flexibility

question

When you prepare a speech or presentation, your first step involves

answer

analyzing the situation.

question

In order to appear sincere, confident, and trustworthy,

answer

maintain eye contact with friendly audience members

question

Best practices for the question-and-answer session after a presentation include

answer

anticipating likely questions and thinking through your answers.

question

When preparing a background design for slides,

answer

be sure the background is not distracting.

question

Don't try to memorize a presentation because

answer

you'll probably sound stilted when you deliver the message.

question

For most business presentations, ________ are the medium of choice

answer

electronic slides

question

When using charts and tables in presentations,

answer

they should be simpler than visuals for printed documents.

question

Generally, when presenting to a larger audience,

answer

the presentation becomes more formal

question

To enhance the presentation through the use of visuals,

answer

make sure the message, not the visual, is the focus of the presentation

question

If the purpose of your presentation is to get your audience involved in an upcoming project, you should

answer

close by explaining who'll be involved and what they'll do.

question

If you face hostile or difficult questions during a question-and-answer session,

answer

respond honestly while keeping control of your emotions.

question

In business presentations, the backchannel is

answer

electronic communication among audience members during the presentation.

question

One of the best ways to organize, reposition, and delete slides while checking for design consistency is with the use of

answer

slide sorter view

question

The slide master feature in presentation software

answer

helps create a consistent design for your entire slide show

question

If there is a lack of consensus among the audience at the end of your presentation, you should

answer

make the disagreement clear and be ready to suggest a method for resolving the differences.

question

Delivering your presentation by reading it word-for-word is a good idea when

answer

you're covering policy statements or legal documents that must be presented verbatim.

question

One effective way to arouse interest at the start of a speech is to

answer

unite the audience around a common goal.

question

When developing a presentation for an online audience,

answer

break complicated slides into multiple slides.

question

The best way to handle frequent job changes on a résumé is to

answer

group similar jobs under a single heading

question

An effective résumé design looks

answer

clean and professional.

question

By definition, a résumé is a

answer

structured summary of a person's education, employment background, and job qualifications

question

To incorporate the best keywords in your résumé,

answer

study relevant job descriptions and seek to understand your target audience's needs.

question

When preparing your list of references,

answer

prepare a reference sheet using the same layout as the résumé.

question

A type of résumé that emphasizes a candidate's skills and accomplishments while also including a complete job history is termed

answer

a combination résumé.

question

Posting a job opening on a major job board such as Monster is often

answer

a company's last resort, after it has exhausted other possibilities for finding desirable candidates.

question

On your résumé, do not include items that could encourage discrimination, such as

answer

when you graduated from high school.

question

The best email address to include on a résumé is

answer

a free personal address from one of the many services that offer them.

question

Creating a plain-text file of your résumé

answer

allows you to include your résumé in the body of an email message, instead of as an attachment

question

An online résumé

answer

lets jobseekers use multimedia to expand on the information in a basic résumé.

question

An infographic résumé uses ________ to convey a person's career development and skill set

answer

visual metaphors

question

A scannable résumé differs from the traditional format in that

answer

it always includes a keyword summary.

question

Creating a traditional paper résumé is

answer

still useful, even if most or all of your application efforts take place online.

question

Résumés and curriculum vitaes, or CVs, are essentially the same, except

answer

CVs are more detailed and include personal information.

question

For someone who's involved in the job search process, volunteer work

answer

can highlight problem-solving and leadership skills

question

Applicant tracking systems use keyword filters to

answer

rank desirability of incoming résumés for current openings.

question

When you're evaluating a functional résumé as a way to present your qualifications, don't forget that many employers

answer

are suspicious of them

question

The vast majority of all job openings in the United States are

answer

never advertised to the general public.

question

If you are just graduating from college and have limited professional experience,

answer

your chronological résumé should probably list educational qualifications before listing experience.

question

In composing a résumé, it is best to avoid

answer

using the word "I".

question

Customizing your résumé for each job opening is

answer

an important step in showing each employer that you will be a good fit

question

Putting "References available upon request" at the end of your résumé is

answer

not necessary since the availability of references is usually assumed.

question

In the experience section of the résumé, the focus should be on

answer

what you accomplished in each position

question

Effective keywords to list on your résumé include

answer

position applying for and skills needed for the position

question

In the opening paragraph of an application letter, it is vital to

answer

explain how you can help the company meets its needs

question

When terminating the job with a current employer, your letter of resignation

answer

should include at least two weeks' notice.

question

During the interview, a candidate should ask questions about

answer

what the company is looking for in a new employee.

question

When you're responding to questions during an interview, you're more likely to answer them successfully if you

answer

pause for a moment before answering each question.

question

When a job interviewer indicates the interview is coming to a close, you should

answer

prepare to leave but (if possible) try to pin down what will happen next

question

You'll impress prospective employers with your application letter if you

answer

show that you know something about the company and its marketplace.

question

Employers use ________ tests to measure a variety of attributes involved in acquiring, processing, analyzing, using, and remembering information

answer

cognitive

question

Within two days after an employment interview, you should

answer

follow up with a short note of thanks, using a tone that's positive while reinforcing why you are a good fit.

question

When it comes to length, an application letter should

answer

be short-no more than three paragraphs

question

During the close of the interview, be sure to

answer

emphasize your value to the organization.

question

If you're asked to submit to alcohol testing and drug screening during the hiring process, remember that

answer

a majority of companies require them of all applicants

question

During the warm-up phase of the interview, ________ is crucial in projecting confidence and professionalism.

answer

body language

question

When you discuss salary requirements with a prospective employer, you should

answer

let the interviewer raise the topic first.

question

Which of the following would be the best opening sentence for a solicited application letter?

answer

"Based on your company's remarkable growth over the past three years, I can appreciate your need for highly qualified and experienced sales personnel."

question

Searching LinkedIn to learn about the managers you will meet with in an upcoming interview

answer

can make it easier for you to build rapport with your interviewers.

question

When you're participating in a video interview with a prospective employer,

answer

make eye contact with the camera.

question

If you write a letter to decline the offer of a job,

answer

use an indirect format

question

Job offers and the acceptance of the offer

answer

are legally binding contracts.

question

When choosing the clothing you'll wear for a workplace interview, the best policy is to

answer

dress conservatively and professionally

question

In a(n) ________, the candidate meets with several interviewers at once.

answer

panel interview

question

Many interviewers begin making a decision about the applicant

answer

within the first 20 seconds of the interview

question

Which type of interview would be likely to include a question such as, "You seem wholly unqualified for this job, and your answers have been terrible so far. Why should we continue with this?"

answer

Stress

question

The best salutation for an application letter is

answer

one that addresses a specific individual by name

question

During a screening interview, your best approach is to

answer

keep your answers short, but offer key points that set you apart from other candidates.

question

Interviews in which job candidates are asked how they would respond to various hypothetical situations on the job are known as ________ interviews

answer

situational

STUDY

Commands Demand Federal Government First Class Mail Positions The Post Office

BUMEDINST 4010.3, Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) – Flashcards 19 terms

Martha Hill

19 terms

Preview

BUMEDINST 4010.3, Precious Metals Recovery Program (PMRP) – Flashcards

question

Naval Supply Systems Command (COMNAVSUPSYSCOM)

answer

coordinates the PRMP for the Navy

question

The Defense Reutilization and the Marketing Service (DRMS)

answer

Is the DLA coodinator for all the pregrams associated with the collection, recovery, and precessing of precious metals.

question

When should the Precious Metals Reports be submitted?

answer

quarterly

question

The Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

answer

Has the overall management responsibility for the program

question

Which command is designated as the PMRP coordinato for BUMED?

answer

NAVMEDLOGCOM

question

What instruction covers the Precious Metal Recovery Program?

answer

BUMEDINST 4010.3

question

The Platinum family of noble metals include:

answer

Pallidium, Iridim, Rhodium, Osmium, and Ruthenium

question

How often should a PMRP audit board meed to review the internal control procedures for recoverable precious metals from point of origin to DRMO?

answer

Semiannually

question

The PRMP is designed to:

answer

Save the DOD money by recycling precious metals and using those funds to offset the cost of supplies for DOD activities

question

Naval Medical Logistics Command (NAVMEDLOGCOM) at Ft. Detrick, Md is what?

answer

Designated as the PRMP coordinator for BUMED

question

What is the report control symbol assigned to the quarterly Recovery of Precious Metals Report?

answer

MED 4010-4

question

The four precious metals are:

answer

Silver, Gold, Platinum, and the Platinum family of noble metals

question

Which command coordinates the PMRP for the Navy?

answer

COMNAVSUPSYSCOM

question

What command recieves the quarterly Recovery of Precious mEtals Report?

answer

NAVMEDLOGCOM

question

Which command is the DLA coorinator for all programs associated witht he collection, recovery, and processing of all precious metals?

answer

Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service (DRMS)

question

T/F All Naval Medical Departments are require to participate in the PRMP

answer

F. All Naval Medical Department Activities that generate precious metal excesses and waste byproducts are required to participate in the PMRP.

