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Mr. Smith goes to Washington questions – Flashcards 49 terms

Patrick Turner
49 terms
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Mr. Smith goes to Washington questions – Flashcards
question
What happened to senator Samuel Foley?
answer
He died
question
Who was the other senator?
answer
Senator Joseph Paine
question
What did the governor have to do?
answer
Appoint a new senator
question
Who was Joe Paine talking to and what about?
answer
Jim Taylor, who is the new senator
question
Who and why do the governor's children recommend?
answer
Jefferson Smith cause they see him as a hero and he's the head of Boy Rangers
question
What was Jefferson smith's profession?
answer
Head of Boy Rangers
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Why was Jim Taylor upset that Jefferson's was appointed?
answer
The govener didn't appoint Mills, and didn't ask Jim Taylor.
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How did Sen. Paine know Jefferson Smith originally?
answer
Friends w/ his father
question
What was Jefferson's father's job?
answer
Editor and publisher of a job
question
What happened to Jefferson's father?
answer
Killed by a shot in his back.
question
What does Jefferson do when he arrives at the train station?
answer
Looks for his prize pigeons, and meets girls
question
Who does McGann call in Mr. Smith's office to check on him?
answer
Saunders
question
Why does Saunders get the press to humiliate Jefferson?
answer
To quit easier
question
What does Paine do to get Saunders to stay?
answer
Gave her a bonus
question
Why does another senator not want Smith to get the oath of office?
answer
The papers humiliated him
question
What does Senator Smith do to the press after he finds out they've humiliated him?
answer
Punches every reporter in the face
question
Why does the press say they're the only ones who could tell the truth?
answer
they don't have to be re-elected
question
What does Senator Paine suggests senator smith do to cheer him up after the press corps make fun of him?
answer
Create a national boys camp bill
question
Why does smith fiddle with his hat around Paine's daughter?
answer
He is attracted to her and nervous
question
Mr. Smith gets Saunders to help. What does she do help him?
answer
Telling how it becomes a law and records the bill.
question
What was the steering committee?
answer
the committee designed of majority party leaders with power to decide the order the bills are addressed
question
Where did Smith want to locate the national boys camp.
answer
Willet Creek
question
What happens between Smith and Saunders during the bill writing?
answer
Have a moment
question
What do Paine and McGann do when Smith says "Willet Creek"?
answer
Leave the room in a big hurry
question
Why does Susan Paine want to take Smith out?
answer
So her dad can propose the bill of Willet Creek without Smith there
question
Why does Saunders want to marry Diz and get out of town?
answer
She can't stand Smith being with Susan
question
Why does Saunders finally tell Smith about the Willet Creek dam?
answer
She was drunk and jealous and he asked
question
Why was Taylor upset at the governor?
answer
Smith is questioning about The Willet Creek da
question
What does Taylor offer to smith if he keeps quiet?
answer
Offers him any job or a senate seat for the rest of his life
question
What does Payne ask Taylor to do?
answer
Not be too rough with smith
question
What does Paine do on the Senate floor the next morning?
answer
Accuses Smith of being in office for personal gain by using willet creek as a boy's dam. Calls for a Committee of Ethics
question
What happens in the committee
answer
Smith is set up for the Willet creek dam fall, a lot of people lie for money.
question
What does Paine do in the committee?
answer
Says Smith is a horrible person and sets him up
question
What does Smith do in the committee?
answer
Runs out in a woof
question
Who comes to see Smith at the Lincoln memorial?
answer
Miss Clarissa Saunders
question
How will Smith only yield?
answer
Question or personal note.
question
How does Senator Smith get the senators back?
answer
Uses the senates rule for a filibuster
question
What do Saunders and Diz do?
answer
Starts righting for Smith in papers, sending it out.
question
What does Taylor do to stop Smith?
answer
Gets all the newspapers in his state to put propaganda about smith
question
What is Mr. Smith reading during the filibuster?
answer
Declaration of independence and Constitution
question
What network was the reporter working for?
answer
CBS
question
What does Saunders say in the note?
answer
Jeff you're wonderful, read the Constitution slowly next and Diz says i'm in love with you. PS he's right.
question
What was Taylor doing to the press in his state?
answer
Making them write lies about smith.
question
How does Saunders counter Taylor?
answer
She gets Boy Stuff to print the truth.
question
What happens to the kids newspaper deliveries?
answer
they're stolen and compromised. They are beaten and bruised
question
How long has senator smith talked?
answer
23 hours and 16 minutes.
question
What does Paine have brought to the Senate?
answer
Telegrams from his state saying that they want him to yield the floor.
question
What happens to Smith?
answer
He passes out, after giving a huge speech.
question
How is Senator Smith proven right?
answer
Paine finally tells the truth.
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PTA 120 Unit 11 Discharge Planning – Flashcards 52 terms

Jason Westley
52 terms
Preview
PTA 120 Unit 11 Discharge Planning – Flashcards
question
Slide/Content: Question
answer
Answer-
question
2/Objectives: Discuss the process of patient/client discharge from physical therapy services
answer
...
question
2/Objectives: Define discharge planning
answer
...
question
2/Objectives: Compare and contrast what is meant by discharge and discontinue
answer
...
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2/Objectives: Discuss issues related to patient discharge from different types of settings
answer
...
question
2/Objectives: Identify those elements of the discharge planning process that the physical therapy department is likely to be involved in
answer
...
question
2/Objectives: Identify members of the healthcare team that are involved with patient discharge
answer
...
question
3/Discharge vs. Discontinue: According to the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice. APTA. 2nd edition, define discharge.
answer
Discharge - the process of discontinuing interventions in a single episode of care when goals have been met
question
3/Discharge vs. Discontinue: According to the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice. APTA. 2nd edition, define discontinue.
answer
Discontinue - ending PT services during a single episode of care when goals have not been met
question
4/Discontinue: List 3 indicators for discontinuing.
answer
Indications for discontinuing: 1 - Patient's desire to stop treatment 2 - Patient's inability to progress toward goals due to medical, financial or psychosocial complications 3 - PT's decision that the patient will no longer benefit from physical therapy
question
4/Discontinue: If a pt. is discontinued before meeting goals what 3 actions should you take?
answer
If patient is discontinued before meeting goals: 1 - Document patient status 2 - Document rationale 3 - Provide appropriate follow-up and/or referral
question
5/Discharge Planning: When do you plan for discharge?
answer
Nothing lasts forever ... The plan for the last day of PT starts at the beginning
question
5/Discharge Planning: Is discharge planning important for acute care?
answer
Yes, but it can sometimes be less than one day
question
5/Discharge Planning: What are the PT and PTA roles in discharge planning?
answer
PT puts the plan into place. The PTA alerts the PT to changes that may alter the discharge plan
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6/Discharge Plan Components: What section of the evaluation contains part of the discharge plan? What info will it contain?
answer
Prognosis: 1 - Number and length of treatment sessions 2 - Projected length of episode of care
question
6/Discharge Plan Components: What are the possible discharge settings? Generally, does the PT's opinion matter here?
answer
Optimal discharge setting: Home, outpatient/inpatient/home PT follow-up. PT's are very good at determining the d/c setting.
question
6/Discharge Plan Components: List the 2 basic items needed by the pt at d/c.
answer
Patients needs upon discharge: 1 Durable Medial Equipment, DME 2 - Home Exercise Plan, HEP
question
7/Healthcare Team: List the other members of the health care team involved in d/c.
answer
1 - Case/Care Manager 2 - Physician 3 - Nursing 4 - Social Worker 5 - Other therapists.
question
7/Healthcare Team: How does the Case/Care Manager get involved in d/c?
answer
Case/Care Manager: 1 - Coordination of discharge from all angles 2 - Contacts facilities, manages insurance issues, may order equipment
question
7/Healthcare Team: How does the Physician get involved in d/c?
answer
Physician: 1 - Orders for necessities after discharge from inpatient. 2 - Outpatient: report of PT; follow-up if necessary. 3 - Meds, DME, follow-up PT
question
7/Healthcare Team: How does Nursing get involved in d/c?
answer
Nursing: 1 - Preparing patient for discharge 2 - Belongings, meds, instructions
question
7/Healthcare Team: How does the Social Worker get involved in d/c?
answer
Social Worker: Setting up home services, i.e. Meals on Wheels, etc.
question
7/Healthcare Team: Who are the possible other therapists? (3)
answer
Others: OT, SLP, respiratory therapist
question
8/Discharge Summary: Who writes and signs the d/c?
answer
Written and signed by PT, but the PTA may write some of it (sign, if yes)
question
8/Discharge Summary: What is the d/c based on? Can the PTA contribute?
answer
Based on examination and evaluation by PT of patient's discharge status, PTA may contribute
question
8/Discharge Summary: What type of info is in the d/c?
answer
Describes the success of PT services provided
question
9/Discharge Summary Components: List the 5 components of the d/c summary.
answer
1 - Attendance 2 - Current baseline data - discharge disposition 3 - Summary from initial evaluation 4 - Assessment - compare initial to current 5 - Plan for home or new setting
question
9/Discharge Summary Components: What is in the current baseline data?
answer
Current baseline data - 1 - discharge disposition Cognition, ROM, MMT, posture, pain, functional mobility, etc. 2 - DME
question
9/Discharge Summary Components: What parts of the initial eval are summarized in the d/c?
answer
Summary from initial evaluation: PT dx, goals, POC
question
9/Discharge Summary Components: What is the plan portion of the d/c?
answer
Plan for home or new setting: 1 - Home or outpatient PT 2 - HEP 3 - Follow-up
question
10/Discharge Summary: What are the PTA considerations with regard to the d/c summary?
answer
Considerations for the PTA: 1 - May be done after patient discharge from hospital 2 - Do not necessarily reassess EVERYTHING 3 - Current baseline/status
question
11/Discharge from Outpatient Setting: List 6 considerations for outpatient d/c
answer
1 - Patient should be independent with HEP 2 - Patient should have all of the tools they need 3 - What to do if things change 4 - What to do if things change 5 - Work together with OT, SLP, Ex.Phys. 6 - Consider patient follow-up
question
11/Discharge from Outpatient Setting: List three tools that pts might need when discharged from the outpatient setting (3)
answer
Patient should have all of the tools they need: DME, theraband, written HEP
question
11/Discharge from Outpatient Setting: What type of info should accompany the pt. if things change after d/c from an outpatient setting (2)
answer
What to do if things change. See MD? Return to PT?
question
11/Discharge from Outpatient Setting: What would you consider for pt follow-up? (3)
answer
Consider patient follow-up:1 - 6 months - one year 2 - Outcome measures 3 - Marketing tool
question
12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: What does the d/c from an inpatient rehab setting depend on?
answer
Depends on where they are going
question
12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: List possible inpatient rehab d/c destination settings. (6)
answer
ALF? SNF? LTC? Home? With caregiver? With home PT?
question
12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: List 5 considerations for inpatient rehab d/c.
answer
1 - Patient may be independent with HEP 2 - Patient should have all of the tools they need 3 - What to do if things change 4 - Work together with OT, SLP, RN, MD, Case Management, CM, Social Worker, SW 5 - Consider patient follow-up, Outcome measures
question
12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: List three tools that pts might need when discharged from the inpatient rehab setting (3)
answer
Patient should have all of the tools they need: DME, theraband, written HEP
question
12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: What type of info should accompany a pt if things change after d/c from an inpatient rehab. (2)
answer
What to do if things change: See MD? Return to hospital?
question
13/Discharge from Acute Setting: T/F The time frame in an acute setting is lengthy and drawn out.
answer
False: Time frame - short!
question
13/Discharge from Acute Setting: Who are the individuals involved in d/c from an acute setting? (8)
answer
More individuals involved: PT/PTA, OT, SLP, RN, CM, SW, MD (PA?), consults/surgeons
question
13/Discharge from Acute Setting: What does the d/c from an acute setting depend on?
answer
Depends on where they are going
question
13/Discharge from Acute Setting: List 6 possible destination settings following d/c from an acute setting.
answer
ALF? SNF? LTC? Home? With caregiver? With home PT?
question
13/Discharge from Acute Setting: What is also considered "home" for a pt. leaving an acute care setting?
answer
What is also considered to be home? ALF
question
13/Discharge from Acute Setting: List 3 considerations for an acute setting d/c.
answer
1 - Patient may be independent with HEP 2 - Patient should have all of the tools they need 3 - What to do if things change
question
13/Discharge from Acute Setting: List three tools that pts might need when discharged from an acute setting (3)
answer
Patient should have all of the tools they need: DME, theraband, written HEP
question
13/Discharge from Acute Setting: What type of info should accompany a pt if things change after d/c from an acute setting. (2)
answer
What to do if things change: See MD? Return to hospital?
question
14/Focus on Evidence: What is the famous study regarding PT and d/c recommendations. When was it done.
answer
Smith BA, Fields CJ, et al. Physical therapists make accurate and appropriate discharge recommendations for patients who are acutely ill. Phys Ther. 2010; 90:693-703
question
14/Focus on Evidence: How often are PT d/c recommendations followed according to the Smith & Fields study?
answer
PT's d/c recommendations were implemented 83% of the time
question
14/Focus on Evidence: How often were pts more likely to be readmitted when PT's recommendations for d/c were not implemented according to the Smith & Fields study?
answer
Patients 2.9 x more likely to be readmitted when PT's d/c recommendation not implemented
question
14/Focus on Evidence: What was the conclusion of the Smith & Fields study?
answer
Conclusion: supports the role of the PT in d/c planning in acute care setting
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Unit 7 Lymphatic System – Flashcards 75 terms

