14. What is the term for an electronic document on the web that can contain text, graphics, animation, audio (sound), and video?

Web page More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/intro-to-computers-chapter-2/

How do you know that the gene being transcribed in the animation is a prokaryote?

The initiation of transcription involves a sigma factor More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch-12-bio-2/

What kind of software helps users of all skill levels create web pages that include graphics, video, audio, animation, and other special effects?

website authoring More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ist-195-final-spring-15-practice-exam/

In the last segment of the animation, when does the first epidemic occur? >January of year three >April of year four >September of year three >January of year four >March of year two

A:January of year three More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/mastering-microbiology-chapter-14/

Notice that an observer located at the Local Raisin sees raisins 1, 2 and 3 all move away from her during the animation. But what would an observer located at Raisin 2 see? An observer located at Raisin 2 would find that __________.

Raisin 1 and Raisin 3 both move away from her More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/mastering-astronomy-chapter-17-33630/

The table in the animation shows you the speeds of raisins 1, 2, and 3 as measured from the Local Raisin. Suppose instead you measured speeds as seen from Raisin 2. An observer at Raisin 2 would measure __________.

Local Raisin speed = 4.0 cm/hr; Raisin 1 speed = 2.0 cm/hr; Raisin 3 speed = 2.0 cm/hr More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/mastering-astronomy-chapter-17-33630/

Which of the following terms refers to any application that combines text with graphics, animation, audio, video, and/or virtual reality?

multimedia More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ite-ch-2/

What name is given to the process seen in this animation?

dehydration synthesis More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/assignment-3-41881/

What is the event that IMMEDIATELY follows the last event of this animation?

binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-18-mastering-biology-2-41864/

What is the term for an electronic document on the web that can contain text, graphics, animation, audio (sound), and video?

webpage More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/it-st-4-networks/

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20th Century Animation AP Government Constitution Film

Mr. Smith goes to Washington questions – Flashcards 49 terms

Patrick Turner

49 terms

Preview

Mr. Smith goes to Washington questions – Flashcards

question

What happened to senator Samuel Foley?

answer

He died

question

Who was the other senator?

answer

Senator Joseph Paine

question

What did the governor have to do?

answer

Appoint a new senator

question

Who was Joe Paine talking to and what about?

answer

Jim Taylor, who is the new senator

question

Who and why do the governor's children recommend?

answer

Jefferson Smith cause they see him as a hero and he's the head of Boy Rangers

question

What was Jefferson smith's profession?

answer

Head of Boy Rangers

question

Why was Jim Taylor upset that Jefferson's was appointed?

answer

The govener didn't appoint Mills, and didn't ask Jim Taylor.

question

How did Sen. Paine know Jefferson Smith originally?

answer

Friends w/ his father

question

What was Jefferson's father's job?

answer

Editor and publisher of a job

question

What happened to Jefferson's father?

answer

Killed by a shot in his back.

question

What does Jefferson do when he arrives at the train station?

answer

Looks for his prize pigeons, and meets girls

question

Who does McGann call in Mr. Smith's office to check on him?

answer

Saunders

question

Why does Saunders get the press to humiliate Jefferson?

answer

To quit easier

question

What does Paine do to get Saunders to stay?

answer

Gave her a bonus

question

Why does another senator not want Smith to get the oath of office?

answer

The papers humiliated him

question

What does Senator Smith do to the press after he finds out they've humiliated him?

answer

Punches every reporter in the face

question

Why does the press say they're the only ones who could tell the truth?

answer

they don't have to be re-elected

question

What does Senator Paine suggests senator smith do to cheer him up after the press corps make fun of him?

answer

Create a national boys camp bill

question

Why does smith fiddle with his hat around Paine's daughter?

answer

He is attracted to her and nervous

question

Mr. Smith gets Saunders to help. What does she do help him?

answer

Telling how it becomes a law and records the bill.

question

What was the steering committee?

answer

the committee designed of majority party leaders with power to decide the order the bills are addressed

question

Where did Smith want to locate the national boys camp.

answer

Willet Creek

question

What happens between Smith and Saunders during the bill writing?

answer

Have a moment

question

What do Paine and McGann do when Smith says "Willet Creek"?

answer

Leave the room in a big hurry

question

Why does Susan Paine want to take Smith out?

answer

So her dad can propose the bill of Willet Creek without Smith there

question

Why does Saunders want to marry Diz and get out of town?

answer

She can't stand Smith being with Susan

question

Why does Saunders finally tell Smith about the Willet Creek dam?

answer

She was drunk and jealous and he asked

question

Why was Taylor upset at the governor?

answer

Smith is questioning about The Willet Creek da

question

What does Taylor offer to smith if he keeps quiet?

answer

Offers him any job or a senate seat for the rest of his life

question

What does Payne ask Taylor to do?

answer

Not be too rough with smith

question

What does Paine do on the Senate floor the next morning?

answer

Accuses Smith of being in office for personal gain by using willet creek as a boy's dam. Calls for a Committee of Ethics

question

What happens in the committee

answer

Smith is set up for the Willet creek dam fall, a lot of people lie for money.

question

What does Paine do in the committee?

answer

Says Smith is a horrible person and sets him up

question

What does Smith do in the committee?

answer

Runs out in a woof

question

Who comes to see Smith at the Lincoln memorial?

answer

Miss Clarissa Saunders

question

How will Smith only yield?

answer

Question or personal note.

question

How does Senator Smith get the senators back?

answer

Uses the senates rule for a filibuster

question

What do Saunders and Diz do?

answer

Starts righting for Smith in papers, sending it out.

question

What does Taylor do to stop Smith?

answer

Gets all the newspapers in his state to put propaganda about smith

question

What is Mr. Smith reading during the filibuster?

answer

Declaration of independence and Constitution

question

What network was the reporter working for?

answer

CBS

question

What does Saunders say in the note?

answer

Jeff you're wonderful, read the Constitution slowly next and Diz says i'm in love with you. PS he's right.

question

What was Taylor doing to the press in his state?

answer

Making them write lies about smith.

question

How does Saunders counter Taylor?

answer

She gets Boy Stuff to print the truth.

question

What happens to the kids newspaper deliveries?

answer

they're stolen and compromised. They are beaten and bruised

question

How long has senator smith talked?

answer

23 hours and 16 minutes.

question

What does Paine have brought to the Senate?

answer

Telegrams from his state saying that they want him to yield the floor.

question

What happens to Smith?

answer

He passes out, after giving a huge speech.

question

How is Senator Smith proven right?

answer

Paine finally tells the truth.

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PTA 120 Unit 11 Discharge Planning – Flashcards 52 terms

Jason Westley

52 terms

Preview

PTA 120 Unit 11 Discharge Planning – Flashcards

question

Slide/Content: Question

answer

Answer-

question

2/Objectives: Discuss the process of patient/client discharge from physical therapy services

answer

...

question

2/Objectives: Define discharge planning

answer

...

question

2/Objectives: Compare and contrast what is meant by discharge and discontinue

answer

...

question

2/Objectives: Discuss issues related to patient discharge from different types of settings

answer

...

question

2/Objectives: Identify those elements of the discharge planning process that the physical therapy department is likely to be involved in

answer

...

question

2/Objectives: Identify members of the healthcare team that are involved with patient discharge

answer

...

question

3/Discharge vs. Discontinue: According to the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice. APTA. 2nd edition, define discharge.

answer

Discharge - the process of discontinuing interventions in a single episode of care when goals have been met

question

3/Discharge vs. Discontinue: According to the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice. APTA. 2nd edition, define discontinue.

answer

Discontinue - ending PT services during a single episode of care when goals have not been met

question

4/Discontinue: List 3 indicators for discontinuing.

answer

Indications for discontinuing: 1 - Patient's desire to stop treatment 2 - Patient's inability to progress toward goals due to medical, financial or psychosocial complications 3 - PT's decision that the patient will no longer benefit from physical therapy

question

4/Discontinue: If a pt. is discontinued before meeting goals what 3 actions should you take?

answer

If patient is discontinued before meeting goals: 1 - Document patient status 2 - Document rationale 3 - Provide appropriate follow-up and/or referral

question

5/Discharge Planning: When do you plan for discharge?

answer

Nothing lasts forever ... The plan for the last day of PT starts at the beginning

question

5/Discharge Planning: Is discharge planning important for acute care?

answer

Yes, but it can sometimes be less than one day

question

5/Discharge Planning: What are the PT and PTA roles in discharge planning?

answer

PT puts the plan into place. The PTA alerts the PT to changes that may alter the discharge plan

question

6/Discharge Plan Components: What section of the evaluation contains part of the discharge plan? What info will it contain?

answer

Prognosis: 1 - Number and length of treatment sessions 2 - Projected length of episode of care

question

6/Discharge Plan Components: What are the possible discharge settings? Generally, does the PT's opinion matter here?

answer

Optimal discharge setting: Home, outpatient/inpatient/home PT follow-up. PT's are very good at determining the d/c setting.

question

6/Discharge Plan Components: List the 2 basic items needed by the pt at d/c.

answer

Patients needs upon discharge: 1 Durable Medial Equipment, DME 2 - Home Exercise Plan, HEP

question

7/Healthcare Team: List the other members of the health care team involved in d/c.

answer

1 - Case/Care Manager 2 - Physician 3 - Nursing 4 - Social Worker 5 - Other therapists.

question

7/Healthcare Team: How does the Case/Care Manager get involved in d/c?

answer

Case/Care Manager: 1 - Coordination of discharge from all angles 2 - Contacts facilities, manages insurance issues, may order equipment

question

7/Healthcare Team: How does the Physician get involved in d/c?

answer

Physician: 1 - Orders for necessities after discharge from inpatient. 2 - Outpatient: report of PT; follow-up if necessary. 3 - Meds, DME, follow-up PT

question

7/Healthcare Team: How does Nursing get involved in d/c?

answer

Nursing: 1 - Preparing patient for discharge 2 - Belongings, meds, instructions

question

7/Healthcare Team: How does the Social Worker get involved in d/c?

answer

Social Worker: Setting up home services, i.e. Meals on Wheels, etc.

question

7/Healthcare Team: Who are the possible other therapists? (3)

answer

Others: OT, SLP, respiratory therapist

question

8/Discharge Summary: Who writes and signs the d/c?

answer

Written and signed by PT, but the PTA may write some of it (sign, if yes)

question

8/Discharge Summary: What is the d/c based on? Can the PTA contribute?

answer

Based on examination and evaluation by PT of patient's discharge status, PTA may contribute

question

8/Discharge Summary: What type of info is in the d/c?

answer

Describes the success of PT services provided

question

9/Discharge Summary Components: List the 5 components of the d/c summary.

answer

1 - Attendance 2 - Current baseline data - discharge disposition 3 - Summary from initial evaluation 4 - Assessment - compare initial to current 5 - Plan for home or new setting

question

9/Discharge Summary Components: What is in the current baseline data?

answer

Current baseline data - 1 - discharge disposition Cognition, ROM, MMT, posture, pain, functional mobility, etc. 2 - DME

question

9/Discharge Summary Components: What parts of the initial eval are summarized in the d/c?

answer

Summary from initial evaluation: PT dx, goals, POC

question

9/Discharge Summary Components: What is the plan portion of the d/c?

answer

Plan for home or new setting: 1 - Home or outpatient PT 2 - HEP 3 - Follow-up

question

10/Discharge Summary: What are the PTA considerations with regard to the d/c summary?

