Among other things, the Fifth Amendment protects which right?

the right to remain silent More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/workbook-civil-rights-and-civil-liberties/

When choosing a marketing channel and intermediaries, marketing executives typically consider, among other things, which will A. provide the best coverage of the target market. B. be easiest to control. C. identify pricing strategies. D. be most concerned about avoiding channel conflict. E. be most concerned with avoiding cannibalization.

A. provide the best coverage of the target market. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/chapter-12-marketing-channel/

While planning an internal audit, the internal auditor obtains knowledge about the auditee to, among other thingss

Develop an understanding of the auditee’s objectives and risks More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/internal-audit-ch1-4/

The feeling of familiarity—fostered by, among other things, reiterations of a music idea—lends a sense of unity to the music.

Composition More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/music-appreciation-221318/

The December 2011 proposal would, among other things, reinforce the ? of a firm’s risk management function.

independence More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/fbo-prudential-risk-management/

If a lawyer washes his hands 100 times a day for no apparent reason and has no time left to meet with his clients, the hand washing will probably be labeled disordered because it is, among other things, a. distressing and dysfunctional b. not explained y the medical model c. harmful to others d. untreatable

a. distressing and dysfunctional More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/psychology-chapter-12-2/

While planning an internal audit, the internal auditor obtains knowledge about the auditee to, among other things: a. develop an attitude of professional skepticism about management’s assertions b. develop an understanding of the auditee’s objectives and risks. c. make constructive suggestions to management concerning internal control improvements. d. evalutate whether misstatements in the auditee’s performance reports should be communicated to senior management and the audit committee.

b. develop an understanding of the auditee’s objectives and risks. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/internal-auditing-chapter-1/

The U.S. Constitution contained no bill of rights because, among other things a. liberty – not rights – was the chief concern of bills b. the U.S. Constitution was ratified before a bill of rights was deemed necessary c. the Framers thought they were creating a government with specific, limited powers d. special-interest groups forced the changes after the document was ratified e. Hamilton and Madison opposed the addition of such

c. the Framers thought they were creating a government with specific, limited powers More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ap-gov-unit-1/

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Q: The Opium War of 1839-1842 resulted, among other things, in A. the Chinese being allowed to continue to ship opium to India. B. American ships being prevented from trading with China for many years. C. the destruction of all poppy fields in Turkey. D. the island of Hong Kong becoming a British possession.

D. the island of Hong Kong becoming a British possession. More test answers on https://studyhippo.com/ch-13-review/

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REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR NY REAL ESTATE EXAM – Flashcards 101 terms

Aiden Simmons

101 terms

Preview

REVIEW QUESTIONS FOR NY REAL ESTATE EXAM – Flashcards

question

1-A broker legitimately may pay all or part of Real estate commission to a a. seller b. salesperson c. buyer d. friend who provides a listing lead

answer

-B: Salesperson can accept compensation only from their sponsoring broker.

question

2-The minimum age for a New York real estate broker's license is a. 19. b. 18. c. 20. d. 21.

answer

C. As of July 1,2008 to become a broker you must be 20 years old.

question

3-Which of the following acts would require a real estate license in New York a. Sale of one's own property b. Sale by the owner's lawyer c. Sale of land by an auctioneer d. Foreclosure sale by court order

answer

C: selling land at an auction.

question

4-An associate broker may a. sponsor a person for a salesperson's license. b. collect his or her own real estate fees. c. act as a principal broker for another broker. d. Work as a salesperson for a principal broker

answer

D: Associate broker is a licensed broker but chooses to work under the supervision of another broker.

question

5-Violation of the license law is a misdemeanor, Punishable by up to a year in jail and a fine of Up to a. $500. b. $2,000. c. $1,000. d. $1,500.

answer

C: DOS may impose a fine not to exceed $1000.

question

6-When salesperson Tom Jones left ABC Realty And went to work with XYZ REALTORS, Tom's listings a. became null and void. b. Remained with ABC Realty. c. Went with him to XYZ REALTORS. d. Required the sellers' signatures to remain in the local MLS.

answer

B: When a licensee terminates with a broker they must turn over all information.

question

A salesperson's license must be a. displayed on the firm's wall. b. kept in the salesperson's wallet c. retained by the principal broker. d. d. sent to the local REALTORS association.

answer

C: Kept by the broker in a safe place.

question

8-When does offering a client's business for sale Require a real estate license? a. Never b. Always c. When the business includes any real estate d. When more than half the value is real estate

answer

-D: selling a business where the real estate is greater than the business.

question

An apartment information vendor is licensed by: a. Department of Law b. New York Attorney General's office c. Department of State d. Division of Housing and Community Rental

answer

C: Department of State licenses apartment information vendors....

question

When a license is revoked, how long must a licensee wait before applying to have the license reinstated? a. 18 months b. 1 year c. 6 months d. 2 years

answer

B: If a license is revoke licensee must wait 1 year before reapplying..

question

The form of listing whereby an owner lists property for sale with a number of brokers is known as a(n) a. Exclusive agency. b. Open listing. c. Exclusive right to sell. d. Net listing.

answer

B: In an Open listing the seller allows the property to be shown by many Brokers.

question

To avoid possible liability for the actions of c cooperating members of a multiple-listing system, the owner who lists property for sale may decline to offer a. commission to the selling agent. b. Subagency. c. Cooperation with buyer brokers. d. A written disclosure of property condition.

answer

B: By accepting subagency the owner will have no vicarious liability for the Acts of cooperating agents

question

An agent who has the authority to represent the principal in specific matters is a(n): a. specific agent b. general agent c. unlimited agent d. special agent

answer

-B: A general agent has specific authority in representing owners.

question

Jan Lipson gave Sun City Realty an exclusive agency listing on her property. If she sells the Property herself without involving Sun City, She will owe Sun City a. Half of the commission. b. All of the commission. c. No commission. d. Only reimbursement for Sun City's expenses.

answer

C: With the Exclusive Agency the owner owes no commission.

question

15-When selling a property in New York, the Licensee is required to disclose to a potential Buyer that a. There is a group home 1 ½ miles away. b. The property lies in an agricultural district. c. There is a fundamentalist church three blocks away. d. The former owners were divorced

answer

B: If property is in an agricultural district buyer must be informed.

question

The commission to be paid in a written listing Agreement is the a. rate set by law b. amount of money over the net listing amount. c. Customary rate in the area. d. Percentage of the sales price as negotiated and agreed or a flat fee.

answer

D: The broker's fee is specified in the listing agreement, management agreement, or rental agreement with the principal and is always subject to negotiation.

question

The relationship between an agent and his or her Principal is a. Fiduciary. b. Alluvial. c. Allodial. d. Executory

answer

-A: The agency relationship is always consensual, meaning both parties enter into it willingly. It is also a fiduciary

question

If you are selling a house in New York, it is necessary to disclose that a. There is a utility surcharge. b. The former owner committed suicide. c. The train station is eight miles away. d. A shopping center is the nearby town is closing.

answer

A: If a Utility surcharge is assessed shall provide written notice to the prospective purchaser

question

Seller is legally required to reveal to a buyer anything seller knows about a. Crimes committed on the property in the past three years b. How much seller paid for the house. c. Repairs that have been made to a roof leak. d. Lead paint hazards on the property.

answer

D: Sellers and Landlords shall disclose any lead paint they have knowledge of

question

To create an agency relationship, it is necessary that a. A listing contract be registered with the DOS. b. The principal and agent sign a written agreement. c. The principal pay the agent's fees. d. The parties act as principal and agent.

answer

D: The person who selects the agent to act on his behalf is the principal or client.

question

If you are a salesperson working with a buyer, then the buyer is your client: a. if you are servicing the buyer b. if the buyer has shared financial information with you c. if you have an agency contract with the buyer d. none of the above

answer

C: The obligations of a buyer's agent are also subject to any specific Provisions set forth in an agreement between the agent and the buyer

question

-The type of listing illegal in New York State is a (n) a. Net listing. b. Exclusive agency. c. Exclusive right to sell. d. Open listing.

answer

A: Net Listing This type of commission arrangement is illegal in New York.

question

A licensed salesperson or broker associate acting as an independent contractor must: a. be paid based upon sales and output b. execute a written independent contractor agreement yearly with the broker c. receive half of her health care premium paid by the broker d. both a and b

answer

D: Compensation is paid only for output. Law also requires a written agreement, executed by both parties

question

A salesperson sells another firm's listing of a commercial building for $462,500. The 7 percent commission is split 50/50 between the two companies. The salesperson received 60 percent of her office's share. How much does she receive? a. $1,619.75 b. $3,237.50 c. $9,712.50 d. $10,850.00

answer

C: $462500 x 7%=$32375. divided by 2 =$16187.50x60% agent=$9712.50

question

A broker may be entitled to a commission in the event that the sale does not close if the problem was caused by the a. Seller. b. Buyer. c. Bank. d. Title Company.

answer

A: The commission is usually considered earned when a broker brings a ready, willing, and able buyer to the seller, or the seller should accept an offer from the buyer.

question

Big Apple Realty is concerned that its Commission on a sale will not be paid. Big Apple Realty may a. file a lis pendens, b. Request a de minimis gift. c. File an affidavit of entitlement. d. File a mechanic's lien.

answer

C: If a broker feels the commission will not be paid, they must file an affidavit of entitlement for completed brokerage services.

question

-A real estate salesperson's compensation is set by a. The local realty association. b. The Department of State, Division of Licensing Services. c. Agreement between broker and salesperson. d. The cooperating broker in a transaction.

answer

C: The fee or rate of commission paid to a real estate broker is strictly negotiable between the broker and the seller or buyer.

question

The Duncan and Hill decision cautioned real estate licensees against a. Misrepresentation. b. Consumer fraud. c. The unauthorized practice of law. d. Undisclosed dual agency.

answer

C: In Duncan & Hill, the court upheld the Department of State's determination that a real estate broker who was not a licensed attorney demonstrated untrust worthiness and incompetence in violation of Real Property Law sect;441-c, finding that, when he prepared documents that included detailed mortgage terms he had devised, he engaged in the unauthorized practice of law

question

When a buyer/client wants to see property listed by his or her agent's company, the possible conflict of interest can be solved by the use of a. Undisclosed dual agency. b. Designated agents. c. Exclusive/ right/ to/ sell d. Fiduciary duties.

answer

-B: If the buyer and the seller or tenant and the landlord provide their informed consent in writing, the principals and the real estate broker who represents both parties as a dual agent may designate a sales agent to represent the buyer and another sales agent to represent the seller

question

Buyers should be careful NOT to reveal the top price they're willing to pay to a (n) a. Buyer's agent. b. Principal broker c. Sellers's agent d. Associate broker

answer

C: The seller's agent because if the fiduciary must tell the seller.

question

Ads made by real estate brokers that do not indicate that the advertiser is a broker are: a. legal in New York b. known as blind ads c. acceptable as long as the phone number of the broker appears in the ad d. acceptable if the broker is doing business as an individual broker in his own name

answer

B: All ads placed by a broker must indicate that the advertiser is a broker. Ads that do not contain this are called BLIND ADS.

question

If a licensee becomes a partner in a real estate firm, he must have a(n): a. salesperson license b. broker license c. associate broker license d. minimum of two year's experience as a broker

answer

B: Each officer of a corporation or member of a co-partnership must be licensed as a broker.

question

Agency relationship in an in-house sale require a. No notice to the principle broker. b. Full discussion and disclosure in writing to all parties. c. Notice to the title company. d. Notice to the MLS.

answer

-B: Broker dual agency can occur if agents of the broker represent both the buyer and seller in the same transaction, Full discussion and disclosure in writing to all parties must be made

question

In a buyer/agency relationship the broker owes the seller a. Care. b. Accounting c. Obedience d. Fair and honest dealing

answer

D: a buyer's agent should deal honestly, fairly and in good faith.

question

If you are a salesperson working with a buyer, then the buyer is your client: a. if you are servicing the buyer b. if the buyer shared financial information with you c. if you have an agency contract with the buyer d. none of the above

answer

C: This is done through a buyer brokerage agreement

question

-In a real estate transaction, a broker had a written representation agreement with the buyer but was paid 6 percent of the selling price at the closing by the seller. Under these facts, whose agent was this broker? a. The broker was the seller's agent. b. The broker was the buyer's agent. c. The broker is a dual agent. d. The broker has violated New York's real Estate license laws and may have his or her License suspended or revoked.

answer

B: Other means of payment can be through multiple listing services when the listing broker offers cooperating compensation to the buyer broker. The buyer broker will then be paid by the seller

question

-A broker signed a listing agreement with the Ghent's to market their luxury downtown condominium. A few days later, the broker Signed a buyer representation agreement with The Smiths, who were looking for a modest suburban single-family home. If the buyers decide they're in the market for a luxury downtown condominium instead, and want to see the Ghent's property, what should the broker do? a. Say nothing and collect a commission from the sellers and a fee from the buyers b. Disclose the intended dual agency and obtain both parties written consent c. Withdraw from representing one of the Parties to avoid any appearance of self-dealing d. Nothing, but accept compensation from Only one of the parties

answer

B: In New York dual agency is legal and permissible with timely and informed consent of both parties. In this case the agent must have the signed disclosure from both parties.

question

The DOS regulation 175.7: "A real estate broker Shall make it clear for which party he is acting.. ..." applies to a. The sale or lease of one/to four/unit residential properties. b. Only condominiums and cooperatives c. The sale or lease of commercial space only. d. All types of transactions, not just residential.

answer

D: Regulation 175.7 is not limited to residential transactions, but applies to all real estate transactions....

question

A licensee should use the disclosure form with prospective sellers or buyers at the first substantive contact. Which of the following illustrates the first substantive contact? a. individuals walking through an open house who do not speak to an agent b. individuals who call the real estate office asking about the location of a property for a drive-by on their own c. a prospective purchaser walking into a real estate office, meeting with an agent, and discussing the purchase of a specific property d. an agent giving a seminar on home buying to a group of prospective purchasers

answer

C: When a prospective buyer or seller may walk into a real estate office and want to discuss listing or purchasing a property, at this point, disclosure must be made.

question

-In which clause in a deed would you find metes and bounds and monuments? a. Demising b. Defeasance c. Description d. Habendum

answer

C: The types of legal descriptions are metes&bounds, block&lot, and monuments

question

If Mr. Jones owns his home free and clear of encumbrances and has the right to devise it to his daughter, he owns a (n) a. Life estate. b. Fee simple. c. Estate at will. d. Leasehold.

answer

B: Fee Simple Absolute-provides the most complete form of ownership and bundle of rights in real property

question

The Goodman's purchased a cottage bounding on a stream. They have rights to the stream known as a. Reversionary. b. Littoral. c. Laches. d. Riparian.

answer

D: Riparian rights belong to the owner of property bordering a flowing body of water

question

-Which of the following would NOT be Considered chattel? a. A tractor b. The barn c. The draperies d. A trade fixture

answer

B: Barn is real property.

question

The most complete type of ownership in real estate is a. Fee on condition. b. Life estate. c. Qualified fee. d. Fee simple

answer

D: Fee Simple Absolute-provides the most complete form of ownership and bundle of rights in real property

question

-Deed restrictions may be established only by the a. Grantor. b. Local government. c. Zoning board of appeals. d. Grantee.

answer

A: Deed restrictions are in the form of covenants or conditions. These restrictions run with the land, they are put by the "grantor"

question

-One future action that may NOT be limited by a deed restriction is a. The free transfer of the property. b. The illegal covenant against religion. or Nationality. c. Further subdivision. d. The total number of lots in a subdivision.

answer

B: An illegal covenant cannot be enforced [e.g. excluding people of certain religion, or color.

question

Any right to or interest in the land interfering with its use or transfer is called an a. Encumbrance. b. Encroachment. c. Easement. d. Appurtenance.

answer

A: An encumbrance is anything that lessens the bundle of rights in real property.

question

A deed is valid when it is a. delivered and accepted. b. Recorded. c. Signed. d. Notarized

answer

A: The deed is always signed by the grantor [seller] and must be delivered to the grantee [buyer] to be valid

question

Which type of deed is used to convey title to a Parcel of land through a foreclosure proceeding? a. trust b. quitclaim c. referee's d. warranty

answer

C: Execution of a judicial deed results from a court order; examples are guardian's deed, referee's deed, tax deed, and administrator or executor's deed. They can used for a foreclosure.

question

Title to real property is conveyed by a a. contract. b. Lien. c. Lease. d. Deed.

answer

D: A deed is the document used to convey title legally to real property, also known as a conveyance.

question

A lease that provides for the lessee to pay all or part of the expenses of the property in addition to rent is called a(n): a. estate at sufferance b. net lease c. sale and leaseback d. gross lease

answer

B: In a net lease, the tenant pays some or all of the expenses.

question

When a lessee transfers the entire remaining interest of his lease to another party who then must pay the owner, is called a(n): a. novation b. sublease c. assignment d. lis pendens

answer

C: The assignment of the lease involves the transfer of the lease contract from the present tenant to the assignee.