Daphne Armenta
75 terms
Preview
Unit 7 Lymphatic System – Flashcards
question
Slide/Topic: Question
answer
Answer
question
2/Unit Objectives: Describe activities that may aggravate or relieve edema
answer
...
question
2/Unit Objectives: Define edema
answer
...
question
2/Unit Objectives: Identify considerations for the PTA when working with a patient with lymphedema
answer
...
question
2/Unit Objectives: List therapies used in physical therapy intervention for the treatment of lymphedema
answer
...
question
2/Unit Objectives: Cite common medical and surgical management options for lymphedema
answer
...
question
2/Unit Objectives: List etiologies, risk factors and clinical manifestations (signs and symptoms) of lymphedema
answer
...
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2/Unit Objectives: Describe lymphedema
answer
...
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2/Unit Objectives: Explain briefly the anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system
answer
...
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2/Unit Objectives: Discuss the impact of diseases of the lymphatic system on rehabilitation
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...
question
3/Review of Concepts: Define Anthropometric measurements.
answer
The measurement of the size and proportions of the human body by measuring, recording, and analyzing specific dimensions of the body, such as height and weight; skin-fold thickness; and bodily circumference at the waist, hip, chest and extremities.
question
3/Review of Concepts: When are Anthropometric measurements made?
answer
Used when abnormalities are noted during the observation and palpation phase of assessment
question
3/Review of Concepts: Provide examples of Anthropometric measurements made?(3)
answer
1 - Volumetric - Swollen finger, toes, hands, feet. 2 - Palpation - Edema and temperature 3 - Girth - Swollen limbs
question
4/A&P of Lymphatic System: What does the lymphatic system do?
answer
Collects the remaining 10% of interstitial fluid remaining after extracellular fluid is resorbed by veins.
question
4/A&P of Lymphatic System: For what reason does this interstitial remain uncollected by the venous system?
answer
Filled with many proteins too big for the venous system. The healthy lymph system can handle the collection of them.
question
4/A&P of Lymphatic System: What is the approximate volume collected daily
answer
About 2 liters/day
question
5/Anatomy of Lymphatic Vessels: What is the path of flow in the lymphatic system?
answer
Initial lymphatic vessels > collecting vessels > lymphatic ducts/trunks > subclavian veins > heart
question
5/Anatomy of Lymphatic Vessels: What is the direction of fluid movement?
answer
Fluid moves from periphery to central circulation
question
5/Anatomy of Lymphatic Vessels: What scientific principle drives the lymph system?
answer
Pressure-driven system (principles of osmosis)
question
5/Anatomy of Lymphatic Vessels: Describe the spontaneous contraction of lymphatic vessels
answer
Uses extrinsic pumping mechanisms the result of skeletal muscles actions, arteriol pulses, respiration, and mechanical message.
question
6/Regional Lymphatic System: What is a lymphatome?
answer
A map of the body's lymph draining territories, which are bordered and separated by watershed areas. These are interconnected both superficially and deep.
question
7/Anatomy of Lymphatic System: Describe the thoracic duct
answer
leading from the cisterna chyli to discharge into the left sublcavian vein in the neck. Responsible for most of the trunk, LE, LUE, and left side of neck and head.
question
7/Anatomy of Lymphatic System: Describe the right lymphatic duct
answer
carries far less lymph than the thoracic duct, draining mainly the right arm and head, the heart and lungs, and the anterior chest wall.
question
8/Lymphatic System Functions: What is the primary purpose of the lymphatic system?
answer
Maintain fluid balance in tissues
question
8/Lymphatic System Functions: What other system does it work and closely resemble?
answer
Works with the venous system
question
8/Lymphatic System Functions: What are some of the functions of the lymphatic system?(3)
answer
1 - Fight infection. 2 - Assist in the removal of cellular debris. 3 - Removal of waste products from extracellular spaces1 -
question
9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: What is Lymphangitis?
answer
Lymphangitis - inflammation of a lymphatic vessel
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9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: What is Lymphadenitis
answer
Lymphadenitis - inflammation of lymph node(s)
question
9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: What is Lymphadenopathy?
answer
Lymphadenopathy - enlargement of lymph node(s) not necessarily due to infection of lymph node, but more likely due to fighting other infection.
question
9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: What is Lymphedema?
answer
Lymphedema - increased lymph in soft tissues
question
9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: How many stages to Lymphedema? How are they identified?
answer
4 - Stage 0, Stage I, Stage II & Stage III
question
9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: Describe Stage 0 of Lymphedema
answer
Lymph transport capacity is reduced, no clinical edema is present.
question
9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: Describe Stage I of Lymphedema
answer
Accumulation of protein-rich, pitting edema. Reversible with elevation, affected areas normal size on waking in the morning. Increases with activity, heat and humidity.
question
9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: Describe Stage II of Lymphedema
answer
Accumulation of protein-rich, nonpitting edema wth connective scar tissue. Irreversible, does not resolve overnight; increasingly more difficult to pit. Clinical fibrosis is present. Skin changes present in severe Stage II.
question
9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: Describe Stage III of Lymphedema
answer
Accumulation of protein-rich edema with significant increase in connective and scar tissue. Severe nonpitting fibrotic edema. Atrophic changes (hardening of dermal tissue, skin folds, skin papillomas, and hyperkeratosis)
question
10/Lymphedema: What is edema?
answer
Edema - accumulation of excessive fluid within the interstitial tissues or within body cavities
question
10/Lymphedema: What is lymphedema?
answer
Lymphedema - swelling of soft tissues that results from the accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the extracellular spaces. Lymph transport capacity is inadequate. Therefore there is a decrease in absorption and an ncrease in lymphatic load
question
11/Lymphedema: What is primary lymphedema?
answer
Due to trauma, hereditary or idiopathic state
question
11/Lymphedema: What is secondary lymphedema?
answer
Due to removal of lymph nodes
question
12/Pitting Edema Scale: What is pitting edema?
answer
Pitting edema = presence of indentations in the skin when pressure is applied
question
12/Pitting Edema Scale: What are the scores for pitting edema?
answer
1+, 2+, 3+, & 4+
question
12/Pitting Edema Scale: Describe the 1+ score for pitting edema.
answer
Indentation barely detactable
question
12/Pitting Edema Scale: Describe the 2+ score for pitting edema.
answer
Slight indentationvisible when skin is depressed, returns to normal in 15 seconds
question
12/Pitting Edema Scale: Describe the 3+ score for pitting edema.
answer
Deeper indentation occurs when pressed and returns to normal within 30 seconds
question
12/Pitting Edema Scale: Describe the 4+ score for pitting edema.
answer
Indentation lasts for more than 30 seconds
question
13/Lymphedema - Sequelae: Define Sequelae
answer
Complications
question
13/Lymphedema - Sequelae: Functional limitations & disability in Lymphedema are the result of?
answer
1 - Increased limb girth and weight - alteration of gait pattern. 2 - Discomfort 3 - Neuromuscular deficits. 4 - Integumentary complications
question
13/Lymphedema - Sequelae: What is the discomfort the result?
answer
Pain from extra tissue/weight
question
13/Lymphedema - Sequelae: What is trophic?
answer
thickening of the skin
question
14/Lymphedema - Etiology: Lymphedema common in populations such as? (5)
answer
1 - Post-mastectomy (especially LN removal). 2 - Lymph node dissection. 3 - Reconstructive surgeries 4 - Radiation treatments. 5 - Structural or functional impairment of lymphatic system
question
15/Medical Management: What was the philosophy of the 90's for cancer?
answer
Treat cancer first, then lymphedema
question
15/Medical Management: What is the history of medications for lymphedema?
answer
Diuretics - for edema (Na driven), not lymphedema... could actually worsen problem. The future is proteolytic drugs - those that break down proteins to smaller molecules that can more easily be re-absorded.
question
15/Medical Management: What is the history of surgery?
answer
No clinically successful measures, Debulking, anastomoses of lymph vessels
question
16/Considerations for the PTA: Describe healthy lymph nodes. When should the patient be referred to a physcian?
answer
Lymph nodes - should be non-palpable, soft. Palpable/hard lymph nodes - refer to physician
question
16/Considerations for the PTA: The therapist should provide pt with S&S of lymphedema especially when? (2)
answer
Pt education: S&S of lymphedema. Especially with history of (h/o) radiation, mastectomy, etc.
question
16/Considerations for the PTA: Why do girth measurements?
answer
Monitor changes in swelling
question
16/Considerations for the PTA: Lymphedema may be lifelong issued, when?
answer
May be lifelong if patient has had lymphatic tissue removed
question
16/Considerations for the PTA: What are the 3 categories for Lymphedema precautions
answer
3 categories: infection prevention, circulatory compromise, stress on impaired lymphatic system
question
17/Considerations for the PTA: What are the considerations for a BP cuff with lymphedema patients?
answer
Do not place cuff above IV line or AV shunt; on involved side. If involved side can't be avoided, do not inflate cuff > average systolic pressure
question
17/Considerations for the PTA: Why are lymphedema pts prone to infection?
answer
Prone to infection due to poor healing and poor skin integrity
question
17/Considerations for the PTA: Properly fitting shoes, skin checks etc should be provided for lymphedema pts, why?
answer
They are prone to infection and rubbing etc could lead to it.
question
17/Considerations for the PTA: Lymphedema certification for PTs & PTAs can be obtained where?
answer
Academy of Lymphatic Studies. Norton School of Lymphatic Therapy
question
18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: What is Manual lymphatic drainage (MLD)?
answer
MLD (Manual Lymph Drainage) is a gentle, superficially applied manual treatment technique designed to improve the activity of intact lymph vessels by providing mild mechanical stretches on the wall of the lymph collectors. Requires the PT/PTA to obtain additional training.
question
18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: List 3 apparatus to assist lymphedema patients.
answer
Compression bandaging/garments/pumps
question
18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: What is the order for exercise for Lymphedema patients?
answer
Exercise - Specific order (trunk muscles, then limb girdle muscles, proximal to distal on limb, finish with trunk exercise & deep breathing to enhance flow of lymph through thoracic duct)
question
18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: List 6 educaton points for lymphedema patients.
answer
Basic anatomy, skin/nail care, self-massage, self-bandaging, garment care, infection management
question
18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: Lymphedema patients require what other non-tangible support?
answer
Psychological and emotional support
question
19/Manual Lymphatic Drainage: How does MLD improve lymph vessel activity?
answer
Improves activity of intact lymph vessels by providing mild mechanical stretches on the wall of the lymph collectors
question
19/Manual Lymphatic Drainage: What does massage mean? Why is it not appropriate to be used as a descriptor for MLD?
answer
Massage means to knead and MLD does not have kneading elements. Also, massage is applied to subfascial tissues and MLD is suprafascial
question
19/Manual Lymphatic Drainage: Where are lymph collectors located on the body?
answer
lymph collectors are located in the dermal and subcutaneous regions (superficial to fascia)
question
20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: What is the first phase of complete Decongestive PT called? How long does it usually last?
answer
Intensive phase (BID for 4-6 weeks)
question
20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: What does the 1st phase of complete decongestive PT consist of? What happens toward the end of this phase?
answer
Meticulous skin care, MLD, bandaging, exercises with bandage on. Toward end of this phase, patient fitted for compression garment
question
20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: What is the 2nd phase of decongestive PT called?
answer
Self-management phase (started when edema is under control)
question
20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: What does the 2nd phase of complete decongestive PT consist of?
answer
Patient performs own skin care and MLD, applies own compression garment during the day and bandaging at night.
question
20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: T/F During 2nd phase of complete decongestive PT, a patient may still perform exercises with the bandage or the compression garment
answer
TRUE
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Chapter 11 Quiz Tech Cust – Flashcards 54 terms