question

Name three types of precious metals turned in:

answer

Gold Silver Platinum

question

T/F: All naval Medical Department activities not generating precious metals excesses and waste products are still required to participate in the PMRP.

answer

False

question

What type of bags should be used to package precious metals and scrap?

answer

Polyethylene

STUDY

Complete Physical Examination Current Procedural Terminology Evaluation And Management First Class Mail The Post Office Using The Computer

CMA Review: Pretest 2 – Flashcards 99 terms

Sam Arent

99 terms

Preview

CMA Review: Pretest 2 – Flashcards

question

Type of schedule allows for the most efficient use of staff, materials, and facilities

answer

Grouping: Scheduling

question

what piece of mail should be placed on top when sorting the physican's mail?

answer

envelope marked: PERSONAL

question

Open punctuation is characterized by

answer

absence of puncuation after the salutation and a comma after the complimentary close

question

the federal insurance program that provides for the medically indigent is

answer

medicaid

question

the process of transferring an amount from the day sheet to the ledger is

answer

posting

question

A numeric filing system requires the use of

answer

an alphabetic cross-reference

question

The file folder labe for Jennie Holmes-Mathis should be

answer

Holmes-Mathis, Jennie

question

Third-party participation in an office indicates the relaptionships among the

answer

physician, patient, and insurance company

question

A claim may be rejected by an insurance company becuase of the omission of

answer

-complete diagnosis -policy number -patient birth date -itemization of charges

question

How much postage is required for a first-calss letter that weighs 3 oz if the first ounce costs $0.34 and each additional ounce is $0.25

answer

$0.84

question

When the word Confidential is to be typed on the envelope, it should be placed

answer

below the return address

question

The most formal of complimentary closings is

answer

very truly yours

question

When making an appointment, which information is not needed

answer

insurance information

question

This type of call allows more than oner person in more than one place to talk simutaneously

answer

conference call

question

theis procdure protects against the loss of data

answer

backing up

question

A tickler file is

answer

future events arranged in chronolgic order

question

This does not require a CPT code

answer

diarrhea

question

characteristic of a receptionist that might make an impression on a patient

answer

-appearance -professionalism -manners -attitude

question

direction to consider additional codes is

answer

Directory

question

appointment system of the office should take into account the needs of the

answer

-Physician -Patients

question

Dear Mrs. May: is an example of

answer

mixed punctuation

question

master list of equipment inventory does NOT include the

answer

operating manuals

question

hospital records may be released by the authoriztation of the attending surgeon only

answer

operative notes

question

illness that existed before an insurance policy is written is known as a(n)

answer

preexisting condition

question

A patient has not been seen in the office for 2 years. The patient's record would be found in the

answer

inactive files

question

An important consideration when deciding how to position the computer monitor at the reception desk is

answer

patient confidentiality

question

which grou[p of patients hould be escorted to the examination room and given instructions on what they are to do

answer

-children -new patients -established patients -older adults

question

which information is NOT essential for the surgery scheduler when requestiong a surgery date

answer

name of the assisting physician

question

the notation c: Julia Jones, MD means

answer

A copy of the letter is sent to Dr. Jones

question

A history and physical usually does NOT contain

answer

results of laboratory tests

question

Under a managed care plan, the physicain agrees to

answer

Accept predetermined fees

question

Which type of insurace organizaation uses the fee-for-services concept?

answer

preferred provider organization

question

which factor is not included when dertermining the level of service for E&M codes?

answer

cost of services

question

When money is placed in an account, which of the following documents is prepared?

answer

deposit slip

question

The most common color-coding system color codes the

answer

Patient's surname

question

Who is leagl owner of the information in a patient's medical record

answer

the patient

question

Wehn preparing the appointment matrix, the first action is to indicate

answer

times not available

question

scheduling patients with the same medical complaints on the same day is

answer

group scheduling

question

A major advantage of using a computer for word processing is

answer

extensive editing capability

question

NOT true of certified mail

answer

insurance coverage is available

question

must be sent by first-class mail

answer

personal letters and postcards

question

A medicare clain for a deceased beneficiary may be paid directly to the physician if

answer

the estate is billed

question

All checks receievd as payment for charges should be endorsed

answer

immediately

question

Correct for an inside address

answer

David Roberts, M.D.

question

NOT true about a postage meter

answer

A license must be obtained from the post office

question

two-letter abbreviation for Nebraska is

answer

question

Which letter style requires the complimentary closing and typed signature be placed in line with the left margin of the body of the letter?

answer

full block style

question

NOT included ina memorandum

answer

Complimentary close

question

Second page of a two-page letter contains what heading?

answer

name, page number, and date

question

complimentary close of a letter is typed how many lines below the last line of the body?

answer

two

question

A fee profile is derived from

answer

physicain charges

question

what demographic information is included in a medical record

answer

date of birth

question

requires an ICD-9-CM code

answer

irritable bowel syndrome

question

when it is 4:00 pm in New York City, what time is it in Seattle, WA

answer

1:00 pm

question

ideally, a telephone should be answered before the

answer

third ring

question

An E code in the ICD-9-CM coding system

answer

pefers to external causes

question

universal clain form developed bny Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) is

answer

CMS-1500

question

Patients who are always late or who habitually cancel appointments hould be scheduled

answer

At the end of the day

question

An error was made in charting the patient's record. The method used to correct the error is to

answer

Draw a single line through the error, write the word error, make the correction, and date and initial the entry

question

SOAP is an acronym for

answer

problem-oriented progress notes

question

A patients refueses to follow medical advice and the physician decides to terminate the relationoship. The letter to the patient should state all

answer

-an offer to make records available -that the physician withdraws from the case -a future date after which the phyician is not available -that the patient still needs medical care

question

When the medical office works on a fixed appointment schedule and a patinent arrives without an appointment reqesting to see the physician, the patient

answer

should be squeezed in for a brief visit so the phyician can decide what the next treatment step should be

question

If a patient calls to cancel his or her appointment

answer

immediately offer a new appointment time

question

A good telephone techniques is a

answer

low-pitched and expressive voice

question

If a patients account has been turned over to a collection agency and teh patient call about the bill, the patient should be told

answer

to deal with the collection agency

question

The entry, editing, manipulation, and storage of text using the computer is

answer

word processing

question

When a shipment of supplies is received, the supplies should be checked against the

answer

enclosed packing slip

question

A credit balance on an account occurs when

answer

the patient pays in advance

STUDY

Aids Content Management System Executive Summary First Class Mail Professionalism The Body Word Processing Software

Business comm chapter 13 – Flashcards 80 terms

Jacoby Flores

80 terms

Preview

Business comm chapter 13 – Flashcards

question

1) The four tasks involved in completing business reports and proposals include all of the following except A) distributing. B) revising. C) producing. D) illustrating. E) proofreading

answer

D. illustrating

question

2) The revision process for business reports is essentially the same as it is for other messages, except that it A) requires far less effort. B) takes much less time. C) may take considerably more time. D) can be accomplished entirely by common word processing software. E) is only rarely required.

answer

C) may take considerably more time.

question

3) The prefatory parts of a report should A) help readers decide whether and how they need to read the report. B) be prepared and written before the text of the report. C) include an introduction to the report. D) not require any revision once they are written. E) do all of the above.

answer

A) help readers decide whether and how they need to read the report.

question

4) Which of the following is not included in the prefatory parts of a formal report? A) Cover B) Letter of authorization C) Introduction D) Table of contents E) Title page

answer

C) Introduction

question

5) What would be the most concise and compelling title for a formal report analyzing your company's proposed acquisition of Freedman's Nuts & Bolts? A) "To Acquire or Not to Acquire" B) "A Study of the Feasibility of Angstrom Hardware Inc. Acquiring the Concern Currently Operating as Freedman Fasteners" C) "The Pros and Cons of Acquiring Freedman Fasteners" D) "Why Angstrom Should Forget About Acquiring Freedman" E) "An Easy Decision"

answer

C) "The Pros and Cons of Acquiring Freedman Fasteners"

question

6) You should include a title fly with business reports when you want to A) give the name of the company for which the report has been prepared. B) add a touch of formality to the report. C) protect the report from dirt and careless handling. D) provide a page for the reader to make notes on. E) make it easier for readers to get straight to the text of your report.

answer

B) add a touch of formality to the report.

question

7) A letter of ________ is a specialized cover letter that introduces your report to the audience. A) authorization B) acceptance C) transmittal D) introduction E) appreciation

answer

C) transmittal

question

8) The letter of transmittal A) may follow the direct or indirect plan. B) has a more formal style than the report itself. C) is usually included as an appendix. D) should be written in an informal, chummy tone. E) is never written as a memo.

answer

A) may follow the direct or indirect plan.

question

9) The letter of transmittal should A) discuss the scope and methods of the project. B) highlight important sections of the report. C) thank the reader for the assignment, if appropriate. D) do all of the above. E) do nothing more than thank readers for their interest in your report.