answer

Considerations for the PTA: 1 - May be done after patient discharge from hospital 2 - Do not necessarily reassess EVERYTHING 3 - Current baseline/status

question

11/Discharge from Outpatient Setting: List 6 considerations for outpatient d/c

answer

1 - Patient should be independent with HEP 2 - Patient should have all of the tools they need 3 - What to do if things change 4 - What to do if things change 5 - Work together with OT, SLP, Ex.Phys. 6 - Consider patient follow-up

question

11/Discharge from Outpatient Setting: List three tools that pts might need when discharged from the outpatient setting (3)

answer

Patient should have all of the tools they need: DME, theraband, written HEP

question

11/Discharge from Outpatient Setting: What type of info should accompany the pt. if things change after d/c from an outpatient setting (2)

answer

What to do if things change. See MD? Return to PT?

question

11/Discharge from Outpatient Setting: What would you consider for pt follow-up? (3)

answer

Consider patient follow-up:1 - 6 months - one year 2 - Outcome measures 3 - Marketing tool

question

12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: What does the d/c from an inpatient rehab setting depend on?

answer

Depends on where they are going

question

12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: List possible inpatient rehab d/c destination settings. (6)

answer

ALF? SNF? LTC? Home? With caregiver? With home PT?

question

12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: List 5 considerations for inpatient rehab d/c.

answer

1 - Patient may be independent with HEP 2 - Patient should have all of the tools they need 3 - What to do if things change 4 - Work together with OT, SLP, RN, MD, Case Management, CM, Social Worker, SW 5 - Consider patient follow-up, Outcome measures

question

12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: List three tools that pts might need when discharged from the inpatient rehab setting (3)

answer

Patient should have all of the tools they need: DME, theraband, written HEP

question

12/Discharge from Inpatient Rehab Setting: What type of info should accompany a pt if things change after d/c from an inpatient rehab. (2)

answer

What to do if things change: See MD? Return to hospital?

question

13/Discharge from Acute Setting: T/F The time frame in an acute setting is lengthy and drawn out.

answer

False: Time frame - short!

question

13/Discharge from Acute Setting: Who are the individuals involved in d/c from an acute setting? (8)

answer

More individuals involved: PT/PTA, OT, SLP, RN, CM, SW, MD (PA?), consults/surgeons

question

13/Discharge from Acute Setting: What does the d/c from an acute setting depend on?

answer

Depends on where they are going

question

13/Discharge from Acute Setting: List 6 possible destination settings following d/c from an acute setting.

answer

ALF? SNF? LTC? Home? With caregiver? With home PT?

question

13/Discharge from Acute Setting: What is also considered "home" for a pt. leaving an acute care setting?

answer

What is also considered to be home? ALF

question

13/Discharge from Acute Setting: List 3 considerations for an acute setting d/c.

answer

1 - Patient may be independent with HEP 2 - Patient should have all of the tools they need 3 - What to do if things change

question

13/Discharge from Acute Setting: List three tools that pts might need when discharged from an acute setting (3)

answer

Patient should have all of the tools they need: DME, theraband, written HEP

question

13/Discharge from Acute Setting: What type of info should accompany a pt if things change after d/c from an acute setting. (2)

answer

What to do if things change: See MD? Return to hospital?

question

14/Focus on Evidence: What is the famous study regarding PT and d/c recommendations. When was it done.

answer

Smith BA, Fields CJ, et al. Physical therapists make accurate and appropriate discharge recommendations for patients who are acutely ill. Phys Ther. 2010; 90:693-703

question

14/Focus on Evidence: How often are PT d/c recommendations followed according to the Smith & Fields study?

answer

PT's d/c recommendations were implemented 83% of the time

question

14/Focus on Evidence: How often were pts more likely to be readmitted when PT's recommendations for d/c were not implemented according to the Smith & Fields study?

answer

Patients 2.9 x more likely to be readmitted when PT's d/c recommendation not implemented

question

14/Focus on Evidence: What was the conclusion of the Smith & Fields study?

answer

Conclusion: supports the role of the PT in d/c planning in acute care setting

STUDY

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Unit 7 Lymphatic System – Flashcards 75 terms

Daphne Armenta

75 terms

Preview

Unit 7 Lymphatic System – Flashcards

question

Slide/Topic: Question

answer

Answer

question

2/Unit Objectives: Describe activities that may aggravate or relieve edema

answer

...

question

2/Unit Objectives: Define edema

answer

...

question

2/Unit Objectives: Identify considerations for the PTA when working with a patient with lymphedema

answer

...

question

2/Unit Objectives: List therapies used in physical therapy intervention for the treatment of lymphedema

answer

...

question

2/Unit Objectives: Cite common medical and surgical management options for lymphedema

answer

...

question

2/Unit Objectives: List etiologies, risk factors and clinical manifestations (signs and symptoms) of lymphedema

answer

...

question

2/Unit Objectives: Describe lymphedema

answer

...

question

2/Unit Objectives: Explain briefly the anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system

answer

...

question

2/Unit Objectives: Discuss the impact of diseases of the lymphatic system on rehabilitation

answer

...

question

3/Review of Concepts: Define Anthropometric measurements.

answer

The measurement of the size and proportions of the human body by measuring, recording, and analyzing specific dimensions of the body, such as height and weight; skin-fold thickness; and bodily circumference at the waist, hip, chest and extremities.

question

3/Review of Concepts: When are Anthropometric measurements made?

answer

Used when abnormalities are noted during the observation and palpation phase of assessment

question

3/Review of Concepts: Provide examples of Anthropometric measurements made?(3)

answer

1 - Volumetric - Swollen finger, toes, hands, feet. 2 - Palpation - Edema and temperature 3 - Girth - Swollen limbs

question

4/A&P of Lymphatic System: What does the lymphatic system do?

answer

Collects the remaining 10% of interstitial fluid remaining after extracellular fluid is resorbed by veins.

question

4/A&P of Lymphatic System: For what reason does this interstitial remain uncollected by the venous system?

answer

Filled with many proteins too big for the venous system. The healthy lymph system can handle the collection of them.

question

4/A&P of Lymphatic System: What is the approximate volume collected daily

answer

About 2 liters/day

question

5/Anatomy of Lymphatic Vessels: What is the path of flow in the lymphatic system?

answer

Initial lymphatic vessels > collecting vessels > lymphatic ducts/trunks > subclavian veins > heart

question

5/Anatomy of Lymphatic Vessels: What is the direction of fluid movement?

answer

Fluid moves from periphery to central circulation

question

5/Anatomy of Lymphatic Vessels: What scientific principle drives the lymph system?

answer

Pressure-driven system (principles of osmosis)

question

5/Anatomy of Lymphatic Vessels: Describe the spontaneous contraction of lymphatic vessels

answer

Uses extrinsic pumping mechanisms the result of skeletal muscles actions, arteriol pulses, respiration, and mechanical message.

question

6/Regional Lymphatic System: What is a lymphatome?

answer

A map of the body's lymph draining territories, which are bordered and separated by watershed areas. These are interconnected both superficially and deep.

question

7/Anatomy of Lymphatic System: Describe the thoracic duct

answer

leading from the cisterna chyli to discharge into the left sublcavian vein in the neck. Responsible for most of the trunk, LE, LUE, and left side of neck and head.

question

7/Anatomy of Lymphatic System: Describe the right lymphatic duct

answer

carries far less lymph than the thoracic duct, draining mainly the right arm and head, the heart and lungs, and the anterior chest wall.

question

8/Lymphatic System Functions: What is the primary purpose of the lymphatic system?

answer

Maintain fluid balance in tissues

question

8/Lymphatic System Functions: What other system does it work and closely resemble?

answer

Works with the venous system

question

8/Lymphatic System Functions: What are some of the functions of the lymphatic system?(3)

answer

1 - Fight infection. 2 - Assist in the removal of cellular debris. 3 - Removal of waste products from extracellular spaces1 -

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: What is Lymphangitis?

answer

Lymphangitis - inflammation of a lymphatic vessel

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: What is Lymphadenitis

answer

Lymphadenitis - inflammation of lymph node(s)

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: What is Lymphadenopathy?

answer

Lymphadenopathy - enlargement of lymph node(s) not necessarily due to infection of lymph node, but more likely due to fighting other infection.

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: What is Lymphedema?

answer

Lymphedema - increased lymph in soft tissues

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: How many stages to Lymphedema? How are they identified?

answer

4 - Stage 0, Stage I, Stage II & Stage III

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: Describe Stage 0 of Lymphedema

answer

Lymph transport capacity is reduced, no clinical edema is present.

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: Describe Stage I of Lymphedema

answer

Accumulation of protein-rich, pitting edema. Reversible with elevation, affected areas normal size on waking in the morning. Increases with activity, heat and humidity.

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: Describe Stage II of Lymphedema

answer

Accumulation of protein-rich, nonpitting edema wth connective scar tissue. Irreversible, does not resolve overnight; increasingly more difficult to pit. Clinical fibrosis is present. Skin changes present in severe Stage II.

question

9/Disorders of the Lymphatic System: Describe Stage III of Lymphedema

answer

Accumulation of protein-rich edema with significant increase in connective and scar tissue. Severe nonpitting fibrotic edema. Atrophic changes (hardening of dermal tissue, skin folds, skin papillomas, and hyperkeratosis)

question

10/Lymphedema: What is edema?

answer

Edema - accumulation of excessive fluid within the interstitial tissues or within body cavities

question

10/Lymphedema: What is lymphedema?

answer

Lymphedema - swelling of soft tissues that results from the accumulation of protein-rich fluid in the extracellular spaces. Lymph transport capacity is inadequate. Therefore there is a decrease in absorption and an ncrease in lymphatic load

question

11/Lymphedema: What is primary lymphedema?

answer

Due to trauma, hereditary or idiopathic state

question

11/Lymphedema: What is secondary lymphedema?

answer

Due to removal of lymph nodes

question

12/Pitting Edema Scale: What is pitting edema?

answer

Pitting edema = presence of indentations in the skin when pressure is applied

question

12/Pitting Edema Scale: What are the scores for pitting edema?

answer

1+, 2+, 3+, & 4+

question

12/Pitting Edema Scale: Describe the 1+ score for pitting edema.

answer

Indentation barely detactable

question

12/Pitting Edema Scale: Describe the 2+ score for pitting edema.

answer

Slight indentationvisible when skin is depressed, returns to normal in 15 seconds

question

12/Pitting Edema Scale: Describe the 3+ score for pitting edema.

answer

Deeper indentation occurs when pressed and returns to normal within 30 seconds

question

12/Pitting Edema Scale: Describe the 4+ score for pitting edema.

answer

Indentation lasts for more than 30 seconds

question

13/Lymphedema - Sequelae: Define Sequelae

answer

Complications

question

13/Lymphedema - Sequelae: Functional limitations & disability in Lymphedema are the result of?

answer

1 - Increased limb girth and weight - alteration of gait pattern. 2 - Discomfort 3 - Neuromuscular deficits. 4 - Integumentary complications

question

13/Lymphedema - Sequelae: What is the discomfort the result?

answer

Pain from extra tissue/weight

question

13/Lymphedema - Sequelae: What is trophic?

answer

thickening of the skin

question

14/Lymphedema - Etiology: Lymphedema common in populations such as? (5)

answer

1 - Post-mastectomy (especially LN removal). 2 - Lymph node dissection. 3 - Reconstructive surgeries 4 - Radiation treatments. 5 - Structural or functional impairment of lymphatic system

question

15/Medical Management: What was the philosophy of the 90's for cancer?

answer

Treat cancer first, then lymphedema

question

15/Medical Management: What is the history of medications for lymphedema?

answer

Diuretics - for edema (Na driven), not lymphedema... could actually worsen problem. The future is proteolytic drugs - those that break down proteins to smaller molecules that can more easily be re-absorded.

question

15/Medical Management: What is the history of surgery?

answer

No clinically successful measures, Debulking, anastomoses of lymph vessels

question

16/Considerations for the PTA: Describe healthy lymph nodes. When should the patient be referred to a physcian?