Deloris Connelly
54 terms
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Chapter 11 Quiz Tech Cust – Flashcards
question
Which of these is not one of the steps in the training process?
answer
Perform
question
The textbook states that mass market training materials may change the role of user trainer from preparer and presenter to coordinator and evaluator.
answer
True
question
During which training step does a trainer develop details about the specific topics to cover and how to present them?
answer
Preparation
question
When a trainer is confronted with trainees of varying ability levels, the trainer should target the training activities to the lowest ability level to meet the needs of all trainees.
answer
False
question
When organizing a list of topics, most trainers begin with lower-level skills, such as basic vocabulary terms and concepts first, and then progress to skill-building activities.
answer
True
question
Which of these learning methods generally results in the lowest retention and poorest trainee performance?
answer
Listen
question
The more that trainees are active participants in the learning process, the better they will retain information.
answer
True
question
A delivery method is a choice a trainer makes among several instructional technologies, media and ways to present information.
answer
True
question
Role playing is an effective method for training user support specialists in communication and customer service skills because trainees rehearse actual work environment situations.
answer
True
question
When covered in a training session, features of hardware or software that are unusual, rarely used features are sometimes called ____.
answer
bells and whistles
question
Users usually need at least a basic understanding of a computer's operation before they can become skills users of technology.
answer
True
question
Since users are primarily adults, no explanation of motivation ("Why are we learning this?"), is needed in a training session.
answer
False
question
A learning management system is a software application that automates the role of trainer for small businesses that cannot afford a trainer position.
answer
False
question
Online reading materials with ____________________ can be interactive so that users can quickly follow pointers to locate the specific information they need.
answer
hyperlinks
question
Visual aids are an effective training delivery method because many trainees retain visual information better than information they have only heard.
answer
True
question
Which of the sequences below ranks the cognitive skills in Bloom's Taxonomy from simple to complex? A) Know B) Analyze C) Synthesize D) Evaluate
answer
A, B, C, D
question
Social learning (peer-to-peer) is most common in which kind of learning format?
answer
Small groups/teams
question
One of the most effective ways to enable users to be more self-reliant is through a ____.
answer
user training program
question
Printed materials designed to be taken from a training session to refresh a trainee's memory later are called ____.
answer
handouts
question
Reading materials selected for a training session should match the reading level of the trainees.
answer
True
question
When trainers begin to prepare specific training materials for a session, they generally start from scratch to avoid copyright problems.
answer
False
question
Training and education are distinct processes that are independent of each other.
answer
False
question
A trainer who is unsure of the ability levels in a group of trainees may need to administer a short pretest to determine their baseline ability levels.
answer
True
question
Training is a teaching and learning process that aims to provide conceptual understanding and long-term thinking skills.
answer
False
question
Lectures, reading assignments, discussions, visual aids, handouts, demonstrations, tutorials, group projects and hands-on assignments are examples of different training delivery methods.
answer
True
question
When a trainer is confronted with trainees of varying ability levels, the trainer should target the training activities to the lowest ability level to meet the needs of all trainees.
answer
False
question
Which of these skill levels deals with the meanings of the words people use to exchange information about a subject?
answer
Concepts and understanding
question
A delivery method is a choice a trainer makes among several instructional technologies, media and ways to present information.
answer
True
question
Experienced trainers have found that web-based training (WBT) makes low-cost, uniformly high quality, effective training available world-wide.
answer
False
question
Which is true of small groups training versus larger classes?
answer
More individual assistance is available
question
A visual learner/nonverbal would probably prefer to read a manual rather than listen to a lecture on a training topic.
answer
True
question
Most trainers start from scratch when they develop a list of topics to cover in a training session.
answer
False
question
Bloom's Taxonomy of cognitive skills includes 6 categories of skill levels from simple behaviors, such as ability to remember facts, to complex skills, such as evaluating information.
answer
True
question
Hands-on training activities are not as effective as demonstrations as a training delivery method.
answer
False
question
The cost per trainee of classroom training versus small group training is about the same.
answer
False
question
Performance objectives for a training session should be ____.
answer
measurable
question
Most trainers start from scratch when they develop a list of topics to cover in a training session.
answer
false
question
The best performance objectives for a training session specify how well a trainee needs to be able to perform a task, such as speed or accuracy.
answer
true
question
Reading materials selected for a training session should match the reading level of the trainees.
answer
true
question
Experienced trainers find that more short breaks during a training session are preferable to fewer, long breaks.
answer
true
question
In a training session, the division of time between reviewing previous material and introducing new material should be about 50-50.
answer
False
question
An experiential learner and a kinesthetic learner are two words that mean the same thing.
answer
true
question
When trainers begin to prepare specific training materials for a session, they generally start from scratch to avoid copyright problems.
answer
False
question
The cost per trainee of classroom training versus small group training is about the same.
answer
false
question
Trainers are sometimes reluctant to use group discussions as a training method because they are afraid they may lose control of a training session.
answer
true
question
Online reading materials with ____________________ can be interactive so that users can quickly follow pointers to locate the specific information they need.
answer
hyperlinks
question
During which training step does a trainer develop details about the specific topics to cover and how to present them?
answer
Preparation
question
Self-paced, computer-based training materials are increasing in popularity, but the cost to develop high-quality training materials is very high.
answer
true
question
A disadvantage of classroom training is that all trainees do not learn at the same pace.
answer
true
question
Multimedia materials are a combination of ____.
answer
text, images, animation , and sound
question
Which of the sequences below ranks learning methods from highest retention and performance to lowest? A) observe a task B) listen to a lecture C) read a book D) solve a problem
answer
DACB
question
Self-guided tutorials permit trainees to work at their own pace, are cost-effective, and help is available any time it is needed.
answer
False
question
A useful source of information about the content trainees need is their position descriptions.
answer
True
question
During which of these steps in a training session should a trainer cover what trainees will achieve by the end of the training and why the training is useful?
answer
Establish motivation
Animation
Chapter 11-online public speaking quiz – Flashcards 10 terms

Karen Combs
10 terms
Preview
Chapter 11-online public speaking quiz – Flashcards
question
Which of the following is a correctly worded main point for a speech preparation outline? A. Computer-generated graphics as special effects. B. Many movie special effects are created with computer-generated graphics. C. How are special effects created with computer-generated graphics? D. The use of computer-generated graphics to create special effects in movies. E. Computer-generated graphics.
answer
B. Many more special effects created with computer-generated graphics
question
According to your textbook, the speaking outline A. is created from the titles of a speaker's PowerPoint slides. B. is used to jog a speaker's memory during the speech. C. includes a full bibliography. D. all of the above. E. b and c only.
answer
B. is used to jog a speaker's memory during the speech
question
Arranged in random order below are a main point, two subpoints, and two sub-subpoints from a speech preparation outline. Which is the main point? A. Melanoma is the least common but most deadly form of skin cancer. B. Each year about 7,400 people die from melanoma in the U.S. C. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer. D. Two types of skin cancer are melanoma and basal cell carcinoma. E. Of all skin cancers diagnosed in the U.S., only 4 percent are melanoma.
answer
A. Melanoma is the least common but most deadly form on skin cancer
question
All of the following are necessary in a preparation outline except: A. labels for the introduction, body, and conclusion. B. directions for delivering the speech. C.transitions, internal previews, and internal summaries. D. a consistent pattern of indentation and symbolization. E. a specific purpose statement.
answer
B. directions for delivering the speech
question
The main points in a preparation outline are: A. identified by Roman numerals. B. identified by capital letters. C. located farther to the right than subpoints. D. identified by Arabic numbers. E. written in phrases, not full sentences.
answer
A. identified by roman numerals
question
A speech title should: A. attract the attention of the audience. B. be brief. C. suggest the main thrust of the speech. D. all of the above. E. a and c only.
answer
D. All of the above
question
Outlining is important to public speaking because an outline helps a speaker: A. judge whether each part of the speech is fully developed. B. ensure that ideas flow clearly from one to another. C. solidify the structure of a speech. D. all of the above. E. b and c only.
answer
D. All of the above
question
Which of the following is a correctly worded main point for a speech preparation outline? A. Leadership. B. What are the major types of leadership? C. Two major types of leadership. D. There are two major types of leadership. E. Leadership: major types.
answer
D. There are two major types of leardership
question
Alexus has completed her final preparation outline and is preparing her speaking outline for her speech on macrobiotic foods. According to your textbook, as Alexus prepares her speaking outline, she should remember to: A. include a bibliography. B. make sure the outline is plainly legible. C. keep the outline as brief as possible. D. all of the above. E. b and c only.
answer
E. b & c only
question
Which of the following is a correctly worded main point for a speech preparation outline? A. Myths about day care. B. Is day care good for children? C. The pros and cons of day care: research results. D. Research shows that there are both advantages and disadvantages to day care. E. Knowing the advantages and disadvantages of day care for your child.
answer
D. Research shows that there are both advantages & disadvantages to day care
Animation
Chemistry
SAT II Biology – Biochemistry – Flashcards 80 terms