answer

D) do all of the above.

question

10) For printed reports, the letter of transmittal is most often positioned A) right before the table of contents. B) just after the table of contents. C) in between the introduction and first chapter of the report. D) on the outside of the report cover, usually fastened with a paper clip or staple. E) Any of the above locations are acceptable.

answer

A) right before the table of contents.

question

11) One of the headings in your report is, "Unexpected Price Increases." In the table of contents, the heading should A) be worded exactly the same way. B) not be included. C) be paraphrased. D) be in boldface type. E) be in all caps.

answer

A) be worded exactly the same way.

question

12) In a complex formal report, it is often helpful to include A) a table of contents that lists every level of heading in the report plus all illustration and table titles. B) two tables of contents: a high-level table that shows only major headings, followed by a detailed table that includes all headings and subheadings. C) everything but prefatory parts in the table of contents. D) everything but supplementary parts in the table of contents. E) asterisks beside the titles of all key parts in the table of contents.

answer

B) two tables of contents: a high-level table that shows only major headings, followed by a detailed table that includes all headings and subheadings.

question

13) To help ensure accuracy, the table of contents for a formal report should be prepared A) before the text is written. B) as you are drafting the text. C) as you prepare the list of references. D) along with the footnotes or endnotes. E) after the report is complete, thoroughly edited, and proofed.

answer

E) after the report is complete, thoroughly edited, and proofed.

question

14) If you will create a PDF file of a business report for electronic distribution, each entry in the table of contents should be A) italicized. B) in boldface type. C) in all caps. D) a clickable link that takes readers to the appropriate place in the report. E) underlined.

answer

D) a clickable link that takes readers to the appropriate place in the report.

question

15) The synopsis of a formal report is A) a concise overview of the report's most important points. B) a short summary containing subheadings and visual aids. C) usually anywhere from two to five pages. D) never more than five lines in length. E) never longer than a single sentence.

answer

A) a concise overview of the report's most important points.

question

16) The synopsis of a formal report may also be called a(n) A) abstract. B) thesis. C) snapshot. D) quick view. E) outline.

answer

A) abstract.

question

17) The primary difference between an informative synopsis and a descriptive synopsis is A) the descriptive synopsis is more detailed. B) the informative synopsis is more detailed. C) the informative synopsis omits the report findings. D) the descriptive synopsis is preferable if your report is organized using the direct approach. E) none of the above—there are no significant differences.

answer

B) the informative synopsis is more detailed.

question

18) An executive summary A) is shorter than a synopsis. B) gives a fully developed "mini" version of the report. C) provides additional information (not covered in the report) that executives will need. D) is unnecessary if the report is not intended for executives. E) should be written in a tone that is much less formal than the report itself.

answer

B) gives a fully developed "mini" version of the report.

question

19) An executive summary A) is never longer than a few paragraphs. B) may contain headings and visual aids. C) comes before the synopsis in the prefatory section of a report. D) is always included with reports longer than 10 pages. E) is the same thing as a synopsis.

answer

B) may contain headings and visual aids

question

20) You've prepared a 7-page report for a local government official outlining the potential for your company's involvement with downtown revitalization. In this short report it would be reasonable to A) not include an executive summary. B) not include a synopsis. C) combine the executive summary with the letter of transmittal. D) do any of the above. E) none of the above.

answer

D) do any of the above.

question

21) The best way to decide what to include in an introduction is to A) consult with more-experienced report writers. B) figure out what kinds of information will most help your readers follow and comprehend the report. C) put in as many standard topics as you can cover in 10 pages or less. D) do a quick survey of potential readers. E) skim the report quickly, and list what you remember.

answer

B) figure out what kinds of information will most help your readers follow and comprehend the report.

question

22) Which of the following is not a typical function of the introduction to a report? A) Telling the audience what the report is about B) Explaining to readers why they should be concerned about the topic C) Outlining how the report is organized D) Documenting sources E) All of the above are typical functions.

answer

D) Documenting sources

question

23) You're preparing a report on how to reduce network problems at your company's home office. Since the report is organized in the direct approach, the close should A) present the conclusions and recommendations for the first time. B) be relatively long. C) be relatively brief. D) end by asking readers what they think is the best course of action. E) make it clear that it would be foolish and irresponsible to ignore your recommendations.

answer

C) be relatively brief.

question

24) In a proposal designed to persuade clients to order surge protection equipment from your company, the close should A) outline the report's key findings. B) include your analysis of the data you've presented. C) describe the action(s) you would like readers to take. D) answer the questions that led to the report. E) tell readers they can choose not to make a purchase, but they will regret it.

answer

C) describe the action(s) you would like readers to take.

question

25) Which of the following is the best heading for the close of a formal report? A) Ending B) Take-Aways C) Final Thoughts D) The Point E) Summary

answer

E) Summary

question

26) The authors of an informational report have referred to a multitude of data on the spending habits of 18- to 25-year-old Americans. They want to provide readers with access to this information, but realize it's too lengthy to include in the body of the report. Where should they place it? A) Nowhere—it should simply be left out. B) In an appendix. C) After the letter of transmittal. D) Between the prefatory parts and the introduction. E) At the very end of the report, in a section labeled "Extras."

answer

B) In an appendix.

question

27) Materials in an appendix are not incorporated into the text because A) they are controversial. B) they include bad news. C) they are too long, or not relevant to everyone in the audience. D) they are boring. E) they are completely unrelated to the report.

answer

C) they are too long, or not relevant to everyone in the audience.

question

28) Placing detailed supporting materials online instead of in a traditional appendix A) can make it much more convenient for readers to access. B) suggests that you are lazy and unprofessional. C) is not acceptable unless your report is highly technical. D) is a great inconvenience for your audience. E) often leads to legal problems.

answer

A) can make it much more convenient for readers to access.

question

29) All appendixes should be A) listed in the table of contents, but not mentioned in the text of the report. B) mentioned in the text of the report, but not listed in the table of contents. C) mentioned in the text of the report and listed in the table of contents. D) included in the index, but not listed in the table of contents. E) printed in a font that is different than that of the report text.

answer

C) mentioned in the text of the report and listed in the table of contents.

question

30) The list of secondary sources at the end of a report is labeled "Works Cited" when it contains A) all the secondary sources consulted in preparing the report. B) more than ten entries. C) only those secondary works that were mentioned in the report. D) anonymous sources. E) sources that you feel uncertain about.

answer

C) only those secondary works that were mentioned in the report.

question

31) The list of secondary sources at the end of a report can be labeled "References" when A) it contains fewer than 10 items. B) it contains more than 50 items. C) it is incomplete. D) you want the tone of your report to be conversational. E) you include works consulted but not mentioned in your report.

answer

E) you include works consulted but not mentioned in your report.

question

32) You've used information from several websites to support your argument in a formal report. You should A) not worry about documenting the sources since that's only necessary in school—not in business. B) provide information on your sources only if the audience requests it. C) clearly document the sources in the report. D) determine whether the websites are copyrighted, and then decide whether or not to document them. E) do none of the above.

answer

C) clearly document the sources in the report.

question

33) An index A) may include the names of important persons mentioned in your report. B) lists only the names of authors cited in the report. C) is never necessary in business reports. D) should always be prepared by someone other than the author of the report. E) All of the above are true.

answer

A) may include the names of important persons mentioned in your report.

question

34) Proposals addressed to potential customers and investors A) are nearly always formal. B) rarely include a copy of the RFP. C) are less formal than those addressed to internal audiences. D) should never include visuals. E) should always be single-spaced.

answer

A) are nearly always formal.

question

35) Unlike reports, most proposals A) contain many supplementary parts. B) contain few supplementary parts. C) never contain an appendix. D) are never analytical. E) are written in an informal tone.

answer

B) contain few supplementary parts.

question

36) The prefatory parts of a formal proposal may include A) a letter of authorization. B) a copy of the RFP. C) an index. D) visual aids. E) an appendix.

answer

B) a copy of the RFP.

question

37) An RFP usually includes A) detailed instructions on referring to the RFP itself in your proposal. B) a list of companies that have submitted failed proposals in the past. C) any negative information about the company that might affect the project. D) a standard disclaimer that any costs mentioned in the report may increase after the proposal is accepted. E) all of the above.

answer

A) detailed instructions on referring to the RFP itself in your proposal.

question

38) In a formal proposal, a synopsis or executive summary may be A) essential for highlighting your competitive advantage. B) useful if the proposal is fairly short. C) placed in an appendix. D) unnecessary. E) most effective if it does not mention the RFP to which you are responding.

answer

D) unnecessary.

question

39) You're sending an unsolicited proposal to a local restaurant in an effort to become its primary food vendor. The letter of transmittal to accompany the proposal should follow the format for A) persuasive messages. B) bad-news messages. C) good-news messages. D) routine messages. E) operational reports.

answer

A) persuasive messages.

question

40) The text of a proposal A) must always follow the AIDA plan. B) is usually presented in outline form. C) consists of the introduction, body, and close. D) should be italicized. E) is always organized using the direct approach.