answer

Lymph nodes - should be non-palpable, soft. Palpable/hard lymph nodes - refer to physician

question

16/Considerations for the PTA: The therapist should provide pt with S&S of lymphedema especially when? (2)

answer

Pt education: S&S of lymphedema. Especially with history of (h/o) radiation, mastectomy, etc.

question

16/Considerations for the PTA: Why do girth measurements?

answer

Monitor changes in swelling

question

16/Considerations for the PTA: Lymphedema may be lifelong issued, when?

answer

May be lifelong if patient has had lymphatic tissue removed

question

16/Considerations for the PTA: What are the 3 categories for Lymphedema precautions

answer

3 categories: infection prevention, circulatory compromise, stress on impaired lymphatic system

question

17/Considerations for the PTA: What are the considerations for a BP cuff with lymphedema patients?

answer

Do not place cuff above IV line or AV shunt; on involved side. If involved side can't be avoided, do not inflate cuff > average systolic pressure

question

17/Considerations for the PTA: Why are lymphedema pts prone to infection?

answer

Prone to infection due to poor healing and poor skin integrity

question

17/Considerations for the PTA: Properly fitting shoes, skin checks etc should be provided for lymphedema pts, why?

answer

They are prone to infection and rubbing etc could lead to it.

question

17/Considerations for the PTA: Lymphedema certification for PTs & PTAs can be obtained where?

answer

Academy of Lymphatic Studies. Norton School of Lymphatic Therapy

question

18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: What is Manual lymphatic drainage (MLD)?

answer

MLD (Manual Lymph Drainage) is a gentle, superficially applied manual treatment technique designed to improve the activity of intact lymph vessels by providing mild mechanical stretches on the wall of the lymph collectors. Requires the PT/PTA to obtain additional training.

question

18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: List 3 apparatus to assist lymphedema patients.

answer

Compression bandaging/garments/pumps

question

18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: What is the order for exercise for Lymphedema patients?

answer

Exercise - Specific order (trunk muscles, then limb girdle muscles, proximal to distal on limb, finish with trunk exercise & deep breathing to enhance flow of lymph through thoracic duct)

question

18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: List 6 educaton points for lymphedema patients.

answer

Basic anatomy, skin/nail care, self-massage, self-bandaging, garment care, infection management

question

18/Comprehensive Lymphedema Management: Lymphedema patients require what other non-tangible support?

answer

Psychological and emotional support

question

19/Manual Lymphatic Drainage: How does MLD improve lymph vessel activity?

answer

Improves activity of intact lymph vessels by providing mild mechanical stretches on the wall of the lymph collectors

question

19/Manual Lymphatic Drainage: What does massage mean? Why is it not appropriate to be used as a descriptor for MLD?

answer

Massage means to knead and MLD does not have kneading elements. Also, massage is applied to subfascial tissues and MLD is suprafascial

question

19/Manual Lymphatic Drainage: Where are lymph collectors located on the body?

answer

lymph collectors are located in the dermal and subcutaneous regions (superficial to fascia)

question

20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: What is the first phase of complete Decongestive PT called? How long does it usually last?

answer

Intensive phase (BID for 4-6 weeks)

question

20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: What does the 1st phase of complete decongestive PT consist of? What happens toward the end of this phase?

answer

Meticulous skin care, MLD, bandaging, exercises with bandage on. Toward end of this phase, patient fitted for compression garment

question

20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: What is the 2nd phase of decongestive PT called?

answer

Self-management phase (started when edema is under control)

question

20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: What does the 2nd phase of complete decongestive PT consist of?

answer

Patient performs own skin care and MLD, applies own compression garment during the day and bandaging at night.

question

20/Complete Decongestive Physical Therapy: T/F During 2nd phase of complete decongestive PT, a patient may still perform exercises with the bandage or the compression garment

answer

TRUE

STUDY

Animation Education And Training Make The Transition New Material Training

Chapter 11 Quiz Tech Cust – Flashcards 54 terms

Deloris Connelly

54 terms

Preview

Chapter 11 Quiz Tech Cust – Flashcards

question

Which of these is not one of the steps in the training process?

answer

Perform

question

The textbook states that mass market training materials may change the role of user trainer from preparer and presenter to coordinator and evaluator.

answer

True

question

During which training step does a trainer develop details about the specific topics to cover and how to present them?

answer

Preparation

question

When a trainer is confronted with trainees of varying ability levels, the trainer should target the training activities to the lowest ability level to meet the needs of all trainees.

answer

False

question

When organizing a list of topics, most trainers begin with lower-level skills, such as basic vocabulary terms and concepts first, and then progress to skill-building activities.

answer

True

question

Which of these learning methods generally results in the lowest retention and poorest trainee performance?

answer

Listen

question

The more that trainees are active participants in the learning process, the better they will retain information.

answer

True

question

A delivery method is a choice a trainer makes among several instructional technologies, media and ways to present information.

answer

True

question

Role playing is an effective method for training user support specialists in communication and customer service skills because trainees rehearse actual work environment situations.

answer

True

question

When covered in a training session, features of hardware or software that are unusual, rarely used features are sometimes called ____.

answer

bells and whistles

question

Users usually need at least a basic understanding of a computer's operation before they can become skills users of technology.

answer

True

question

Since users are primarily adults, no explanation of motivation ("Why are we learning this?"), is needed in a training session.

answer

False

question

A learning management system is a software application that automates the role of trainer for small businesses that cannot afford a trainer position.

answer

False

question

Online reading materials with ____________________ can be interactive so that users can quickly follow pointers to locate the specific information they need.

answer

hyperlinks

question

Visual aids are an effective training delivery method because many trainees retain visual information better than information they have only heard.

answer

True

question

Which of the sequences below ranks the cognitive skills in Bloom's Taxonomy from simple to complex? A) Know B) Analyze C) Synthesize D) Evaluate

answer

A, B, C, D

question

Social learning (peer-to-peer) is most common in which kind of learning format?

answer

Small groups/teams

question

One of the most effective ways to enable users to be more self-reliant is through a ____.

answer

user training program

question

Printed materials designed to be taken from a training session to refresh a trainee's memory later are called ____.

answer

handouts

question

Reading materials selected for a training session should match the reading level of the trainees.

answer

True

question

When trainers begin to prepare specific training materials for a session, they generally start from scratch to avoid copyright problems.

answer

False

question

Training and education are distinct processes that are independent of each other.

answer

False

question

A trainer who is unsure of the ability levels in a group of trainees may need to administer a short pretest to determine their baseline ability levels.

answer

True

question

Training is a teaching and learning process that aims to provide conceptual understanding and long-term thinking skills.

answer

False

question

Lectures, reading assignments, discussions, visual aids, handouts, demonstrations, tutorials, group projects and hands-on assignments are examples of different training delivery methods.

answer

True

question

When a trainer is confronted with trainees of varying ability levels, the trainer should target the training activities to the lowest ability level to meet the needs of all trainees.

answer

False

question

Which of these skill levels deals with the meanings of the words people use to exchange information about a subject?

answer

Concepts and understanding

question

A delivery method is a choice a trainer makes among several instructional technologies, media and ways to present information.

answer

True

question

Experienced trainers have found that web-based training (WBT) makes low-cost, uniformly high quality, effective training available world-wide.

answer

False

question

Which is true of small groups training versus larger classes?

answer

More individual assistance is available

question

A visual learner/nonverbal would probably prefer to read a manual rather than listen to a lecture on a training topic.

answer

True

question

Most trainers start from scratch when they develop a list of topics to cover in a training session.

answer

False

question

Bloom's Taxonomy of cognitive skills includes 6 categories of skill levels from simple behaviors, such as ability to remember facts, to complex skills, such as evaluating information.

answer

True

question

Hands-on training activities are not as effective as demonstrations as a training delivery method.

answer

False

question

The cost per trainee of classroom training versus small group training is about the same.

answer

False

question

Performance objectives for a training session should be ____.

answer

measurable

question

Most trainers start from scratch when they develop a list of topics to cover in a training session.

answer

false

question

The best performance objectives for a training session specify how well a trainee needs to be able to perform a task, such as speed or accuracy.

answer

true

question

Reading materials selected for a training session should match the reading level of the trainees.

answer

true

question

Experienced trainers find that more short breaks during a training session are preferable to fewer, long breaks.

answer

true

question

In a training session, the division of time between reviewing previous material and introducing new material should be about 50-50.

answer

False

question

An experiential learner and a kinesthetic learner are two words that mean the same thing.

answer

true

question

When trainers begin to prepare specific training materials for a session, they generally start from scratch to avoid copyright problems.

answer

False

question

The cost per trainee of classroom training versus small group training is about the same.

answer

false

question

Trainers are sometimes reluctant to use group discussions as a training method because they are afraid they may lose control of a training session.

answer

true

question

Online reading materials with ____________________ can be interactive so that users can quickly follow pointers to locate the specific information they need.

answer

hyperlinks

question

During which training step does a trainer develop details about the specific topics to cover and how to present them?

answer

Preparation

question

Self-paced, computer-based training materials are increasing in popularity, but the cost to develop high-quality training materials is very high.

answer

true

question

A disadvantage of classroom training is that all trainees do not learn at the same pace.

answer

true

question

Multimedia materials are a combination of ____.

answer

text, images, animation , and sound

question

Which of the sequences below ranks learning methods from highest retention and performance to lowest? A) observe a task B) listen to a lecture C) read a book D) solve a problem

answer

DACB

question

Self-guided tutorials permit trainees to work at their own pace, are cost-effective, and help is available any time it is needed.

answer

False

question

A useful source of information about the content trainees need is their position descriptions.

answer

True

question

During which of these steps in a training session should a trainer cover what trainees will achieve by the end of the training and why the training is useful?

answer

Establish motivation

STUDY

Animation

Chapter 11-online public speaking quiz – Flashcards 10 terms

Karen Combs

10 terms

Preview

Chapter 11-online public speaking quiz – Flashcards

question

Which of the following is a correctly worded main point for a speech preparation outline? A. Computer-generated graphics as special effects. B. Many movie special effects are created with computer-generated graphics. C. How are special effects created with computer-generated graphics? D. The use of computer-generated graphics to create special effects in movies. E. Computer-generated graphics.

answer

B. Many more special effects created with computer-generated graphics

question

According to your textbook, the speaking outline A. is created from the titles of a speaker's PowerPoint slides. B. is used to jog a speaker's memory during the speech. C. includes a full bibliography. D. all of the above. E. b and c only.

answer

B. is used to jog a speaker's memory during the speech

question

Arranged in random order below are a main point, two subpoints, and two sub-subpoints from a speech preparation outline. Which is the main point? A. Melanoma is the least common but most deadly form of skin cancer. B. Each year about 7,400 people die from melanoma in the U.S. C. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common type of skin cancer. D. Two types of skin cancer are melanoma and basal cell carcinoma. E. Of all skin cancers diagnosed in the U.S., only 4 percent are melanoma.

answer

A. Melanoma is the least common but most deadly form on skin cancer

question

All of the following are necessary in a preparation outline except: A. labels for the introduction, body, and conclusion. B. directions for delivering the speech. C.transitions, internal previews, and internal summaries. D. a consistent pattern of indentation and symbolization. E. a specific purpose statement.

answer

B. directions for delivering the speech

question

The main points in a preparation outline are: A. identified by Roman numerals. B. identified by capital letters. C. located farther to the right than subpoints. D. identified by Arabic numbers. E. written in phrases, not full sentences.

answer

A. identified by roman numerals

question

A speech title should: A. attract the attention of the audience. B. be brief. C. suggest the main thrust of the speech. D. all of the above. E. a and c only.

answer

D. All of the above

question

Outlining is important to public speaking because an outline helps a speaker: A. judge whether each part of the speech is fully developed. B. ensure that ideas flow clearly from one to another. C. solidify the structure of a speech. D. all of the above. E. b and c only.