Clarence Louder
80 terms
Preview
SAT II Biology – Biochemistry – Flashcards
question
Atom

answer
Consists of: Protons (positively charged) and Neutrons (no charge) in the nucleus, electrons (negatively charged) outside the nucleus.
question
ground state
answer
electrons in the lowest available energy level
question
isotopes
answer
Atoms of one element that vary in the number of neutrons. Example: Carbon-12 and Carbon-14 are isotopes
question
radioisotopes
answer
radioactive isotopes
question
half-life
answer
the rate at which radioisotopes decay
question
ionic bonds

answer
bonds that form when electrons are transferred.
question
anion
answer
an atom that gains electrons
question
cation
answer
an atom that loses electrons
question
molecule
answer
a group of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds.
question
covalent bond
answer
bonds that form when electrons are shared
question
polarity
answer
the unequal distribution of charges on a molecule
question
nonpolar covalent bonds
answer
Bonds where electrons are shared equally. They are formed between any two atoms that are alike.
question
polar covalent bonds
answer
Bonds where electrons are shared unequally. They are formed between any two atoms that are unalike.
question
hydrogen bonds
answer
Weak bondsbetween the negative side of the water molecule oxygen and the positive side that the hydrogens create; bonds that hold water molecules together and result in high specific heat; good solvent properties and cohesion that results in surface tension. Keeps strands of DNA bonded together forming the double helix
question
Nonpolar molecules
answer
weak attractions such as Van der Waals. Carbon Dioxide is a nonpolar molecule
question
hydrophobic
answer
"water hating" Nonpolar molecules are hydrophobic and do not dissolve in water.
question
hydrophilic
answer
"water loving" polar molecules are hydrophilic and dissolve in water.
question
Characteristics of Water
answer
1. Water has a high specific heat 2. water has a high heat of vaporization 3. water has high adhesion properties 4. Water is the universal solvent 5. Water has strong cohesion tension (transpirational pull) 6. Ice floats because it is less dense than water
question
adhesion
answer
the clinging of one substance to another
question
cohesion tension
answer
molecules of water tend to stick to each other
question
capillary action
answer
the force of water rising in a thin tube due to cohesion and adhesion
question
mixture
answer
a material that is composed of two or more substances that are physically combined
question
heterogeneous mixture
answer
the different substances can be seen and separated out
question
homogenous mixture
answer
the different substances are evenly mixed and cannot be separated easily
question
solution
answer
is a homogenous mixture that appears to be a single substance but is composed of particles of two or more substances that are distributed evenly amongst each other.
question
solute
answer
the substance that is dissolved
question
solvent
answer
the substance in which the solute is dissolved
question
pH
answer
a measure of acidity and alkalinity (basic) of a solution
question
buffers
answer
substances that resist change in pH
question
acidic
answer
a solution that has a greater amount of H+ than OH- ions
question
basic
answer
a solution that has a greater amount of OH- than H+
question
macromolecules
answer
Four main classes of large biological molecules (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids) made up of many smaller molecules and atoms.
question
monomers
answer
small chemical units that can join together with other small units to form larger units called polymers
question
polymers
answer
Large compounds formed from combinations of many monomers.
question
organic compounds
answer
Compounds that contain carbon atoms and are found in living things.
question
inorganic compounds
answer
Compounds that do not contain carbon; many are also essential to life.
question
isomers
answer
compounds with the same molecular formula, but with different structures. Example: glucose, galactose, fructose
question
monosaccharides
answer
monomer of carbohydrates Have chemical formula of C6H12O6. Examples: glucose, galactose, fructose.
question
disaccharides
answer
All have the chemical forumla C12H22O11. They consist of 2 monosaccharides joined by a process known as the Dehydration synthesis
question
maltose
answer
Glucose + Glucose
question
lactose
answer
Glucose + Galactose
question
sucrose
answer
Glucose + Fructose
question
hydrolysis
answer
opposite of dehydration synthesis, the breakdown of a compound with the addition of water
question
polysaccharides
answer
polymers of carbohydrates Examples: cellulose, chitin, starch, glycogen
question
cellulose
answer
polysaccharide that makes up plant cell walls
question
starch
answer
the way plants store carbohydrates
question
chitin
answer
polysaccharide that makes the exoskeleton in arthropods and the cell walls of mushrooms
question
glycogen
answer
the way animals store starch. Stored in humans in the liver and skeletal muscle.
question
lipids
answer
class of organic compounds that include fats, oils, and waxes. usually made up of one glycerol and three fatty acids
question
saturated fatty acids

answer
Contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. Come from animals, solid at room temperature, linked to heart disease.
question
unsaturated fatty acids
answer
Have at least one double bond between carbon atoms and the hydrocarbon chain. Are extracted from plants, are liquid at room temperature.
question
Lipid Functions
answer
1. energy storage 2. phospholipids make up cell membrane 3. some lipids are endocrine hormones
question
Steroids
answer
Fashioned on a backbone of four linked carbon rings and include cholesterol and hormones (testosterone, estrogen).
question
proteins
answer
macromolecules containing carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen; proteins are considered the building blocks of tissue
question
amino acids
answer
building blocks (monomers) of proteins; twenty kinds
question
Amino group
answer
-NH2
question
Carboxyl group
answer
-COOH
question
R-group
answer
used to represent one of 20 possible side chains found in amino acids of living systems, "variable group"
question
polypeptides
answer
repeating units of amino acids
question
peptide bonds
answer
bonds between amino acids, form polypeptides
question
dipeptide
answer
two amino acids combined
question
Primary structure proteins
answer
the order of amino acids in a protein
question
Secondary structure proteins
answer
the three dimensional shape that results from the hydrogen bonding between the amino and carboxyl groups of adjacent amino acids
question
tertiary structure proteins
answer
additional three dimensional shaping of a protein that dominates the structure of globular proteins
question
Quaternary structure proteins
answer
The particular shape of a complex protein, defined by the characteristic three-dimensional arrangement of its constituent subunits, each a polypeptide.
question
enzymes
answer
a chemical that speeds up chemical reactions within a living cell
question
coenzyme
answer
a small molecule (not a protein but sometimes a vitamin) essential for the activity of some enzymes
question
cofactor
answer
Any organic or inorganic substance that is needed for the operation of an enzyme.
question
energy of activation
answer
the amount of energy needed to begin a reaction
question
substrate
answer
the chemical that an enzyme works on
question
induced-fit model
answer
describes how enzymes work, As the substrate enters the active site, it induces the enzyme to alter its shape slightly so the substrate fits better
question
denaturation
answer
when proteins lose their natural shape due to change in temperature or pH
question
prions
answer
A misfolded, infectious protein that are normally found in the brains of mammals and cause several brain diseases. (Mad Cow)
question
nucleic acids
answer
macromolecules containing hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon and phosphorus and are associated with organism's genetic code
question
nucleotides
answer
building blocks (monomers) of nucleic acids
question
DNA
answer
Deoxyribonucleic Acid. Double stranded chain. Deoxygenated (deoxyribose) 5 carbon sugar.
question
RNA
answer
Ribonucleic Acid. Single stranded chain. Oxygenated (ribose), 5 carbon sugar.
question
biochemistry
answer
Chemistry of life, the study of chemical substances and reactions within living organisms.
question
alpha helix
answer
A spiral shape constituting one form of the secondary structure of proteins, arising from a specific hydrogen-bonding structure.
question
beta sheet
answer
secondary structure of proteins with a pleated, ribbonlike shape
Animation
AP English Language And Composition
English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade)
Specific Purpose
Third Party
Mr. Brown Semester 1 English 2 Study Guide for Final – Flashcards 108 terms