answer

C) consists of the introduction, body, and close.

question

41) The body of a proposal should A) capture the reader's attention. B) explain the complete details of the solution. C) make whatever promises it takes to win the contract. D) aggressively attack any other companies competing for the audience's business. E) do all of the above.

answer

B) explain the complete details of the solution.

question

42) Urging readers to act in the close of a proposal A) is considered a hard-sell tactic, and should be avoided. B) is acceptable if you know the audience well, but inappropriate for new clients. C) is an effective and reasonable strategy. D) generally works well, but never when responding to government RFP's. E) is effective only when your text is organized in the direct approach.

answer

C) is an effective and reasonable strategy.

question

43) One important step in proofreading formal reports and proposals is to A) go back and use the most impressive words you can find to describe key concepts. B) proof your visuals thoroughly and make sure they are positioned correctly. C) not worry about typos—only content. D) simply rely on your software's spelling and grammar checkers to find any errors. E) keep in mind that speed is often more important than accuracy.

answer

B) proof your visuals thoroughly and make sure they are positioned correctly.

question

44) Proofreading reports is different from proofreading other kinds of business messages in that A) reports usually have more typographical errors. B) the visual aids in reports don't usually need proofing. C) reports often have elements that aren't included in other business messages. D) audience expectations are usually lower when it comes to reports. E) none of the above—reports do not differ significantly from other business messages.

answer

C) reports often have elements that aren't included in other business messages.

question

45) An ideal approach to proofreading a formal report or proposal is to A) skim it quickly as soon as you finish drafting it, and then send it as soon as possible. B) have two people review it—one who is an expert on the topic and one who is not. C) never rely on anyone other than yourself. D) completely avoid using spell checkers, grammar checkers and other software tools. E) send the draft to a competing company, and ask for their feedback.

answer

B) have two people review it—one who is an expert on the topic and one who is not.

question

46) Using FedEx or UPS to deliver a formal report or proposal A) is a waste of money—first-class mail is almost always preferable. B) is necessary only when sending the document overseas. C) will, in most cases, make you appear desperate. D) will not provide the kind of online tracking service offered by the U.S. Postal Service. E) allows you to track the report and ensure that it is delivered on time.

answer

E) allows you to track the report and ensure that it is delivered on time.

question

47) For electronic distribution of reports and proposals, you should A) always send documents as word-processor files, unless the audience requests otherwise. B) always send documents as PDF files, unless the audience requests otherwise. C) send the documents multiple times as email attachments, just to make sure they get there. D) send WordPerfect files, rather than Microsoft Word or PDF. E) do none of the above.

answer

B) always send documents as PDF files, unless the audience requests otherwise.

question

48) Sending reports and proposals as PDF files A) reduces the likelihood of inadvertently spreading macro viruses and other contaminations. B) increases the chances of inadvertently spreading macro viruses and other contaminations. C) gives you less control over how the document is displayed on the audience's computer. D) is likely to frustrate audiences, since they require expensive software to open. E) makes it especially difficult to gather comments and other input on the document from reviewers.

answer

A) reduces the likelihood of inadvertently spreading macro viruses and other contaminations.

question

49) Distributing reports and proposals via a web-based content management system, intranet, or extranet A) has become completely obsolete now that email is so widespread and easy to use. B) is impossible without special training and expensive software. C) requires verifying that your document displays correctly after you have uploaded it. D) is far more expensive than delivering printed copies. E) should be avoided at all costs—even when the audience requests it.

answer

C) requires verifying that your document displays correctly after you have uploaded it.

question

50) Three weeks ago you sent a proposal to a client who had asked for information on upgrading his company's security system. You've heard nothing in response. You should A) inquire politely as to whether the report arrived or offer to answer any questions regarding its subject. B) take it as a sign that the client agrees with what you had to say. C) assume that the report has not been read. D) call the client and demand to know why you haven't received a response yet. E) call the client's office, give a fictional reason for calling, and then casually ask about the report as if you had forgotten about it, as well.

answer

A) inquire politely as to whether the report arrived or offer to answer any questions regarding its subject.

question

51) If your report will be posted online, you should be especially careful to make the report easy to skim.

answer

true

question

52) Lengthy, complex reports often include two tables of contents: one that is very detailed and another that lists only major headings.

answer

true

question

53) Because they fall at the beginning of a report, the prefatory parts are usually written first.

answer

false

question

54) It is never appropriate to submit a business report without a title fly

answer

false

question

55) It is sometimes acceptable for the title page to serve as the report cover.

answer

true

question

56) If you received written authorization to prepare a business report, you should respond with a letter of acceptance.

answer

true

question

57) The letter of transmittal should always use the indirect approach, especially if the report is an analytical one.

answer

false

question

58) If a report does not have a synopsis, the letter of transmittal can be used to summarize the major findings, conclusions, and recommendations.

answer

true

question

59) The table of contents should always include all levels of headings for the report.

answer

false

question

60) A synopsis of a 15-page report should usually be at least two pages long.

answer

false

question

61) For reports organized in the indirect approach, you should use an informative synopsis instead of a descriptive one.

answer

false

question

62) Unlike a synopsis, an executive summary may contain headings and visual aids.

answer

true

question

63) Many reports, especially short ones, require neither a synopsis nor an executive summary.

answer

true

question

64) The introduction to a formal business report should never be longer than a paragraph or two

answer

false

question

65) The introduction is a good place to tell readers why they should be concerned with your topic.

answer

true

question

66) Reports do not need an introduction if they have a synopsis and a letter of transmittal.

answer

false

question

67) The close of a report may be called the "Summary" or "Conclusions and Recommendations."

answer

true

question

68) In reports that are intended to lead to action, the recommendations section may be fairly extensive because it spells out exactly what should happen next.

answer

true

question

69) The most common supplementary parts to include in a formal report are the appendix, the bibliography, and the index.

answer

true

question

70) Acknowledging sources in the body of a report is appropriate for academic work, but never in business.

answer

false

question

71) An index is necessary only if your report is going to be published.

answer

false

question

72) Proposals addressed to external audiences, including potential customers and investors, are nearly always formal.

answer

true

question

73) The components of a formal proposal are entirely different from those of other formal reports.

answer

false

question

74) Most proposals have few supplementary parts.

answer

true

question

75) A synopsis or executive summary is usually less useful in a formal proposal than in other types of formal reports.

answer

true

question

76) If a proposal is unsolicited, the letter of transmittal should follow the format for persuasive messages.

answer

true

question

77) The close of a formal proposal emphasizes the benefits that readers will realize from your solution.

answer

true

question

78) When you proofread the text part of a report, you should essentially look for the same types of mistakes as you would look for in any business message.

answer

true

question

79) By the time you are ready to check visual aids in the completing step for formal reports, you can normally assume that all the data are correct.

answer

false

question

80) After sending your report, you should wait at least three weeks before contacting the audience if you don't receive a response.

answer

false

STUDY

Consumer Credit Protection Act Disaster Recovery Plan Federal Trade Commission Federal Unemployment Tax First Class Mail Proper Body Mechanics Speech Recognition Technology

CH 12 Financial Management 168 terms

Richard Lattimore

168 terms

Preview

CH 12 Financial Management

question

Medical office supplies

answer

Purchasing and maintaining supplies for medical practices is essential. The medical assistant is usually responsible for taking inventory of equipment and supplies and for ordering anything that is needed.

question

The types of supplies used in the medical office include

answer

Administrative, clinical, and general.

question

Administrative supplies

answer

Items used to keep the office running, such as stationery, typing paper, photocopy paper, medical record forms, appointment books, pens, colored highlighters, correcting tape, and toner.

question

Clinical supplies

answer

Medically related items, such as towels, drapes, gowns, table paper, instruments, lubricants, tongue blades, syringes, suture material, laboratory reagents, and elastic bandages.

question

General supplies

answer

Items used by both patients and staff, such as paper towels, soap, and toilet tissue.

question

Vital supplies

answer

Can be both clinical and administrative in nature. Examples include prescription pads and paper for examinations. To help keep track of supplies, categorize them according to the urgency of need, making sure that vital supplies are readily available.

question

Incidental supplies

answer

Can be clinical, administrative, or general in nature. The efficiency of the office is not threatened if these supplies run low. Incidental supplies include rubber bands and staples.

question

Durable items

answer

Pieces of equipment that are used indefinitely, such as telephones or computers, that are not considered supplies.

question

Expendable items

answer

Items that are used and then must be restocked, also known as consumables. Expendable items are used up within a short period of time, and they are relatively inexpensive.

question

Capital equipment

answer

Items that are considered major and involve expenditures above a predetermined dollar value. Capital equipment includes general, large lab, administrative, and clinical equipment.

question

Vendors

answer

The medical assistant should obtain recommendations from other medical offices, gather competitive prices, and compare vendors on the basis of price, quality, service, and payment policies. It takes multiple vendors to provide all the supplies for a medical practice.

question

Local vendors

answer

It is a good idea to establish good credit and business relationships with local vendors, even if they cost a little more. Local vendors may offer special discounts, emergency service, information about sales and specials, and personal assistance.

question

Catalog services

answer

Can provide ease of availability, competitive pricing, and fast delivery. Many vendors accept telephone, fax, and e-mail orders as well as traditional order forms.

question

Ordering supplies

answer

Expendable supplies and equipment must be replaced and reordered in time. A copy of the order form should be retained to check against the order when it arrives.

question

Purchase requisitions

answer

Some practices require approval of a formal request before supplies can be ordered.