answer

D. All of the above

question

Which of the following is a correctly worded main point for a speech preparation outline? A. Leadership. B. What are the major types of leadership? C. Two major types of leadership. D. There are two major types of leadership. E. Leadership: major types.

answer

D. There are two major types of leardership

question

Alexus has completed her final preparation outline and is preparing her speaking outline for her speech on macrobiotic foods. According to your textbook, as Alexus prepares her speaking outline, she should remember to: A. include a bibliography. B. make sure the outline is plainly legible. C. keep the outline as brief as possible. D. all of the above. E. b and c only.

answer

E. b & c only

question

Which of the following is a correctly worded main point for a speech preparation outline? A. Myths about day care. B. Is day care good for children? C. The pros and cons of day care: research results. D. Research shows that there are both advantages and disadvantages to day care. E. Knowing the advantages and disadvantages of day care for your child.

answer

D. Research shows that there are both advantages & disadvantages to day care

STUDY

Animation Chemistry

SAT II Biology – Biochemistry – Flashcards 80 terms

Clarence Louder

80 terms

Preview

SAT II Biology – Biochemistry – Flashcards

question

Atom

answer

Consists of: Protons (positively charged) and Neutrons (no charge) in the nucleus, electrons (negatively charged) outside the nucleus.

question

ground state

answer

electrons in the lowest available energy level

question

isotopes

answer

Atoms of one element that vary in the number of neutrons. Example: Carbon-12 and Carbon-14 are isotopes

question

radioisotopes

answer

radioactive isotopes

question

half-life

answer

the rate at which radioisotopes decay

question

ionic bonds

answer

bonds that form when electrons are transferred.

question

anion

answer

an atom that gains electrons

question

cation

answer

an atom that loses electrons

question

molecule

answer

a group of two or more atoms held together by chemical bonds.

question

covalent bond

answer

bonds that form when electrons are shared

question

polarity

answer

the unequal distribution of charges on a molecule

question

nonpolar covalent bonds

answer

Bonds where electrons are shared equally. They are formed between any two atoms that are alike.

question

polar covalent bonds

answer

Bonds where electrons are shared unequally. They are formed between any two atoms that are unalike.

question

hydrogen bonds

answer

Weak bondsbetween the negative side of the water molecule oxygen and the positive side that the hydrogens create; bonds that hold water molecules together and result in high specific heat; good solvent properties and cohesion that results in surface tension. Keeps strands of DNA bonded together forming the double helix

question

Nonpolar molecules

answer

weak attractions such as Van der Waals. Carbon Dioxide is a nonpolar molecule

question

hydrophobic

answer

"water hating" Nonpolar molecules are hydrophobic and do not dissolve in water.

question

hydrophilic

answer

"water loving" polar molecules are hydrophilic and dissolve in water.

question

Characteristics of Water

answer

1. Water has a high specific heat 2. water has a high heat of vaporization 3. water has high adhesion properties 4. Water is the universal solvent 5. Water has strong cohesion tension (transpirational pull) 6. Ice floats because it is less dense than water

question

adhesion

answer

the clinging of one substance to another

question

cohesion tension

answer

molecules of water tend to stick to each other

question

capillary action

answer

the force of water rising in a thin tube due to cohesion and adhesion

question

mixture

answer

a material that is composed of two or more substances that are physically combined

question

heterogeneous mixture

answer

the different substances can be seen and separated out

question

homogenous mixture

answer

the different substances are evenly mixed and cannot be separated easily

question

solution

answer

is a homogenous mixture that appears to be a single substance but is composed of particles of two or more substances that are distributed evenly amongst each other.

question

solute

answer

the substance that is dissolved

question

solvent

answer

the substance in which the solute is dissolved

question

answer

a measure of acidity and alkalinity (basic) of a solution

question

buffers

answer

substances that resist change in pH

question

acidic

answer

a solution that has a greater amount of H+ than OH- ions

question

basic

answer

a solution that has a greater amount of OH- than H+

question

macromolecules

answer

Four main classes of large biological molecules (carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids) made up of many smaller molecules and atoms.

question

monomers

answer

small chemical units that can join together with other small units to form larger units called polymers

question

polymers

answer

Large compounds formed from combinations of many monomers.

question

organic compounds

answer

Compounds that contain carbon atoms and are found in living things.

question

inorganic compounds

answer

Compounds that do not contain carbon; many are also essential to life.

question

isomers

answer

compounds with the same molecular formula, but with different structures. Example: glucose, galactose, fructose

question

monosaccharides

answer

monomer of carbohydrates Have chemical formula of C6H12O6. Examples: glucose, galactose, fructose.

question

disaccharides

answer

All have the chemical forumla C12H22O11. They consist of 2 monosaccharides joined by a process known as the Dehydration synthesis

question

maltose

answer

Glucose + Glucose

question

lactose

answer

Glucose + Galactose

question

sucrose

answer

Glucose + Fructose

question

hydrolysis

answer

opposite of dehydration synthesis, the breakdown of a compound with the addition of water

question

polysaccharides

answer

polymers of carbohydrates Examples: cellulose, chitin, starch, glycogen

question

cellulose

answer

polysaccharide that makes up plant cell walls

question

starch

answer

the way plants store carbohydrates

question

chitin

answer

polysaccharide that makes the exoskeleton in arthropods and the cell walls of mushrooms

question

glycogen

answer

the way animals store starch. Stored in humans in the liver and skeletal muscle.

question

lipids

answer

class of organic compounds that include fats, oils, and waxes. usually made up of one glycerol and three fatty acids

question

saturated fatty acids

answer

Contain only single bonds between carbon atoms. Come from animals, solid at room temperature, linked to heart disease.

question

unsaturated fatty acids

answer

Have at least one double bond between carbon atoms and the hydrocarbon chain. Are extracted from plants, are liquid at room temperature.

question

Lipid Functions

answer

1. energy storage 2. phospholipids make up cell membrane 3. some lipids are endocrine hormones

question

Steroids

answer

Fashioned on a backbone of four linked carbon rings and include cholesterol and hormones (testosterone, estrogen).

question

proteins

answer

macromolecules containing carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen; proteins are considered the building blocks of tissue

question

amino acids

answer

building blocks (monomers) of proteins; twenty kinds

question

Amino group

answer

-NH2

question

Carboxyl group

answer

-COOH

question

R-group

answer

used to represent one of 20 possible side chains found in amino acids of living systems, "variable group"

question

polypeptides

answer

repeating units of amino acids

question

peptide bonds

answer

bonds between amino acids, form polypeptides

question

dipeptide

answer

two amino acids combined

question

Primary structure proteins

answer

the order of amino acids in a protein

question

Secondary structure proteins

answer

the three dimensional shape that results from the hydrogen bonding between the amino and carboxyl groups of adjacent amino acids

question

tertiary structure proteins

answer

additional three dimensional shaping of a protein that dominates the structure of globular proteins

question

Quaternary structure proteins

answer

The particular shape of a complex protein, defined by the characteristic three-dimensional arrangement of its constituent subunits, each a polypeptide.

question

enzymes

answer

a chemical that speeds up chemical reactions within a living cell

question

coenzyme

answer

a small molecule (not a protein but sometimes a vitamin) essential for the activity of some enzymes

question

cofactor

answer

Any organic or inorganic substance that is needed for the operation of an enzyme.

question

energy of activation

answer

the amount of energy needed to begin a reaction

question

substrate

answer

the chemical that an enzyme works on

question

induced-fit model

answer

describes how enzymes work, As the substrate enters the active site, it induces the enzyme to alter its shape slightly so the substrate fits better

question

denaturation

answer

when proteins lose their natural shape due to change in temperature or pH

question

prions

answer

A misfolded, infectious protein that are normally found in the brains of mammals and cause several brain diseases. (Mad Cow)

question

nucleic acids

answer

macromolecules containing hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, carbon and phosphorus and are associated with organism's genetic code

question

nucleotides

answer

building blocks (monomers) of nucleic acids

question

DNA

answer

Deoxyribonucleic Acid. Double stranded chain. Deoxygenated (deoxyribose) 5 carbon sugar.

question

RNA

answer

Ribonucleic Acid. Single stranded chain. Oxygenated (ribose), 5 carbon sugar.

question

biochemistry

answer

Chemistry of life, the study of chemical substances and reactions within living organisms.

question

alpha helix

answer

A spiral shape constituting one form of the secondary structure of proteins, arising from a specific hydrogen-bonding structure.

question

beta sheet

answer

secondary structure of proteins with a pleated, ribbonlike shape

STUDY

Animation AP English Language And Composition English/Language Arts 3 (11Th Grade) Specific Purpose Third Party

Mr. Brown Semester 1 English 2 Study Guide for Final – Flashcards 108 terms

Deloris Connelly

108 terms

Preview

Mr. Brown Semester 1 English 2 Study Guide for Final – Flashcards

question

assuage

answer

(v) to make easier or milder, relieve; to quiet, calm; to put an end to, appease, satisfy, quench. SYN: mitigate, alleviate, slake, allay. ANT: intensify, aggravate, exacerbate

question

hiatus

answer

(n) a gap, opening, break (in the sense of having an element missing). SYN: pause, lacuna. ANT: continuity, continuation

question

innuendo

answer

(n) a hint, indirect suggestion, or reference (often in a derogatory sense). SYN: insinuation, intimation. ANT: direct statement

question

transcend

answer

(v) to rise above or beyond, exceed. SYN: surpass, outstrip

question

callow

answer

(adj) without experience; immature, not fully developed; lacking sophistication and poise; without feathers. SYN: green, raw, unfledged, inexperienced. ANT: mature, grown-up, polished, sophisticated

question

epitome

answer

(n) a summary, condensed account; an instance that represents a larger reality. SYN: abstract, digest, model, archetype

question

intrinsic

answer

(adj) belonging to someone or something by its very nature, essential, inherent; originating in a bodily organ or part. SYN: immanent, organic. ANT: extrinsic, external, outward

question

permeate

answer

(v) to spread through, penetrate, soak through

question

abominate

answer

(v) to have intense dislike or hatred for. SYN: loathe, abhor, despise, detest. ANT: relish, savor, cherish, esteem

question

commiserate

answer

(v) to sympathize with, have pity or sorrow for, share a feeling of distress. SYN: feel sorry for, empathize. ANT: feel no sympathy for

question

expedite

answer

(v) to make easy, cause to progress faster. SYN: accelerate, facilitate, speed up. ANT:hinder, hamper, impede, obstruct

question

inadvertent

answer

(adj) resulting from or marked by lack of attention; unintentional, accidental. SYN: accidental, unconsidered. ANT: deliberate, intentional, premeditated

question

inscrutable

answer

(adj) incapable of being understood; impossible to see through physically. SYN: impenetrable, incomprehensible, enigmatic. ANT: comprehensible, intelligible, penetrable

question

insular

answer

(adj) relating to, characteristic of, or situated on an island; narrow or isolated in outlook or experience. SYN: narrow-minded, parochial, provincial. ANT: catholic, cosmopolitan, liberal

question

remonstrate

answer

(v) to argue or plead with someone against something, protest against, object to. SYN: reason against, expostulate

question

repudiate

answer

(v) to disown, reject, or deny the validity of. SYN: disavow, abjure, renounce. ANT: avow, affirm, aver, avouch

question

resilient

answer

(adj) able to return to an original shape or form; able to recover quickly. SYN: springy, elastic, buoyant, bouncy. ANT: rigid. stiff, inflexible, unyielding

question

amnesty

answer

(n) a general pardon for an offense against a government; in general, any act of forgiveness or absolution

question

flout

answer

(v) to mock, treat with contempt. SYN: scoff at, sneer at, snicker at, scorn. ANT: obey, honor, revere, uphold

question

transient

answer

(adj) lasting only a short time, fleeting; (n) one who stays only a short time. SYN: impermanent, ephemeral, evanescent. ANT: permanent, imperishable, immortal

question

vapid

answer

(adj) dull, uninteresting, tiresome; lacking in sharpness, flavor, liveliness, or force. SYN: insipid, lifeless, colorless. ANT: zesty, spicy, savory, colorful, lively

question

contrive

answer

(v) to plan with ingenuity, invent; to bring about as the result of a scheme or plan

question

heinous

answer

(adj) very wicked, offensive, hateful

question

sureptitious

answer

(adj) stealthy, secret, intended to escape observation; made or accomplished by fraud

question

vicarious

answer

(adj) performed, suffered, or otherwise experienced by one person in place of another

question

answer

When Paine compares America's relationship with England to the bondage of slavery, to what emotion is he appealing? a. anger b. joy c. happiness d. hope

question

answer

Identify one reason Paine gives for supporting the fight for liberty. a. faith that God will reward the weak and powerless b. responsibility to ensure that all people are treated equally c. shame that the colonies have been afraid to break away from Britain d. duty to provide a better life for one's family

question

answer

What is the main point of Paine's essay? a. The time for armed struggle is over. b. Colonists who support Britain are weak and cowardly. c. The king of Britain is a fool. d. The colonists must endure.