Deloris Connelly
108 terms
Preview
Mr. Brown Semester 1 English 2 Study Guide for Final – Flashcards
question
assuage
answer
(v) to make easier or milder, relieve; to quiet, calm; to put an end to, appease, satisfy, quench. SYN: mitigate, alleviate, slake, allay. ANT: intensify, aggravate, exacerbate
question
hiatus
answer
(n) a gap, opening, break (in the sense of having an element missing). SYN: pause, lacuna. ANT: continuity, continuation
question
innuendo
answer
(n) a hint, indirect suggestion, or reference (often in a derogatory sense). SYN: insinuation, intimation. ANT: direct statement
question
transcend
answer
(v) to rise above or beyond, exceed. SYN: surpass, outstrip
question
callow
answer
(adj) without experience; immature, not fully developed; lacking sophistication and poise; without feathers. SYN: green, raw, unfledged, inexperienced. ANT: mature, grown-up, polished, sophisticated
question
epitome
answer
(n) a summary, condensed account; an instance that represents a larger reality. SYN: abstract, digest, model, archetype
question
intrinsic
answer
(adj) belonging to someone or something by its very nature, essential, inherent; originating in a bodily organ or part. SYN: immanent, organic. ANT: extrinsic, external, outward
question
permeate
answer
(v) to spread through, penetrate, soak through
question
abominate
answer
(v) to have intense dislike or hatred for. SYN: loathe, abhor, despise, detest. ANT: relish, savor, cherish, esteem
question
commiserate
answer
(v) to sympathize with, have pity or sorrow for, share a feeling of distress. SYN: feel sorry for, empathize. ANT: feel no sympathy for
question
expedite
answer
(v) to make easy, cause to progress faster. SYN: accelerate, facilitate, speed up. ANT:hinder, hamper, impede, obstruct
question
inadvertent
answer
(adj) resulting from or marked by lack of attention; unintentional, accidental. SYN: accidental, unconsidered. ANT: deliberate, intentional, premeditated
question
inscrutable
answer
(adj) incapable of being understood; impossible to see through physically. SYN: impenetrable, incomprehensible, enigmatic. ANT: comprehensible, intelligible, penetrable
question
insular
answer
(adj) relating to, characteristic of, or situated on an island; narrow or isolated in outlook or experience. SYN: narrow-minded, parochial, provincial. ANT: catholic, cosmopolitan, liberal
question
remonstrate
answer
(v) to argue or plead with someone against something, protest against, object to. SYN: reason against, expostulate
question
repudiate
answer
(v) to disown, reject, or deny the validity of. SYN: disavow, abjure, renounce. ANT: avow, affirm, aver, avouch
question
resilient
answer
(adj) able to return to an original shape or form; able to recover quickly. SYN: springy, elastic, buoyant, bouncy. ANT: rigid. stiff, inflexible, unyielding
question
amnesty
answer
(n) a general pardon for an offense against a government; in general, any act of forgiveness or absolution
question
flout
answer
(v) to mock, treat with contempt. SYN: scoff at, sneer at, snicker at, scorn. ANT: obey, honor, revere, uphold
question
transient
answer
(adj) lasting only a short time, fleeting; (n) one who stays only a short time. SYN: impermanent, ephemeral, evanescent. ANT: permanent, imperishable, immortal
question
vapid
answer
(adj) dull, uninteresting, tiresome; lacking in sharpness, flavor, liveliness, or force. SYN: insipid, lifeless, colorless. ANT: zesty, spicy, savory, colorful, lively
question
contrive
answer
(v) to plan with ingenuity, invent; to bring about as the result of a scheme or plan
question
heinous
answer
(adj) very wicked, offensive, hateful
question
sureptitious
answer
(adj) stealthy, secret, intended to escape observation; made or accomplished by fraud
question
vicarious
answer
(adj) performed, suffered, or otherwise experienced by one person in place of another
question
A
answer
When Paine compares America's relationship with England to the bondage of slavery, to what emotion is he appealing? a. anger b. joy c. happiness d. hope
question
D
answer
Identify one reason Paine gives for supporting the fight for liberty. a. faith that God will reward the weak and powerless b. responsibility to ensure that all people are treated equally c. shame that the colonies have been afraid to break away from Britain d. duty to provide a better life for one's family
question
D
answer
What is the main point of Paine's essay? a. The time for armed struggle is over. b. Colonists who support Britain are weak and cowardly. c. The king of Britain is a fool. d. The colonists must endure.
question
C
answer
With what does Paine compare America's war against the British? a. murder b. all the treasures of the world c. a man defending his property d. a thief breaking into his house
question
C
answer
Which of the following passages from The Crisis, Number 1, introduces an anecdote meant to persuade the audience? a. "I have as little superstition in me as any man living." b. "[A] noted one, who kept a tavern at Amboy, was standing at his door, with as pretty a child in his hand." c. "The far and the near, the home counties and the back, the rich and the poor, will suffer or rejoice alike." d. "'Tis the business of little minds to shrink."
question
C
answer
Jefferson uses the charged word tyrant to characterize the king of Britain. To what emotion does this word appeal? a. sorrow b. envy c. anger d. pride
question
A
answer
From Jefferson's statement that governments are instituted to secure basic human rights, the argument logically follows that a. any form of government that suppresses people's freedoms should be overthrown. b. monarchy is a bad form of government because rulers are not elected. c. the rights of men should be supported over those of women. d. all forms of government destroy human rights and thus should be abandoned.
question
C
answer
From the Declaration of Independence, what can be inferred about Jefferson's general attitude toward revolution? a. All cases of injustice vindicate a revolution. b. People often revolt as their first course of action. c. Revolution is a method of last resort. d. Revolution is a very poor way of dealing with conflict.
question
A
answer
Which of the following statements most appeals to the emotions of horror and disgust? a. "He is at this time transporting large armies ... to complete the works of death, desolation, and tyranny, already begun." b. "He has abdicated government here, by declaring us out of his protection and waging war against us." c. "He has dissolved representative houses repeatedly ...." d. "He has called together legislative bodies ... for the sole purpose of fatiguing them into compliance with his measures."
question
A
answer
Jefferson's list of self-evident truths is effective because it a. helps his audience understand the truths. b. creates a connection between these truths and the colonists' attempts at reconciliation with Britain. c. draws his readers' attention to his personal opinions about humanity. d. imparts a sense of reasonableness to the beginning of his argument.
question
C
answer
What is Jefferson's main form of persuasion in The Declaration of Independence? a. He has an unusual view of how government should work. b. He understands that the colonists should explain their actions. c. He offers a list of colonists' complaints against the British king. d. He asks colonists to contribute their fortunes to the cause.
question
C
answer
Which phrase from the Declaration of Independence is charged, or filled with emotion? a. "for the public good" b. "without consent" c. "death, desolation, and tyranny" d. "in the most humble terms"
question
B
answer
Why is Jefferson's list of self-evident truths effective in the Declaration of Independence? a. It helps his audience understand him. b. It restates beliefs people already have. c. It tells people about Jefferson's beliefs. d. It outlines a new vision of freedom.
question
C
answer
What overall announcement does the Declaration of Independence make? a. The colonists share news of the war with Great Britain. b. The colonists refuse to pay unfair taxes to Great Britain. c. The colonists declare a separation from Great Britain. d. The colonists sign new agreements with Great Britain.
question
D
answer
In The Crisis, Number 1, what concern does Paine express about "the sunshine patriot" who might "shrink from the service of his country"? a. He wants people to live in the colonies during the summer months. b. He wants people to leave the colonies and go to Britain. c. He wants people to be willing to fight, even at great risk. d. He wants people to be training to be soldiers all year.
question
D
answer
In The Crisis, Number 1, what does Paine try to convince his listeners to fight for? a. property b. lower taxes c. trade items d. freedom
question
C
answer
Where does Paine use charged words in these examples from The Crisis, Number 1? a. He says he has "little superstition." b. He says it does not matter "what rank of life you hold." c. He says "Tyranny" is like "Hell." d. He says men know the difference between "temper" and "principle."
question
A
answer
In The Crisis, Number 1, when Paine compares the colonies' relationship with Britain to the chains of slavery, what emotion does he hope to persuade his readers to feel? a. anger b. hope c. confusion d. relief
question
A
answer
Why does Paine write in The Crisis, Number 1, that a generous parent would say: "If there must be trouble let it be in my day, that my child may have peace"? a. to fight now so that their descendants will not have to b. to put off the fight until their descendants are grown c. to avoid having to fight, to protect their descendants d. to ignore the problem altogether and hope for the best
question
B
answer
Which phrase from The Crisis, Number 1 includes charged words? a. The heart that feels b. will curse his cowardice c. shrinks back at a time d. and made them happy
question
D
answer
What is the main idea of Paine's essay The Crisis, Number 1? a. The King of England is a criminal. b. British people must return to England. c. The colonists must pay taxes. d. The colonists must fight tyranny.
question
C
answer
Paine's primary purpose in saying that "a common murderer, a highwayman(robber), or a housebreaker, has as good a pretense" as the king is to a. show how the common criminal is persecuted by the king's representatives. b. emphasize the notion of democracy. c. stress the lawlessness of the king's actions. d. appeal to his audience's fear of crime.
question
A
answer
Paine uses "summer soldier" and "sunshine patriot" to refer to a.those who support the Revolution only when it is convenient. b.revolutionary soldiers who keep their spirits up. c.agricultural workers who have joined the revolutionary army. d.Tories.
question
A
answer
In which sentence is the meaning of the word unanimity suggested? a. Franklin urged every member of the Convention to sign the Constitution. b. Franklin praised the high quality of the new Constitution. c. Franklin found he doubted his judgments more as he grew older. d. Franklin wanted other nations to approve of the new Constitution.
question
A
answer
According to The Autobiography, what is Franklin's first step in his plan to reach perfection? a. He makes a list of what he wants to achieve. b. He improves his handwriting. c. He makes a schedule of what he does each day. d. He lists the friends he can count on.
question
C
answer
When Jefferson spoke of British officers sent to harass the colonists, he meant that they a. tried to get the colonists to convert b. constantly engaged them in conversation c. were a constant bother d. never treated them fairly
question
D
answer
What conclusion can you draw about why Franklin has trouble staying organized, according to The Autobiography? a. He has very few responsibilities. b. He is always busy traveling. c. He likes to do things all at once. d. He has too many responsibilities.
question
B
answer
In The Autobiography, Franklin believes that he can become a better person. What does this belief tell you about how he sees himself? a. He does not believe in himself. b. He has high hopes for himself. c. His knowledge of science can help him. d. His religion will help him.
question
D
answer
In comparison to other books about Franklin, The Autobiography probably gives you the best insight into a. the moral values of the time. b. Franklin's inventions. c. Franklin's descendants. d. Franklin's personality.
question
A
answer
Which part of this sentence from The Autobiography identifies it as an autobiography? I wished to live without committing any fault at any time. A. the word I B. the word wished C. the word live D. the word time
question
C
answer
Why is the selection by Franklin identified as an autobiography? A. Franklin is now dead. B. Franklin is famous. C. Franklin wrote about his own life. D. Franklin was a scientist.
question
A
answer
According to The Autobiography, what is Franklin's first step in his plan to reach perfection? A. He makes a list of what he wants to achieve. B. He improves his handwriting. C. He makes a schedule of what he does each day. D. He lists the friends he can count on.
question
D
answer
What experience does this portion of Equiano's slave narrative describe? a.the loss of African cultural traditions b.the fight to abolish slavery c.the observations of a slave merchant d.the horrors slaves faced on transatlantic voyages
question
A
answer
What attitude toward slavery does the narrative most strongly convey? a. outrage b. understanding c. tolerance d. indifference
question
B
answer
What was Equiano's main purpose in writing The Interesting Narrative? a. to entertain readers with dramatic episodes in his life b. to sway public opinion about slavery c. to contrast life in Africa and life in Barbados d. to provide detailed information on 18th-century sea travel
question
B
answer
Why does Equiano feel that the hardships, some of which he cannot even bear to relate, are "inseparable" from the slave trade? a. Sailing in those days meant perilous hardships for all who sailed. b. Because captives will always resist bondage, slave traders will always institute harsh measures to control the slaves c. The slave traders know only hard measures and no other way d. Because slavery is a form of commerical enterprise
question
D
answer
Much of the power of this selection stems from the fact that it is a. filled with highly poetic imagery and figures of speech. b. similar in style to an African folk tale. c. a logical, well-reasoned argument. d. a personal narrative.
question
A
answer
The narrator was placed on the deck of the ship because a. there was no room for him below deck. b. he was being punished, and the wind and rain were fierce. c. his captors feared he might die below deck. d. conditions below deck were unpleasant.
question
C
answer
What happens to the captives who try to get the extra fish the slave traders caught? a. They share the fish with the other captives. b. They devour the fish instantly. c. They are caught and flogged. d. They are allowed to cook and eat the fish for supper.
question
A
answer
Which of these details expresses the most objective viewpoint? a. Equiano got seasick when he was on the ship. b. Looking through the quadrant made Equiano think the world was magic. c. The cries of slaves saddened Equiano. d. The flying fish amazed Equiano as they flew across the ship.
question
B
answer
Which detail most clearly shows that not every sailor on the slave ship was always cruel to the slaves? a. the crew's preventing additional suicides after some captives jump overboard b. the mariner's giving Equiano the quadrant to look through c. the sailors' tossing the extra fish back into the sea d. the sailors' treatment of those captives who tried to get the extra fish
question
C
answer
Often did I think many of the inhabitants of the deep much more happy than myself. I envied them the freedom they enjoyed. In this passage, "inhabitants of the deep" refers to a. fish and other sea creatures. b. the slaves who were below deck. c. the slaves who had jumped overboard. d. the children who had fallen into the necessary tubs.
question
C
answer
If you were summarizing the selection, which statement would you use to express the main idea of the last section? a. The traders were overjoyed at reaching Barbados. b. The captives were afraid that they would be eaten. c. The ship landed, and the captives were sold into slavery. d. Old slaves joined the newcomers from Africa to tell them about their fate.
question
A
answer
Which detail would probably be left out of a summary of The Interesting Narrative of the Life of Olaudah Equiano? a. The crew ate the fish they caught. b. Most slaves were kept in the ship's hold. c. The ship's conditions were terrible. d. Many slaves were infected with disease.
question
an abolitionist or a sailor
answer
Based on the interests Equiano shows in this selection, if freed from slavery, he would most likely become
question
cacophony
answer
-A harsh discordant mixture of sounds -Syn:din racket noise
question
Crux
answer
A puzzling or difficult problem A crucial point -Nub, heart, central point, core
question
Depravity
answer
The quality of having an evil or immoral character -Immorality, perversion, indecency
question
Benevolent
answer
-Marked by or disposed by doing good -kind-hearted, good natured
question
Boon
answer
-Something pleasant or helpful -A benefit or advantage -Aid, blessing, asset
question
Felicity
answer
-State of being happy -Bliss
question
Perfidy
answer
-Betrayal of trust -Violation of faith and loyalty -Scam, double cross, Corruption, treachery
question
Loathsome
answer
Adj:Hateful disgust -Repulsive, abhorrent
question
Infidel
answer
-a person who does not accept a particular faith, especially Christianity. -Unbeliever,
question
Foppery
answer
-Foolish Character or action -Stupidity, imbecility
question
Persevere
answer
-To persist in a difficult situation -To overcome an obstacle -Endure, persist, pursue, maintain
question
Recompense
answer
-To give compensation to, pay for -Reimburse, repay, compensate, indemnify
question
Ordinance
answer
-An authorative command or order - A custom or practice established by a long usage -Edict, decree, ritual
question
Omnipotent
answer
-All powerful -Having unlimited power -Able to do anything -Supreme, almighty
question
Dolorous
answer
-Sad, Mournful, Grief, Sorrow -Feeling great sorrow or distress
question
Dispatched
answer
-To send away or off with promptness or speed on official business -Post, Mail, Transmit, Finish, Conclude
question
Protruded
answer
-To extend beyond or above a surface -To jut out of the surrounding surface -Stick out, jut out, extend
question
Lionhearted
answer
-To be brave or determined -Courageous or brave
question
Affliction
answer
-a state of pain, distress, or grief; misery -Trouble, calamity, disaster
question
Exquisite
answer
-extremely beautiful and, typically, delicate. -Beautiful, lovely, elegant, fine
question
Inquisitive
answer
-Curious or inquiring -Unduly curious about the affairs of others -Curious, interested, prying
question
Deliberation
answer
-long and careful consideration or discussion. -Thought, consideration, reflection
question
Mortality
answer
-the state of being subject to death. -Death, especially on a large scale -Impermanence, transience, dying
question
Deism
answer
belief in the existence of a supreme being, specifically of a creator who does not intervene in the universe. The term is used chiefly of an intellectual movement of the 17th and 18th centuries that accepted the existence of a creator on the basis of reason but rejected belief in a supernatural deity who interacts with humankind.
question
Liberalism
answer
-Anti-authority -Government does not have the right to dictate human rights
question
Liberalism
answer
a philosophy committed to the ideal of limited government and liberty of individuals including freedom of religion, speech, press, assembly, and free markets.
question
Deism
answer
-Believes in God but doesn't follow faith -Follows nature -Reason+logic -to connect with natural world that God created
question
Republicanism
answer
-The notion that a nation should be ruled by a republic - Remove absolute monarchies
question
Republicanism
answer
-Civic Patriotism--> enlist in military -Virtuous Citizenship--> Community Service -Property based Personality-->represent one's own wealth and success
question
Ed Burke
answer
Who believed the following?: -Freedom led to chaos -Liberalism ignored the contributions of previous generations -Liberal ideas ignore relationships that do exist -You need common norms to create a feeling of unity
question
Conservatism
answer
Ed Burke's beliefs were a part of what movement?
question
Conservatism
answer
a political and social philosophy promotes retaining traditional social institutions in the context of the culture and civilization.
question
Toleration
answer
-Reflected in the belief that hatred or fear of other races and creeds interfered with economic trade, extinguished of thought and expression, eroded the basis of friendship among nations, which led to war and persecution.
question
Scientific Progress
answer
Scientific inquiry to satisfy intellectual curiosity but to respond to a divine calling to expose God's natural laws.
question
Benjamin Franklin
answer
- a leading author, printer, political theorist, politician, postmaster, scientist, inventor, civic activist, statesman, and diplomat. As a scientist, he was a major figure in the American Enlightenment and the history of physics for his discoveries and theories regarding electricity. -Known as the ideal man and "first american" -One of the founding fathers of our nation
question
Thomas Jefferson
answer
-an American Founding Father, the principal author of the Declaration of Independence (1776), and the third President of the United States - He was a spokesman for democracy, and embraced the principles of republicanism and the rights of the individual with worldwide influence. At the beginning of the American Revolution, he served in the Continental Congress, representing Virginia, and then served as a wartime Governor of Virginia
question
Thomas Paine
answer
-an English and American political activist, philosopher, political theorist and revolutionary. -As the author of the two most influential pamphlets at the start of the American Revolution, he inspired the rebels in 1776 to declare independence from Britain.
question
Frederick Douglass
answer
-an African-American social reformer, orator, writer, and statesman -After escaping from slavery, he became a leader of the abolitionist movement, gaining note for his dazzling oratory antislavery writing -He stood as a living counter-example to slaveholders' arguments that slaves lacked the intellectual capacity to function as independent American citizens.
Animation
Click And Drag
Powerpoint
Slide Sorter View
Title Slide
AGRI PRACTICE TEST 4 33 terms