question

A contract transferring the rights to possession of real property for a specified term is known as a a. lis pendens. b. Lien. c. Lease. d. Deed on condition.

answer

C: A lease is a contract, in which, for a consideration, an owner of property transfers a property interest to the tenant for a prescribed period of time.

question

Under the New York General Obligations Law, Security deposits by a tenant a. Become the property of the landlord. b. Are held in escrow by the landlord. c. May be commingled with the landlord's funds. d. Can be retained by the landlord after he or she sells the property.

answer

B: The security deposit must be held in an escrow account.

question

-A tenant learns her building has been sold to a new landlord. The sale of the property a. Automatically terminates all preexisting leases. b. Automatically renews the lease for an additional term, although the tenant has the option of declining the renewal. c. has no effect on existing leases, and the tenant must make timely rent payments to the new owner. d. terminates the lease, but the tenant is entitled to a legal holdover tenancy for the remainder of the lease term.

answer

C: Lease agreement does not terminate when an owner sells, new owner is bound by terms of lease

question

-A legally enforceable agreement between competent parties in which each party acquires a right is called a a. Certiorari. b. Consideration. c. Contract. d. Clause.

answer

C: A contract is an agreement between competent legal parties to do or refrain from doing some legal act in exchange for consideration.

question

The usual listing agreement between a seller and a real estate agent is a (n) a. Implied contract. b. Breach of contract. c. Express contract. d. Discharge of contract.

answer

C: Express Contract-the parties to the contract have definitely agreed on all the terms in the contract

question

-When the agreement of the parties is demonstrated by their acts and conduct, this is known as what type of contract? a. express b. voidable c. implied d. unilateral

answer

C: Implied Contract has not been put into words but is implied by the action and conduct of parties

question

When a new contract is substituted for an existing agreement, the process is known as a. Novation. b. Innovation. c. Assignment. d. Default.

answer

A: A form of agreement that terminates contracts is novation the substitution of a new contract for a prior contract or the substitution of a new party for an old party.

question

Except for the amount of mortgage that may be assumed, as sale in New York State is subject to a transfer tax of a. $0.55 per $500 or fraction thereof of the consideration paid. b. 1 percent on a sale of less than $500,000 c. 10 percent where the consideration is more than $1 million. d. $2 per $500 or fraction thereof of the Consideration paid.

answer

D: New York State transfer tax is based on sale price is $4.00 per $1,000 or $2.00 per $500

question

In the transfer of what type of property may a flip tax be imposed? a. condominium b. cooperative c. any fee simple interest d. on all properties sold in New York City

answer

B: Cooperatives may have a flip tax imposed upon transfer, paid by the seller.

question

The Flintstones sold their house to the Simpsons and are to close on July 1. The Flintstones paid their annual town taxes in January. At the closing, the Simpsons will Reimburse the Flintstones for a. the tax for the balance of the year. b. The tax due n November. c. Nothing. d. The tax paid last January.

answer

A: Property taxes are paid in advance so the buyer will pay the seller for the balance of the year.

question

RESPA explicitly prohibits the payment of a. Referral fee from an insurance agent. b. Kickbacks. c. Brokerage referral fee. d. Fee to a moving company.

answer

B: (RESPA) Prohibits kickbacks for services not performed

question

An instrument in writing that is the security for A debt with specific property as a pledge is a a. bond. b. Mortgage c. Deed d. Lease

answer

B: A mortgage is a type of security instrument pledging property to a lender.

question

A Department of Veterans Affairs mortgage is a. Insured b. Guaranteed c. Conventional d. Prepaid

answer

B: Guaranteed Loan Program -offers a loan that guarantees repayment of the top portion of the loan to the lender in the event the borrower defaults.

question

-When a house purchase is financed by a Federally related mortgage loan. RESPA Requires that loan closing information be Prepared on the a. uniform settlement statement. b. Fannie Mae form. c. Mortgage Reduction Certificate. d. Affidavit of title.

answer

A: RESPA requires a standard HUD-1 settlement statement for all federal-related loans

question

A blanket mortgage usually encumbers: a. several mortgages b. an underlying wraparound mortgage c. several parcels of real property d. household goods such as bedding, appliances, and other chattel belongings

answer

C: Blanket mortgage-two or more parcels of real estate are pledged as security for payment of the mortgage debt.

question

Under a mortgage, the mortgagor is the party who: a. lends the money b. receives the payments on the note c. holds the mortgage d. is the borrower

answer

D: The borrower who gives the mortgage is called the mortgagor.

question

Margo and Clarence Stilton have applied for An FHA/insured loan. The mortgage will be a. backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. Government. b. insured c. guaranteed by the federal government at no cost to the borrower. d. paid for by PMI premiums.

answer

B: FHA-insured loans protect lenders against financial loss.

question

If a real estate broker earned a commission of $5,600 at a commission rate of 7%, at what price was the property sold? a. $39,200 b. $68,000 c. $80,000 d. $125,000

answer

C: $5600 IS COMMISSION DIVIDED BY 7% IS $80,000

question

What type of mortgage loan has an interest rate That may become higher or lower at specified Intervals, keyed to an economic indicator? a. pledged account b. shared equity c. growing equity d. ARM

answer

D: An adjustable rate mortgage permits a lender to adjust the interest rate periodically so it reflects the economy.

question

-Charging more than the legal interest rate is Known as a. points b. usury c. discounting d. novation

answer

B: USURY LAWS are used by New York State to fix a maximum allowable interest rate.

question

Deed restrictions are provisions that apply to current property owners and a. are regulated by a local jurisdiction. b. can be altered by the owner at any time. c. extinguish upon transfer. d follow the chain of title in future transfers

answer

D: Deed restrictions are in the form of covenants or conditions. These restrictions run with the land, they are put by the "grantor"

question

Variances and special use permits are issued by a(n) a. architectural review board. b. building department. c. planning department. d. zoning board of appeals.

answer

D: The Zoning Board of Appeals It is a local administrative appeal agency and an interpreter of the zoning ordinance. They also issue Variances and special use permits

question

When the present usage of land is in legal conflict with an enacted zoning ordinance the usage is called: a. void b. a variance c. spot zoning d. nonconforming

answer

D: Nonconforming uses occur when land does not conform to current zoning laws, but is legally allowed because it was there before new zoning.

question

The owner whose five/unit apartment Building would not be allowed by a new zoning Law may be entitled to a (n) a. nonconforming use b. variance c. accessory use d. special/use permit

answer

A: Nonconforming uses occur when land does not conform to current zoning laws, but is legally allowed because it was there before new zoning

question

Among other methods, land use is controlled Or regulated by a. the local assessor. b. Subdivision regulations. c. Demographics d. The economic cycle.

answer

B: Individual owners have the right to place private controls on their own real estate. Which may effect a home or subdivision

question

Examples of private land use controls would NOT include: a. restrictive covenants b. restrictions placed in deed or wills c. conditions in a deed d. eminent domain

answer

D: Eminent domain is the power of the government or its agencies to acquire private property for public use.

question

Even though a building permit is issued, new Construction will still need a. A certificate of occupancy. b. A variance from the zoning board of appeals. c. Approval by an architectural review board. d. An environmental survey.

answer

A: Permit issued to builder after all inspections are made and property is deemed fit is a Certificate of Occupancy

question

A detailed architectural rendering of a structure is known as a(n): a. site plan b. blueprint c. feasibility study d. plat

answer

B: The building plan, also known as the blueprint, is a detailed architectural rendering of the structure that usually includes the plans for the mechanical systems.

question

Electrical systems are routed through a a. Pier and beam. b. Circuit box. c. Stringer. d. Muntin.

answer

B: Circuit breakers will trip, or switch the electrical power for a given circuit off if the current increases beyond the capacity of the system

question

A lakefront home sold for $385,000. The Broker received $27,912.50. What rate of Commission did this broker charge? a. 7 ¼ % b. 8.5% c. 10% d. 14%

answer

A: COMMISSION IS DIVIDED BY SALE PRICE: $27,912.50 DIVIDED BY $385,000= 7.25%

question

-The most commonly used insulation material is a. rock wool. b. Cellulose fiber. c. Urea formaldehyde foam. d. Fiberglass.

answer

D:R-factor, the greater the degree of insulation. Most common is fiberglass

question

The amount a particular purchaser agrees to pay and a seller agrees to accept is known as: a. cost b. price c. market value d. evaluation value

answer

B: Price is the amount a particular purchaser agrees to pay and a seller agrees to accept under the circumstances surrounding the transaction.

question

A comparative market analysis resembles which approach to real estate evaluation? a. income approach. b. Direct sales comparison. c. Cost approach. d. Guesstimate.

answer

B: The "CMA" is closely related to the sales approach used by appraisers.

question

The definition of market value includes a. Most recent sale price. b. Amount of owner's equity in the building. c. Potential income tax consequences of a sale. d. Neither buyer nor seller under undue pressure.

answer

D: Market value-the most probable price, for which the property should be sold with the buyer and seller acting prudently, neither is under undue duress.

question

It can be dangerous for a real estate broker to a. discount the firm's usual commission rates for a particular client. b. discuss commission rates with another broker c. pay one salesperson 50 percent of earned commissions and another salesperson 60 percent d. charge more for selling vacant land than for selling single/family houses

answer

B: Price Fixing-occurs when competitors in a group conspire to charge a same or similar price for services rendered.

question

A protected class under New York City law and not under state or federal law is which of the following? a. age b. marital status c. lawful occupation d. familial status

answer

C: LAWFUL OCCUPATION is protected class only in NEW YORK CITY!!!!

question

The civil rights act of 1866 a. prohibits any type of discrimination based on race. b. Prohibits discrimination only in federally Funded housing. c. allows an exception for an owner/occupied two/family house. d. does not apply to nonlicensed persons.

answer

A: The Civil Rights Act of 1866-first significant statute affecting equal housing Has no exemptions BASED ON RACE

question

Redlining is defined as a. Steering home seekers to a particular neighborhood. b. Drawing red lines on a local map indicating what areas to look in for listings. c. Denying or restricting loans in a certain area by a lending institution. d. A zoning procedure.

answer

C: Redlining-refusing to make loans to purchase, construct or repair a dwelling by discriminating

question

-New York State law goes beyond federal human rights law when it forbids discrimination based on a. race. b. Marital status. c. Religion. d. Children in a family.

answer

B: New York State Helping to fight discrimination on the basis of... Marital Status

question

PDQ Realty advertises that it specializes in areas suitable for European immigrants. This is A fair housing violation called a. redlining. b. Steering. c. Blockbusting. d. Sexual bias.

answer

B: Steering-direct prospective purchasers from diverse backgrounds to presently integrated areas to avoid integration of nonintegrated areas.

question

Using "scare tactics" regarding the possible change in the demographics of a neighborhood when soliciting listings in a violation called a. redlining. b. Steering. c. Blockbusting. d. Harassment.

answer

-C: Blockbusting-illegal [scare tactic

question

Although a property owner may be exempted sometimes from discrimination laws, a real estate licensee a. Is exempt as an owner. b. May list the property for sale noting the Exemption. c. may advertise the noted exemption d. may not participate in the transaction in any way.

answer

D: Fair Housing Exemptions no transaction involving a real estate licensee is exempt

question

The Sherman Antitrust Law is intended to Promote a. a uniform commission rate schedule in any given area. b. cooperation among brokers for the benefit of consumers. c. free competition in the open market d. Protection for small independent firms.

answer

C: Congress passed the first antitrust law, the Sherman Act, in 1890 as a "comprehensive charter of economic liberty aimed at preserving free and unfettered competition as the rule of trade

question

The Underground Storage Tank Act in New York regulates underground fuel storage tanks That are a. 2,000 gallons or larger. b. 550 gallons or larger. c. 1,100 gallons or larger. d. 750 gallons or larger.

answer

C: Some types of tanks that are exempt Tanks on farms and residential store less than 1100 gallons

question

Underground storage tanks are utilized by business and industry for all of the following reasons EXCEPT they are: a. out of sight b. protected against vandalism c. protected against leakage d. protected against fire

answer

A: Underground storage tanks are utilized by business and industry because the tanks are out of sight and are also protected against vandalism and fire.

question

A salesperson who is an independent contractor a. cannot be charged for office space or supplies provided by the broker. b. is not subject to any direction or control by the broker. c. is paid commission based on sales results. d. is paid for the number of hours worked.

answer

C: Compensation is paid only for output without regard for the number of hours worked

question

An asbestos problem is sometimes best treated by a. installing new distribution boxes. b. Proper ventilation of the building. c. Removal of chipping paint. d. Leaving it alone.

answer

D- If the asbestos is in an area and is not disturbed it is best to leave it alone.

question

The New York regulatory agency that oversees the safety of drinking water in New York is the Department of: a. Agriculture b. Health c. Recreation, Parks and Historic Preservation d. Environmental Conservation Law

answer

B: New York State Department of Health (NYSDOH) is the regulatory agent that oversees the safety of drinking water.

question

A property manager or property management firm is usually a _____ agent. d. general e. principal f. special g. universal

answer

D: A general agent is empowered to represent the principal in a specific range of matters. An example is a property manager,

STUDY

Among Other Things Criminal Justice Criminology

Criminal Justice Chapter 3 Vocabulary – Flashcards 16 terms

Kaiya Hebert

16 terms

Preview

Criminal Justice Chapter 3 Vocabulary – Flashcards

question

Theory

answer

An assumption (or set of assumptions) that attempts to explain why or how things are related to each other.

question

Social Contract

answer

An imaginary agreement to sacrifice the minimum amount of liberty necessary to prevent anarchy and chaos.

question

Special or specific deterrence

answer

The prevention of individuals from committing a crime again by punishing them.

question

General Deterrence

answer

The prevention of people in general or society at large from engaging in crime by punishing specific individuals and making examples of them.

question

Biological Inferiority

answer

According to biological theories, a criminal's innate physiological makeup produces certain physical or genetic characteristics that distinguish criminals from non-criminals.

question

Criminal Anthropology

answer

The Study of "criminal" human beings

question

Psychopaths, sociopaths, antisocial personalities

answer

Persons characterized by no sense of guilt, no subjective conscience, and no sense of right and wrong.

question

Collective Conscience

answer

The general sense of mortality of the times.

question

Chicago School

answer

A group of sociologists at the University of Chicago who assumed in their research that delinquent behavior was a product of social disorganization.

question

Imitation or modeling

answer

A means by which a person can learn new responses by observing others without performing any overt act and receiving direct reinforcement or reward.

question

Learning Theory

answer

A theory that explains criminal behavior and its prevention with the concepts of positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, extinction, punishment and modeling or imitation.

question

Positive Reinforcement

answer

The presentation of a stimulus that increases or maintains a response.

question

Punishment

answer

The presentation of an aversive stimulus to reduce a response.

question

Criminalization Process

answer

The way people and actions are defined as a criminal

question

Class Struggle

answer

Fro radical criminologist, the competition among wealthy people and among poor people and between rich people and poor people, which causes crime.

question

Relative deprivation

answer

This refers to inequalities (in resources, opportunities, material, goods, ect.) that are defined by a person as unfair or unjust.