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Receiving supplies

answer

Orders should be checked for completeness. One person should be responsible for receiving and signing for deliveries. This person must check invoices and/or packing slips against the items delivered, initial and date the invoices as items are received, and distribute goods to the storage room.

question

Packing slip

answer

A list of supplies packed and shipped, supplied by the vendor in the package with the supplies.

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Statement

answer

The monthly bill summarizing invoices. It is a request for payment.

question

Supply budget

answer

The average medical practice spends from 4% to 6% of its annual gross income on supplies. If costs exceed 6%, you might be required to reevaluate the office's spending practices.

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Storage room

answer

Should be arranged with the most commonly used items within easiest reach. Place new stock in the back of the storage area, and move the old supplies up front so that they will be used first. This practice is referred to as rotating stock. You must know the storage requirements for various kinds of supplies. You must maintain an adequate quantity of supplies in a well-organized storage space to run the office smoothly.

question

Inventory

answer

A list of articles in stock, with the description and quantity of each. Inventory control requires constant supervision because a medical office cannot afford to run out of supplies. Most offices maintain an ongoing inventory system, which helps determine when to reorder supplies.

question

Reminder cards

answer

Many offices develop color-coded reorder reminder cards, which are inserted into the stack of inventory items. When the card comes to the top of the stack, it is time to reorder.

question

Invoice

answer

A paper describing a purchase and the amount due. Check the invoice against the original order and the packing slip, mark it to confirm that the order was received, and pay it. The check number, date, and payment amount should then be recorded on the invoice. Invoices should be placed in a special folder until paid.

question

Payment terms

answer

Many vendors do not charge a handling fee if an order is prepaid. Others offer a discount for enclosing a check with an order. Some delay billing for 30 to 90 days. The vendor's invoice usually describes payment terms.

question

Records

answer

Copies of all bills and order forms for supplies should be kept on file for 10 years in case the practice is audited by the IRS.

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Disbursement

answer

Payment of funds, whether in cash or by check. Usually, you will write a check to the vendor and have the physician sign it. At the time of payment, write the date and check number on the statement, and place it in the paid file. Disbursements can be entered into the accounting records in several ways, depending on the accounting system used.

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Purchasing procedure

answer

The purchasing procedure should follow certain standard practices: An authorized person should be in charge of purchasing. High-quality goods and services should be ordered at the lowest possible prices. Receipts of goods should be recorded. Shipments received should be checked against packing slips to verify that all goods have been received. Invoices should be paid in a timely manner. Paid invoices should be kept on file.

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Accounting

answer

A system of recording, classifying, and summarizing financial transactions.

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Account

answer

In bookkeeping terms, a single financial record category or division. It is used to track debit and credit changes, by date, in reference to a specific matter.

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Account balance

answer

The debit or credit balance remaining in an account.

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Accounts payable

answer

Amounts charged with suppliers or creditors that remain unpaid.

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Accounts receivable

answer

Amounts owed to a business for services or goods supplied.

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Assets

answer

Possessions of value, which in a medical office are inventory, equipment, prepaid rent, and the amounts due from patients.

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Liabilities

answer

Amounts owed to creditors, such as a mortgage on the medical building and the accounts payable.

question

Balance sheet

answer

A financial statement for a specific date or period that indicates the total assets, liabilities, and capital of the business.

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Auditing

answer

The review of financial data to verify accuracy and completeness. Medical assistants responsible for bookkeeping must provide required financial records and answer questions about accounting systems used.

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Bookkeeping

answer

The recording part of the accounting process. Bookkeeping records income, charges, and disbursements. There are three types of manual bookkeeping systems: single-entry, double-entry, and pegboard.

question

Single-entry system

answer

The oldest bookkeeping system, requiring only one entry for each transaction. Because it is not self-balancing, however, it is the hardest system in which to spot errors. It includes several basic records, such as: • Daily log to record charges and payments. • Patient ledger cards • Payroll records • Cash payment journal • Petty cash records

question

Double-entry system

answer

Based on the accounting equation assets = liabilities + owner equity. The materials required for a double-entry bookkeeping system are inexpensive, but the system requires more skill and knowledge of accounting procedures than the single-entry system. It is also more time-consuming to use. After each financial transaction, the medical office using a double-entry system must debit one account and credit another account.

question

Pegboard system

answer

A system consisting of daysheets, ledger cards, patient charge slips, and receipt forms or superbills. A pegboard system usually includes a lightweight board with pegs on the left or right edges and is sometimes called a \"one-write\" system. It is the most commonly used manual medical accounts receivable system and the most expensive to maintain. It used to be the most widely used bookkeeping system in medical practices.

question

A pegboard system has several main advantages

answer

• The system is efficient and time-saving. • The daysheet provides complete and up-to-date information about accounts receivable status at a glance. • The system is easy to learn.

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Charge slip

answer

The original record of the doctor's services and the charge for those services.

question

General journal

answer

A record of the physician's practice. It includes records of services rendered, charges made, and monies received. The general journal is also known by the names daily log, daybook, daysheet, daily journal, and charge journal. This journal is also called the book of original entry because it is where all transactions are first recorded.

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Patient ledger card

answer

A card that contains the patient's name, address, home and work telephone numbers, and the name of the person who is responsible for the charges (if different from the patient). It also contains a record of charges, payment, and adjustments for individual patients or families.

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Accounts receivable ledger

answer

Includes all the individual patients' financial accounts on which there are balances.

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Posting

answer

The process of copying or recording an amount from one record, such as a journal, onto another record, such as a ledger—or from a daysheet onto a ledger card.

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Manual posting

answer

Facilitated by a section at the bottom of each daysheet and a check register page at the end of each month, plus monthly and annual summaries. Accounting records must show every amount paid out, date and check number, and purpose of payment.

question

Computer posting

answer

Using a computer to keep track of and print accounts receivable and accounts payable. Computers are also used to print checks, as well as payment information.

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Accrual basis accounting

answer

Recording income when it is earned and expenses when they are incurred.

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Trial balance

answer

A method of checking the accuracy of accounts. It should be done once a month after all posting has been completed and before preparing the monthly statements. The purpose of a trial balance is to disclose any discrepancies between the journal and the ledger.

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Equity

answer

The net worth of the medical office. Equity equals the practice's total assets minus the total liabilities.

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Balance

answer

The difference between the debit and credit totals.

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Adjustment column

answer

An account column, sometimes included to the left of the balance column, used for entering discounts, debits, credits, refunds, and write-offs.

question

Balance column

answer

The account column on the far right that is used for recording the difference between the debit and credit columns.

question

Debit

answer

An amount usually representing things acquired for the intended use or benefit of a business. It is recorded in the column to the left of the credit column. In each journal entry, the dollar amount of the debit must be equal to the dollar amount of the credit. A debit is also called a charge. Debits are incurred when the practice pays for something, such as medical supplies.

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Credit

answer

An amount constituting an addition to a revenue, net worth, or liability account. It is recorded in the column to the right of the debit column. Credits constitute payments received by the practice, such as from patients or third-party insurance providers.

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Credit balance

answer

Money owed to the patient that results when a patient has paid in advance and there has been an overpayment.

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Refunds

answer

Debit adjustments. If a patient wishes to have an overpayment refunded, write a check for the amount due and enter the transaction on the daysheet.

question

Credit bureau

answer

A company that provides information about the creditworthiness of a person seeking credit. If a patient's credit history is in question, you may request a report from a credit bureau. A sample credit bureau report is shown in Figure 12-3 on the next spread.

question

Equal Credit Opportunity Act

answer

An act that states that credit arrangements may not be denied on the basis of a patient's sex, race, religion, national origin, marital status, or age. Also, credit cannot be denied because the patient receives public assistance or has exercised rights under the Consumer Credit Protection Act, such as disputing a credit card bill or a credit bureau report. Under the Equal Credit Opportunity Act, the patient has a right to know the specific reason that credit was denied.

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Payables

answer

Amounts owed to others.

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In balance

answer

Accounts are in balance when the total ending balances of patient ledgers equals the total of accounts receivable.

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Receipts

answer

Money received.

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Petty cash fund

answer

A fund maintained to pay small, unpredictable cash expenses.

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Reconciliation of bank statement

answer

The process of verifying that the bank statement and the checkbook balances are in agreement. As you reconcile the bank statement with your accounts, be aware of outstanding checks, outstanding deposits, and any service fees the bank may have charged.