Darryl Wooten
33 terms
Preview
AGRI PRACTICE TEST 4
question
Kyle wants to change the thickness of one of the shape outlines. Thickness is another word for ____.
answer
weight
question
When you print ____, the presentation is printed with one or more slides on each piece of paper.
answer
handouts
question
If a video is too long, or if there are parts you don't want to show during the slide show, you can ____ it.
answer
trim
question
Kyle wants to add a 3D rotation to highlight one of the mountain ranges. To do this he clicks the Shape ____ button.
answer
effects
question
The DRAWING ____ FORMAT tab appears when a drawing or a text box—including the slide's title and content placeholders—is selected.
answer
TOOLS
question
When Ethan first opens PowerPoint, he has two ____ view options: 1) to open an existing presentation or 2) to create a new file.
answer
backstage
question
Like shapes, you can rotate or ____ pictures using the Rotate handle or the Rotate button.
answer
flip
question
____ notes are information you add about slide content to help you remember to bring up specific points during the presentation.
answer
speaker
question
In common usage, a(n) ____ is any text that appears at the bottom of every page in a document or every slide in a presentation.
answer
footer
question
If you see a black square when you insert a video, you can override this by setting a ____ frame.
answer
poster
question
The most commonly used video formats are the MPEG-____ format, the Windows Media Audio/Video format, and the Audio Visual Interleave format.
answer
4
question
____ handles are the small squares that appear in the corners and in the middle of the sides of the border of a selected object.
answer
sizing
question
When Ethan first creates a new presentation it is displayed in ____ view.
answer
normal
question
Use the ____ Picture button to undo formatting and sizing changes you made to a picture.
answer
reset
question
A commonly used layout is the ____ layout.
answer
title and content
question
If you don't choose a theme, the default ____ theme is applied.
answer
office
question
Usually the date and slide number do not need to appear on the ____.
answer
title slide
question
When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed as small as possible.
answer
low quality
question
Use the Animation ____ to copy the animation, effects, and duration applied to one object to another object.
answer
painter
question
When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed slightly and will maintain the quality of the videos.
answer
presentation quality
question
After you insert a video, you can modify it by changing ____ options, changing the length of time the video plays, and applying formats and styles to the video.
answer
playback
question
In PowerPoint terms, ____ a photo means cutting off edges you don't want to include.
answer
cropping
question
____ view displays the slides so that they almost fill the screen, and a status bar appears identifying the number of the current slide and providing buttons to advance the slide show.
answer
reading
question
A ____ is shading in which one color blends into another or varies from one shade to another.
answer
gradient
question
An installed theme can be applied by clicking on a theme in the Themes group on the ____ tab.
answer
DESIGN
question
Text size is measured in ____.
answer
points
question
If you animate a list, the default is for the first-level items to appear ____.
answer
one at a time
question
The ____ is the first slide in a PowerPoint presentation.
answer
title slide
question
A ____ is a coordinated set of colors, fonts, backgrounds, and effects.
answer
theme
question
Referring to the accompanying figure, if you click the ____ option on the Start menu, your animation occurs automatically after the previous action.
answer
after previous
question
To indicate that a word might be misspelled, a ____ squiggly line appears under it.
answer
red
question
To change the speed of a transition, John shows Merlia how to change the ____.
answer
duration
question
John tells Merlia that it is often best to use the same slide transition consistently. He shows her the ____ button which applies the transition to all the slides in the presentation.
answer
apply to all
Animation
Click And Drag
Pixels Per Inch
Powerpoint
Slide Show View
Slide Sorter View
Wireless Networking Standards
BCIS- Exam 1 (PowerPoint) 63 terms

Claire Forth
63 terms
Preview
BCIS- Exam 1 (PowerPoint)
question
When PowerPoint starts, it displays a blank presentation in ____ view.
answer
normal
question
Normal view displays slides one at a time in the ____.
answer
Slide pane
question
The ____ is the first slide in a PowerPoint presentation.
answer
title slide
question
There are ____ text placeholders on the Title slide.
answer
2
question
A commonly used layout is the ____ layout.
answer
Title and Content
question
To insert a new slide, you use the New Slide button in the ____ group on the HOME tab.
answer
Slides
question
A ____ item is a main item in a list.
answer
first-level
question
Text is measured in ____.
answer
points
question
____ adjusts default font sizes and line spacing to make the text fit.
answer
AutoFit
question
To duplicate, rearrange, or delete slides, you select the slides in the Slides tab in ____ view or switch to Slide Sorter view.
answer
Normal
question
Click the \"Return to the previous slide\" and \"____ to the next slide\" buttons to move from slide to slide in Slide Show view.
answer
Advance
question
If you have closed a saved presentation, open it in Backstage view by using the ____ command.
answer
Open
question
To edit a presentation without changing the original, create a copy of it. To do this, use the ____ command.
answer
Save As
question
A ____ is a coordinated set of colors, fonts, backgrounds, and effects.
answer
theme
question
A theme and its variants are called a theme ____.
answer
theme family
question
If you don't choose a theme, the default ____ theme is applied.
answer
Office
question
To apply a theme from a presentation stored on your computer or network, click the ____ button, and then click Browse for Themes.
answer
Themes More
question
A(n) ____, like any presentation, has a theme applied, but it also contains text, graphics, and placeholders to help direct you in creating content for a presentation.
answer
template
question
To find a template on Office.com, display the ____ or New screen in Backstage view.
answer
Recent
question
You can use the Picture button in the Images group on the ____ tab to add photos to slides.
answer
Insert
question
In PowerPoint terms, ____ a photo means cutting out the parts you don't want to include.
answer
cropping
question
When you save a presentation that contains photos, PowerPoint automatically compresses the photos to a resolution of ____ pixels per inch (ppi).
answer
220
question
If photos need to be emailed or uploaded to a Web page, choose the ____ ppi compression setting.
answer
96
question
When you choose the ____ compression setting, photos are compressed to the resolution specified on the Advanced tab in the PowerPoint Options dialog box.
answer
Document resolution
question
____ handles are the small squares that appear in the corners and in the middle of the sides of the border of a selected object.
answer
crop
question
The ____ ratio is the ratio of an object's height to its width.
answer
aspect
question
. ____ notes are information you add about slide content to help you remember to bring up specific points during the presentation.
answer
speaker
question
To indicate that a word might be misspelled, a ____ squiggly line appears under it.
answer
red
question
During your presentation, you can easily display a blank black slide by pressing the ____ key(s).
answer
B
question
____ view displays the slides so that they almost fill the screen, and a status bar appears identifying the number of the current slide and providing buttons to advance the slide show.
answer
reading
question
When you print ____, the presentation is printed with one or more slides on each piece of paper.
answer
handouts
question
When you are finished working with a presentation, you can exit PowerPoint. If there is only one presentation open, you click the Close button in the ____ corner of the program window to exit the program.
answer
upper-right
question
The DRAWING ____ FORMAT tab appears when a drawing or a text box—including the slide's title and content placeholders—is selected.
answer
tools
question
To insert a shape, click a shape in the Shapes ____.
answer
gallery
question
Draw the ____ adjustment handle on a shape to change its proportions without changing the size of the shape.
answer
yellow
question
Use the ____ Picture button to undo formatting and sizing changes you made to a picture.
answer
reset
question
Like shapes, you can rotate or ____ pictures using the Rotate handle or the Rotate button.
answer
flip
question
An installed theme can be applied by clicking on a theme in the Themes group on the ____ tab.
answer
design
question
If you need to use a custom theme frequently, you can save a presentation file as a(n) ____ Theme file.
answer
Office
question
To draw a shape, click the Shapes button in the Illustrations group on the _____ tab, click a shape in the gallery, and then click and drag to draw the shape in the size you want.
answer
insert
question
A ____ is shading in which one color blends into another or varies from one shade to another.
answer
gradient
question
To flip an object, you use the Flip commands on the Rotate button menu in the ____ group on the DRAWING TOOLS FORMAT tab.
answer
arrange
question
To insert a table, in a content placeholder, click the INSERT tab on the ribbon, click the Table button in the ____ group, and then click Insert Table.
answer
tables
question
When you use the Borders button arrow, the borders will be the style, weight, and color specified by the Pen Style, Pen Weight, and Pen Color buttons in the ____ Borders group.
answer
draw
question
Use the Animation ____ to copy the animation, effects, and duration applied to one object to another object.
answer
painter
question
If you animate a list, the default is for the first-level items to appear ____.
answer
one at a time
question
Sequence options appear on the Effect Options menu in addition to the ____ options when an animation is applied to a text box.
answer
direction
question
The Add or Remove Columns button in the Paragraph group on the ____ tab allows you to create multiple columns in a text box.
answer
question
The most commonly used video formats are the MPEG-____ format, the Windows Media Audio/Video format, and the Audio Visual Interleave format.
answer
4
question
After you insert a video, you can modify it by changing ____ options, changing the length of time the video plays, and applying formats and styles to the video.
answer
playback
question
To insert video stored on your computer or network, click the Insert Video button in a content placeholder, and then in the Insert Video window next to \"____,\" click Browse to open the Insert Video dialog box.
answer
From a file
question
The start timing setting is on the VIDEO TOOLS PLAYBACK ____.
answer
tab
question
The Media ____ category appears only when a media object—either video or audio—is selected on a slide.
answer
animation
question
If you see a black square when you insert a video, you can override this by setting a ____ frame.
answer
poster
question
If a video is too long, or if there are parts you don't want to show during the slide show, you can ____ it.
answer
trim
question
When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed slightly and will maintain the quality of the videos.
answer
presentation quality
question
When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed as small as possible.
answer
low quality
question
When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed to a quality suitable for streaming over the Internet.
answer
internet
question
To compress the videos in a presentation, click the Compress ____ button.
answer
media
question
The Info screen in Backstage view contains a(n) ____ Media button as well as the Compress Media button.
answer
optimize
question
Usually the date and slide number do not need to appear on the ____.
answer
title slide
question
Clicking either the Date & Time button or the ____ button opens the Header & Footer dialog box.
answer
question
In common usage, a(n) ____ is any text that appears at the bottom of every page in a document or every slide in a presentation.
answer
footer
Animation
Powerpoint
Slide Sorter View
Trends Over Time
CGS 1060c Powerpoint 2013 40 terms