STUDY

Among Other Things

Massage Technique Joint Movements Stretching Precautions Draping Bolsters and Body Mechanics – Flashcards 28 terms

Richard Molina

28 terms

Preview

Massage Technique Joint Movements Stretching Precautions Draping Bolsters and Body Mechanics – Flashcards

question

Effleurage

answer

Gliding stroke directed to the heart. Primarily used at the beginning of the massage in archer/bow stance.

question

Petrissage

answer

Kneading stroke used to increase circulation. loosen adhesion, and release metabolic wastes from tissues.

question

Friction

answer

Strokes that move across tissue, used to increase circulation, break up scar tissue, and stretch muscle.

question

Tapotment

answer

Percussion strokes used to increase muscle spindle acivity and phlegm in respiratory tract.

question

Vibration

answer

Trembling or shaking movements, fast vibration stimulates an area, slow vibration sedates an area.

question

Nerve Stroke

answer

Extremely light form of effleurage used at the end of the massage to separate the therapist from the client.

question

Active

answer

Client performs an action without assistance.

question

Active Assistive

answer

Client performs an action with assistance.

question

Passive

answer

Massage therapist performs a joint mobilization with client completely relaxed.

question

Resistive

answer

The client resist a movement performed by the therapist.

question

Stretch

answer

Elongates a muscle.

question

Unassisted stretch

answer

Client stretches into resistance without help of therapist.

question

Assisted Strech

answer

Client stretches into resistance with help of therapist.

question

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilation

answer

Assisted stretch in which the muscle stretch into resistance followed by an isometric contraction of the muscle by the client. The client then relaxes the contraction, which allows the stretch to move further.

question

End Feel

answer

Stoppage of range of motion in a passive joint movement.

question

Soft End Feel

answer

Stoppage of range of motion due to tight soft tissue pulling the structure in the opposite way.

question

Hard End Feel

answer

Stoppage of range of motion due to hard tissue preventing any further motions.

question

Empty End Feel

answer

Stoppage of range of motion due to trauma to an effected muscle or joint.

question

Draping

answer

Using linens to cover a client during a massage session.

question

Why Drape?

answer

Establishes boundaries between the massage therapist and client.

question

Top Cover

answer

The linen place atop the client, used to keep the client covered during a massage treatment.

question

Bolsters when Prone

answer

question

Bolsters when Supine

answer

question

Bolsters when Side-lying

answer

Bolsters should be place between the client's knees, arms, and under the head.

question

Bolsters when Semi-Reclined

answer

Bolsters should be placed under the knees and under the head. May be used for pregnant clients to reduce pressure on the abdominal aorta which may cause dizziness.

question

Body Mechanics

answer

question

Bow/Archer Stance

answer

question

Horse/Warrior Stance

answer

STUDY

Among Other Things Morphine And Codeine The Brain

ch. 13 review – Flashcards 33 terms

Chad Lipe

33 terms

Preview

ch. 13 review – Flashcards

question

Papaver somniferum is the scientific name for A. methadone. B. the willow tree. C. the opium poppy. D. a research group studying sleep disorders.

answer

C. the opium poppy.

question

Opium was traditionally extracted from the poppy plant by A. boiling the leaves. B. cutting the seed pods. C. pounding the roots. D. collecting the pollen from the flowers.

answer

B. cutting the seed pods.

question

The earliest recorded use of opium as a medicine was probably by A. the British, around 1600 AD. B. Portuguese explorers, around 1400 AD. C. Egyptians, around 1500 BC. D. Romans, around 600 AD.

answer

C. Egyptians, around 1500 BC.

question

The 16th century European physician Paracelsus, and later Dr. Thomas Sydenham promoted the use of A. heroin. B. laudanum. C. opium smoking. D. pure codeine.

answer

B. laudanum.

question

One thing that apparently contributed to the spread of opium smoking in China was A. a 1644 edict from the emperor forbidding tobacco smoking. B. religious opposition to the use of alcohol. C. widespread planting of opium poppies in China. D. miners and railroad workers returning from America brought the habit with them.

answer

A. a 1644 edict from the emperor forbidding tobacco smoking.

question

The Opium War of 1839-1842 resulted, among other things, in A. the Chinese being allowed to continue to ship opium to India. B. American ships being prevented from trading with China for many years. C. the destruction of all poppy fields in Turkey. D. the island of Hong Kong becoming a British possession.

answer

D. the island of Hong Kong becoming a British possession.

question

The two major active chemicals in opium are A. morphine and codeine. B. heroin and cocaine. C. paregoric and laudanum. D. meperidine and oxycodone.

answer

A. morphine and codeine.

question

In 1898, Bayer laboratories marketed diacetylmorphine tablets under the brand name A. Darvon. B. Sublimaze. C. Demerol. D. Heroin.

answer

D. Heroin.

question

By the beginning of the 20th century, a greater percentage of Americans were dependent on opioids than at any time before or since. Opium smoking and medical use of injected pure morphine were important contributors to this, along with A. intravenous use of heroin. B. the growth of organized crime syndicates. C. patent medicines containing opium extracts or morphine. D. alcohol prohibition.

answer

C. patent medicines containing opium extracts or morphine.

question

Possession of opium, morphine, or heroin without a prescription was made a crime by A. the 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act. B. a 1915 Supreme Court decision. C. the 1970 Controlled Substances Act. D. the 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments.

answer

B. a 1915 Supreme Court decision.

question

Heroin became the drug of choice for many opioid users A. around 1900, because it could be injected. B. during the 1920s, because it was easier to smuggle the small amounts needed for an effective dose. C. during World War II, when supplies of raw opium were cut off. D. in the 1960s, because users believed that it was more pure than other opioids.

answer

B. during the 1920s, because it was easier to smuggle the small amounts needed for an effective dose.

question

"Black tar" is A. a name given heroin from Mexico that is brown or black in its pure form. B. a type of street heroin that is has been "cut" with powdered charcoal. C. a synthetic opioid that is twice as potent as pure heroin. D. an opium extract that is imported from Southeast Asia.

answer

A. a name given heroin from Mexico that is brown or black in its pure form.

question

At the current time, most of the heroin in the U.S. originates from poppy fields in A. Afghanistan. B. Laos and Thailand. C. Colombia and Mexico. D. China.

answer

C. Colombia and Mexico.

question

Vicodin and Oxycontin are examples of A. NSAIDs. B. narcotic antagonists. C. prescription opioids that are being misused and abused at increasing rates. D. fake drugs sold over the Internet that are actually placebos.

answer

C. prescription opioids that are being misused and abused at increasing rates.

question

Which of these opioids is about 100 times as potent as morphine? A. codeine B. methadone C. pentazocine D. fentanyl

answer

D. fentanyl

question

Naloxone, nalorphine, and naltrexone are examples of A. NSAIDs. B. opioid antagonists. C. prescription opioids that are being misused and abused at increasing rates. D. fake drugs sold over the Internet that are actually placebos.

answer

B. opioid antagonists.

question

Enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins are A. three types of opioid receptor found in the brain. B. three classes of natural brain chemicals that have effects similar to morphine. C. enzymes in the brain that convert morphine into its active form. D. three chemical classes of synthetic prescription opioids.

answer

B. three classes of natural brain chemicals that have effects similar to morphine.

question

Although pain relief is now the major medical use for opioids, they have been used to save many lives (especially in underdeveloped countries) because of their ability to A. decrease violent behavior. B. lower blood pressure. C. counteract diarrhea. D. decrease bleeding.

answer

C. counteract diarrhea.

question

Siegel and his colleagues have shown in animal studies that tolerance to opioids A. is due to reduced absorption of the drug. B. is not very great. C. occurs after only a single exposure. D. is partly due to conditioned protective reflexes.

answer

D. is partly due to conditioned protective reflexes.

question

The textbook says that opioid withdrawal is similar to A. a bad case of intestinal flu. B. a life-threatening disease. C. a hangover from alcohol. D. an allergy.

answer

A. a bad case of intestinal flu.

question

The fact that animals with no history of opioid withdrawal will press a lever to self-administer low doses of intravenous morphine or heroin demonstrates the importance of ____________ in developing opioid dependence. A. withdrawal symptoms B. positive reinforcement C. peer pressure D. tolerance

answer

B. positive reinforcement

question

In a heroin user, negative reinforcement of drug-taking behavior can occur when A. the user overdoses and almost dies. B. the person is trying the drug for the first time. C. withdrawal symptoms are alleviated by another injection. D. the user sees a needle or syringe.

answer

C. withdrawal symptoms are alleviated by another injection.

question

Long-term exposure to opioid drugs A. has not been clearly shown to produce damage to any tissue or organ system. B. causes damage to the mesolimbic dopamine system. C. can weaken the heart. D. is a common cause of kidney disease.

answer

A. has not been clearly shown to produce damage to any tissue or organ system.

question

Developing dependence on heroin A. is so rapid it can occur after just one intravenous injection. B. seems to require three or more injections per day for several days. C. takes at least a month of use at relatively high doses. D. depends more on the dose than on how often the drug has been used.

answer

B. seems to require three or more injections per day for several days.

question

Morphine and codeine are derived from the opium poppy, Papaver somniferous. True False

answer

True

question

Opium smoking was widespread in China by 200 BC. True False

answer

False

question

Heroin was originally a brand name for diacetylmorphine, manufactured by Bayer laboratories. True False

answer

True

question

Heroin first became popular among opioid abusers in the 1970s, due to returning Vietnam veterans. True False

answer

False

question

"Black tar" is a form of heroin that comes mainly from Mexico. True False

answer

True

question

Vicodin and Oxycontin are prescription opioids that are being misused and abused at increasing rates. True False

answer

True

question

Naloxone and nalorphine are natural brain chemicals that have effects similar to morphine. True False

answer

False

question

Withdrawal from opioid drugs has effects similar to a bad case of intestinal flu. True False

answer

True

question

Long-term use of opioid drugs has been clearly shown to damage both the liver and the brain. True False

answer

False

STUDY

Among Other Things Applied Philosophy Applied Psychology John Stuart Mill

Psyc405 Exam I practice questions – Flashcards 29 terms

Marie Florence

29 terms

Preview

Psyc405 Exam I practice questions – Flashcards

question

methodology

answer

the feature of modern psychology that distinguishes it from its antecedents is its:

question

repeated

answer

in contrast to the events that are studied in science, historical events cannot be:

question

a misrepresentation intended to protect Freud's reputation

answer

At least one of Freud's biographers downplayed the extent of Freud's cocaine use. This is an example of:

question

collect data from other observers

answer

to guard against self-serving data and to assess the truth of a person's recollections and reports of events in the history of psychology, the historian should, whenever possible:

question

the intellectual and cultural climate of the times

answer

The term Zeitgeist refers to:

question

engaged in the discriminatory practices that mark american culture as a whole

answer

according to the text, psychology as a discipline has:

question

personalistic

answer

"The man makes the times", reflects which view of history?

question

Wilhelm Wundt

answer

in the first years of psychology's emergence as a new discipline, which man determined its direction?

question

a group shares a theoretical orientation and investigates similar problems

answer

a school of thought emerges whenever:

question

mechanism

answer

the Zeitgeist of the 17th-19th century Europe and of the United States was marked by:

question

Clock

answer

what invention was considered the perfect metaphor for the "spirit of mechanism"?

question

Empiricism

answer

the pursuit of knowledge through the observation of nature and the attribution of all knowledge to experience is:

question

science from the strangehold of theology

answer

Descartes was significant to psychology as a science because he helped liberate:

question

the mind influenced the body

answer

Before Descartes, the accepted point of view was that the interaction between mind and body was essentially unidirectional, that:

question

Infinity

answer

Which of the following is an example of an innate idea?

question

Positivism

answer

In eyewitness testimony, one swears that what one has observed accurately depicts reality. Because this "fact" has not been determined through the methods of science, it does not meet Comte's strictest application of:

question

the mind is a blank slate at birth; therefore, there are no innate ideas

answer

John Locke disagreed with the doctrine of innate ideas. According to Locke:

question

Berkeley

answer

"if a tree falls in the forest and no one is present to hear it, a sound will still occur because God is the permanent receiver of all objects in the universe" This argument illustrates the position of:

question

John Stuart Mills' creative synthesis

answer

Complex ideas formed from simple ideas take on new qualities. This is a definition of:

question

extirpation method

answer

The practice of psychosurgery such as prefrontal lobotomies, has roots in the:

question

Broca's

answer

In modern medicine, the cause of a person's dementia typically cannot be determined until autopsy. Thus, _________ clinical research method continues to be of significance in medicine and psychology

question

Gall

answer

________ discovered, among other things, that the brain had both white and gray matter, and that fibers connect the two halves of the brain

question

mechanism

answer

The representation of the nervous system as a complex switching system reveals the 19th century reliance on:

question

there was academic freedom for students and faculty alike

answer

German universities were especially fertile ground for scientific advances because:

question

that thought and movement are not simultaneous

answer

With regard to the speed of the nerve impulse, perhaps the most important conclusion of Helmholtz's research for psychology was the determination:

question

just notable difference

answer

Weber's law, the formulation of how much change in a stimulus is required for a subject to detect it, rests on the measurement of the:

question

absolute threshold

answer

the point of sensitivity below which no sensation can be detected and above which sensation can be experienced is a definition of the:

question

phrenology

answer

Gall created _______, which proposed that the topography of a person's skull revealed his or her intellectual and emotional characteristics

question

the differential threshold

answer

the point of sensitivity at which the least amount of change in a stimulus gives rise to a change in a sensation is a definition of:

STUDY

Among Other Things Communication Competence Model Communications Interpersonal Communication Linguistics Self Defeating Thoughts Uncertainty Reduction Theory

Week 1 Quiz – Flashcards 20 terms

Michael Seabolt

20 terms

Preview

Week 1 Quiz – Flashcards

question

Noise from a communication perspective includes

answer

all of the above (startling sounds, biases and assumptions, confusing word choices)

question

As you become more experienced as a public speaker you can expect

answer

to manage your anxiety effectively if proper steps are taken

question

A speaker often experiences dry mouth when anxious about giving a speech because

answer

secretion of saliva is a digestive function and not relevant as a response to a perceived threatening situation

question

As a means of managing speech anxiety, the communication orientation

answer

emphasizes making the message clear and interesting to listeners

question

You experience "butterflies" in your stomach when you are anxious about giving a speech because

answer

your digestive system decreases activity

question

Which of the following are effective and productive strategies for managing speech anxiety?

answer

adopt a noncompetitive communication orientation

question

Professional speakers rarely experience speech anxiety.

answer

False

question

Context for communication is

answer

the who, what, where, when, why, and how of the communication event

question

"Public speaking is a transactional process" means

answer

the speaker and audience members are both senders and receivers of messages simultaneously

question

Uncertainty reduction theory posits that as you gain speaking experience the novelty wears off and anxiety consequently diminishes.

answer

True

question

"Students in a public speaking class should not interrupt a fellow classmate during his or her speech." This is

answer

all of the above (a rule that governs appropriate behavior from listeners, an implicit rule if the instructor never mentions it but it is assumed by students, an explicit rule if the instructor verbally accentuates this before students begin their speech presentations)

question

Rules in public speaking situations

answer

can be changed if they do not achieve a common purpose

question

Anxiety that occurs when you face the audience and begin to speak is

answer

the confrontation phase of speech anxiety

question

Which of the following is an ethical component of the communication competence model?

answer

Choice

question

Important reasons to become a competent public speaker include

answer

all of the above (the frequency of required oral presentations in college classes, prospective employers' desire that employees possess such skills, the relevance of public speaking to a host of common public and social events)

question

Which of the following are causes of dysfunctional speech anxiety?

answer

all of the above (fear of catastrophic failure, desire for complete approval from an audience, novelty of the speaking situation)

question

"Communication is a process" means that

answer

D. A and C are correct

question

Sensitivity in the communication competence model is

answer

receptive accuracy whereby you can detect, decode, and comprehend signals in your social environment

question

Rules

answer

all of the above (provide a basis for determining the appropriateness of our communication, can be both implicit and explicit, should be re-negotiated when there is a clash between rules)

question

You experience high anxiety before giving a speech. Which of the following indicate that your anxiety has reached an irrational level?

answer

all of the above ( the consequences of failure are severe, but the probability of failure occurring is very low, the consequences of failure are minor, but the probability of failure is fairly high, the consequences of failure are minor, and the probability of failure is low)

STUDY

Among Other Things Employee Assistance Programs Linguistics Making Eye Contact Sender And Receiver Two Way Communication

Customer Service – Chapter 3 Exam – Flashcards 28 terms

Elizabeth Bates

28 terms

Preview

Customer Service – Chapter 3 Exam – Flashcards

question

A key element in making your interactions successful is to:

answer

Recognize how you tend to communicate by asking those who know you best for feedback

question

Two-way communication involves:

answer

A sender and a receiver

question

A communication delivered through speech or signals is a:

answer

Message

question

The Interpersonal Communication Model contains the environment, the sender, the receiver, message, channel and:

answer

The methods to encode and decode , as well as the feedback, filters and noise

question

A word or phrase that can lead to communication trouble is:

answer

Honey; Sweetie

question

Planning before you come into contact with a customer involves all of these, except:

answer

Putting in all unnecessary details

question

To deliver quality service effectively, you must:

answer

Deal with the human being first

question

When something goes wrong, you should:

answer

Take responsibility and take appropriate action

question

When the telephone rings:

answer

Clear your head, focus on the telephone and answer professionally and cheerfully

question

Dialogue used to enhance relationships, show civility and build rapport is called:

answer

Small talk

question

The silent bond built between two people as a result of sharing common interests is called:

answer

Rapport

question

Pet peeves or hot buttons are behaviors such as:

answer

Putting someone on hold without permission

question

Feedback can:

answer

Be a positive or negative affect, depending or content or delivery

question

The response to a sender's message that allows both the sender and receiver to know that a message was received correctly is:

answer

Verbal feedback

question

All of the following are effective ways to provide feedback, except:

answer

Remaining emotional when providing feedback

question

Projecting a presence that is assured, confident and capable without appearance aggressive or arrogant is known as your level of:

answer

Assertiveness

question

An example of nonassertive behavior is:

answer

A limp, weak handshake

question

Aggressive persons often have behavior and language that is all of these, except:

answer

Good for solving problems

question

Resentment, frustration and retaliation often result when employees

answer

Misusing his or her power

question

Basic strategies that may not help in resolving disagreements are all of the following, except:

answer

Stressing cooperation rather than competition

question

This is the term used to describe the method through which people communicate messages.

answer

Channel

question

__________ consists of physiological factors that inhibit communication and listening.

answer

Noise

question

Dialogue used to enhance relationships, show civility and build rapport

answer

Small talk

question

A practice of a message receiver giving back in his or her own word what he or she believes a sender said.

answer

Paraphrasing

question

The silent bond built between two people as a result of sharing common interests.