question

answer

With what does Paine compare America's war against the British? a. murder b. all the treasures of the world c. a man defending his property d. a thief breaking into his house

question

answer

Which of the following passages from The Crisis, Number 1, introduces an anecdote meant to persuade the audience? a. "I have as little superstition in me as any man living." b. "[A] noted one, who kept a tavern at Amboy, was standing at his door, with as pretty a child in his hand." c. "The far and the near, the home counties and the back, the rich and the poor, will suffer or rejoice alike." d. "'Tis the business of little minds to shrink."

question

answer

Jefferson uses the charged word tyrant to characterize the king of Britain. To what emotion does this word appeal? a. sorrow b. envy c. anger d. pride

question

answer

From Jefferson's statement that governments are instituted to secure basic human rights, the argument logically follows that a. any form of government that suppresses people's freedoms should be overthrown. b. monarchy is a bad form of government because rulers are not elected. c. the rights of men should be supported over those of women. d. all forms of government destroy human rights and thus should be abandoned.

question

answer

From the Declaration of Independence, what can be inferred about Jefferson's general attitude toward revolution? a. All cases of injustice vindicate a revolution. b. People often revolt as their first course of action. c. Revolution is a method of last resort. d. Revolution is a very poor way of dealing with conflict.

question

answer

Which of the following statements most appeals to the emotions of horror and disgust? a. "He is at this time transporting large armies ... to complete the works of death, desolation, and tyranny, already begun." b. "He has abdicated government here, by declaring us out of his protection and waging war against us." c. "He has dissolved representative houses repeatedly ...." d. "He has called together legislative bodies ... for the sole purpose of fatiguing them into compliance with his measures."

question

answer

Jefferson's list of self-evident truths is effective because it a. helps his audience understand the truths. b. creates a connection between these truths and the colonists' attempts at reconciliation with Britain. c. draws his readers' attention to his personal opinions about humanity. d. imparts a sense of reasonableness to the beginning of his argument.

question

answer

What is Jefferson's main form of persuasion in The Declaration of Independence? a. He has an unusual view of how government should work. b. He understands that the colonists should explain their actions. c. He offers a list of colonists' complaints against the British king. d. He asks colonists to contribute their fortunes to the cause.

question

answer

Which phrase from the Declaration of Independence is charged, or filled with emotion? a. "for the public good" b. "without consent" c. "death, desolation, and tyranny" d. "in the most humble terms"

question

answer

Why is Jefferson's list of self-evident truths effective in the Declaration of Independence? a. It helps his audience understand him. b. It restates beliefs people already have. c. It tells people about Jefferson's beliefs. d. It outlines a new vision of freedom.

question

answer

What overall announcement does the Declaration of Independence make? a. The colonists share news of the war with Great Britain. b. The colonists refuse to pay unfair taxes to Great Britain. c. The colonists declare a separation from Great Britain. d. The colonists sign new agreements with Great Britain.

question

answer

In The Crisis, Number 1, what concern does Paine express about "the sunshine patriot" who might "shrink from the service of his country"? a. He wants people to live in the colonies during the summer months. b. He wants people to leave the colonies and go to Britain. c. He wants people to be willing to fight, even at great risk. d. He wants people to be training to be soldiers all year.

question

answer

In The Crisis, Number 1, what does Paine try to convince his listeners to fight for? a. property b. lower taxes c. trade items d. freedom

question

answer

Where does Paine use charged words in these examples from The Crisis, Number 1? a. He says he has "little superstition." b. He says it does not matter "what rank of life you hold." c. He says "Tyranny" is like "Hell." d. He says men know the difference between "temper" and "principle."

question

answer

In The Crisis, Number 1, when Paine compares the colonies' relationship with Britain to the chains of slavery, what emotion does he hope to persuade his readers to feel? a. anger b. hope c. confusion d. relief

question

answer

Why does Paine write in The Crisis, Number 1, that a generous parent would say: "If there must be trouble let it be in my day, that my child may have peace"? a. to fight now so that their descendants will not have to b. to put off the fight until their descendants are grown c. to avoid having to fight, to protect their descendants d. to ignore the problem altogether and hope for the best

question

answer

Which phrase from The Crisis, Number 1 includes charged words? a. The heart that feels b. will curse his cowardice c. shrinks back at a time d. and made them happy

question

answer

What is the main idea of Paine's essay The Crisis, Number 1? a. The King of England is a criminal. b. British people must return to England. c. The colonists must pay taxes. d. The colonists must fight tyranny.

question

answer

Paine's primary purpose in saying that "a common murderer, a highwayman(robber), or a housebreaker, has as good a pretense" as the king is to a. show how the common criminal is persecuted by the king's representatives. b. emphasize the notion of democracy. c. stress the lawlessness of the king's actions. d. appeal to his audience's fear of crime.

question

answer

Paine uses "summer soldier" and "sunshine patriot" to refer to a.those who support the Revolution only when it is convenient. b.revolutionary soldiers who keep their spirits up. c.agricultural workers who have joined the revolutionary army. d.Tories.

question

answer

In which sentence is the meaning of the word unanimity suggested? a. Franklin urged every member of the Convention to sign the Constitution. b. Franklin praised the high quality of the new Constitution. c. Franklin found he doubted his judgments more as he grew older. d. Franklin wanted other nations to approve of the new Constitution.

question

answer

According to The Autobiography, what is Franklin's first step in his plan to reach perfection? a. He makes a list of what he wants to achieve. b. He improves his handwriting. c. He makes a schedule of what he does each day. d. He lists the friends he can count on.

question

answer

When Jefferson spoke of British officers sent to harass the colonists, he meant that they a. tried to get the colonists to convert b. constantly engaged them in conversation c. were a constant bother d. never treated them fairly

question

answer

What conclusion can you draw about why Franklin has trouble staying organized, according to The Autobiography? a. He has very few responsibilities. b. He is always busy traveling. c. He likes to do things all at once. d. He has too many responsibilities.

question

answer

In The Autobiography, Franklin believes that he can become a better person. What does this belief tell you about how he sees himself? a. He does not believe in himself. b. He has high hopes for himself. c. His knowledge of science can help him. d. His religion will help him.

question

answer

In comparison to other books about Franklin, The Autobiography probably gives you the best insight into a. the moral values of the time. b. Franklin's inventions. c. Franklin's descendants. d. Franklin's personality.

question

answer

Which part of this sentence from The Autobiography identifies it as an autobiography? I wished to live without committing any fault at any time. A. the word I B. the word wished C. the word live D. the word time

question

answer

Why is the selection by Franklin identified as an autobiography? A. Franklin is now dead. B. Franklin is famous. C. Franklin wrote about his own life. D. Franklin was a scientist.

question

answer

According to The Autobiography, what is Franklin's first step in his plan to reach perfection? A. He makes a list of what he wants to achieve. B. He improves his handwriting. C. He makes a schedule of what he does each day. D. He lists the friends he can count on.

question

answer

What experience does this portion of Equiano's slave narrative describe? a.the loss of African cultural traditions b.the fight to abolish slavery c.the observations of a slave merchant d.the horrors slaves faced on transatlantic voyages

question

answer

What attitude toward slavery does the narrative most strongly convey? a. outrage b. understanding c. tolerance d. indifference

question

answer

What was Equiano's main purpose in writing The Interesting Narrative? a. to entertain readers with dramatic episodes in his life b. to sway public opinion about slavery c. to contrast life in Africa and life in Barbados d. to provide detailed information on 18th-century sea travel

question

answer

Why does Equiano feel that the hardships, some of which he cannot even bear to relate, are "inseparable" from the slave trade? a. Sailing in those days meant perilous hardships for all who sailed. b. Because captives will always resist bondage, slave traders will always institute harsh measures to control the slaves c. The slave traders know only hard measures and no other way d. Because slavery is a form of commerical enterprise

question

answer

Much of the power of this selection stems from the fact that it is a. filled with highly poetic imagery and figures of speech. b. similar in style to an African folk tale. c. a logical, well-reasoned argument. d. a personal narrative.

question

answer

The narrator was placed on the deck of the ship because a. there was no room for him below deck. b. he was being punished, and the wind and rain were fierce. c. his captors feared he might die below deck. d. conditions below deck were unpleasant.

question

answer

What happens to the captives who try to get the extra fish the slave traders caught? a. They share the fish with the other captives. b. They devour the fish instantly. c. They are caught and flogged. d. They are allowed to cook and eat the fish for supper.

question

answer

Which of these details expresses the most objective viewpoint? a. Equiano got seasick when he was on the ship. b. Looking through the quadrant made Equiano think the world was magic. c. The cries of slaves saddened Equiano. d. The flying fish amazed Equiano as they flew across the ship.

question

answer

Which detail most clearly shows that not every sailor on the slave ship was always cruel to the slaves? a. the crew's preventing additional suicides after some captives jump overboard b. the mariner's giving Equiano the quadrant to look through c. the sailors' tossing the extra fish back into the sea d. the sailors' treatment of those captives who tried to get the extra fish

question

answer

Often did I think many of the inhabitants of the deep much more happy than myself. I envied them the freedom they enjoyed. In this passage, "inhabitants of the deep" refers to a. fish and other sea creatures. b. the slaves who were below deck. c. the slaves who had jumped overboard. d. the children who had fallen into the necessary tubs.

question

answer

If you were summarizing the selection, which statement would you use to express the main idea of the last section? a. The traders were overjoyed at reaching Barbados. b. The captives were afraid that they would be eaten. c. The ship landed, and the captives were sold into slavery. d. Old slaves joined the newcomers from Africa to tell them about their fate.

question

answer

Which detail would probably be left out of a summary of The Interesting Narrative of the Life of Olaudah Equiano? a. The crew ate the fish they caught. b. Most slaves were kept in the ship's hold. c. The ship's conditions were terrible. d. Many slaves were infected with disease.