Martha Hill
40 terms
Preview
CGS 1060c Powerpoint 2013
question
When Powerpoint displays a new presentation, the user is presented with one slide, the _____ slide.
answer
Title
question
The _____ button displays a Comments pane to the right of the Slide pane.
answer
Comments
question
The _____ provides an introduction to the topic covered in the presentation.
answer
Title slide.
question
A _____ is a box on a slide with dashed or dotted borders that holds titles and body text, or other content such as charts, tables, or pictures.
answer
Placeholder.
question
A set of unified design elements that provides a look for a presentation by applying colors, fonts, and effects is called a(n):
answer
Theme.
question
Changing the wording on a slide would be an example of _____
answer
Editing.
question
A(n) _____ is the arrangement of elements, such as title and subtitle text, lists, pictures, tables, charts, shapes, and movies on a slide.
answer
Layout.
question
_____ are used to organize text and are identified by the bullet style, indentation, and the size of the text.
answer
List levels.
question
Increasing the list level of a bullet point:
answer
Increases its indent and decreases the text size.
question
Decreasing the list level of a bullet point:
answer
Decreases its indent and increases the text size.
question
The ______ displays above the selected picture and provides a way to rotate the image
answer
Rotation handle.
question
Pictures can be made to look like sketches or paintings by applying _____.
answer
Artistic effects.
question
A _____ is displayed after the last slide of the presentation and indicates that the presentation is over.
answer
Black slide.
question
The feature in which the full-screen slide show displays on one monitor while simultaneously enabling the presenter to view a preview of the next slide is _____ view.
answer
Presenter.
question
Printed images of slides on a piece of paper are called _____.
answer
Slide handouts.
question
_____ are printouts that show the slide image on the top of the page and the notes that have been created on the bottom of the page.
answer
Notes pages.
question
The default aspect ratio in PowerPoint 2013 is 16:9, resulting in a _____ format.
answer
Widescreen.
question
Changing the appearance of the text, layout, and design of a slide is called:
answer
Formatting.
question
The horizontal placement of text within a placeholder is called _____.
answer
Text alignment.
question
Left, right, centered, and justified are examples of _____.
answer
Text alignments.
question
A title slide contains two placeholder elements:
answer
The title and the subtitle.
question
_____ displays thumbnails of all of the slides in a presentation.
answer
Slide Sorter view.
question
______ can be used to rearrange and delete slides and to apply formatting to multiple slides at one time.
answer
Slide Sorter view.
question
PowerPoint's _____ displays a presentation in a similar manner to a slide show, but the taskbar, title bar, and status bar remain visible in the presentation window.
answer
Reading view.
question
Changing bulleted and numbered list styles on a slide is an example of:
answer
Formatting.
question
A box that appears on a slide with dotted or hatch-marked borders where text, charts, tables, or pictures can be placed is called a:
answer
Placeholder.
question
When you see a _____ border around a placeholder, you know you can edit the placeholder text.
answer
Dashed.
question
The color of the numbers in a numbered list is determined by the presentation _____.
answer
Theme.
question
You can customize a bullet by changing any of the following EXCEPT:
answer
Its intensity.
question
A _____ is a single media file including art, sound, animation, or movies.
answer
Clip.
question
When an object is selected, it is surrounded by _____, which allow you to change the size of the object.
answer
Sizing handles.
question
The _____ feature reduces the size of a picture by removing unwanted areas of the picture.
answer
Crop.
question
If you wish to constrain an object's movement to a straight line either vertically or horizontally, you should hold down the _____ key while dragging the object.
answer
Shift.
question
An object that allows you to position text anywhere on the slide is called a _____.
answer
Text box.
question
_____ are displayed as dotted horizontal and vertical lines and indicate the pointer's position.
answer
Ruler guides.
question
The inside color of text or of an object is called the _____.
answer
Fill color.
question
The _____ provides predefined combinations of fill colors and line colors that can be applied to shapes.
answer
Shape Styles Gallery
question
PowerPoint's _____ removes unwanted portions of a picture so the picture does not appear as a self-contained rectangle.
answer
Background Removal.
question
_____ is a gallery of text styles that includes effects such as mirrored or shadowed text.
answer
WordArt.
question
The SmartArt graphic type _____ should be used to show a continual process.
answer
Cycle.
Animation
Powerpoint
Rows And Columns
PowerPoint: Quiz Questions 25 terms

Mike Bryan
25 terms
Preview
PowerPoint: Quiz Questions
question
Lines, arrows, stars, banners, ovals, and rectangles are examples of __________ that are used to illustrate an idea, a process, or a workflow.
answer
shapes
question
Animations that bring a slide element onto the screen are called
answer
Entrance effects.
question
A __________ is displayed after the last slide of the presentation and indicates that the presentation is over.
answer
black slide
question
A chart that is created in PowerPoint is stored as __________ that is incorporated into the PowerPoint file.
answer
an Excel worksheet
question
Changing the appearance of the text, layout, and design of a slide is called
answer
formatting.
question
__________ are printouts that show the slide image on the top of the page and the notes that have been created on the bottom of the page.
answer
Notes pages
question
A presentation's __________ is applied to all text except the slide titles.
answer
Body font
question
A __________ is a box on a slide with dashed or dotted borders that holds titles and body text, or other content such as charts, tables, or pictures.
answer
placeholder
question
The primary editing view in PowerPoint where the user can write and design presentations is
answer
Normal view.
question
A(n) __________ is used to move an object off the screen.
answer
Exit effect.
question
__________ is a gallery of text styles that includes effects such as mirrored or shadowed text.
answer
WordArt
question
The __________ provides predefined combinations of fill colors and line colors that can applied to shapes.
answer
Shape Styles gallery
question
The motion effects that occur when moving from one slide to the next during a presentation are called
answer
slide transitions.
question
Printed images of slides on a piece of paper are called
answer
slide handouts.
question
PowerPoint's __________ displays a presentation in a similar manner to a slide show, but the taskbar, title bar, and status bar remain visible in the presentation window.
answer
Reading view
question
A button that turns a feature on and off is called a __________ button.
answer
toggle
question
When __________ surround a picture, the user knows that the picture is selected and can be modified or formatted.
answer
sizing handles
question
__________ controls the speed of an animation.
answer
Duration
question
A presentation's __________ is applied to the slide titles.
answer
Headings font
question
__________ can be applied to clip art, shapes, and text boxes to complement slide backgrounds and colors.
answer
Styles and effects
question
A __________ is a single media file including art, sound, animation, or movies.
answer
clip
question
A __________ is a collection of formatting options that you can apply to a picture, text, or an object.
answer
style
question
A set of unified design elements that provides a look for a presentation by applying colors, fonts, and effects is called a(n)
answer
theme.
question
A PowerPoint presentation is made up of one or more __________ that can contain text, pictures, tables, charts, and other objects.
answer
slides
question
__________ can be used to rearrange and delete slides and to apply formatting to multiple slides at one time.
answer
Slide Sorter view
Animation
Audience Analysis
Linguistics
Specific Purpose Statement
Speech
Chapter 4: Reaching the Audience 10 terms

Viola Marenco
10 terms
Preview
Chapter 4: Reaching the Audience
question
What is an audience-centered speaker?
answer
An audience-centered speaker strives to understand the listeners so that he or she can meet their needs and interests
question
What is meant by audience analysis and adaptation?
answer
Analysis means finding out exactly who the listeners are and what they know. Adaptation means shaping a speech to satisfy the listeners' particular needs and interests.
question
How can a speaker get advance information about an audience?
answer
Interview the program director, talk to a few prospective listeners, or send a questionnaire to the future audience
question
What are taboos, and why are they an important concern for a speaker?
answer
Taboos are prohibitions in a culture; violating them can offend an audience.
question
Do international audiences usually prefer a presentation that is humorous and informal, or one that is serious and formal?
answer
International audiences usually prefer a serious, formal tone. An informal approach is often viewed as frivolous and disrespectful
question
What is ethnocentrism?
answer
The belief that one's own cultural group is superior to other groups
question
Who is the best source of information about the needs of listeners with disabilities, and why?
answer
The disabled listener—because he or she knows best what accommodations need to be made
question
What approach should you take if listeners have an unfavorable attitude toward your speech goal?
answer
Try to win listeners to your position, but if this fails, be content to at least move them closer to your view
question
What guidelines should be followed for a speech to an audience that knows little or nothing about your topic?
answer
(1) Limit the number of new ideas, (2) If possible, use visual aids, (3) Use down-to-earth language, (4) Repeat key ideas, and (5) Give vivid examples
question
What might happen if you give a speech that is different from the one the audience was expecting?
answer
Some members of the audience might be disappointed, even angry
Animation
Art Appreciation
Order And Harmony
Plato And Aristotle
Time And Motion
Visual Arts
ART: Mid-term 1.5 -1.10 – Flashcards 57 terms