answer

Rapport

question

______ involves projecting a presence that is assured, confident and capable without seeming to be aggressive or arrogant.

answer

Assertiveness

question

All of the following are examples of causes of conflict except:

answer

Independent outcomes

question

According to the U.S. Census Bureau, _________ percent of all companies have no payroll.

answer

STUDY

Among Other Things Communication Competence Model Interpersonal Communication Linguistics Powerpoint Specific Purpose Statement Worth The Effort

CMST 192-EXAM 1 – Flashcards 20 terms

Marguerite Castillo

20 terms

Preview

CMST 192-EXAM 1 – Flashcards

question

According to Rothwell, ethics a) is a set of standards for judging the moral correctness of communication behavior. b) may involved the collision of standards. c) is straightforward and uncontroversial d) all of the above e) a and b only

answer

question

Hindsight bias is a) giving greater weight to information from the past than is given to information that is current. b) looking at past accomplishments to bolster self-esteem instead of living in the present c) allowing past events to rule our lives in unproductive ways d) the tendency to look back after the fact or when an outcome has been revealed and say, "I knew that all along"

answer

question

Trying to win recognition at work as the best communicator is an example of a) individual achievement b) hypercompetitiveness c) cooperation d) competition

answer

question

Which of the following are ethical standards of communication identified by the NCA (National Communication Association)? a) Choice b) Commitment c) Integrity d) all of the above e) b and c only

answer

question

Guidelines for effective impromptu speaking include a) Anticipate when you might have to do it and begin preparing your remarks b) Draw on your life experience as the substance of your speech c) Since impromptu speaking is usually less formal, be conversational in tone d) all of the above e) a and b

answer

question

Sally plans to develop a speech on how to register to vote. In organizing her speech to clarify the steps to complete this process, Sally should organize her speech: a) topically b) spatially c) chronologically d) problem-solution

answer

question

Division as a criterion for an effective speech outline means that a) main points are divided into no fewer than two subpoints b) a primary subpoint can be divided into one or more secondary subpoints c) a main point should be divided into one or more subpoints d) a secondary subpoint should be divided into one or more tertiary subpoints

answer

question

What percentage of college seniors are required to give a presentation? a) 35% b) 50% c) 75% d) 95%

answer

question

A speaker's purpose statement is: "Today I want to talk to you about kite flying, which is a really fun thing to do if you're bored and don't feel like studying or partying." This is a) a precisely phrased specific purpose statement b) a concisely phrased specific purpose statement c) merely a topic statement not a specific purpose statement d) a central idea for a speech

answer

question

Unpleasant, intense examples used to arouse audience interest are always inappropriate and should be avoideD. a) True b) False

answer

FALSE

question

"According to Newsweek magazine . . ." is a complete citation of a credible source. a) True b) False

answer

FALSE

question

When using a video clip during your speech a) never talk while the video clip is playing b) use only long clips of at least 3-5 minutes; shorter clips aren't worth the effort c) talk to the television screen while pointing out details relevant to your main point d) turn off the sound while explaining the video clip e) none of the above

answer

question

To use visual aids effectively a speaker should a) always practice using the visual aid before giving the speech b) face the visual aid while explaining it to the audience c) circulate the visual aid after using it d) all of the above

answer

question

Research shows that reading a list of bulleted points to your audience (from a PowerPoint slide, for example) inhibits learning the information. a) True b) False

answer

TRUE

question

Bar graphs are preferable to line graphs in almost all informative speeches. a) True b) False

answer

FALSE

question

If you choose to narrate a story in your speech you should a) read your story to your audience to make sure you are precise b) make sure you include as much detail as possible to keep the audience involved c) make sure your story fits the your purpose and illustrates a key point d) don't practice telling your story as you want it to sound spontaneous e) both b and c

answer

question

Most persuasive strategies of advertising campaigns are focused on changing attitudes and behaviors. a) TruE b) False

answer

TRUE

question

In Toulmin's structure of argument, a word or phrase that indicates the level of likelihood of a claim is the a) qualifier b) exception c) data d) rebuttal

answer

question

The strength of an argument depends primarily on the strength of the warrant. a) True b) False

answer

TRUE

question

Fear appeals that provide solutions that are perceived as too difficult to implement increase the fear on the part of the audience. a) True b) False

answer

FALSE

STUDY

Among Other Things Astronomy North Celestial Pole

VCU PHYS 103 Practice Exam 1 (elementary astronomy) – Flashcards 50 terms

Henry Lowe

50 terms

Preview

VCU PHYS 103 Practice Exam 1 (elementary astronomy) – Flashcards

question

Kepler was an early advocate of the Copernican Theory. When he applied it to Tychoís observations, it a. failed but led to a better theory. b. was as accurate as the observations. c. worked perfectly. d. failed and was completely discarded.

answer

a. failed but led to a better theory.

question

When Copernicus published his final version of the Copernican System in 1543, it was a. regarded by most astronomers as plausible but not proved. b. immediately accepted by most astronomers as a big improvement over the Ptolemaic System. c. rejected by most astronomers as not really any better than the Ptolemaic System.

answer

c. rejected by most astronomers as not really any better than the Ptolemaic System.

question

You read in an Astronomy book that the temperature at the center of the Sun is 30,000,000 degrees Kelvin. How do you suppose this number was determined? a. By sending a well-shielded space probe into the center of the Sun. b. By using a special telescope that can see inside the Sun. c. By using a model of the Sun that correctly accounts for everything that has been measured so far. d. By picking a number more or less at random since nobody could ever check it. e. By using a model of the Sun that is elegant but not tested against actual measurements

answer

c. By using a model of the Sun that correctly accounts for everything that has bee

question

Planets move mostly eastward relative to the distant stars but, once during each trip around the Celestial Sphere, they loop back westward for a while. This motion is called a. paradoxical motion. b. epicyclic motion. c. retrograde motion. d. planetary reversal. e. overtaking behavior

answer

c. retrograde motio

question

Einstein's Theory of Relativity has passed every observational test for over 100 years. Among other things, it predicts that no material object can go faster than the speed of light. Fred Zveistein (twice as smart as Einstein) has a new theory that predicts that some material objects can go faster than light. Fred presents his new theory at a scientiÖc meeting (in 2009). Which of the following would be the most likely reaction of the scientists at the meeting to this new development? a. There is great hostility because the new theory challenges the established theory, so lots of scientists come to Fredís talk to debate the issue. b. There is great interest because the new theory proves that Relativity is wrong, so lots of scientists come to Fredís talk to congratulate him. c. There is great disinterest because there is no need to replace a theory that has passed every observational test. Nobody at all comes to Fredís talk.

answer

c. There is great disinterest because there is no need to replace a theory that has passed every observational test. Nobody at all comes to Fredís talk.

question

According to Keplerís Laws of Planetary Motion, as planets orbit the sun, they a. speed up when in retrograde motion. b. speed up when farthest from the Sun. c. move at constant speed. d. speed up when closest to the Sun.

answer

d. speed up when closest to the Sun.

question

The Ptolemaic System was replaced when a. it came into conflict with reproducible observations. b. Copernicus produced a system with the Sun at the center. c. Astronomers realized that Aristarchus had been right when he said it was unreasonable for the giant Sun to orbit the tiny Earth.

answer

a. it came into conflict with reproducible observations

question

Aristarchus measured the angle between the Sun and the Moon when exactly half of the Moon was illuminated. If he had measured the angle when 3/4 of the Moon was illuminated, he would have found that angle to be a. greater than 90 degrees. b. less than 90 degrees by an amount too small for him to measure. c. less than 90 degrees by an amount that was easy for him to measure. d. exactly 90 degrees.

answer

a. greater than 90 degrees.

question

Which of the following time periods is closest to the time from a New Moon to the next Waning Quarter Moon? a. 18 hours. b. 7.5 days. c. 273.9 days d. 22.5 days. e. 91.3 days.

answer

d. 22.5 days.

question

10 Which of the following statements is an observation of the natural world? a. There are no prime numbers that have zero for a last digit. b. Galileo was the greatest scientist. c. I saw the Moon rise at 6:52pm yesterday. d. The U.S. Naval Observatory says that the Moon rose at 6:52pm yesterday.

answer

c. I saw the Moon rise at 6:52pm yesterday.

question

Which of the following objects is the most likely to be considered a scientific model? a. A test-tube. b. An oil painting of a person. c. A computer program. d. A blackboard. e. An accurate map of Richmond.

answer

e. An accurate map of Richmond.

question

Sarah reports that she saw a green star close to the star Betelgeuse. Actually she did not even look there. The most likely outcome of her fraud is that: a. Nobody bothers to check her observation and she becomes famous as the discoverer of the Örst green star. b. Other people look near Betelgeuse. They do not see the green star, and attack her report as a mistake or a fraud. c. Nobody bothers to check her observation and nobody believes her either. d. Other people look near Betelgeuse. They see the star and conÖrm her report. She becomes famous as the discoverer of the Örst green star.

answer

b. Other people look near Betelgeuse. They do not see the green star, and attack her report as a mistake or a fraud.

question

Which of the following statements is falsifiable? a. The Minoans were the best civilization on Crete. b. The Minoans were not the best civilization on Crete. c. The Minoans were a civilization on Crete. d. The Minoans were the first civilization on Crete. e. The Minoans were not the first civilization on Crete.

answer

d. The Minoans were the first civilization on Crete.

question

Stars that appear close together in the sky are a. never close to each other in space. b. sometimes close to each other in space. c. always close to each other in space.

answer

b. sometimes close to each other in space.

question

In addition to measuring the positions of all the planets all the time, Tycho Brahe measured them to an accuracy of a. 1/60 degree of arc. b. Öve degrees of arc. c. one degree of arc. d. 1/10 degree of arc. e. 1/3600 degree of arc.

answer

a. 1/60 degree of arc

question

You would expect to see a waning crescent Moon a. Setting in the East right after the Sun. b. In the North at around midnight. c. Rising in the West just before the Sun. d. Rising in the East just before the Sun. e. Setting in the West right after the Sun.

answer

d. Rising in the East just before the Sun.

question

As seen from North America, the constellation Orion a. never sets. b. sets in the northwest. c. sets in the west and southwest. d. sets in the northeast. e. sets in the east and southeast.

answer

c. sets in the west and southwest.

question

A sidereal day is a. just the same as a solar day. b. a few minutes shorter than a solar day. c. several hours shorter than a solar day. d. a few minutes longer than a solar day. e. several hours longer than a solar day.

answer

b. a few minutes shorter than a solar day.

question

At which of these times of day would you expect to find the Sun in the East? a. Noon. b. Midnight. c. 6:00pm. d. 6:00am

answer

d. 6:00am

question

A star that is named Epsilon Eridani is most likely a. a fairly dim star in the constellation Cepheus. b. the brightest star in the constellation Eridanus. c. the brightest star in the constellation Cepheus. d. a fairly dim star in the constellation Eridanus.

answer

d. a fairly dim star in the constellation Eridanus.

question

We can use the pointer stars in the Big Dipper to locate a point in the sky near the a. East Celestial Pole. b. Celestial Equator. c. Star Sirius. d. South Celestial Pole. e. North Celestial Pole

answer

e. North Celestial Pole

question

One reason that temperatures are lower in the winter than in the summer is that a. the sun is higher in the sky in the winter. b. the sun is lower in the sky in the winter. c. the sun is farther from our hemisphere in the winter. d. the sun is closer to our hemisphere in the winter.

answer

b. the sun is lower in the sky in the winter.

question

Copernicus said that the retrograde motion of the planets was caused by the a. planets speeding up and slowing down. b. planets moving on epicycles. c. earth and the planets orbiting the Sun. d. planets turning on their axes. e. earth turning on its axis.

answer

c. earth and the planets orbiting the Sun.

question

Aristarchus measured the angle between the Sun and the Moon when exactly half of the Moon was illuminated. He found this angle to be slightly less than 90 degrees. Suppose that he had, instead, found the angle to be more than 90 degrees. In that case, which of the following conclusions would he have been forced to accept? a. the Moon is closer to the Earth than the Sun. b. Moonlight is not actually reáected sunlight. c. the Moon is farther from the Earth than the Sun. d. Moonlight is actually reáected sunlight.

answer

b. Moonlight is not actually reáected sunlight.

question

You see a waning quarter Moon high in the night sky. What time is it? a. 10:00am. b. Midnight. c. 6:00pm d. 8:00pm. e. 5:00am

answer

e. 5:00am

question

The ancient Greeks were able to estimate the distance from the Earth to the Sun by using a. the quarter phases of the Moon. b. the observed sizes of the Sun and Moon in the sky. c. solar eclipses. d. lunar eclipses.

answer

a. the quarter phases of the Moon.

question

You see a waxing Gibbous Moon directly south. What time might it be? a. sunset. b. midnight. c. about 3am. d. about 10pm. e. sunrise.

answer

d. about 10pm

question

The ancient Greeks argued that the Earth cannot be moving because such a motion would cause apparent shifts in the positions of stars. This argument was wrong because a. the stars are so far away that the shifts due to the Earth's motion are extremely small. b. no such shifts are actually possible. c. each star is moving in a circle exactly in step with the Earthís motion around the Sun. d. all of the stars are at the same distance from the Earth.

answer

a. the stars are so far away that the shifts due to the Earth's motion are extremely small.

question

One observation that Aristotle used to justify a spherical model of the Earth was that a. the Earth casts a curved shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse. b. total eclipses of the Moon can be seen everywhere on Earth. c. total eclipses of the Sun can be seen everywhere on Earth. d. total eclipses of the Sun can be seen only along narrowly deÖned paths on the Earthís surface. e. the Earth casts a jagged shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse

answer

a. the Earth casts a curved shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse.

question

The idea that science only deals with statements that are falsiable, subject to possible disproof by observation, suggests that a. science is always wrong. b. science produces revisable facts. c. science only deals with guesses.

answer

b. science produces revisable facts.

question

Most of the ancient Greek astronomers believed that the Earth was fixed at the center of the universe. There was one, however, who thought that the Sun was fixed and a rotating Earth moved around the Sun. That was a. Eristarchus of Syene. b. Aristarchus of Samos. c. Aristotle d. Plato. e. Ptolemy.

answer

b. Aristarchus of Samos.

question

Einsteinís Theory of Relativity has passed every observational test for over 100 years. Cliff has analyzed a large family of alternative theories and figured out what each one predicts for the results of observational tests. Cliff's presents his analysis at a scientific meeting. Which of the following would be the most likely reaction of the scientists at the meeting to this new development? a. There is great hostility because the alternative theories challenge the established theory, so lots of scientists come to Fredís talk to debate the issue. b. There is great interest because the analysis suggests new tests that could prove that Relativity is wrong, so lots of scientists come to Cliff's talk to congratulate him. c. There is great disinterest because there is no need to replace a theory that has passed every observational test. Nobody at all comes to Cliff's talk.

answer

b. There is great interest because the analysis suggests new tests that could prove that Relativity is wrong, so lots of scientists come to Cliff's talk to congratulate him.

question

As the two foci of an ellipse are moved apart, the shape of the ellipse becomes a. more like a circle around the foci. b. more like a sphere around the foci. c. more like a triangle drawn around the foci. d. more like a line between the foci.

answer

d. more like a line between the foci

question

Gary the ghostbuster takes his crew, with a truckload of cameras and electronic instruments, to a house that is supposed to be haunted. Sure enough, the ghost shows up and does an on-camera interview while the instruments record all sorts of odd readings. After Garyís press conference and TV show, a skeptical scientist takes the same sort of equipment to the same house on a similar evening and records nothing but cricket noises and dogs barking. Garyís evidence is ignored by the scientific community because a. Scientists would not believe in ghosts no matter what the evidence. b. Gary does not belong to the scientist club. c. Garyís observations were not reproduced. d. Garyís observations were not convincing.

answer

c. Garyís observations were not re

question

The time from one Full Moon to the next is 29.5 days. The length of a sidereal month is a. 29.7 days. b. 27 days. c. 32 days. d. 29.3 days. e. 29.5 days.

answer

b. 27 days.

question

Which of the following phases of the Moon would be seen high in the south at dawn? a. waxing quarter. b. waning crescent. c. waxing crescent. d. full. e. waning quarter.

answer

e. waning quarter.

question

The time when the noon sun is highest in the sky is called a. the Winter Solstice. b. the Summer Solstice. c. the Spring Equinox.

answer

b. the Summer Solstice.

question

The stars, as seen from the Earth, appear to be attached to a. the Celestial Net, a mesh of wires surrounding the Earth. b. the North Celestial Pole. c. the top of the Earthís atmosphere. d. the Celestial Sphere, a sphere that surrounds the Earth. e. the Heliopause, an o§-center surface surrounding the Sun.

answer

d. the Celestial Sphere, a sphere that surrounds the Earth.

question

At 8pm, you see that the pointer stars of the Big dipper and the star Polaris are arranged in a vertical line. How long, give or take a few minutes, would you need to wait to see them arranged in a horizontal line? a. 24 hours. b. 6 hours. c. 12 hours. d. It will never happen. e. 3 hours

answer

b. 6 hours.