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Superbill

answer

A combination charge slip, statement, and insurance reporting form. A superbill includes the charges for services rendered on a day, an invoice for payment or insurance copayment, and all the information for submitting an insurance claim. It is also called an encounter form.

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Medical business

answer

A medical practice is a business that must produce a profit—that is, its income must exceed its expenses. Bookkeeping and banking are essential and must be 100% accurate.

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Absolute accuracy

answer

Necessary when working with bank deposits, reconciliation of statements, and all bookkeeping activities. The medical assistant acts as the agent for the physician.

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Banks

answer

Maintain checking and savings accounts for their customers.

question

Banking functions: Basic bank-related activities carried out by a medical practice include

answer

• Depositing funds • Withdrawing funds • Reconciling statements • Using auxiliary services

question

Types of bank accounts

answer

Medical practices typically use three types of bank account Regular checking account Interest-earning, or interest-bearing, checking account Savings account

question

Regular checking account

answer

Most medical practices have a regular checking account for office expenses. This account does not pay interest but offers availability and flexibility.

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Interest

answer

Money paid to a depositor by a bank or other financial institution for the use of the depositor's money.

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Electronic banking

answer

Banking with the use of computers. Electronic banking has several advantages over traditional banking: It can improve productivity, cash flow, and accuracy. The computer screen can display all checks and deposits that were logged into the register in the order they were posted. In electronic banking, someone must still be responsible for recording and physically depositing checks.

question

Bank statements: All contain certain basic information, including

answer

• Closing date • Caption • List of checks processed • List of deposits

question

Caption

answer

A summary of the account activity that has taken place during the month up to the closing date. It includes the beginning balance, total value of checks processed, total amount of deposits made, service charges, and ending balance.

question

Check

answer

A written order to a bank to pay or transfer money. It is payable on demand and is considered a negotiable instrument. The person who writes the check is called the payer or drawer.

question

Types of checks

answer

Cashier's checks, certified checks, money orders, limited checks, traveler's checks, voucher checks, bank drafts, and warrants.

question

Cashier's check

answer

Written using the bank's own check form and signed by a bank representative. The funds for payment of the check are debited from the payer's account at the time the check is written. A service charge is usually added. Another term for a cashier's check is treasurer's check.

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Certified check

answer

Written on the payer's own check form and verified by the bank with an official stamp. The bank withdraws the money from the payer's account when it certifies the check. The stamp indicates that the bank certifies the availability of the funds.

question

Money order

answer

A certificate of guaranteed payment. It is purchased for the cash value printed on the certificate plus a nominal handling fee. Money orders may be purchased from banks, post offices, and some convenience stores. International money orders can be acquired in U.S. dollars to be cashed in foreign countries.

question

Limited check

answer

Issued on a special check form that displays a preprinted maximum dollar amount for which the check can be written. This type of check often is used for payroll or insurance payments.

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Traveler's check

answer

A check purchased for a small fee for a specified amount of money. It is designed for people who are traveling where personal checks may not be accepted and for people who do not want to carry large amounts of cash. Traveler's checks are also available in foreign currencies. They can be purchased at a bank.

question

Voucher check

answer

Contains a detachable voucher form. It is frequently used for payroll checks because additional information about the transaction can be supplied to the payee. The voucher portion is used to itemize the purpose of the check, deductions, or other information.

question

Bank draft

answer

A check written by a bank against its funds in another bank.

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Warrant

answer

A nonnegotiable check. It is a statement issued to indicate that a debt should be paid, for example, by an insurance company.

question

ABA number

answer

Part of a coding system originated by the American Bankers Association (ABA). It is always located in the upper-right corner of a printed check to identify the location of the bank at which the check is to be redeemed.

question

MICR code

answer

Stands for magnetic ink character recognition code, which appears along the bottom of a check and consists of numbers and characters printed in magnetic ink.

question

Accepting checks

answer

The majority of bills are paid by personal checks drawn on patients' bank accounts. Some checks may be considered risky, such as third-party checks, postdated checks, checks drawn on an out-of-town bank, and checks marked Paid in full that do not represent the total due.

question

Power of attorney

answer

A directive that grants a person the legal right to handle financial matters for another person who is unable to do so.

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Postdated check

answer

A check that bears a date in the future and cannot be cashed until then.

question

Predated or backdated check

answer

A check made out with a date in the past. Predated checks can be accepted as long as the date shown is no more than 6 months before the date on which it is cashed.

question

Third-party check

answer

A check written by an unknown party to a payee (e.g., your patient) who wishes to release the check to you for payment of an outstanding balance. Government and payroll checks used in this way are also third-party checks.

question

Canceled check

answer

A check that has been cashed and thus cannot be issued again.

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Deposits:

answer

Cash or checks placed into a bank account. They can be made to either checking or savings accounts. Checks should be deposited promptly for the following reasons: They may be lost, misplaced, or stolen. There is the possibility of a stop-payment order. They may have a restricted time for cashing.

question

Endorsement

answer

A check must be endorsed to transfer the funds from one person to another. Endorsement is accomplished by signing or rubber-stamping the back of the check, in ink, at the left end. When you accept a check, immediately endorse it and write the words For deposit only on the back.

question

Types of endorsement

answer

There are four principal kinds of endorsement: blank, restrictive, special, and qualified. Blank and restrictive endorsements are the most commonly used.

question

Blank endorsement

answer

A signature only. Also known as an open endorsement, it is the simplest and most common type of endorsement on personal checks.

question

Restrictive endorsement

answer

The words For deposit only followed by the account number and signature.

question

Limited endorsement

answer

The words Pay to the order of and the name, followed by a signature. A check with a limited endorsement functions as a third-party check.

question

Qualified endorsement

answer

Used to disclaim future liability of the endorser, generally consisting of the words Without recourse above the signature. It is most commonly used by lawyers who accept checks on behalf of clients.

question

Deposit slip

answer

After endorsing the check, fill out a deposit slip as shown in Figure 12-6 on the next spread.

question

Methods of deposit

answer

There are three different ways to deposit funds: in person, by mail, or at commercial night depositories. Making deposits in person is the most direct method, and banks immediately provide a receipt to verify transactions.

question

Returned checks

answer

Occasionally, the bank returns a deposited check because of problems such as a missing signature or missing endorsement. A check is also returned if the payer has insufficient funds on deposit to cover it.

question

NSF

answer

Abbreviation for not sufficient funds, meaning that there is not enough money in the account on which a check has been drawn to cover the amount of the check.

question

Handling returned checks

answer

If a check is returned, begin by contacting the person who gave you the check. If payment is not made, or if you cannot track down the person, turn the account over to a collection agency.

question

Bills

answer

All bills should be paid by check for documentation and control purposes. For small payments, such as public transportation costs, petty cash may be used.

question

Office banking policy

answer

Should indicate who is responsible for writing and signing all checks. For good control, one person should write the checks, and another person should be authorized to sign them. Sometimes two authorized signatures are required in order to transfer funds from one account to another or to write checks over a certain amount, such as $1,000.

question

Check writing

answer

Checks are printed on sensitized paper so that erasures are easily noticeable. The bank has the right to refuse payment on any check that has been altered. You must not cross out, erase, or change any part of a check.

question

Check stub

answer

The part of a check that remains in the checkbook after the check has been written and removed.

question

Payee

answer

The person to whom the check is payable.

question

Payer

answer

The person who signs the check to release the funds to the payee.

question

Lost and stolen checks

answer

Occasionally, an outgoing check may be lost or stolen after it has been issued. You must report this situation to the bank promptly. The bank will place a warning on the account, and signatures on cashed checks will be carefully inspected to detect possible forgeries. A stop-payment order should be issued, and the stop-payment notice should be attached to the check stub. The amount of the check should be added to the current checkbook balance. A new check can be issued to replace the one lost.

question

Billing duties of a medical assistant: To be an effective account manager, follow these rules

answer

• Do not be embarrassed to ask for payment for services. The physician or facility has the right to charge for the care and services provided. • Practice good judgment. • Give personal attention and consideration to each patient. • Show a desire to help patients with financial difficulties.

question

Payment at the time of service

answer

Every practice should encourage time-of-service collection. There will be no further billing and bookkeeping expenses if patients get into the habit of paying their current charges before they leave the office.

question

Payment plans and extensions of credit: For procedures and services involving large fees, such as surgery and long-term care, inform patients of:

answer

• What the charges will be • What services these charges cover • Credit policies of the facility • When payment is due • Circumstances in which the practice requires payment at the time of service • When or whether assignment of insurance benefits is accepted • Whether insurance forms will be completed by the office staff • Collection procedures, including circumstances in which accounts will be sent to a collection agency

question

Balance billing

answer

Billing the patient for the difference between the fee and the amount the insurance company allows. Whether balance billing is acceptable depends on the contract with the insurance company.

question

Exceptions and rules

answer

Although there will be exceptions, there must be rules, which should be conveyed in writing to the patient at the outset of the relationship. Any patient who needs special consideration can be counseled individually.