question

an abolitionist or a sailor

answer

Based on the interests Equiano shows in this selection, if freed from slavery, he would most likely become

question

cacophony

answer

-A harsh discordant mixture of sounds -Syn:din racket noise

question

Crux

answer

A puzzling or difficult problem A crucial point -Nub, heart, central point, core

question

Depravity

answer

The quality of having an evil or immoral character -Immorality, perversion, indecency

question

Benevolent

answer

-Marked by or disposed by doing good -kind-hearted, good natured

question

Boon

answer

-Something pleasant or helpful -A benefit or advantage -Aid, blessing, asset

question

Felicity

answer

-State of being happy -Bliss

question

Perfidy

answer

-Betrayal of trust -Violation of faith and loyalty -Scam, double cross, Corruption, treachery

question

Loathsome

answer

Adj:Hateful disgust -Repulsive, abhorrent

question

Infidel

answer

-a person who does not accept a particular faith, especially Christianity. -Unbeliever,

question

Foppery

answer

-Foolish Character or action -Stupidity, imbecility

question

Persevere

answer

-To persist in a difficult situation -To overcome an obstacle -Endure, persist, pursue, maintain

question

Recompense

answer

-To give compensation to, pay for -Reimburse, repay, compensate, indemnify

question

Ordinance

answer

-An authorative command or order - A custom or practice established by a long usage -Edict, decree, ritual

question

Omnipotent

answer

-All powerful -Having unlimited power -Able to do anything -Supreme, almighty

question

Dolorous

answer

-Sad, Mournful, Grief, Sorrow -Feeling great sorrow or distress

question

Dispatched

answer

-To send away or off with promptness or speed on official business -Post, Mail, Transmit, Finish, Conclude

question

Protruded

answer

-To extend beyond or above a surface -To jut out of the surrounding surface -Stick out, jut out, extend

question

Lionhearted

answer

-To be brave or determined -Courageous or brave

question

Affliction

answer

-a state of pain, distress, or grief; misery -Trouble, calamity, disaster

question

Exquisite

answer

-extremely beautiful and, typically, delicate. -Beautiful, lovely, elegant, fine

question

Inquisitive

answer

-Curious or inquiring -Unduly curious about the affairs of others -Curious, interested, prying

question

Deliberation

answer

-long and careful consideration or discussion. -Thought, consideration, reflection

question

Mortality

answer

-the state of being subject to death. -Death, especially on a large scale -Impermanence, transience, dying

question

Deism

answer

belief in the existence of a supreme being, specifically of a creator who does not intervene in the universe. The term is used chiefly of an intellectual movement of the 17th and 18th centuries that accepted the existence of a creator on the basis of reason but rejected belief in a supernatural deity who interacts with humankind.

question

Liberalism

answer

-Anti-authority -Government does not have the right to dictate human rights

question

Liberalism

answer

a philosophy committed to the ideal of limited government and liberty of individuals including freedom of religion, speech, press, assembly, and free markets.

question

Deism

answer

-Believes in God but doesn't follow faith -Follows nature -Reason+logic -to connect with natural world that God created

question

Republicanism

answer

-The notion that a nation should be ruled by a republic - Remove absolute monarchies

question

Republicanism

answer

-Civic Patriotism--> enlist in military -Virtuous Citizenship--> Community Service -Property based Personality-->represent one's own wealth and success

question

Ed Burke

answer

Who believed the following?: -Freedom led to chaos -Liberalism ignored the contributions of previous generations -Liberal ideas ignore relationships that do exist -You need common norms to create a feeling of unity

question

Conservatism

answer

Ed Burke's beliefs were a part of what movement?

question

Conservatism

answer

a political and social philosophy promotes retaining traditional social institutions in the context of the culture and civilization.

question

Toleration

answer

-Reflected in the belief that hatred or fear of other races and creeds interfered with economic trade, extinguished of thought and expression, eroded the basis of friendship among nations, which led to war and persecution.

question

Scientific Progress

answer

Scientific inquiry to satisfy intellectual curiosity but to respond to a divine calling to expose God's natural laws.

question

Benjamin Franklin

answer

- a leading author, printer, political theorist, politician, postmaster, scientist, inventor, civic activist, statesman, and diplomat. As a scientist, he was a major figure in the American Enlightenment and the history of physics for his discoveries and theories regarding electricity. -Known as the ideal man and "first american" -One of the founding fathers of our nation

question

Thomas Jefferson

answer

-an American Founding Father, the principal author of the Declaration of Independence (1776), and the third President of the United States - He was a spokesman for democracy, and embraced the principles of republicanism and the rights of the individual with worldwide influence. At the beginning of the American Revolution, he served in the Continental Congress, representing Virginia, and then served as a wartime Governor of Virginia

question

Thomas Paine

answer

-an English and American political activist, philosopher, political theorist and revolutionary. -As the author of the two most influential pamphlets at the start of the American Revolution, he inspired the rebels in 1776 to declare independence from Britain.

question

Frederick Douglass

answer

-an African-American social reformer, orator, writer, and statesman -After escaping from slavery, he became a leader of the abolitionist movement, gaining note for his dazzling oratory antislavery writing -He stood as a living counter-example to slaveholders' arguments that slaves lacked the intellectual capacity to function as independent American citizens.

STUDY

Animation Click And Drag Powerpoint Slide Sorter View Title Slide

AGRI PRACTICE TEST 4 33 terms

Darryl Wooten

33 terms

Preview

AGRI PRACTICE TEST 4

question

Kyle wants to change the thickness of one of the shape outlines. Thickness is another word for ____.

answer

weight

question

When you print ____, the presentation is printed with one or more slides on each piece of paper.

answer

handouts

question

If a video is too long, or if there are parts you don't want to show during the slide show, you can ____ it.

answer

trim

question

Kyle wants to add a 3D rotation to highlight one of the mountain ranges. To do this he clicks the Shape ____ button.

answer

effects

question

The DRAWING ____ FORMAT tab appears when a drawing or a text box—including the slide's title and content placeholders—is selected.

answer

TOOLS

question

When Ethan first opens PowerPoint, he has two ____ view options: 1) to open an existing presentation or 2) to create a new file.

answer

backstage

question

Like shapes, you can rotate or ____ pictures using the Rotate handle or the Rotate button.

answer

flip

question

____ notes are information you add about slide content to help you remember to bring up specific points during the presentation.

answer

speaker

question

In common usage, a(n) ____ is any text that appears at the bottom of every page in a document or every slide in a presentation.

answer

footer

question

If you see a black square when you insert a video, you can override this by setting a ____ frame.

answer

poster

question

The most commonly used video formats are the MPEG-____ format, the Windows Media Audio/Video format, and the Audio Visual Interleave format.

answer

question

____ handles are the small squares that appear in the corners and in the middle of the sides of the border of a selected object.

answer

sizing

question

When Ethan first creates a new presentation it is displayed in ____ view.

answer

normal

question

Use the ____ Picture button to undo formatting and sizing changes you made to a picture.

answer

reset

question

A commonly used layout is the ____ layout.

answer

title and content

question

If you don't choose a theme, the default ____ theme is applied.

answer

office

question

Usually the date and slide number do not need to appear on the ____.

answer

title slide

question

When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed as small as possible.

answer

low quality

question

Use the Animation ____ to copy the animation, effects, and duration applied to one object to another object.

answer

painter

question

When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed slightly and will maintain the quality of the videos.

answer

presentation quality

question

After you insert a video, you can modify it by changing ____ options, changing the length of time the video plays, and applying formats and styles to the video.

answer

playback

question

In PowerPoint terms, ____ a photo means cutting off edges you don't want to include.

answer

cropping

question

____ view displays the slides so that they almost fill the screen, and a status bar appears identifying the number of the current slide and providing buttons to advance the slide show.

answer

reading

question

A ____ is shading in which one color blends into another or varies from one shade to another.

answer

gradient

question

An installed theme can be applied by clicking on a theme in the Themes group on the ____ tab.

answer

DESIGN

question

Text size is measured in ____.

answer

points

question

If you animate a list, the default is for the first-level items to appear ____.

answer

one at a time

question

The ____ is the first slide in a PowerPoint presentation.

answer

title slide

question

A ____ is a coordinated set of colors, fonts, backgrounds, and effects.

answer

theme

question

Referring to the accompanying figure, if you click the ____ option on the Start menu, your animation occurs automatically after the previous action.

answer

after previous

question

To indicate that a word might be misspelled, a ____ squiggly line appears under it.

answer

red

question

To change the speed of a transition, John shows Merlia how to change the ____.

answer

duration

question

John tells Merlia that it is often best to use the same slide transition consistently. He shows her the ____ button which applies the transition to all the slides in the presentation.

answer

apply to all

STUDY

Animation Click And Drag Pixels Per Inch Powerpoint Slide Show View Slide Sorter View Wireless Networking Standards

BCIS- Exam 1 (PowerPoint) 63 terms

Claire Forth

63 terms

Preview

BCIS- Exam 1 (PowerPoint)

question

When PowerPoint starts, it displays a blank presentation in ____ view.

answer

normal

question

Normal view displays slides one at a time in the ____.

answer

Slide pane

question

The ____ is the first slide in a PowerPoint presentation.

answer

title slide

question

There are ____ text placeholders on the Title slide.

answer

question

A commonly used layout is the ____ layout.

answer

Title and Content

question

To insert a new slide, you use the New Slide button in the ____ group on the HOME tab.

answer

Slides

question

A ____ item is a main item in a list.

answer

first-level

question

Text is measured in ____.

answer

points

question

____ adjusts default font sizes and line spacing to make the text fit.

answer

AutoFit

question

To duplicate, rearrange, or delete slides, you select the slides in the Slides tab in ____ view or switch to Slide Sorter view.

answer

Normal

question

Click the \"Return to the previous slide\" and \"____ to the next slide\" buttons to move from slide to slide in Slide Show view.

answer

Advance

question

If you have closed a saved presentation, open it in Backstage view by using the ____ command.

answer

Open

question

To edit a presentation without changing the original, create a copy of it. To do this, use the ____ command.

answer

Save As

question

A ____ is a coordinated set of colors, fonts, backgrounds, and effects.

answer

theme

question

A theme and its variants are called a theme ____.

answer

theme family

question

If you don't choose a theme, the default ____ theme is applied.

answer

Office

question

To apply a theme from a presentation stored on your computer or network, click the ____ button, and then click Browse for Themes.

answer

Themes More

question

A(n) ____, like any presentation, has a theme applied, but it also contains text, graphics, and placeholders to help direct you in creating content for a presentation.

answer

template

question

To find a template on Office.com, display the ____ or New screen in Backstage view.

answer

Recent

question

You can use the Picture button in the Images group on the ____ tab to add photos to slides.

answer

Insert

question

In PowerPoint terms, ____ a photo means cutting out the parts you don't want to include.

answer

cropping

question

When you save a presentation that contains photos, PowerPoint automatically compresses the photos to a resolution of ____ pixels per inch (ppi).

answer

220

question

If photos need to be emailed or uploaded to a Web page, choose the ____ ppi compression setting.

answer

question

When you choose the ____ compression setting, photos are compressed to the resolution specified on the Advanced tab in the PowerPoint Options dialog box.

answer

Document resolution

question

____ handles are the small squares that appear in the corners and in the middle of the sides of the border of a selected object.

answer

crop

question

The ____ ratio is the ratio of an object's height to its width.

answer

aspect

question

. ____ notes are information you add about slide content to help you remember to bring up specific points during the presentation.

answer

speaker

question

To indicate that a word might be misspelled, a ____ squiggly line appears under it.

answer

red

question

During your presentation, you can easily display a blank black slide by pressing the ____ key(s).

answer

question

____ view displays the slides so that they almost fill the screen, and a status bar appears identifying the number of the current slide and providing buttons to advance the slide show.

answer

reading

question

When you print ____, the presentation is printed with one or more slides on each piece of paper.

answer

handouts

question

When you are finished working with a presentation, you can exit PowerPoint. If there is only one presentation open, you click the Close button in the ____ corner of the program window to exit the program.

answer

upper-right

question

The DRAWING ____ FORMAT tab appears when a drawing or a text box—including the slide's title and content placeholders—is selected.

answer

tools

question

To insert a shape, click a shape in the Shapes ____.

answer

gallery

question

Draw the ____ adjustment handle on a shape to change its proportions without changing the size of the shape.