question

The ancient Greeks insisted that a worthwhile model of a situation had to a. be consistent with their religious traditions. b. predict what really happens. c. make a good story.

answer

b. predict what really happens.

question

Aristotle said that the spherical shape of the Earth was a. the natural result of gravity pulling everything toward a center. b. something that could not be explained or understood. c. unstable since small deviations from it would grow larger. d. due to air pressure pushing everything inward.

answer

a. the natural result of gravity pulling everything toward a center.

question

The time it takes for the Celestial sphere to rotate once relative to the Earth is called a. a sidereal day. b. a Celestial day. c. an astronomical day. d. a solar day. e. a polar day.

answer

a. a sidereal day.

question

In the Ptolemaic model of the Solar System, a. the Earth was fixed and the planets and the Sun moved on epicycles which, in turn, went around the Earth. b. the Earth was fixed, the Sun moved around the Earth, and the planets moved on epicycles which, in turn, went around the Sun. c. the Sun was fixed and the Earth and all of the planets moved on elliptical orbits around the Sun. d. the Sun was fixed and the Earth and all of the planets moved on epicycles which, in turn, went around the Sun

answer

a. the Earth was fixed and the planets and the Sun moved

question

Which of Keplerís Laws governs how a particular planet speeds up and slows down? a. Orbits are Ellipses. b. The Equal Area Law. c. The Law of Averages. d. The Period-Radius Relation. e. The Law of Inertia.

answer

b. The Equal Area Law.

question

At midsummer in Murmansk (which is the largest city north of the Arctic Circle), you would expect the Sun to a. stay above the horizon all day, every day. b. stay below the horizon, all day, every day. c. rise and set every day. d. rise and set twice a day

answer

a. stay above the horizon all day, every day.

question

In the picture that we used in class, with the Sun above the top of the picture and the Earth shown with its North Pole facing you, the part of the Earth that is experiencing sunset would be a. above the North Pole in the picture. b. to the left of the North Pole in the picture. c. below the North Pole in the picture. d. to the right of the North Pole in the picture.

answer

b. to the left of the North Pole in the picture.

question

The patent for inventing the telescope was obtained by a. someone in the Netherlands. b. nobody because it was too simple an idea to patent. c. Galileo. d. Newton.

answer

b. nobody because it was too simple an idea to patent.

question

An early measurement of noon Sun angles at the summer solstice at Alexandria and Syene needed one additional piece of information in order to determine the size of the Earth. a. The difference in height above sea-level between Alexandria and Syene. b. The distance between Alexandria and Syene. c. The solar time difference between Alexandria and Syene. d. The longitudes of Alexandria and Syene.

answer

b. The distance between Alexandria and Syene.

question

As seen from North America, the constellation Ursa Major a. never sets. b. sets in the north. c. sets in the west. d. sets in the south. e. sets in the east

answer

a. never sets.

question

You are looking down on the Earth from a spacecraft hovering far above. After watching for a while, you notice that, from your perspective, it is rotating counterclockwise. The part of the Earth that is directly below you must be the Earth's a. North Pole. b. Equator. c. South Pole.

answer

a. North Pole.

STUDY

17th And 18th Centuries Among Other Things Commedia Dell Arte Romeo And Juliet Short Answer

Intro to theatre Mid term – Flashcards 278 terms

Stephen Sanchez

278 terms

Preview

Intro to theatre Mid term – Flashcards

question

Which statement best describes "willing suspension of disbelief"?

answer

A dynamic in which the audience agrees to accept the fictional world of the play on an imaginative level while knowing it to be untrue.

question

In the statement "A performs B for C" which of the following is NOT a component of "A"?

answer

Audience

question

Which statement accurately reflects similarities between theatrical performance and sports?

answer

All of the above

question

Which does NOT express a difference between theatre and games or sports?

answer

In theatre, spectators assemble at a special time and place for the event

question

What types of intelligence does theatre develop and make use of?

answer

All the above

question

Parades, juggling, pantomime and street carnivals may all be considered theatrical entertainments

answer

True

question

Audience taste may significantly influence what is performed, how it is performed and where it is performed.

answer

True

question

All theatre depends upon a script as its basic starting point.

answer

False

question

Because of "empathy," we don't call the police if we see a character murdered on the stage during a performance.

answer

False

question

It is much easier to control audience focus in the theatre than it is on television or film.

answer

False

question

Which statement BEST defines the rules about how to experience a theatrical performance?

answer

There are no rules on how to experience a theatrical performance, but it may be more satisfying if one pays attention and uses their imagination

question

Audience response to a performance can be affected by which factor?

answer

All of the above

question

Which is NOT part of the three-step process for developing critical judgment?

answer

One develops a subjective response

question

Which is NOT one of the three basic problems of criticism?

answer

Research

question

Although some theatre critics may write flippant remarks, the most constructive or useful criticism:

answer

All of the above

question

A reader may re-read, reflect, and sustain several possible interpretations of a line, scene or entire play, but the playgoer experiences the action and characters more immediately and directly.

answer

True

question

What the audience sees is always the only possible interpretation of a script.

answer

False

question

Theatres which produce plays intended for a small segment of the population (such as minorities) find it much easier to attract an audience than theatres whose goal it is to appeal to the community as a whole.

answer

False

question

Professional critics always adhere to a single context in making their judgments.

answer

False

question

Some plays and musicals have met with negative or mixed reviews and still achieved popular success.

answer

True

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the six elements of drama, according to Aristotle?

answer

Situation

question

"Point of attack" refers to:

answer

The moment at which the plotline takes up the larger story of the play

question

Which most fully describes the qualities of effective dramatic action?

answer

All of the above

question

Which BEST describes Melodrama as a dramatic form?

answer

A serious action that is resolved happily and affirms the power of good over evil

question

Tragedy is a form associated especially with:

answer

Elizabethan England

question

In many plays the "major dramatic question" stems directly from the "inciting incident"

answer

True

question

Two of the most common plot structures are episodic and sequential

answer

False

question

"Exposition" relates that part of the action that occurs after the "crisis" or "climax"

answer

False

question

Style in the theatre stems only from the manner in which a playwright uses the elements of drama

answer

False

question

An effective tragedy requires the arousal of empathy for those who strive for personal integrity and dignity

answer

True

question

Which is NOT a writer of Classical Greek tragedy?

answer

Aristophanes

question

What function did the chorus serve in the Classical Greek theatre?

answer

All of the above

question

Which refers to the main acting space of a Classical Greek theatre?

answer

Orchestra

question

Because of the three actor rule, the actor playing Oedipus also played which of the following parts?

answer

None of the above

question

The use of masks in Greek theatre served what purpose?

answer

All of the above

question

Which of the following statements is true? 1) Greek Tragedy and Old Comedy were performed only at the City Dionysia Festival 2) All surviving Old Comedy plays were written by Sophocles 3) Unlike Greek Tragedy, Old Comedy was usually concerned with current issues 4) Unlike Greek Tragedy, Old Comedy didn't use a chorus

answer

Unlike Greek Tragedy, Old Comedy was usually concerned with current issues

question

Which did NOT write Roman comedy?

answer

Seneca

question

Which of the following statements is true? 1) All surviving Roman comedies are adaptations of Greek plays 2) All surviving Roman comedies are based on Roman myths 3) All surviving Roman comedies are concerned with social or political satire

answer

All surviving Roman comedies are adaptations of Greek plays

question

Which statement best describes the medieval convention of "mansion and platea" staging?

answer

The platea was treated as undifferentiated stage space that might be used as an extension of any particular location that a mansion represented

question

The trade guilds were responsible for providing:

answer

All of the above

question

Greek theatrical contest rules restricted the number of speaking actors to 3 for each playwright, but did not restrict the number of characters each of those actors could play

answer

True

question

Greek theatrical performances were offered at each of the many different religious festivals honoring various Greek gods

answer

False

question

To show the corpses in a Greek play, the "eccyclema" was lowered from the roof of the "skene"

answer

False

question

In Oedipus Rex Sophocles has fully defined the characters on all four levels of characterization

answer

False

question

Like the Greek theatre which influenced it, the Roman theatre used a chorus to perform songs between the episodes

answer

False

question

As variety entertainments diminished in popularity, Roman tragedy grew in popularity

answer

False

question

Hrosvitha, a nun, is credited as the first female dramatist

answer

True

question

During the Middle Ages, the movement from Liturgical to Vernacular religious drama saw performances of drama move outside of the church and into larger community spaces

answer

True

question

Like religious plays, morality plays treated biblical or saintly characters

answer

False

question

All drama of the medieval period was of a religious nature

answer

False

question

Which is NOT an Elizabethan theatrical convention?

answer

Realistic staging

question

Which did NOT influence the development of Elizabethan drama?

answer

Strict adherence to neoclassical unities of time, place, and action

question

Which audience area had the least expensive admission price?

answer

The gallery

question

Which was NOT used in association with perspective scenery?

answer

The discovery space

question

An Intermezzi is:

answer

Court entertainments based on myth or legend typically designed to pay an elaborate compliment

question

Which is NOT one of the three stock character types commonly found in commedia dell arte?

answer

Princes

question

Many credit Carlo Goldoni (The Servant of Two Masters) with refining and reforming commedia in the 18th century. What did Goldoni NOT do?

answer

Heighted the use of improvisation

question

French neoclassicism advocated all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

The mixing of tragedy and comedy in the same play

question

"Molière" was:

answer

The stage name of a leading French actor, playwright, and head of a prominent theatre company

question

Which is a new feature introduced to the English stage during the Restoration?

answer

The use of women to play the female roles in public theatre performances

question

The acceptance of perspective scenery signaled a movement away from the formal and architectural stage in favor of the representational, pictorial stage

answer

True

question

Elizabethan theatre was a shift from professional, secular and regularly performed theatre to communal, religious and occasionally performed theatre

answer

False

question

Elizabethan theatre companies were fully financially supported by a noble patron

answer

False

question

The Elizabethan staging conventions were an adaptation of medieval staging conventions

answer

True

question

Shakespeare was the only significant dramatist of his time

answer

False

question

In France costumes were provided to the actors by the company manager

answer

False

question

The proscenium arch was invented to frame the stage picture

answer

True

question

Opera emerged as an attempt to recreate the relationship between music and speech found in Greek drama

answer

True

question

Tartuffe is organized in "french scenes:" wherein dramatic action is developed as characters enter and exit a central location

answer

True

question

French actors in the 17th and 18th centuries were hired according to "lines of business" - or the type of characters they traditionally played

answer

True

question

Which was NOT an appeal of melodrama?

answer

Box Sets

question

Which artistic movement challenged neoclassicism in the late 18th and early 19th centuries?

answer

Romanticism

question

The complexity involved in staging the spectacular effects required by melodrama was a contributing factor in:

answer

The perceived need for a director to coordinate and unify stage action

question

Which is an implication some derived from Charles Darwin's theories?

answer

Heredity and environment influence human behavior and characteristics

question

A Doll's House exemplifies realism in that:

answer

The play develops logically through a cause-to-effect dramatic construction

question

Ibsen's dramas were considered controversial because:

answer

They challenged existing moral values and social norms

question

Who is usually considered the first director, in the modern sense?

answer

George II, duke of Saxe-Meiningen

question

Wagner's demand for "unity of production:"

answer

Sought to filter all stage expressions through a single artistic consciousness

question

The independent theatre movement:

answer

Got around the censorship laws governing public performance by staging "private" performances

question

Stanislavsky's "magic if" refers to:

answer

A way through which the performer may imaginatively project themselves into the world of the play

question

Romanticists thought of a play as merely "a slice of life" - reality transferred to the stage.

answer

False

question

Melodrama encouraged the development of realistic spectacle

answer

True

question

Among other things, Freud's theories contributed to an increased awareness of subtext (the possibility of a covert meaning beneath what is overtly communicated)

answer

True

question

Realism and naturalism were based on the idea that character is determined by heredity and environment

answer

True

question

In the play A Doll's House, Nora walks out on her husband because he won't give her any money

answer

False

question

The configuration of Wagner's theatre at Bayreuth set the pattern for most 20th century theatres

answer

True

question

Saxe-Meiningen's company was known especially for its realistic crowd scenes

answer

True

question

Numerous independent theatres were established all over Europe, the first of which was the Théâtre Libre in Paris.

answer

True

question

George Bernard Shaw wrote comedies for London's Independent Theatre that punctured popular prejudices and provoked audiences to reassess their values

answer

True

question

Stanislavsky believed that on stage the actor should be free to improvise spontaneously

answer

False

question

Which is NOT a characteristic of the theatrical space?

answer

Location

question

In which arrangement is the audience seated on at least 2 but not more than 3 sides of the stage?

answer

Thrust

question

In which arrangement is a production's costumes likely to be the least detailed?

answer

Proscenium Arch

question

Which is NOT an element of design?

answer

Harmony

question

Which of these practitioners makes use of visual design?

answer

All of the above

question

The level of formality expressed through architecture and decoration within a theatre does not affect an audience's expectations or responses to a production

answer

False

question

In a flexible space theatre, the audience seating and performance areas may not be rigidly fixed

answer

True

question

Small professional companies, such as Off-Off Broadway theatres, have more extensive auxiliary spaces than regional and university theatres usually do

answer

False

question

Theatre artists are able, through careful collaboration and coordination of visual and aural signs, to ensure that the audience will fully interpret their intentions

answer

False

question

The principles of design are: line, shape, space, color, texture, and ornamentation

answer

False

question

Playwrights have been the most removed from the production process in:

answer

21st century America

question

Playwrights need to see their work performed to answer questions about:

answer

All the above

question

A production dramaturg:

answer

Assists the director by supplying information and asking critical questions

question

Who is considered to be the first dramaturg?

answer

Lessing

question

Which is NOT considered an "old practice" in terms of play development?

answer

Literary managers ask for clarification of goals

question

Which best explains the difference between literary management and production dramaturgy?

answer

Literary management is concerned with the entire season, whereas production dramaturgy is concerned with a specific production

question

The Humana Festival in New York stages multiple new plays every year

answer

False

question

Two weeks before opening night of a new play the playwright is no longer allowed to make revisions so that the actors have sufficient time to learn their lines

answer

False

question

Almost all plays that are written for the theatre eventually gain a fully mounted production

answer

False

question

The basic question one asks when considering a play for production is "why this play for this audience at this time?"

answer

True

question

Dramaturgs have some responsibility for educating the audience

answer

True

question

Which statement best describes the essential service the producer provides the director?

answer

The producer provides the space, personnel and money the director needs to realize his or her vision

question

Producers usually provide potential investors with:

answer

A proposed budget for all expenses prior to opening the show, weekly operating costs, and a plan for dividing any profits

question

Which statement best defines the auteur directorial approach?

answer

The director uses the script as raw material to be reshaped for his or her own purposes

question

Which is NOT ordinarily a responsibility of the director?

answer

To determine the total cost of the production and its projected income

question

Stage movement may:

answer

All of the above

question

The term "blocking" refers to:

answer

Establishing the performers' movements from place-to-place and their bodily position

question

The term "colorblind casting" refers to what practice?

answer

Casting the most talented performer suitable for the role regardless of race or ethnicity

question

Which is NOT a main directorial concern in guiding the performers' use of voice and speech?

answer

That the contents of their speeches should not be offensive or vulgar in any way

question

Which is the perhaps the most indispensable of the director's assistants?

answer

The stage manager

question

The typical rehearsal schedule follows what process?

answer

Read and discuss the script, blocking, memorize lines, ensemble playing, technical rehearsals

question

The producer's primary functions are financial and managerial in nature

answer

True

question

When studying the script, one of the questions a director may ask is whether or not the length of the script should be cut.

answer

True

question

Directors generally dictate to the designers exactly what the show should look like

answer

False

question

The term "open call" means that anyone who wants to audition may do so without any restrictions

answer

False

question

Ariane Mnouchkine staged some of Shakespeare's history plays using the formalized conventions of Asian theatre is an example of the auteur directorial approach

answer

False

question

Each moment within a play creates an image that sends a message to the audience - whether planned or not

answer

True

question

The means to create visual emphasis remain the same, regardless of the type of stage

answer

False

question

From the beginning of rehearsals, directors are usually able to rehearse with the actual scenery, properties and costumes

answer

False

question

The term "technical rehearsals" refers to when the actors first discuss the play with the director

answer

False

question

Director Anne Bogart has gained considerable notoriety for staging familiar or classical plays in a manner that can seem iconoclastic

answer

True

question

Stage acting requires:

answer

All of the above

question

An action is "cheated" if:

answer

It isn't really done, but instead is faked through careful timing and positioning of the actors

question

What does an actor doing scene study typically do?

answer

All of the above

question

Which accurately identifies the 4 levels of characterization?

answer

Biological, sociological, psychological, ethical

question

What does an actor need to know to understand the role for which he or she has been cast?

answer

All of the above.