question

Internal billing

answer

In a practice with only a moderate number of accounts, the medical assistant handles the preparation and mailing of statements. A printed statement may be computer-generated, based on a superbill, typewritten, or photocopied from the ledger card.

question

Statement

answer

Should show the service rendered on each date, the charge for each service, the date on which a claim was submitted to the insurance company, the date of payment, and the balance due from the patient. A regular system of mailing statements should be put into operation. Time limits also must be observed in billing third-party payers. Bills for minors must be addressed to parents or legal guardians.

question

Cycle billing

answer

A common billing system that bills each patient once a month but spreads the work of billing over the month. In this system, invoices are sent to patients whose names begin with A-D on one day, those whose names begin with E-H on another day, and so on.

question

Fair Credit Billing Act

answer

A federal law mandating that billing for a balance due or reporting a credit balance of $1 or more must occur every 30 days.

question

Standard payment period

answer

Normally, people are expected to pay bills within 30 days.

question

Open-book account

answer

The most typical account for patients of a medical practice, in which the account is open to charges made occasionally. It uses the last date of payment or charge for each illness as the starting date for determining the time limit on that debt.

question

Written-contract account

answer

An account in which the physician and patient sign an agreement stating that the patient will pay the bill in more than four installments.

question

Single-entry account

answer

An account with only one charge, as is created, for example, when an out-of-town vacationer consults a local physician for an illness.

question

Delinquent accounts

answer

Accounts in which payment is overdue. Payment is the most difficult to collect from two groups of patients: those with hardship cases and those who have moved and have not received an invoice.

question

Hardship cases

answer

Accounts of patients who are poor, uninsured, underinsured, or elderly and on a limited income. Physicians may decide to treat such patients at a deep discount or for free.

question

Payment collection

answer

Evaluation of the success of collections is based on (1) the collection ratio and (2) the accounts receivable ratio.

question

Collection ratio

answer

Measures the effectiveness of the billing system. The basic formula for figuring the collection ratio is to divide the total collections by the net charges (gross charges minus any discounts) to reach the percentage figure.

question

Accounts receivable ratio

answer

Measures how fast outstanding accounts are being paid. The formula for figuring the accounts receivable ratio is to divide the current accounts receivable balance by the average gross monthly charges.

question

Age analysis

answer

The process of classifying and reviewing delinquent accounts by age from the first date of billing. It should list all patient account balances, when charges were incurred, the most recent payment date, and any notes regarding the account. The age analysis is a tool to show, at a glance, the status of each account.

question

Reasons for collecting delinquent accounts: The main reasons to try to collect all delinquent accounts are

answer

Physicians must be paid for services so that they can pay expenses and continue to treat patients. Although a patient cannot be \"fired\" for nonpayment, failure to collect payment can result in the termination of the established patient-physician relationship. Noncollection of medical bills may imply guilt, and a malpractice suit may result.

question

Collection techniques

answer

Include telephone collection calls, collection letters or statements, and personal interviews. Send the first letter or statement when the account is 30 days past due, then follow up at 60 days, at 90 days, and again at 120 days. If you call the patient, make sure that you do so in private and during reasonable hours. Always be respectful and professional, and demonstrate your willingness to help the patient meet his or her financial obligation.

question

Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA)

answer

Creditors may not discriminate against applicants on the basis of sex, marital status, race, national origin, religion, or age. Creditors may not discriminate because an applicant receives public assistance income or has exercised rights under the Consumer Credit Protection Act.

question

Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA)

answer

Credit bureaus are required to supply correct and complete information to businesses to use in evaluating a person's application for credit, insurance, or a job.

question

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act (FDCPA)

answer

Debt collectors are required to treat debtors fairly. Certain collection tactics are also prohibited, such as harassment, false statements, threats, and unfair practices.

question

Truth in Lending Act (TLA)

answer

Creditors are required to provide applicants with accurate and complete credit costs and terms, in clear and understandable language.

question

Illegal collection techniques

answer

It is illegal to harass a debtor. Harassment includes making threats or calls late at night (after 9 p.m.). It is also illegal to threaten action that cannot be legally taken or that is not intended to be taken.

question

Statute of limitations

answer

A statute that limits the time in which rights can be enforced by action. After the statute of limitations expires, no legal collection suit may be brought against a debtor. This time limit depends on the state in which the debt was incurred.

question

Outside collection assistance

answer

When you have done everything possible internally to follow up on an outstanding account and have not received payment, there are still steps you can take: Use a collection agency. If the patient has failed to respond to your final letter or has failed to fulfill a second promise on payment, send the account to the collector without delay.

question

Collection agencies

answer

Medical practices should be careful to avoid collection agencies that use harsh collection practices. Once an account has been turned over to an agency, do not send bills or discuss the account with the patient.

question

Accounts payable

answer

Amounts the physician owes to others for equipment and services, including: Office supplies; Medical supplies and equipment; Equipment repair and maintenance; Utilities; Taxes; Payroll; Rent

question

Accounts payable records

answer

Include purchase orders, packing slips, and invoices.

question

Payroll

answer

The total direct and indirect earning of all employees. Federal, state, and local laws require records to be kept of all salaries and wages paid to employees.

question

Payroll tasks

answer

Include calculating the amount of wages or salaries paid and amounts deducted from employees' earnings. Other payroll tasks involve writing checks, tracking data for payroll taxes, and filling out payroll tax forms.

question

Retention of payroll records

answer

The physician is required by law to keep payroll data for 4 years. The records should include the following information: • Employee's Social Security number • Number of withholding allowances claimed • Gross salary • Deductions for Social Security tax; Medicare tax; federal, state, and other tax withholding; state disability insurance; and state unemployment tax

question

Employer tax identification number (EIN)

answer

Every employer, no matter how small, must have an EIN for reporting federal taxes. It is obtained by completing Form SS-4, Application for Employer Identification Number.

question

Employee identification

answer

Employees are identified for tax purposes by their Social Security numbers.

question

Payroll register

answer

A list of all employees and their earnings, deductions, and other information.

question

Employee earnings

answer

Either salaries or wages, plus indirect forms of payment, such as paid time off and employee benefit and service programs.

question

Salary

answer

A fixed amount paid to an employee on a regular basis regardless of the number of hours worked.

question

Wages

answer

Pay based on a specific rate per hour, day, or week.

question

Payroll deductions

answer

Amounts regularly withheld from a paycheck, such as those for federal, state, and local taxes, as well as those for such options as a 401(k) plan, life insurance, or savings bonds.

question

Methods for calculating payroll checks

answer

Include the manual, the pegboard, and the computer system. Regardless of the accounting system used, attention to accuracy in bookkeeping is necessary. In addition, it is necessary to maintain confidentiality in matters related to employees' wages and salaries.

question

Net earnings

answer

Gross earnings minus total deductions.

question

Payroll services

answer

Some offices hire an outside payroll service to process all payroll checks and withholding payments, as well as to keep records.

question

Types of tax

answer

The federal government mandates payment of the following taxes through withholding: • Social Security • Medicare • Federal income tax

question

Withholding

answer

Amounts of salary held out of payroll checks for the purpose of paying government taxes or for employee benefits.

question

Form W-4

answer

In order to determine the amount of money to be withheld from each paycheck, each new employee must complete a Form W-4, and each employee should update the W-4 regularly.

question

Social Security (FICA)

answer

The Federal Insurance Contribution Act governs the Social Security system. The employee pays half of the contribution, and the employer pays the other half. IRS Circular E lists the FICA tax percentages that should be applied, based on the level of taxable earnings, length of the payroll period, marital status, and number of withholding allowances claimed.

question

Federal Unemployment Tax Act (FUTA)

answer

Requires employers to pay a percentage of each employee's income, up to a specified dollar amount, to fund an account used to pay employees who have been laid off for a specified time while they are seeking new employment. Although FUTA is based on employees' gross income, it must not be deducted from employees' wages. Payments into a state unemployment fund can generally be applied as credit against the FUTA tax amount.

question

State unemployment tax

answer

All states have unemployment compensation laws. Most states require only the employer to make payments to the unemployment insurance fund. However, a few states require both the employer and employee to make a payment. In some states, the employer does not have to make unemployment compensation payments if there are very few employees (four or fewer).

question

State disability insurance

answer

Some states require a certain amount of money to be withheld from the employee's check to cover a disability insurance plan. This plan covers employees in the event of injury or disability.

question

Insurance withholding

answer

Money also may be withheld, as requested by the employee, for health insurance, life insurance, and disability insurance that are available from the employer as employee benefits.

question

Form W-2

answer

Must be completed at the end of each year and given to each employee, with copies to the federal and state governments. The W-2 lists the total gross income; total federal, state, and local taxes withheld; taxable fringe benefits; tips; and the employee's total net income. The amount of wages taxable under Social Security and Medicare must be listed separately on the W-2.

question

Deposit requirements

answer

Federal tax withholding and FICA payments must be made to a federal deposit account in a Federal Reserve Bank or authorized banking institution at regular intervals, at least monthly. The IRS imposes a severe penalty for failure to deposit this money.