Mary Moore
57 terms
Preview
ART: Mid-term 1.5 -1.10 – Flashcards
question
Traditional visual arts, such as painting, are inherently static, but artists have always found inventive ways of conveying the elements of ________ and ________.
answer
time . . . motion
question
When an artist employs visual clues to suggest movement in a work of art that is static and motionless, this is known as ________.
answer
implied motion
question
When an artist creates a work that deceives our eyes into believing there is motion as time passes, this is called ________.
answer
the illusion of motion
question
The kind of motion that is created by showing a series of static images in quick succession is called ________.
answer
stroboscopic motion
question
This spinning toy gives a sense of motion to a viewer when he or she looks through small slits in its cylindrical drum at a strip of changing pictures.
answer
zoetrope
question
Disney's Finding Nemo is an example of a series of computer-generated images played in rapid succession. This medium is called ________.
answer
animation
question
This kind of motion is occurring when we see movement in real life.
answer
actual motion
question
This type of art can only exist in one place and time in history.
answer
performance art
question
This medium involves the human body and usually includes the artist.
answer
performance art
question
Performance artists the Blue Man Group rely on bodily movements to communicate ideas without speech.
answer
True
question
This type of sculpture can move and change its visual form.
answer
kinetic
question
Alexander Calder invented the ________, a type of suspended, balanced sculpture that uses air currents to power its movement.
answer
mobile
question
If Alexander Calder's Untitled mobile was powered by a small motor, rather than air currents, it would not be an example of actual motion.
answer
False
question
The elements of time and motion are not applicable to the art of photography.
answer
False
question
What element describes the imposition of order and harmony on a design?
answer
unity
question
The three kinds of unity are:
answer
compositional, conceptual, gestalt
question
Compositional unity strikes an interesting balance between the monotony of too much similarity, and the chaos of too much ________ in a work of art.
answer
variety
question
What principle of art did Katsushika Hokusai employ in "The Great Wave off Shore at Kanagawa" in order to bring harmony to what could otherwise be a very chaotic scene?
answer
unity
question
An interior design that uses only straight lines might lack the visual interest of a more varied composition
answer
True
question
Disparate visual elements can be linked together with a common idea. This is ________ unity.
answer
conceptual
question
The German word that refers to something in which the whole seems greater than the sum of its parts is ________.
answer
gestalt
question
This is a kind of visual diversity that can bring many different ideas, media, or elements together in one composition.
answer
variety
question
Variety can ________ a design.
answer
invigorate
question
An artist creates an artwork made up of many different shapes, all in varying shades of blue. This artwork uses the following principles of art:
answer
unity and variety
question
Creating visual weight and counterweight is part of an artist's use of the element of ________ in creating a work of art.
answer
balance
question
________ balance is achieved when both sides of a composition look exactly the same.
answer
symmetrical
question
. ________ balance is achieved when two halves of a composition are not mirror images of each other.
answer
asymmetrical
question
If an artist painted a street scene with one large building on the left-hand side, and two smaller buildings on the right-hand side, this would be an example of ________ balance.
answer
asymmetrical
question
. ________ balance is achieved when all elements in a work of art are equidistant from a central point and repeat in a symmetrical way from side to side and top to bottom.
answer
radial
question
The kind of scale used for objects that appear larger than they are in real life is called ___ scale.
answer
monumental
question
An artist might use a small scale for a portrait of a lover because it implies ________.
answer
intimacy
question
When an artist uses scale to indicate the relative importance of elements in a composition, he or she is employing this kind of scale
answer
hierarchical scale
question
This type of scale is common in the relief sculpture of ancient Egypt, where it was used to indicate social importance.
answer
hierarchical
question
This group of artists sometimes used distorted scale to create dreamlike images that subvert our conscious experiences.
answer
Surrealists
question
An artist would probably use distorted scale if he or she wanted to create a lifelike scene that the viewer could relate to.
answer
False
question
The relationships between the sizes of different parts of a work make up its ________.
answer
proportions
question
In two-dimensional art, this is the area in which an artist creates their work.
answer
format
question
This proportional system uses a ratio of 1:1.618.
answer
Golden Section
question
It does not matter if a sculptor is creating a human statue on a monumental scale, or a figure much smaller than lifesize: if the sculptor applies the ratio of the Golden Section, the sculpture will have naturalistic proportions.
answer
True
question
Rectangles based on the Golden Section can be nested inside each other to create an elegant ________.
answer
spiral
question
Photographers cannot be responsible for principles of scale or proportion in their photographs.
answer
False
question
Any of the ________ of art can help focus our interest on specific areas of a work of art.
answer
elements
question
The opposite of emphasis is ________.
answer
subordination
question
This is the specific part in an area of emphasis to which the viewer's eye is drawn.
answer
focal point
question
If an artist painted a garden with one red flower in a field of yellow flowers, this would be an example of using color to create contrast. For the viewer, the single red flower would be ________.
answer
a focal point in the artwork
question
An artwork can have only one focal point.
answer
False
question
Which two types of line shape our examination of a work of art by directing the movement of our gaze?
answer
actual implied
question
The recurrence of a single element in a work of art is called ________.
answer
pattern
question
The area covered by a pattern is called the ________.
answer
field
question
A design repeated as a unit in a pattern is called a ________.
answer
motif
question
This art movement, of which Hans Arp was a member, valued randomness, absurdity, and nonsense over rational or orderly patterns.
answer
Dada
question
There is rhythm in an artwork when it has at least this many points of reference.
answer
two
question
A pattern with regular intervals creates ________ rhythm.
answer
a repetitive
question
The principle of rhythm does not apply to photography.
answer
False
question
What is the name for any side of a building that is intended to be looked at?
answer
a facade
question
In the painting The Third of May, 1808, this Spanish artist used alternating rhythm to contrast "good" and "bad.
answer
Francisco Goya
question
Artemisia Gentileschi worked during this stylistic and historical period.
answer
Baroque
Animation
Conducting
Listening
CH 8,9,10,11 Business Comm – Flashcards 38 terms

Adam Howard
38 terms
Preview
CH 8,9,10,11 Business Comm – Flashcards
question
orderly and objective communication of factual information that serves a business purpose purpose: solve business problems. problem statement- provides a clear description of the situation that created the need for your report. declarative. "Management wants to know why sales are declining" purpose statement- report's objective, aim, or goal. "to determine the cause of decreasing sales" normally written as a question subtopics: ex: production, sales and promotion, financial status, computer systems.
answer
What defines business report?
question
Once you've defined the problem and identified the purpose of your research, you should determine what factors you need to investigate. TRUE
answer
tb
question
explanations or solutions for why something bad has happened. tested, and either proved or disproved.
answer
determine hypothesis:
question
secondary research- material somebody else has published, ex books and websites primary research- uncovers info firsthand. produces new info through use of experiments
answer
gathering information needed
question
survey with sample, construct a questionnaire, ranking or scaling., conducting pilot study, observations and experiments, QUALITATIVE PRIMARY RESEARCH- focus groups- group come together to share beliefs or thoughts about something. conducting personal interviews.
answer
conducting primary research
question
grouping, ordering, or hierarchy. conventional system- 1. A. a. (i) Decimal system (1.0, 1.1, 1.1.2) ex 8-32.
answer
outline
question
16. Quantitative researchers use research tools that generate verbal data. FALSE
answer
tb ch 8
question
21. A well-structured outline for a report clearly indicates the hierarchy of the information in the report. TRUE
answer
tb ch 8
question
31. The _____ statement of a business report provides a clear description of the situation that created the need for the report. D. problem
answer
tb ch 8
question
33. The _____ in business reports is also called the study's objective, aim, or goal. E. purpose statement
answer
tb ch 8888
question
formal reports- have prefatory pages, title fly, title page, table of contents, executive summary.
answer
formal report
question
only has a title page and report text. title page remains.
answer
short report
question
below short report, even less formality, email or memo.
answer
letter report
question
title fly- just contains report title. title page- identification information. title, id of the writer and reader and date. transmittal message- transmits report to leader, takes letter form sometimes. table of contents- over 1500 words. lists reports contents. headings and subheadings. executive summary- preview of the report, summarize the report in order and in proportion. identify the topic, purpose, origin of report, briefly what research was conducted.
answer
report components
question
short report- forth and fifth steps of formality report letter reports-people outside the organization, written personally. direct or indirect oder. email and memo reports- heavily used in business. routine operational reports-informed about companys operations progress reports-progress towards goal.
answer
short reports.
question
written report of group activities. reports the gist of what happened. prelim items, body items, closing items.
answer
meeting minutes
question
16. The majority of the reports written within companies are routine operational reports. TRUE
answer
ch 9
question
21. A report's form and contents should be based on _____ to meet the reader's needs. C. its formality and length
answer
ch 999
question
25. As the need for formality decreases, the _____ is the first component to be omitted from a report. E. title fly
answer
ch 99
question
35. The _____ is the report in miniature. A. executive summary
answer
ch 9
question
36. Which of the following is true of short reports? A. Short reports such as inventory reports do not require introductory material.
answer
ch 9
question
0. Which of the following differentiates short reports from long reports? C. Short reports are more likely to be written in the direct order.
answer
ch 999
question
voice quality- pitch and sounds speaker makes, easy at fast rate, hard at slo rate, style-set of voice behaviors, pitch, speed, and volume combined to give personality to oral expression. word choice- vocabulary, need to be able to understand words. shouldn't talk down to or above the listener. adaptation to your audience- fitting message to intended listener.
answer
elements of professional talking
question
competence sincerity friendliness
answer
affective oral communications
question
communication environment personal appearance posture walking facial expression gestures
answer
appropriate appearance and physical actions
question
sensing filtering remembering
answer
listening
question
to improve listening ability, focusing on what is being said, and reserving judgement, other components, acquewleding um-hmm and nodding
answer
active listening
question
repeating what you think you heard effective way to focus your attention, asking questions too.
answer
back-channeling
question
stop talking, talker at ease, show talker you want to listen, remove distractions, empathize with the talker, be patient, hold your temper, go easy on argument and critisism, ask questions, stop talking.
answer
ten commandments of listening
question
prepare an agenda- follow the agenda move the discussion along control those who talk too much- tactfully ask... encourage talk from those who don't talk control time take minutes
answer
conducting meetings
question
follow the agenda participate don't talk too much cooperate
answer
tech for participating in a meeting
question
professional voice quality, talk as if you were face to face. introduce yourself and ask question. repeat phone number
answer
using phone
question
determining topic and purpose- prepare the presentation- introduction, body, conclusion,
answer
giving speeches/presentations
question
presenting extremporaneously- prepare thoroughly and then you prepare notes and go off of that memorizing- most difficult, reading- read in an interesing way
answer
choosing presentation method
question
listenersn can be involved with live chats, and ask to email after.
answer
choosing means of audience feedback
question
charts, tables, graphs- help listeners understand statistical information photographs- help listeners form image of what you discuss mutlimedia
answer
support talk with visuals.
question
make sure everybody can see visuals explian visual talk to audience, not the visuals avoid blocking views of audience don't make contents too small don't use too much animation sometimes can save handout till the end
answer
techniques for using visuals
question
23. Voice quality refers to the _____. A. set of voice behaviors that makes a person's voice unique B. pitch and resonance of the sounds a speaker makes and the sounds an audience hears C. way that pitch, speed, and volume combine to give personality to one's oral expression D. way words are fitted to the listener's level of understanding E. average number of words spoken by a person during an informal conversation its b.
answer
ch 1o