question

To "dress the stage" means to move slightly to balance the stage picture

answer

True

question

Film actors have greater control over shaping their performances than do stage actors

answer

False

question

To "endow" an object means to give it an emotional significance and value from the character's perspective

answer

True

question

A "planted prop" is one that must not be referred to or moved in any manner

answer

False

question

An actor only needs to understand his or her own role and not be concerned with the others

answer

False

question

The term "cue lines" refers to knowing what another actor is going to say just before it is your turn to speak

answer

True

question

Most actor's vocal and movement training begins by developing an understanding of how the voice and body work, and by releasing unnecessary tension or inhibitions

answer

True

question

Which accurately describes a function of scene design?

answer

All of the above

question

A "floor plan" (or ground plan):

answer

Shows all of the elements of the setting and their arrangement

question

Each of these is an example of a soft scenery unit EXCEPT:

answer

Flat

question

"Front elevations" show:

answer

The appearance of the unit including any molding, baseboards, or attached platforms

question

Which is NOT part of a theatre's counterweight system?

answer

Elevator

question

A "wagon" is generally used for:

answer

Moving heavy or complex set pieces on and off stage

question

In most theatres, which person sees to it that the scenery is built appropriately?

answer

Technical director

question

Scene designers must consider their work in much the same way as interior decorators

answer

True

question

"Spattering" refers to a painting technique of simultaneously applying and blending more than one shade of paint on the same surface to create a mottled effect

answer

False

question

A "set prop" refers to a property that is attached to the setting or one that functions as part of the design, such as a sofa or a cabinet

answer

True

question

3-dimensional units are used more often in arena theatres than any other configuration

answer

False

question

Wood may eventually replace steel because of its greater strength and durability

answer

False

question

The technical director works for the scene designer and is supervised by the scene designer

answer

False

question

Which accurately describes a function of costume design?

answer

All of the above

question

What is the purpose of a costume chart?

answer

To communicate the broad organization of all the characters' costumes in a single glance

question

A costume working drawing is a color sketch that shows:

answer

The costume from a distinctive angle, often including details of special features

question

In the professional theatre, how are custom made beards, moustaches and wigs typically made?

answer

Human hair is tied with special needles onto a special woven net, then measured and cut to fit the performer.

question

Which is NOT considered a type of painted makeup effect?

answer

Prosthetics

question

Costumes always adhere to realistic standards of dress

answer

False

question

Costumes help to determine the amount, type and overall pattern of movement and stage business

answer

True

question

The development of the dramatic action can be underscored by changes in what each character wears

answer

True

question

The typical process of building a stage costume is to: (1) take the performer's measurements, (2) purchase the materials, (3) draft patterns for the cutting and shaping of the material, (4) construct the garment, and (5) fit the garment to the performer.

answer

True

question

In the professional theatre, actors are responsible for applying their own makeup, though the costume designer may design it.

answer

True

question

Which is NOT a controllable quality of light?

answer

Texture

question

The term "selective transmission" refers to what?

answer

The wavelengths of light that each color filter permits to pass through

question

Specific illumination is:

answer

Generated by spotlights

question

The instrument schedule serves what purpose?

answer

Summarizes in tabular form all of the technical information needed for setting up the lighting instruments

question

Which is NOT one of the functions of sound design?

answer

Reinforces the stage composition

question

The term "mixed-media production" refers to what practice?

answer

All of the above

question

Lighting designers can make firm decisions about all aspects of their designs work at the same time as the scenery and costume designers

answer

False

question

Realistic sound refers to sounds that stem from an recognizable source

answer

True

question

An ellipsoidal is essentially a flood light and is used primarily for general illumination

answer

False

question

Although sound has always played an important role in theatrical production, it is not considered a separate art of design

answer

False

question

In a proscenium theatre all of the lighting instruments are mounted behind the proscenium

answer

False

question

The "sound score" is an audio recording of all of the sound effects for a production

answer

False

question

What city does Oedipus rule?

answer

Thebes

question

Who is Oedipus' wife?

answer

Jocasta

question

Who did Oedipus kill?

answer

Laius

question

Who originally predicted Oedipus' fate?

answer

All the above

question

What was Oedipus' fate?

answer

He would kill his father and marry his mother

question

Oedipus' daughters are his sisters.

answer

True

question

When Oedipus finds out that his fate has come true, how do both he and Jocasta react?

answer

Jocasta kills herself and Oedipus blinds himself with her brooches.

question

What god does Oedipus blame for his horrible fate?

answer

Apollo

question

Who was Teiresias?

answer

The blind prophet

question

Where does the entire action of the play take place?

answer

in the Torvald's study

question

What time of year does the play take place?

answer

Christmas

question

Why does Mrs. Linde come to visit Nora?

answer

To get an endorsement to work in Torvald's office

question

What subject preoccupies much of the first scene between Nora and Helmer in the first scene?

answer

Money

question

What does Krogstad do to blackmail Nora?

answer

Drop a letter in the mailbox to Torvald about her loan

question

What does Nora do to prevent Torvald from reading the letter?

answer

Dance a tarantella

question

What year was A Doll's House written?

answer

1879

question

Who is the playwright of A Doll's House?

answer

Henrik Ibsen

question

Why did Nora borrow the money?

answer

she wanted to help her husband's health improve

question

What happens at the end of the play?

answer

Nora leaves her husband and children

question

Who was Mr. Lindner?

answer

The man who wants to buy them out.

question

Where did Ruth go instead of to the doctor's office?

answer

An abortionist.

question

Why did Walter need $10,000?

answer

To invest in a Liquor Store

question

What is Walter's occupation?

answer

chauffeur

question

Where did the family buy a house?

answer

Clybourne Park

question

What is the name of the youngest member of the Younger family?

answer

Travis

question

Where did Beneatha get asked to go with Asagai?

answer

Nigeria

question

How did Beneathea aquire the money?

answer

Walter Lees insurance

question

According to Asagai, what word does he use to describe what Beneatha does to her hair?

answer

Mutilates

question

Which Japanese theatre forms uses puppets as its main characters?

answer

Bunraku

question

Which of these is a Zen Buddhist principle that influenced Noh?

answer

All of the above

question

The play Shrine in the Fields is what type of Noh play?

answer

A Woman play

question

In a Kabuki performance a "mie" is:

answer

A highly styled pose struck and held by the principal character

question

Which of the following is NOT a feature of Wayang Kulit?

answer

Actors which interact with the puppets

question

In indigenous African performances, what is the least important aspect?

answer

Dialogue

question

The Strong Breed reflects cultural traditions of which Yoruba festival?

answer

Egungen

question

Japanese playwrights continue to write Noh plays today

answer

False

question

In Noh drama, the climactic moment is expressed in song

answer

False

question

Beijing Opera has performance conventions similar to those of European opera, only the stories are derived from Chinese myths

answer

False

question

The staging conventions used in Strong Breed are much the same as those found in European and American theatres

answer

True

question

In African indigenous performances, audience participation is expected

answer

True

question

Colonialism had no effect on the cultural activity of North Africa

answer

False

question

Athol Fugard was the first African playwright to be honored with a Nobel prize for literature

answer

False

question

Which theatre began in 1965 by performing political skits to support striking migrant farm workers?

answer

El Teatro Campesino

question

What type of theatre did Amiri Baraka advocate?

answer

A black separatist theatre: "By us, about us, for us"

question

Lydia by Octavio Solis, has been compared to the works of:

answer

Eugene O'Neill and Arthur Miller

question

What type of dramatic structure does How I Learned to Drive use?

answer

An episodic plot structure in which the action moves forward and backwards in time through associations structured through a central metaphor of a driving lesson

question

Which American female playwright has NOT won a Pulitzer Prize for Drama?

answer

Tracy Letts

question

Which playwright is director Lloyd Richards MOST associated with?

answer

Raisin in the Sun

question

During 2010, not-for-profit theatres presented how many productions?

answer

16,000

question

Which is considered an important factor in the revival of the American musical?

answer

All of the above

question

Robert Wilson's productions juxtapose visual images; often of a variety of styles, cultures and historical periods, out of which each spectator constructs his or her own associations and meanings

answer

True

question

Postmodernists argue that it is the director's task to translate the script faithfully

answer

False

question

George C. Wolfe is an influential African American playwright and director

answer

True

question

In the play Fences, Troy Maxson is a professional baseball player with the Brooklyn Dodgers.

answer

False

question

"Magic Realism" is defined as realistic and fantastic elements existing alongside each other

answer

True

question

In the play Lydia, the central character, Lydia, has been in a tragic car accident

answer

False

question

Tony Kushner's Angels in America marked the first turning point in the acceptability of plays about homosexuality

answer

False

question

Contemporary performance art is much the same today as it was in the 1970s

answer

False

question

Martin McDonough's plays combine verbal wit and highly imaginative action with complex ideas about perceptions of reality

answer

False

question

The musical Rent is a modern adaptation of George Bernard Shaw's play Pygmalion.

answer

False

question

The Living Theatre:

answer

None of the above

question

What did Jerzy Grotowski want to achieve?

answer

He wanted actors and audience to undergo an event wherein they might spiritually confront themselves

question

Josef Svoboda is among those typically credited with:

answer

All of the above

question

Happenings typically had all the following characteristics EXCEPT:

answer

An emphasis on representation of a scripted text for an audience

question

Performance art formed, in part, due to impulses that had also inspired which of the following people?

answer

Alan Kaprow

question

Which theatre became the prototype for regional theaters in the U.S.?

answer

Theatre '47

question

Which Off-Off Broadway theatre offers plays free of charge in central park?

answer

The New York Shakespeare Festival

question

Which is NOT considered a regional theatre?

answer

Playwrights Horizons

question

Which playwright's work instigated Parliament to abolish censorship laws that had been in place for over 200 years?

answer

Edward Bond

question

Which is a characteristic of Stephen Sondheim's musicals?

answer

Ironic and melancholic views of human behavior

question

Paradise Now was the first time nudity and obscenity appeared in a production on Broadway

answer

False

question

Environmental theatre blurs the distinctions between acting space and audience space

answer

True

question

No European countries consider funding for the arts a cultural responsibility

answer

False

question

The Stratford Festival is most closely associated with the English National Theatre

answer

False

question

Off-Broadway theatres were founded as a way to produce plays that the typical Broadway audiences probably wouldn't come see

answer

True

question

The Ford Foundation funded the 1963 opening of the Guthrie Theatre in Minneapolis

answer

False

question

The term "decentralization" refers to the efforts to establish theatre centers in various parts of the country

answer

True

question

England's Royal Shakespeare Company and National Theatre are both examples of very successful theatres that owe much to the federal subsidies they were granted

answer

True

question

Playwright David Mamet writes about serious subjects in and outrageous manner to comically underscore the absurdity of modern life

answer

False

question

Popular Broadway musicals in the 1970s and 80s were, for the most part, imports from England

answer

True

question

Which idea or practice did Adolphe Appia urge?

answer

Flat painted scenery should be replaced with three-dimensional structures

question

Which is a typical Futurist practice?

answer

Compression of a full-length play's essence into a few moments

question

At which modernist group's performance might "chance poems," music, and dances be included?

answer

Dadaists

question

The Federal Theatre Project

answer

Was a nationwide program that aimed to provide jobs and Americans with free, adult, uncensored theatre

question

Which statement most accurately defines the goals of the "new stagecraft" or modified realism?

answer

Simplification and suggestion to stimulate the imagination rather than providing every detail

question

Which is associated with Bertolt Brecht's Epic Theatre?

answer

All of the above

question

Antonin Artaud advocated a "theatre of cruelty" wherein "cruelty" refers to:

answer

The audience being forced to confront itself in order to purge the unconscious mind of destructive impulses

question

Which are playwrights whose works characterized American psychological realism of the early postwar years?

answer

Arthur Miller and Tennessee Williams

question

What musical is often cited as the first to fully integrate music, story, dance and visual elements to support the dramatic action?

answer

Oklahoma

question

Which is NOT an absurdist playwright?

answer

Arthure Miller

question

Expressionism was the first artistic movement to reject representationalism (the long-standing relationship between perception and representation)

answer

False

question

Adolphe Appia considered light the most flexible of all theatrical elements

answer

True

question

Futurism and Dadaism both advocated simultaneity and multiple focus

answer

True

question

Eugene O'Neill's "The Hairy Ape" is an example of an "Epic Theatre" play

answer

False

question

The widely acclaimed Group Theatre (1931-1941) had no connection to Stanislavsky and bitterly opposed his ideas and practices

answer

False

question

In The Good Woman of Setzuan a kind-hearted prostitute named Shen Te disguises herself as her hard-hearted cousin Shui Ta because she finds it impossible to be good in an economic system that forces people to do bad things in order to survive

answer

True

question

Artaud was at one time a member of the realistic movement

answer

False

question

Artaud advocated the creation of new performance spaces wherein the formal divisions between performers and audience would be eliminated

answer

True

question

Elia Kazan, who directed the first Broadway production of Cat on a Hot Tin Roof, was successful in insisting that Tennessee Williams include "Big Daddy" in the last act, and make other changes to make the overall tone of the play more positive

answer

True

question

In Samuel Beckett's Waiting for Godot, one major theme is the isolation and loneliness of human beings

answer

True

STUDY

17th And 18th Centuries Among Other Things George Bernard Shaw

Theatre Final Study Questions – Flashcards 193 terms

Bernice Cooper

193 terms

Preview

Theatre Final Study Questions – Flashcards

question

Parades, juggling, pantomime, and street carnivals may all be considered theatrical entertainments.

answer

True

question

Audience taste may significantly influence what is performed, how it is performed, and where it is performed

answer

True

question

Which statement best describes "willing suspension of disbelief"?

answer

a. A dynamic in which the audience agrees to accept the fictional world of the play on an imaginative level while knowing it to be untrue.

question

What types of intelligence does theatre develop and make use of?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

Which statement accurately reflects similarities between theatrical performance and sports?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

In the statement "A performs B for C" which of the following is NOT a component of "A"?

answer

d. Audience

question

Because of "empathy," we don't call the police if we see a character murdered on the stage during a performance.

answer

False

question

All theatre depends upon a script as its basic starting point.

answer

False

question

It is much easier to control audience focus in the theatre than it is on television or film.

answer

False

question

Which does NOT express a difference between theatre and games or sports?

answer

a. In theatre, spectators assemble at a special time and place for the event

question

What the audience sees is always the only possible interpretation of a script.

answer

False

question

answer

False

question

Which statement BEST defines the rules about how to experience a theatrical performance?

answer

d. There are no rules on how to experience a theatrical performance, but it may be more satisfying if one pays attention and uses their imagination

question

Some plays and musicals have met with negative or mixed reviews and still achieved popular success.

answer

True

question

Which is NOT one of the three basic problems of criticism?

answer

b. Research

question

Which is NOT part of the three-step process for developing critical judgment?

answer

c. One develops a subjective response

question

A reader may re-read, reflect, and sustain several possible interpretations of a line, scene, or entire play, but the playgoer experiences the action and characters more immediately and directly.

answer

True

question

Although some theatre critics may write flippant remarks, the most constructive or useful criticism:

answer

d. All of the choices

question

Professional critics always adhere to a single context in making their judgments.

answer

False

question

Audience response to a performance can be affected by which factor?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

Which most fully describes the qualities of effective dramatic action?

answer

e. All of the choices

question

Which of the following is NOT one of the six elements of drama, according to Aristotle?

answer

e. Situation

question

An effective tragedy requires the arousal of empathy for those who strive for personal integrity and dignity.

answer

True

question

"Point of attack" refers to:

answer

a. The moment at which the plotline takes up the larger story of the play

question

In many plays the "major dramatic question" stems directly from the "inciting incident."

answer

True

question

"Exposition" relates that part of the action that occurs after the "crisis" or "climax."

answer

False

question

Which best describes Melodrama as a dramatic form?

answer

a. A serious action that is resolved happily and affirms the power of good over evil

question

Style in the theatre stems only from the manner in which a playwright uses the elements of drama.

answer

False

question

Tragedy is a form associated especially with:

answer

b. Elizabethan England

question

Two of the most common plot structures are episodic and sequential.

answer

False

question

Small professional companies, such as Off-Off Broadway theatres, have more extensive auxiliary spaces than regional and university theatres usually do.

answer

False

question

The level of formality expressed through architecture and decoration within a theatre does not affect an audience's expectations or responses to a production.

answer

False

question

Which is NOT an element of design?

answer

d. Harmony

question

Which of these practitioners makes use of visual design?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

In which arrangement is a production's costumes likely to be the least detailed?

answer

c. Proscenium Arch

question

Which is NOT a characteristic of the theatrical space?

answer

d. Location

question

In which arrangement is the audience seated on at least 2 but not more than 3 sides of the stage?

answer

c. Thrust

question

Theatre artists are able, through careful collaboration and coordination of visual and aural signs, to ensure that the audience will fully interpret their intentions.

answer

False

question

In a flexible space theatre, the audience seating and performance areas may not be rigidly fixed.