answer

yellow

question

Use the ____ Picture button to undo formatting and sizing changes you made to a picture.

answer

reset

question

Like shapes, you can rotate or ____ pictures using the Rotate handle or the Rotate button.

answer

flip

question

An installed theme can be applied by clicking on a theme in the Themes group on the ____ tab.

answer

design

question

If you need to use a custom theme frequently, you can save a presentation file as a(n) ____ Theme file.

answer

Office

question

To draw a shape, click the Shapes button in the Illustrations group on the _____ tab, click a shape in the gallery, and then click and drag to draw the shape in the size you want.

answer

insert

question

A ____ is shading in which one color blends into another or varies from one shade to another.

answer

gradient

question

To flip an object, you use the Flip commands on the Rotate button menu in the ____ group on the DRAWING TOOLS FORMAT tab.

answer

arrange

question

To insert a table, in a content placeholder, click the INSERT tab on the ribbon, click the Table button in the ____ group, and then click Insert Table.

answer

tables

question

When you use the Borders button arrow, the borders will be the style, weight, and color specified by the Pen Style, Pen Weight, and Pen Color buttons in the ____ Borders group.

answer

draw

question

Use the Animation ____ to copy the animation, effects, and duration applied to one object to another object.

answer

painter

question

If you animate a list, the default is for the first-level items to appear ____.

answer

one at a time

question

Sequence options appear on the Effect Options menu in addition to the ____ options when an animation is applied to a text box.

answer

direction

question

The Add or Remove Columns button in the Paragraph group on the ____ tab allows you to create multiple columns in a text box.

answer

question

The most commonly used video formats are the MPEG-____ format, the Windows Media Audio/Video format, and the Audio Visual Interleave format.

answer

question

After you insert a video, you can modify it by changing ____ options, changing the length of time the video plays, and applying formats and styles to the video.

answer

playback

question

To insert video stored on your computer or network, click the Insert Video button in a content placeholder, and then in the Insert Video window next to \"____,\" click Browse to open the Insert Video dialog box.

answer

From a file

question

The start timing setting is on the VIDEO TOOLS PLAYBACK ____.

answer

tab

question

The Media ____ category appears only when a media object—either video or audio—is selected on a slide.

answer

animation

question

If you see a black square when you insert a video, you can override this by setting a ____ frame.

answer

poster

question

If a video is too long, or if there are parts you don't want to show during the slide show, you can ____ it.

answer

trim

question

When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed slightly and will maintain the quality of the videos.

answer

presentation quality

question

When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed as small as possible.

answer

low quality

question

When you choose the ____ compression level for videos the file will be compressed to a quality suitable for streaming over the Internet.

answer

internet

question

To compress the videos in a presentation, click the Compress ____ button.

answer

media

question

The Info screen in Backstage view contains a(n) ____ Media button as well as the Compress Media button.

answer

optimize

question

Usually the date and slide number do not need to appear on the ____.

answer

title slide

question

Clicking either the Date & Time button or the ____ button opens the Header & Footer dialog box.

answer

question

In common usage, a(n) ____ is any text that appears at the bottom of every page in a document or every slide in a presentation.

answer

footer

STUDY

Animation Powerpoint Slide Sorter View Trends Over Time

CGS 1060c Powerpoint 2013 40 terms

Martha Hill

40 terms

Preview

CGS 1060c Powerpoint 2013

question

When Powerpoint displays a new presentation, the user is presented with one slide, the _____ slide.

answer

Title

question

The _____ button displays a Comments pane to the right of the Slide pane.

answer

Comments

question

The _____ provides an introduction to the topic covered in the presentation.

answer

Title slide.

question

A _____ is a box on a slide with dashed or dotted borders that holds titles and body text, or other content such as charts, tables, or pictures.

answer

Placeholder.

question

A set of unified design elements that provides a look for a presentation by applying colors, fonts, and effects is called a(n):

answer

Theme.

question

Changing the wording on a slide would be an example of _____

answer

Editing.

question

A(n) _____ is the arrangement of elements, such as title and subtitle text, lists, pictures, tables, charts, shapes, and movies on a slide.

answer

Layout.

question

_____ are used to organize text and are identified by the bullet style, indentation, and the size of the text.

answer

List levels.

question

Increasing the list level of a bullet point:

answer

Increases its indent and decreases the text size.

question

Decreasing the list level of a bullet point:

answer

Decreases its indent and increases the text size.

question

The ______ displays above the selected picture and provides a way to rotate the image

answer

Rotation handle.

question

Pictures can be made to look like sketches or paintings by applying _____.

answer

Artistic effects.

question

A _____ is displayed after the last slide of the presentation and indicates that the presentation is over.

answer

Black slide.

question

The feature in which the full-screen slide show displays on one monitor while simultaneously enabling the presenter to view a preview of the next slide is _____ view.

answer

Presenter.

question

Printed images of slides on a piece of paper are called _____.

answer

Slide handouts.

question

_____ are printouts that show the slide image on the top of the page and the notes that have been created on the bottom of the page.

answer

Notes pages.

question

The default aspect ratio in PowerPoint 2013 is 16:9, resulting in a _____ format.

answer

Widescreen.

question

Changing the appearance of the text, layout, and design of a slide is called:

answer

Formatting.

question

The horizontal placement of text within a placeholder is called _____.

answer

Text alignment.

question

Left, right, centered, and justified are examples of _____.

answer

Text alignments.

question

A title slide contains two placeholder elements:

answer

The title and the subtitle.

question

_____ displays thumbnails of all of the slides in a presentation.

answer

Slide Sorter view.

question

______ can be used to rearrange and delete slides and to apply formatting to multiple slides at one time.

answer

Slide Sorter view.

question

PowerPoint's _____ displays a presentation in a similar manner to a slide show, but the taskbar, title bar, and status bar remain visible in the presentation window.

answer

Reading view.

question

Changing bulleted and numbered list styles on a slide is an example of:

answer

Formatting.

question

A box that appears on a slide with dotted or hatch-marked borders where text, charts, tables, or pictures can be placed is called a:

answer

Placeholder.

question

When you see a _____ border around a placeholder, you know you can edit the placeholder text.

answer

Dashed.

question

The color of the numbers in a numbered list is determined by the presentation _____.

answer

Theme.

question

You can customize a bullet by changing any of the following EXCEPT:

answer

Its intensity.

question

A _____ is a single media file including art, sound, animation, or movies.

answer

Clip.

question

When an object is selected, it is surrounded by _____, which allow you to change the size of the object.

answer

Sizing handles.

question

The _____ feature reduces the size of a picture by removing unwanted areas of the picture.

answer

Crop.

question

If you wish to constrain an object's movement to a straight line either vertically or horizontally, you should hold down the _____ key while dragging the object.

answer

Shift.

question

An object that allows you to position text anywhere on the slide is called a _____.

answer

Text box.

question

_____ are displayed as dotted horizontal and vertical lines and indicate the pointer's position.

answer

Ruler guides.

question

The inside color of text or of an object is called the _____.

answer

Fill color.

question

The _____ provides predefined combinations of fill colors and line colors that can be applied to shapes.

answer

Shape Styles Gallery

question

PowerPoint's _____ removes unwanted portions of a picture so the picture does not appear as a self-contained rectangle.

answer

Background Removal.

question

_____ is a gallery of text styles that includes effects such as mirrored or shadowed text.

answer

WordArt.

question

The SmartArt graphic type _____ should be used to show a continual process.

answer

Cycle.

STUDY

Animation Powerpoint Rows And Columns

PowerPoint: Quiz Questions 25 terms

Mike Bryan

25 terms

Preview

PowerPoint: Quiz Questions

question

Lines, arrows, stars, banners, ovals, and rectangles are examples of __________ that are used to illustrate an idea, a process, or a workflow.

answer

shapes

question

Animations that bring a slide element onto the screen are called

answer

Entrance effects.

question

A __________ is displayed after the last slide of the presentation and indicates that the presentation is over.

answer

black slide

question

A chart that is created in PowerPoint is stored as __________ that is incorporated into the PowerPoint file.

answer

an Excel worksheet

question

Changing the appearance of the text, layout, and design of a slide is called

answer

formatting.

question

__________ are printouts that show the slide image on the top of the page and the notes that have been created on the bottom of the page.

answer

Notes pages

question

A presentation's __________ is applied to all text except the slide titles.

answer

Body font

question

A __________ is a box on a slide with dashed or dotted borders that holds titles and body text, or other content such as charts, tables, or pictures.

answer

placeholder

question

The primary editing view in PowerPoint where the user can write and design presentations is

answer

Normal view.

question

A(n) __________ is used to move an object off the screen.

answer

Exit effect.

question

__________ is a gallery of text styles that includes effects such as mirrored or shadowed text.

answer

WordArt

question

The __________ provides predefined combinations of fill colors and line colors that can applied to shapes.

answer

Shape Styles gallery

question

The motion effects that occur when moving from one slide to the next during a presentation are called

answer

slide transitions.

question

Printed images of slides on a piece of paper are called

answer

slide handouts.

question

PowerPoint's __________ displays a presentation in a similar manner to a slide show, but the taskbar, title bar, and status bar remain visible in the presentation window.

answer

Reading view

question

A button that turns a feature on and off is called a __________ button.

answer

toggle

question

When __________ surround a picture, the user knows that the picture is selected and can be modified or formatted.

answer

sizing handles

question

__________ controls the speed of an animation.

answer

Duration

question

A presentation's __________ is applied to the slide titles.

answer

Headings font

question

__________ can be applied to clip art, shapes, and text boxes to complement slide backgrounds and colors.

answer

Styles and effects

question

A __________ is a single media file including art, sound, animation, or movies.

answer

clip

question

A __________ is a collection of formatting options that you can apply to a picture, text, or an object.

answer

style

question

A set of unified design elements that provides a look for a presentation by applying colors, fonts, and effects is called a(n)

answer

theme.

question

A PowerPoint presentation is made up of one or more __________ that can contain text, pictures, tables, charts, and other objects.

answer

slides

question

__________ can be used to rearrange and delete slides and to apply formatting to multiple slides at one time.

answer

Slide Sorter view

STUDY

Animation Audience Analysis Linguistics Specific Purpose Statement Speech

Chapter 4: Reaching the Audience 10 terms

Viola Marenco

10 terms

Preview

Chapter 4: Reaching the Audience

question

What is an audience-centered speaker?

answer

An audience-centered speaker strives to understand the listeners so that he or she can meet their needs and interests

question

What is meant by audience analysis and adaptation?

answer

Analysis means finding out exactly who the listeners are and what they know. Adaptation means shaping a speech to satisfy the listeners' particular needs and interests.

question

How can a speaker get advance information about an audience?

answer

Interview the program director, talk to a few prospective listeners, or send a questionnaire to the future audience

question

What are taboos, and why are they an important concern for a speaker?

answer

Taboos are prohibitions in a culture; violating them can offend an audience.

question

Do international audiences usually prefer a presentation that is humorous and informal, or one that is serious and formal?

answer

International audiences usually prefer a serious, formal tone. An informal approach is often viewed as frivolous and disrespectful

question

What is ethnocentrism?

answer

The belief that one's own cultural group is superior to other groups

question

Who is the best source of information about the needs of listeners with disabilities, and why?

answer

The disabled listener—because he or she knows best what accommodations need to be made

question

What approach should you take if listeners have an unfavorable attitude toward your speech goal?

answer

Try to win listeners to your position, but if this fails, be content to at least move them closer to your view

question

What guidelines should be followed for a speech to an audience that knows little or nothing about your topic?

answer

(1) Limit the number of new ideas, (2) If possible, use visual aids, (3) Use down-to-earth language, (4) Repeat key ideas, and (5) Give vivid examples

question

What might happen if you give a speech that is different from the one the audience was expecting?