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Employer's quarterly federal tax return

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Form 941 (see Figure 12-12) must be filed quarterly to report federal income and FICA taxes withheld from employees' paychecks. It is due before the last day of the first month after the end of a quarter: April 30, July 31, October 31, and January 31.

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Chapter 7 Medical Assisting Concorde – Flashcards 80 terms

Jaxon Craft

80 terms

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Chapter 7 Medical Assisting Concorde – Flashcards

question

written correspondence

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professional image is conveyed

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written documents

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also serve as legal records

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ensures positive and effective communication

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learning how to create, send, and receive correspondence and other types of mail

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letterhead

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refers to formal business stationery on which the doctor's (or office's) name and address are printed at the top

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8 1/2 x 11 inches

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most common size of standard or letter-size paper

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printed together

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business letterhead, matching envelopes, and sometimes invoice and statement letterhead

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no. 10 envelope

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most common envelope size used for correspondence

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no. 6 to no. 10

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envelopes used for invoices and statements

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smaller payment-return envelopes

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preaddressed to the doctor's office-are often included along with a bill, for the patient's convenience

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tan kraft envelopes

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called clasp envelopes, are available in many sizes and are used to send large or bulky documents

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padded envelopes

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used to send documents or materials, such as slides, that may be damages in the normal course of mail handling

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data mailer

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produced by a computer and are used by larger businesses and hospitals for batch mailings for items such as paychecks, appointment reinders and some invoices

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Labels

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address labels, printed from a computerized mailing list, can greatly speead the process of addressing envelopes for builk mailings

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different types of invoices and statements

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preprinted invoices, preprinted statements, computer-generated invoices and statements, superbills

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preprinted invoices

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used to send an original bill

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preprinted statements

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used to send a reminder when an account is 30 or more days past due

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A letter

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a form of communication-much like holding a conversation in person

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purpose of most letters

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explain, clarify, or give instructions or information

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Parts of a buisiness letter

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letterhead, dateline, inside address, attention line, salutation, subject line, body, complimentary closing, signature block, identification line, notations

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letterhead (business letter)

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the preprinted portion of a formal business stationery

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dateline

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consists of the month, day, and year. approximately line 15

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inside address

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contains all the necessary information for correct delivery of the letter

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attention line

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used when a letter is addressed to a company but sent to the attention of a particular individual

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salutation

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a written greeting such as "Dear," followed by Mr., Mrs., or Ms., and the person's last name

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subject line

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sometimes used to bring the subject of the letter to the reader's attention. should be keyed on the second line below the salutation

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body

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begins two lines below the salutation or subject line. The text is single-spaced with double-spacing between paragraphs

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complimentary closing

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"Sincerely", "Very truly yours" and "Best regards"

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signature block

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contains the writer's name on the first line and the writer's business title on the second line

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identification line

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the letter writer's initials followed by a colon or slash and the typist's initials are sometimes included in the letter

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notations

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include information such as the number of enclosures that are included with the letter and the names of other people who will be receiving copies of the letter

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punctuation styles

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open and mixed

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open punctuation

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this style uses no punctuation after the following items when they appear in a letter: The word Attention in the attention line, the salutation, the complimentary closing, the signature block, and the enclosure and copy notations

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mixed punctuation

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this style includes the following punctuation marks used in specific instances: a colon after Attention in the attention line, a colon after the salutation, a comma after the complimentary closing, a colon or period after the enclosure notation, a colon after the copy notation

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the margin

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the space around the edges of a form or letter that is left blank.

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roughly center

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according to the length of the letter.

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single space

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the body of the letter

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double space

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between paragraphs or parts of the letter

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use short sentences

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no more than 20 words on average

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include at lease

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2 or 3 sentences in each paragraph

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divide long paragraphs

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more than 10 lines of type into shorter ones

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for multipage letters

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use letterhead for the first page

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letter styles

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full-block, modified block, modified-block style with indented paragraphs, and simplified

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full-block style

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typed with all lines flush left, one of the most common formats used in the medical office

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modified-block style

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the dateline, complimentary closing, signature block, and notations are aligned and begin at the center of the page or slightly to the right. this type of letter has a traditional, balanced appearance

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modified-block style with indented paragraphs

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paragraphs are indented one-half inch

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simplified style

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a modification of the full-block style

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effective writing

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before you write, know the type of person to whom you are writing, know the purpose of the letter before you begin, be concise, show clarity, use the active voice whenever possible, always be polite and courteous, always check spelling and the accuracy of dates and monetary figures, always check your grammar, avoid leaving "widows and orphans" or dangling words and phrases

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widows and orphans

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words and short phrases at the end or beginning of paragraphs that are left to sit alone at the top or bottom of a page or colum or separated from the rest of the thought

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templates

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most word processing software have these

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editing

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involves checking a document for factual accuracy, logical flow, conciseness, clarity, and tone

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proofreading

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involves checking a document for grammatical, spelling, and formatting errors

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editing and proofreading

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whenever possible, ask another person to proofread your owrk as well. NEver skip over the very important steps of editing and proofreading

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tools for editing and proofreading

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dictionary and medical dictionary

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editing process

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ensures that a document is accurate, clear, and complete; free of grammatical errors; organized logically; and written in an appropriate style

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language usage

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learn basic grammar rules. continually ask yourself, "Is this the best way to convey what I want to say?

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content

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follow logical thought pattern

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create a clean, concise letter by

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stating the purpose of the letter in the first sentence, discussing one topic at a time, changing paragraphs when you change topics, listing events in chronological order, sticking to the subject, selecting words carefully, reading over what you have written before printing

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after editing a document

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put it aside for a short time before proofreading it

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formatting, data, and mechanical

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three types of errors that occur when preparing a document

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formatting errors

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these errors involve the positioning of the various parts of a letter. they may include errors in indenting, line length, or line spacing.

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data errors

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involve mistyping monetary figures. verify the accuracy of all figures by checking them twice or by having another coworker check them

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mechanical errors

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errors in spelling, punctuation, spacing between words, and division of words

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signing letters

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if you have been authorized to sign letters, you should sign the doctor's name and place your initials after the doctor's signature

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airmail supplies

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if you are sending an item by airmail, attach special airmail stickers, available from the post office, on all sides

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postal rates, scales, and meters

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postal rates and regulations change periodically, and every medical office should have a copy of the latest guidelines

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first-class mail

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items must weigh 11 ounces or less to be considered first-class. the cost of mailing a first-class item is based on its weight

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parcel post

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weigh at least one pound but not more than 70 pounds

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priority mail

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weighs between 11 ounces and 70 pounds.

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special delivery

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delivery of the item is typically made before the regularly scheduled mail delivery

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certified mail

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offers a guarantee that the item has been received. requires the postal carrier to obtain a signature upon delivery

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registered mail

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used to send items that are valuable, irreplaceable, or otherwise important

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tracing mail

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you can also trace mail on the internet through a UPC symbol that is scanned at the post office

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other delivery services

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UPS, Federal Express, and DHL, messengers or couriers

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processing incoming mail

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sorting, opening, recording, annotating, and distributing

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sorting and opening

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unless you have special permission never open personal mail addressed to another person

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recording

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keep a log of each day's mail

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annotating

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to underline or highlight key points of the letter or to write reminders, comments, or suggested actions in the margins or on self-adhesive notes

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distributing

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sort letters into separate batches for distribution

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handling drug and product samples

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such as hand creams or cough drops, may be placed in the patient treatment area for patient distribution as directed by the physician. store all other drug samples in a locked cabinet reserved solely for such samples

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cannot register

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parcel post or express mail

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COM/BUS 115 Chapter 14 – Flashcards 57 terms

Alexandra Robertson

57 terms

Preview

COM/BUS 115 Chapter 14 – Flashcards

question

What percentage of journalists visit a corporate newsroom at least once a week?

answer

30%

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What percentage of US adults still watch the news?

answer

70%

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If one paid about $700 for a "smart" release to be distributed throughout the U.S., the headline should be no longer than how many words?

answer

question

The news release was created by Ivy Lee in what year?

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1906

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What should the last paragraph of a news release contain?

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Basic information about the organization

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Which is a common element of a media kit?

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bios of executives

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When writing a news release, which of the following is important?

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highlight the name of the company or product in the headline

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What is integral to photo composition?

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include a number of key individuals to enhance publishing chances

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The most widely used document issued by practitioners to news media is the

answer

news release

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What is the most commonly used PR tactic?

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News Releases

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Which of these items would NOT be included in a press kit?

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project advertising budget

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Which of the following is true about a fact sheet?

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They can be corporate profiles

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The key to a successful news release when sent by e-mail:

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To get to the point quickly

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What is a junket media tour?

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A free trip by a member of the press to a place where something (such as a new movie) is being promoted

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What are infographics?

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A visual format to display data points in an easy-to-understand image

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_____ should always be avoided when pitching a story by email.

answer

Adding attachments

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A smart media release includes all but _____.

answer

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