answer

True

question

The principles of design are: line, shape, space, color, texture, and ornamentation.

answer

False

question

Almost all plays that are written for the theatre eventually gain a fully mounted production.

answer

False

question

The basic question one asks when considering a play for production is "why this play for this audience at this time?"

answer

True

question

Playwrights need to see their work performed to answer questions about:

answer

d. All of the choices

question

Which is NOT considered an "old practice" in terms of play development?

answer

a. Actors ask for changes to enhance their roles

question

The Humana Festival in New York stages multiple new plays every year.

answer

False

question

Who is considered to be the first dramaturg?

answer

a. Lessing

question

Two weeks before opening night of a new play the playwright is no longer allowed to make revisions so that the actors have sufficient time to learn their lines.

answer

False

question

Dramaturgs have some responsibility for educating the audience.

answer

True

question

Playwrights have been the most removed from the production process in:

answer

a. 21st century America

question

A production dramaturg:

answer

c. Assists the director by supplying information and asking critical questions

question

Which best explains the difference between literary management and production dramaturgy?

answer

b. Literary management is concerned with the entire season, whereas production dramaturgy is concerned with a specific production

question

Which statement best describes the essential service the producer provides the director?

answer

a. The producer provides the space, personnel and money the director needs to realize his or her vision

question

From the beginning of rehearsals, directors are usually able to rehearse with the actual scenery, properties and costumes.

answer

False

question

Directors generally dictate to the designers exactly what the show should look like.

answer

False

question

The term "colorblind casting" refers to what practice?

answer

a. Casting the most talented performer suitable for the role regardless of race or ethnicity

question

The typical rehearsal schedule follows what process?

answer

c. Read and discuss the script, blocking, memorize lines, ensemble playing, technical rehearsals

question

Stage movement may:

answer

d. All of the choices

question

The means to create visual emphasis remain the same, regardless of the type of stage.

answer

False

question

Producers usually provide potential investors with:

answer

b. A proposed budget for all expenses prior to opening the show, weekly operating costs, and a plan for dividing any profits

question

When studying the script, one of the questions a director may ask is whether or not the length of the script should be cut.

answer

True

question

Director Anne Bogart has gained considerable notoriety for staging familiar or classical plays in a manner that can seem iconoclastic.

answer

True

question

Which is NOT a main directorial concern in guiding the performers' use of voice and speech?

answer

a. That the contents of their speeches should not be offensive or vulgar in any way

question

The term "blocking" refers to:

answer

a. Establishing the performers' movements from place-to-place and their bodily position

question

Each moment within a play creates an image that sends a message to the audience - whether planned or not.

answer

True

question

Which statement best defines the auteur directorial approach?

answer

c. The director uses the script as raw material to be reshaped for his or her own purposes

question

The term "open call" means that anyone who wants to audition may do so without any restrictions.

answer

False

question

The producer's primary functions are financial and managerial in nature.

answer

True

question

Ariane Mnouchkine staged some of Shakespeare's history plays using the formalized conventions of Asian theatre is an example of the auteur directorial approach.

answer

False

question

Which is NOT ordinarily a responsibility of the director?

answer

d. To determine the total cost of the production and its projected income

question

The term "technical rehearsals" refers to when the actors first discuss the play with the director.

answer

False

question

Which is the perhaps the most indispensable of the director's assistants?

answer

b. The stage manager

question

An action is "cheated" if:

answer

c. It isn't really done, but instead is faked through careful timing and positioning of the actors

question

Stage acting requires:

answer

d. All of the choices

question

Which accurately identifies the 4 levels of characterization?

answer

c. Biological, sociological, psychological, ethical

question

Most actor's vocal and movement training begins by developing an understanding of how the voice and body work, and by releasing unnecessary tension or inhibitions.

answer

True

question

What does an actor doing scene study typically do?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

What does an actor need to know to understand the role for which he or she has been cast?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

To "endow" an object means to give it an emotional significance and value from the character's perspective.

answer

True

question

An actor only needs to understand his or her own role and not be concerned with the others.

answer

False

question

The term "cue lines" refers to knowing what another actor is going to say just before it is your turn to speak.

answer

True

question

Film actors have greater control over shaping their performances than do stage actors.

answer

False

question

3-dimensional units are used more often in arena theatres than any other configuration.

answer

False

question

"Front elevations" show:

answer

b. The appearance of the unit including any molding, baseboards, or attached platforms

question

Scene designers must consider their work in much the same way as interior decorators.

answer

True

question

Each of these is an example of a soft scenery unit EXCEPT:

answer

b. Flat

question

A "set prop" refers to a property that is attached to the setting or one that functions as part of the design, such as a sofa or a cabinet.

answer

True

question

"Spattering" refers to a painting technique of simultaneously applying and blending more than one shade of paint on the same surface to create a mottled effect.

answer

False

question

Which is NOT part of a theatre's counterweight system?

answer

d. Elevator

question

The technical director works for the scene designer and is supervised by the scene designer.

answer

False

question

Which accurately describes a function of scene design?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

A "wagon" is generally used for:

answer

a. Moving heavy or complex set pieces on and off stage

question

Wood may eventually replace steel because of its greater strength and durability.

answer

False

question

In most theatres, which person sees to it that the scenery is built appropriately?

answer

d. Technical director

question

In the professional theatre, actors are responsible for applying their own makeup, though the costume designer may design it.

answer

True

question

Which accurately describes a function of costume design?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

answer

True

question

Lighting designers can make firm decisions about all aspects of their designs work at the same time as the scenery and costume designers.

answer

False

question

Realistic sound refers to sounds that stem from a recognizable source.

answer

True

question

The instrument schedule serves what purpose?

answer

a. Summarizes in tabular form all of the technical information needed for setting up the lighting instruments

question

The term "selective transmission" refers to what?

answer

a. The wavelengths of light that each color filter permits to pass through

question

Which is NOT one of the functions of sound design?

answer

a. Reinforces the stage composition

question

A costume working drawing is a color sketch that shows:

answer

a. The costume from a distinctive angle, often including details of special features

question

The development of the dramatic action can be underscored by changes in what each character wears.

answer

True

question

Which is NOT considered a type of painted makeup effect?

answer

d. Prosthetics

question

Costumes always adhere to realistic standards of dress.

answer

False

question

The term "mixed-media production" refers to what practice?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

An ellipsoidal is essentially a flood light and is used primarily for general illumination.

answer

False

question

Although sound has always played an important role in theatrical production, it is not considered a separate art of design.

answer

False

question

Specific illumination is:

answer

b. Generated by spotlights

question

In the professional theatre, how are custom made beards, moustaches and wigs typically made?

answer

a. Human hair is tied with special needles onto a special woven net, then measured and cut to fit the performer.

question

Costumes help to determine the amount, type and overall pattern of movement and stage business.

answer

True

question

The "sound score" is an audio recording of all of the sound effects for a production.

answer

False

question

In a proscenium theatre all of the lighting instruments are mounted behind the proscenium.

answer

False

question

The proscenium arch was invented to frame the stage picture.

answer

True

question

Which was NOT used in association with perspective scenery?

answer

b. The discovery space

question

"Molière" was:

answer

a. The stage name of a leading French actor, playwright, and head of a prominent theatre company

question

An Intermezzi is:

answer

b. Court entertainments based on myth or legend typically designed to pay an elaborate compliment

question

Which is NOT an Elizabethan theatrical convention?

answer

b. Realistic staging

question

Which is NOT one of the three stock character types commonly found in commedia dell'arte?

answer

b. Princes

question

The Elizabethan staging conventions were an adaptation of medieval staging conventions.

answer

True

question

Which audience area had the least expensive admission price?

answer

a. The Gallery

question

French actors in the 17th and 18th centuries were hired according to "lines of business" - or the type of characters they traditionally played.

answer

True

question

The acceptance of perspective scenery signaled a movement away from the formal and architectural stage in favor of the representational, pictorial stage.

answer

True

question

Which did NOT influence the development of Elizabethan drama?

answer

d. Strict adherence to neoclassical unities of time, place, and action

question

Tartuffe is organized in "french scenes:" wherein dramatic action is developed as characters enter and exit a central location.

answer

True

question

French neoclassicism advocated all of the following EXCEPT:

answer

c. The mixing of tragedy and comedy in the same play

question

Opera emerged as an attempt to recreate the relationship between music and speech found in Greek drama.

answer

True

question

Shakespeare was the only significant dramatist of his time.

answer

False

question

Elizabethan theatre was a shift from professional, secular, and regularly performed theatre to communal, religious, and occasionally performed theatre.

answer

False

question

Which is a new feature introduced to the English stage during the Restoration?

answer

a. The use of women to play the female roles in public theatre performances

question

Elizabethan theatre companies were fully financially supported by a noble patron.

answer

False

question

Many credit Carlo Goldoni (The Servant of Two Masters) with refining and reforming commedia in the 18th century. What did Goldoni NOT do?

answer

a. Heightened the use of improvisation

question

In France costumes were provided to the actors by the company manager.

answer

False

question

The configuration of Wagner's theatre at Bayreuth set the pattern for most 20th century theatres.

answer

True

question

In the play A Doll's House, Nora walks out on her husband because he won't give her any money.

answer

False

question

Romanticists thought of a play as merely "a slice of life" - reality transferred to the stage.

answer

False

question

A Doll's House exemplifies realism in that:

answer

b. The play develops logically through a cause-to-effect dramatic construction

question

Wagner's demand for "unity of production:"

answer

a. Sought to filter all stage expressions through a single artistic consciousness

question

The independent theatre movement:

answer

c. Got around the censorship laws governing public performance by staging "private" performances

question

Stanislavsky believed that on stage the actor should be free to improvise spontaneously.

answer

False

question

Numerous independent theatres were established all over Europe, the first of which was the Théâtre Libre in Paris.

answer

True

question

Among other things, Freud's theories contributed to an increased awareness of subtext (the possibility of a covert meaning beneath what is overtly communicated).

answer

True

question

Which is an implication some derived from Charles Darwin's theories?

answer

a. Heredity and environment influence human behavior and characteristics

question

Which was NOT an appeal of melodrama?

answer

d. Box Sets

question

Melodrama encouraged the development of realistic spectacle.

answer

True

question

Who is usually considered the first director, in the modern sense?

answer

a. George II, duke of Saxe-Meiningen

question

George Bernard Shaw wrote comedies for London's Independent Theatre that punctured popular prejudices and provoked audiences to reassess their values.

answer

True

question

Which artistic movement challenged neoclassicism in the late 18th and early 19th centuries?

answer

b. Romanticism

question

Stanislavsky's "magic if" refers to:

answer

c. A way through which the performer may imaginatively project themselves into the world of the play

question

Realism and naturalism were based on the idea that character is determined by heredity and environment.

answer

True

question

Ibsen's dramas were considered controversial because:

answer

a. They challenged existing moral values and social norms

question

The complexity involved in staging the spectacular effects required by melodrama was a contributing factor in:

answer

d. The perceived need for a director to coordinate and unify stage action

question

Saxe-Meiningen's company was known especially for its realistic crowd scenes.

answer

True

question

Which idea or practice did Adolphe Appia urge?

answer

c. Flat painted scenery should be replaced with three-dimensional structures

question

In Samuel Beckett's Waiting for Godot, one major theme is the isolation and loneliness of human beings.

answer

True

question

The widely acclaimed Group Theatre (1931-1941) had no connection to Stanislavsky and bitterly opposed his ideas and practices.

answer

False

question

In The Good Person of Setzuan a kind-hearted prostitute named Shen Te disguises herself as her hard-hearted cousin Shui Ta because she finds it impossible to be good in an economic system that forces people to do bad things in order to survive.

answer

True

question

Which are playwrights whose works characterized American psychological realism of the early postwar years?

answer

b. Arthur Miller and Tennessee Williams

question

answer

True

question

Eugene O'Neill's "The Hairy Ape" is an example of an "Epic Theatre" play.

answer

False

question

Which is associated with Bertolt Brecht's Epic Theatre?

answer

d. All of the choices

question

Futurism and Dadaism both advocated simultaneity and multiple focus.

answer

True

question

Adolphe Appia considered light the most flexible of all theatrical elements.

answer

True

question

At which modernist group's performance might "chance poems," music, and dances be included?

answer

d. Dadaists

question

Expressionism was the first artistic movement to reject representationalism (the long-standing relationship between perception and representation).

answer

False

question

Which is a typical Futurist practice?

answer

c. Compression of a full-length play's essence into a few moments

question

Artaud advocated the creation of new performance spaces wherein the formal divisions between performers and audience would be eliminated.

answer

True

question

What musical is often cited as the first to fully integrate music, story, dance and visual elements to support the dramatic action?

answer

d. Oklahoma!

question

Artaud was at one time a member of the realistic movement.

answer

False

question

Which statement most accurately defines the goals of the "new stagecraft" or modified realism?

answer

c. Simplification and suggestion to stimulate the imagination rather than providing every detail

question

The Federal Theatre Project

answer

a. Was a nationwide program that aimed to provide jobs and Americans with free, adult, uncensored theatre

question

Which is NOT an absurdist playwright?

answer

a. Arthur Miller

question

Antonin Artaud advocated a "theatre of cruelty" wherein "cruelty" refers to:

answer

d. The audience being forced to confront itself in order to purge the unconscious mind of destructive impulses

question

Happenings typically had all the following characteristics EXCEPT:

answer

b. An emphasis on representation of a scripted text for an audience

question

Which is a characteristic of Stephen Sondheim's musicals?

answer

d. Ironic and melancholic views of human behavior

question

The Stratford Festival is most closely associated with the English National Theatre.

answer

False

question

England's Royal Shakespeare Company and National Theatre are both examples of very successful theatres that owe much to the federal subsidies they were granted .

answer

True

question

Which is NOT considered a regional theatre?

answer

a. Playwrights Horizons

question

Popular Broadway musicals in the 1970s and 80s were, for the most part, imports from England.

answer

True

question

Which Off-Off Broadway theatre offers plays free of charge in central park?

answer

a. The New York Shakespeare Festival

question

Playwright David Mamet writes about serious subjects in and outrageous manner to comically underscore the absurdity of modern life.

answer

False

question

Josef Svoboda is among those typically credited with:

answer

d. All of the choices

question

Which playwright's work instigated Parliament to abolish censorship laws that had been in place for over 200 years?

answer

a. Edward Bond

question

Off-Broadway theatres were founded as a way to produce plays that the typical Broadway audiences probably wouldn't come see.

answer

True

question

Which theatre became the prototype for regional theaters in the U.S.?

answer

d. Theatre '47

question

The Ford Foundation funded the 1963 opening of the Guthrie Theatre in Minneapolis.

answer

False

question

Performance art formed, in part, due to impulses that had also inspired which of the following people?

answer

a. Alan Kaprow

question

Paradise Now was the first time nudity and obscenity appeared in a production on Broadway.

answer

False

question

No European countries consider funding for the arts a cultural responsibility.

answer

False

question

The term "decentralization" refers to the efforts to establish theatre centers in various parts of the country.

answer

True

question

The Living Theatre:

answer

e. None of the choices

question

What did Jerzy Grotowski want to achieve?

answer

b. He wanted actors and audience to undergo an event wherein they might spiritually confront themselves

question

Environmental theatre blurs the distinctions between acting space and audience space.

answer

True

STUDY

Among Other Things Countries Of The World Diminishing Marginal Utility First Come First Served Labor And Capital Principles Of Economics: Macroeconomics Principles Of Economics: Microeconomics

exam 1 eco – Flashcards 38 terms

Rebecca Baker

38 terms

Preview

exam 1 eco – Flashcards

question

the author of the textbook defines economics as the science of

answer

scarcity

question

what are the four broad categories of resources?

answer

land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship

question

entrepreneurship is the ________ for organizing the use of land, labor and capital, among other things.

answer

talent

question

the physical and mental talents people bring to production processes compromise the resource called

answer

labor

question

the higher the opportunity cost of attending college the less/ more likely an individual will go to college.

answer

less

question

in every economy people vie for the economy's rationing device, a process called

answer

competition

question

opportunity cost is the value of the best (or most highly valued)_____ alternative.

answer

forfeited

question

macroeconomics deals with

answer

the entire economy

question

the synonym economists commonly use for additional is

answer

marginal

question

scarcity is defined as the condition in which wants are ______ and resources are ______

answer

infinite; finite

question

something that provides dis-utility is called a

answer

bad

question

what does it mean if a person makes a "decision at the margin"?

answer

the person compares additional benefits and additional costs when deciding what to do.

question

to an economists, utility means

answer

satisfaction

question

a theory is

answer

- built on the major factors or variables that the theorists believes explain some event. - a simplified abstract representation of the real world - used to understand the real world

question

ceteris paribus means

answer

all other things held constant or nothing else changes

question

elite colleges and universities use standardized test scores (such as sat and act scores) and high school grades as a

answer

rationing devices

question

it is possible through trade for a country to consume a combination of goods that lies beyond its production possibilities frontier?