answer

Some members of the audience might be disappointed, even angry

STUDY

Animation Art Appreciation Order And Harmony Plato And Aristotle Time And Motion Visual Arts

ART: Mid-term 1.5 -1.10 – Flashcards 57 terms

Mary Moore

57 terms

Preview

ART: Mid-term 1.5 -1.10 – Flashcards

question

Traditional visual arts, such as painting, are inherently static, but artists have always found inventive ways of conveying the elements of ________ and ________.

answer

time . . . motion

question

When an artist employs visual clues to suggest movement in a work of art that is static and motionless, this is known as ________.

answer

implied motion

question

When an artist creates a work that deceives our eyes into believing there is motion as time passes, this is called ________.

answer

the illusion of motion

question

The kind of motion that is created by showing a series of static images in quick succession is called ________.

answer

stroboscopic motion

question

This spinning toy gives a sense of motion to a viewer when he or she looks through small slits in its cylindrical drum at a strip of changing pictures.

answer

zoetrope

question

Disney's Finding Nemo is an example of a series of computer-generated images played in rapid succession. This medium is called ________.

answer

animation

question

This kind of motion is occurring when we see movement in real life.

answer

actual motion

question

This type of art can only exist in one place and time in history.

answer

performance art

question

This medium involves the human body and usually includes the artist.

answer

performance art

question

Performance artists the Blue Man Group rely on bodily movements to communicate ideas without speech.

answer

True

question

This type of sculpture can move and change its visual form.

answer

kinetic

question

Alexander Calder invented the ________, a type of suspended, balanced sculpture that uses air currents to power its movement.

answer

mobile

question

If Alexander Calder's Untitled mobile was powered by a small motor, rather than air currents, it would not be an example of actual motion.

answer

False

question

The elements of time and motion are not applicable to the art of photography.

answer

False

question

What element describes the imposition of order and harmony on a design?

answer

unity

question

The three kinds of unity are:

answer

compositional, conceptual, gestalt

question

Compositional unity strikes an interesting balance between the monotony of too much similarity, and the chaos of too much ________ in a work of art.

answer

variety

question

What principle of art did Katsushika Hokusai employ in "The Great Wave off Shore at Kanagawa" in order to bring harmony to what could otherwise be a very chaotic scene?

answer

unity

question

An interior design that uses only straight lines might lack the visual interest of a more varied composition

answer

True

question

Disparate visual elements can be linked together with a common idea. This is ________ unity.

answer

conceptual

question

The German word that refers to something in which the whole seems greater than the sum of its parts is ________.

answer

gestalt

question

This is a kind of visual diversity that can bring many different ideas, media, or elements together in one composition.

answer

variety

question

Variety can ________ a design.

answer

invigorate

question

An artist creates an artwork made up of many different shapes, all in varying shades of blue. This artwork uses the following principles of art:

answer

unity and variety

question

Creating visual weight and counterweight is part of an artist's use of the element of ________ in creating a work of art.

answer

balance

question

________ balance is achieved when both sides of a composition look exactly the same.

answer

symmetrical

question

. ________ balance is achieved when two halves of a composition are not mirror images of each other.

answer

asymmetrical

question

If an artist painted a street scene with one large building on the left-hand side, and two smaller buildings on the right-hand side, this would be an example of ________ balance.

answer

asymmetrical

question

. ________ balance is achieved when all elements in a work of art are equidistant from a central point and repeat in a symmetrical way from side to side and top to bottom.

answer

radial

question

The kind of scale used for objects that appear larger than they are in real life is called ___ scale.

answer

monumental

question

An artist might use a small scale for a portrait of a lover because it implies ________.

answer

intimacy

question

When an artist uses scale to indicate the relative importance of elements in a composition, he or she is employing this kind of scale

answer

hierarchical scale

question

This type of scale is common in the relief sculpture of ancient Egypt, where it was used to indicate social importance.

answer

hierarchical

question

This group of artists sometimes used distorted scale to create dreamlike images that subvert our conscious experiences.

answer

Surrealists

question

An artist would probably use distorted scale if he or she wanted to create a lifelike scene that the viewer could relate to.

answer

False

question

The relationships between the sizes of different parts of a work make up its ________.

answer

proportions

question

In two-dimensional art, this is the area in which an artist creates their work.

answer

format

question

This proportional system uses a ratio of 1:1.618.

answer

Golden Section

question

It does not matter if a sculptor is creating a human statue on a monumental scale, or a figure much smaller than lifesize: if the sculptor applies the ratio of the Golden Section, the sculpture will have naturalistic proportions.

answer

True

question

Rectangles based on the Golden Section can be nested inside each other to create an elegant ________.

answer

spiral

question

Photographers cannot be responsible for principles of scale or proportion in their photographs.

answer

False

question

Any of the ________ of art can help focus our interest on specific areas of a work of art.

answer

elements

question

The opposite of emphasis is ________.

answer

subordination

question

This is the specific part in an area of emphasis to which the viewer's eye is drawn.

answer

focal point

question

If an artist painted a garden with one red flower in a field of yellow flowers, this would be an example of using color to create contrast. For the viewer, the single red flower would be ________.

answer

a focal point in the artwork

question

An artwork can have only one focal point.

answer

False

question

Which two types of line shape our examination of a work of art by directing the movement of our gaze?

answer

actual implied

question

The recurrence of a single element in a work of art is called ________.

answer

pattern

question

The area covered by a pattern is called the ________.

answer

field

question

A design repeated as a unit in a pattern is called a ________.

answer

motif

question

This art movement, of which Hans Arp was a member, valued randomness, absurdity, and nonsense over rational or orderly patterns.

answer

Dada

question

There is rhythm in an artwork when it has at least this many points of reference.

answer

two

question

A pattern with regular intervals creates ________ rhythm.

answer

a repetitive

question

The principle of rhythm does not apply to photography.

answer

False

question

What is the name for any side of a building that is intended to be looked at?

answer

a facade

question

In the painting The Third of May, 1808, this Spanish artist used alternating rhythm to contrast "good" and "bad.

answer

Francisco Goya

question

Artemisia Gentileschi worked during this stylistic and historical period.

answer

Baroque

STUDY

Animation Conducting Listening

CH 8,9,10,11 Business Comm – Flashcards 38 terms

Adam Howard

38 terms

Preview

CH 8,9,10,11 Business Comm – Flashcards

question

orderly and objective communication of factual information that serves a business purpose purpose: solve business problems. problem statement- provides a clear description of the situation that created the need for your report. declarative. "Management wants to know why sales are declining" purpose statement- report's objective, aim, or goal. "to determine the cause of decreasing sales" normally written as a question subtopics: ex: production, sales and promotion, financial status, computer systems.

answer

What defines business report?

question

Once you've defined the problem and identified the purpose of your research, you should determine what factors you need to investigate. TRUE

answer

question

explanations or solutions for why something bad has happened. tested, and either proved or disproved.

answer

determine hypothesis:

question

secondary research- material somebody else has published, ex books and websites primary research- uncovers info firsthand. produces new info through use of experiments

answer

gathering information needed

question

survey with sample, construct a questionnaire, ranking or scaling., conducting pilot study, observations and experiments, QUALITATIVE PRIMARY RESEARCH- focus groups- group come together to share beliefs or thoughts about something. conducting personal interviews.

answer

conducting primary research

question

grouping, ordering, or hierarchy. conventional system- 1. A. a. (i) Decimal system (1.0, 1.1, 1.1.2) ex 8-32.

answer

outline

question

16. Quantitative researchers use research tools that generate verbal data. FALSE

answer

tb ch 8

question

21. A well-structured outline for a report clearly indicates the hierarchy of the information in the report. TRUE

answer

tb ch 8

question

31. The _____ statement of a business report provides a clear description of the situation that created the need for the report. D. problem

answer

tb ch 8

question

33. The _____ in business reports is also called the study's objective, aim, or goal. E. purpose statement

answer

tb ch 8888

question

formal reports- have prefatory pages, title fly, title page, table of contents, executive summary.

answer

formal report

question

only has a title page and report text. title page remains.

answer

short report

question

below short report, even less formality, email or memo.

answer

letter report

question

title fly- just contains report title. title page- identification information. title, id of the writer and reader and date. transmittal message- transmits report to leader, takes letter form sometimes. table of contents- over 1500 words. lists reports contents. headings and subheadings. executive summary- preview of the report, summarize the report in order and in proportion. identify the topic, purpose, origin of report, briefly what research was conducted.

answer

report components

question

short report- forth and fifth steps of formality report letter reports-people outside the organization, written personally. direct or indirect oder. email and memo reports- heavily used in business. routine operational reports-informed about companys operations progress reports-progress towards goal.

answer

short reports.

question

written report of group activities. reports the gist of what happened. prelim items, body items, closing items.

answer

meeting minutes

question

16. The majority of the reports written within companies are routine operational reports. TRUE

answer

ch 9

question

21. A report's form and contents should be based on _____ to meet the reader's needs. C. its formality and length

answer

ch 999

question

25. As the need for formality decreases, the _____ is the first component to be omitted from a report. E. title fly

answer

ch 99

question

35. The _____ is the report in miniature. A. executive summary

answer

ch 9

question

36. Which of the following is true of short reports? A. Short reports such as inventory reports do not require introductory material.

answer

ch 9

question

0. Which of the following differentiates short reports from long reports? C. Short reports are more likely to be written in the direct order.

answer

ch 999

question

voice quality- pitch and sounds speaker makes, easy at fast rate, hard at slo rate, style-set of voice behaviors, pitch, speed, and volume combined to give personality to oral expression. word choice- vocabulary, need to be able to understand words. shouldn't talk down to or above the listener. adaptation to your audience- fitting message to intended listener.

answer

elements of professional talking

question

competence sincerity friendliness

answer

affective oral communications

question

communication environment personal appearance posture walking facial expression gestures

answer

appropriate appearance and physical actions

question

sensing filtering remembering

answer

listening

question

to improve listening ability, focusing on what is being said, and reserving judgement, other components, acquewleding um-hmm and nodding

answer

active listening

question

repeating what you think you heard effective way to focus your attention, asking questions too.

answer

back-channeling

question

stop talking, talker at ease, show talker you want to listen, remove distractions, empathize with the talker, be patient, hold your temper, go easy on argument and critisism, ask questions, stop talking.

answer

ten commandments of listening

question

prepare an agenda- follow the agenda move the discussion along control those who talk too much- tactfully ask... encourage talk from those who don't talk control time take minutes

answer

conducting meetings

question

follow the agenda participate don't talk too much cooperate

answer

tech for participating in a meeting

question

professional voice quality, talk as if you were face to face. introduce yourself and ask question. repeat phone number

answer

using phone

question

determining topic and purpose- prepare the presentation- introduction, body, conclusion,

answer

giving speeches/presentations

question

presenting extremporaneously- prepare thoroughly and then you prepare notes and go off of that memorizing- most difficult, reading- read in an interesing way

answer

choosing presentation method

question

listenersn can be involved with live chats, and ask to email after.

answer

choosing means of audience feedback

question

charts, tables, graphs- help listeners understand statistical information photographs- help listeners form image of what you discuss mutlimedia

answer

support talk with visuals.

question

make sure everybody can see visuals explian visual talk to audience, not the visuals avoid blocking views of audience don't make contents too small don't use too much animation sometimes can save handout till the end

answer

techniques for using visuals

question

23. Voice quality refers to the _____. A. set of voice behaviors that makes a person's voice unique B. pitch and resonance of the sounds a speaker makes and the sounds an audience hears C. way that pitch, speed, and volume combine to give personality to one's oral expression D. way words are fitted to the listener's level of understanding E. average number of words spoken by a person during an informal conversation its b.

answer

ch 1o

STUDY

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