answer

true

question

points that lie inside ( or below) the ppf are attainable, but

answer

productive inefficient

question

if increasingly more units of good Y must be given up as each successive unit good X is produced, then the PPF for these two goods is a _______ sloping curve that is bowed out.

answer

downward

question

a productive efficient society

answer

- produces at a point on its ppf - can produce more of one good only by giving up some of another good - cannot produce unlimited amounts of a good - still has to make choices

question

a society is productive inefficient when

answer

- it produces at a point inside (below) its ppf - it does not produce the maximum outpoint with its given resources and technology - it can produce more of one good without giving up some another good

question

if luke can bake bread at a lower opportunity cost than jason, and jason can produce paintings at a lower opportunity cost than luke, it follows that_______ has a comparative advantage in baking bread and __________ has a comparative advantage in producing paintings.

answer

Luke; Jason

question

a person has a comparative advantage in the production of a good when they can produce the product at a _______ opportunity cost compared to another person.

answer

lower

question

if max's demand for hot dogs falls as his income rises, then for Max, hot dogs are an ________ good.

answer

inferior

question

as a price of good A rises the demand for B rises. therefore good A and B are

answer

substitutes

question

the law of supply states that price and quantity supplied are _____ related, ceteris paribus.

answer

directly

question

an advance in technology in the production of good X causes a ________ shift in the supply curve for good X.

answer

rightward

question

what change will not shift a supply curve but will cause a change in quantity supplied?

answer

a change in the goods own price

question

at a price above the equilibrium price, there is a

answer

surplus

question

at a price below the equilibrium price, there is a

answer

shortage

question

on a supply-and-demand diagram, equilibrium is found

answer

where the demand and supply curves intersect

question

a " decrease in demand" shifts the demand, curve to the

answer

left

question

the law of demand states that price and _______ are _______ related, ceteris paribus

answer

quantity demanded; inversely

question

one reason that helps to explain the law of demand is the law of

answer

diminishing marginal utility

question

a market is said to be in disequilibrium if it exhibits either a _______ or _______

answer

surplus; shortage

question

are DVD's and DVD players complements?

answer

yes

question

a _______ good is one in which as income rises or falls, there is no change in the demand for the good.

answer

neutral

question

what can change equilibrium price and quantity

answer

- whenever demand changes - whenever supply changes - whenever supply and demand changes

STUDY

Among Other Things Electronic Medical Records Husband And Wife Necessary But Not Sufficient Needle And Thread Peanut Butter And Jelly Psychology

Forl2680 – Flashcards 119 terms

Oscar Hall

119 terms

Preview

Forl2680 – Flashcards

question

When I have a question or concern about this course, I should contact Prof. Smith (select best answer)

answer

Any of the above

question

Information regarding how to contact Prof. Smith can be found on (choose all appropriate answers)

answer

the syllabus the website for the Department of Foreign Languages and Literatures on our Blackboard site

question

I affirm that I have read the syllabus and asked questions about anything I did not understand.

answer

TRUE

question

I understand that my successful completion of this course depends on

answer

all of the above, as well as my viewing of related lectures and videos

question

In the introduction to our primary text, The Great Fairy Tale Tradition, Jack Zipes compares the fairy tale genre to

answer

a biological species because it has benefitted from cross-fertilization of ideas and incremental evolution.

question

What is the relationship between the oral tradition (of fairy tales) and the literary fairy tale?

answer

The exact origins of the literary fairy tale are uncertain and the relationship between oral traditions and the literary fairy tale isn't always clear. We know, for example, that literary fairy tales borrow motifs and plot characteristics from orally told tales from antiquity up to the 14th and 15th centuries and that the literary genre we now call the literary fairy tale gained traction in 16th-century Europe.

question

When did the literary fairy tale genre come into being in western Europe and what country is especially known for its development in the 17th century?

answer

in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries, especially in late seventeenth-century France when writers openly advocated for its relevance and merit as a genre

question

What two French writers had their collections of fairy tales published in 1697?

answer

Charles Perrault and Marie-Catherine d'Aulnoy

question

Zipes argues that the literary fairy tale genre reached an equilibrium in the __________________ century with the Grimm brothers' fairy tale collections because they produced such a vast, stable work. This body of work helps us study the literary fairy tale genre before them and gives a point of reference to study how the genre has branched off since then.

answer

nineteenth

question

The Grimms are well known because they were so creative and created their stories from scratch.

answer

False

question

According to Bruno Bettelheim, who was influenced by Sigmund Freud's writings, fairy tales differ from dreams in that

answer

answers a and c

question

According to Bettelheim, myths and fairy tales differ in several respects:

answer

all of the above

question

Bettelheim implies that fairy tales are ideal reading or listening material for children

answer

for all of the reasons above

question

According to Zipes, fairy tales can often be seen as commenting on the production and exercise of power.

answer

true

question

When did tales of wonder begin to viewed as heretical, dangerous or sacrilegious?

answer

with the rise of the Christian Church in Europe and the solidification of its power

question

Who coined the term conte de fée?

answer

Mme d'Aulnoy, in the 17th century

question

Why, according to Zipes, did it become popular to associate tales of wonder and folktales with women storytellers?

answer

in order to discredit the tales as unreliable and/or to diminish their impact and meaning

question

Why is the "literary tradition of the fairy tale" often associated with men?

answer

because men were the ones being educated formally and publicly to read and write

question

What was a goal of de Beaumont's collection of stories in which her "Beauty and the Beast" appeared in 1757?

answer

to instruct young girls how to behave in society

question

The Grimm brothers published their initial collection of fairy tales in

answer

1812-1815

question

1. Though born in the late 18th century, Jacob and Wilhelm Grimm made a name for themselves through their work in the _______________ century.

answer

nineteenth

question

"Germany" did not exist as a unified nation state during the Grimms' lifetimes. That would not happen until 1871 under Bismarck.

answer

True

question

In addition, French forces occupied the Grimms' homeland in 1806 and did not leave until Napoleon's defeat in 1813.

answer

True

question

4. The lack of political unity in, and sometimes foreign occupation of, "Germany" during the late 18th / early 19th century is important to keep in mind because many writers such as the Grimms were keenly interested in making German speakers

answer

aware of their shared cultural traditions, including their folk poetry, folk songs and myths

question

5. Heavily influenced by J. G. Herder and others, the Grimm brothers were interested in all types of folklore because they believed it gave insight into

answer

who a people are. They believed that folk poetry was a dynamic expression of a people's character, identity, history and beliefs.

question

Aside from their work on fairy tales, the Grimm brothers worked together or individually on other projects of lasting importance (check all that apply):

answer

-Deutsches Wörterbuch (a German dictionary project similar in scope and breadth to the Oxford English Dictionary) -Deutsche Grammatik (a linguistic history of Germanic languages) -Deutsche Mythologie (a work on Germanic mythology) -Deutsche Sagen (a collection of German legends)

question

7. "Göttingen Seven" refers to

answer

the Grimm brothers and five other professors who were fired from their jobs because they wrote a letter of protest to the King of Hanover because he repealed the 1833 constitution. It's an example of the Grimms' commitment to making their society freer.

question

8. The Grimms were approximately _______ old when they started working on their fairy tale collection.

answer

question

9. Romanticism is a literary, intellectual and artistic movement roughly of the late 18th to mid 19th century in Europe. In contrast to the Enlightenments, which emphasized an individual's exercise of reason as a means by which to understand and interface with nature and mankind's place in it, Romanticism emphasized ______________ as key.

answer

emotion

question

10. Taking four orally told versions of "Cinderella" from four different dialects of German and editing them down into one version to be printed into a collection of stories has ramifications for the story and tradition. For example, it: (circle all that apply)

answer

all of the above

question

The Grimms' second volume (1815) was more successful because

answer

a and b but not c

question

12. Despite the work they invested in the second volume, popular success didn't come until a smaller edition in 1825. This smaller edition enjoyed popular success because it

answer

Contained illustrations and was geared toward children.

question

13. How did the Grimms regard their revision and expansion of the fairy tale material?

answer

They believed the fairy tales had a stable essence and that their revisions and editions were simply part of an ever changing, ever growing tradition

question

The Grimms weren't the first to collect and disseminate fairy tales. Why is their collection so highly regarded when compared to those that came before them?

answer

because their collection contains such a rich variety and diversity of tales

question

The Grimms did occasionally tone down the violence in their fairy tales. When?

answer

when friends or colleagues asked them to

question

The Grimms were keen to redact stories or situations with overt or implied __________. "Rapunzel" is a perfect example

answer

Pregnancy

question

The Grimms valued scholarly reviews of their work more than their collections' financial success. That said, they did appreciate the revenue they received because they needed it, especially in their early career.

answer

True

question

The Grimms were born in Hanau and are buried in Berlin

answer

True

question

19. The Grimms studied law in Marburg, where they met Clemens Brentano, a well-known German Romantic who influenced them.

answer

True

question

20. The Matt Damon / Heath Ledger film "The Brothers Grimm" is not even close to being historically accurate. It is not recommended as part of this course.

answer

True

question

The "Quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns" was a debate in late 17th-century France

answer

Between authors who wanted to model French literature on works and traditions from antiquity (the Ancients) and those authors who wanted to create French literature more reflective of their own time, a literature that incorporated pagan beliefs, magical elements and fantastical material. These "Moderns" were supportive of fairy tales.

question

The "Quarrel of the Ancients and Moderns" is important for understanding

answer

all of the above

question

Unlike "Germany" at the time, 17th-century France had a king, a central court, and a recognized "standard" language (the French spoken at court).

answer

True

question

Despite their different time periods and societal climates in which they worked, the Grimm brothers and Perrault were deeply interested in advancing their respective languages and literatures (French literature in Perrault's case, German literature in the Grimm brothers' case).

answer

True

question

In "The Struggle for Meaning," Bruno Bettelheim says that meaning

answer

A B and C

question

In "The Struggle for Meaning," Bruno Bettelheim argues that fairy tales help children in particular find meaning in life because modern books

answer

are too shallow

question

Perrault's version of "Cinderella" is noteworthy for many reasons, including

answer

all of the above

question

Cinderella's behavior at the end of Perrault's "Cinderella"

answer

all of the above

question

The Grimms' version of Cinderella is

answer

more detailed

question

The Grimms' version of "Cinderella"

answer

begins notably with the passing of Cinderella's mother and her admonition that Cinderella should be "pious" and the "Lord" will look after her

question

As in Perrault's version of "Cinderella", the father in the Grimms' version of "Cinderella" does not appear as strong as he should be as patriarch of the house as he allows Cinderella to be mistreated.

answer

True

question

When the father in the Grimms' version of "Cinderella" asks what he can bring the daughters home from his trip, Cinderella asks for

answer

The first twig that brushes against his hat.

question

The item that Cinderella's father brings her home in the Grimms' version can be seen to represent _______________, not just because of what it is and stands for sometimes in Germanic folklore, but also because it touches the father's head (and thus establishes a connection between it and the mind).

answer

Wisdom

question

The white bird or dove that descends and inhabits the tree at the grave of Cinderella's mother (Grimms' version) can be seen to

answer

all of the above

question

The Grimms' version of cinderella ends with

answer

pigeons pecking the sisters eyes out

question

The ending of the Grimms' version of "Cinderella" is important because it signals the existence of divine justice. Humans' actions are ultimately judged by a higher being.

answer

True

question

Both versions of "Cinderella" that we read this week can be seen as

answer

All of the above

question

The repetition and grouping of items in a series (often in threes, with the last item slightly amended) gives a printed tale the feel of an orally told tale, as repetition of plot items helps speakers and readers remember the tale and thus to share it with others. A famous example of this in the Grimms' version is "Rook di goo, rook di goo! There's blood in the shoe."

answer

TRUE

question

The Grimms' version indicates that we recognize true beauty only when we are attentive enough to look for it beyond and regardless of any societal markings such as clothing, jewelry, makeup, etc. A prime example of this occurs when Cinderella's beauty is acknowledged as she tries on the shoe.

answer

True

question

When Bettelheim speaks of the "id", he is using a Freudian term that refers to our most basic drives and urges as animals, such as hunger, the need for sleep, and our libido. It and the related terms "ego" and "superego" are meant to help us think about how the human psyche works.

answer

True

question

The color red is associated with blood in "Snow White." In the beginning, in particular, the Queen's pricking of her finger and subsequent bleeding onto the snow can be seen to symbolize the Queen's

answer

Menstrual Cycle (& thus ability to have a baby)

question

The color black is a bit trickier. It is often seen as pointing to death, but its association with the wood frame here means it could also/instead point to fortitude, stability, and even resilience. Some cultures regard black soil as fertile, so it might mean that as well. Freya, the Norse (and thus Germanic) goddess of fertility and love, is described as riding a chariot pulled by cats. It's unclear to me, though, what color the cats were supposed to be. I always thought they were grey, because that's what I've read, but more recently I saw a reference to their being black, but that source wasn't entirely credible. Given that our hair generally grays or whitens as we age, black could simply point to youthfulness. As I said, color symbolism can be tricky.

answer

True

question

The Queen is replaced by a "beautiful woman" who is nevertheless "proud and arrogant." Pride is one of the seven deadly sins. The seven deadly sins are

answer

Pride, envy, gluttony, lust, anger, greed, sloth

question

The wicked queen consults her magic mirror often to hear if she is (or is not) the fairest in the land. Her fixation on being the fairest in the land is best described as

answer

Vanity

question

Though vanitas is an old concept, it becomes a popular trope in 17th-century paintings in the Netherlands. Many artworks then depict a still life with a skull and objects of beauty or human pursuits, such as books, flowers, an hourglass, etc. Such works are meant to convey the

answer

the fleetingness or impermanence of the human body and of human pursuits

question

In wanting to always be the fairest in the land, the wicked queen tries to ignore the fact that our lives, and thus appearance, are characterized by our bodies'

answer

transience

question

The "apple" that the old woman offers Snow White can be seen to symbolize

answer

Temptation

question

The apple and its association with temptation in western literature comes from the "fruit" that Eve and Adam partake of in the Garden of Eden (Genesis). This "fruit" comes to be depicted most generally as an apple in artworks much later, especially in the Renaissance. A linguistic misunderstanding is likely also to blame. In Latin, mālum means "apple" whereas mălum means "an evil or a misfortune."

answer

True

question

The lessons imparted to us by "Snow White" include (check all that apply):

answer

a. choosing the right spouse, one you truly know, is incredibly important for everyone in the family, especially your kid(s) if you have one/them. b. people, especially perhaps young people, make the wrong choices even after being warned, but making choices and suffering the consequences is part of the maturation process. c. life is characterized by change -- whether it is one's appearance or maturation d. appearance does not necessarily reflect being (one isn't always as one appears)

question

Bettelheim argues that the dwarfs represent ________________ and that Snow White's trying out each of the beds is indicative of her _____________________.

answer

phalluses .... growing sexual experience/maturation

question

The Grimms' first version of "Snow White", published in 1812, had Snow White's mother serve as the evil one instead of a stepmother.

answer

True

question

When Snow White is unconscious, the dwarfs comb her hair and put her in a transparent coffin.

answer

True

question

The dwarfs' treatment of Snow White at the end of the Grimms' version can be interpreted as

answer

the objectification of woman by and for male voyeurs.

question

Snow White's unconscious state can be seen as representing the time of development one experiences between childhood and adulthood -- as suggestive of puberty, in other words. She goes to sleep a girl and awakes a woman capable of marrying a prince.

answer

True

question

It's important to note that the "wicked woman" also gives in to temptation as she just has to go see Snow White at her wedding to the prince. For her troubles, the "wicked woman" is made to ________________ until she dies.

answer

dance in hot iron shoes

question

Anne Sexton is a 20th-century American poet who published poetic adaptations of select fairy tales in her book Transformations.

answer

True

question

Sexton's poem "Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs" focuses on

answer

society's objectification of virginity and of women.

question

At the end of Sexton's "Snow White", one has the sense that Snow White

answer

is vane and superficial like her stepmother.

question

It is important to note that Snow White is jostled awake when someone carrying her coffin trips; it isn't anything someone did on purpose. If we see her coma-like state as representing puberty, the unpredictability of her awakening suggests that one can't do anything to speed the transitional process of puberty along. It ends when it ends. We should keep this in mind when we discuss "Sleeping Beauty" later.

answer

True

question

Hans Christian Andersen lived in the

answer

19th century, mostly in Denmark

question

The theme of ________________, whether transpired or desired, occurs often in Hans Christian Andersen's works, probably because he experienced it himself. He was educated in a school for poor children, but he managed to improve his economic conditions through his engagement with the arts.

answer

social mobility

question

The famous statue of The Little Mermaid has its home at the harbor of Denmark's capital, ___________________.

answer

Copenhagen

question

The beginning of Hans Christian Andersen's "The Little Mermaid" encourages us to consider the story in terms of ______________. One sees this emphasis already in the initial phrases "Far out" and "It [the ocean's water] goes down deeper."

answer

spatiality

question

The answer to question #4 is important because it sets the stage for the story's emphasis on _____________________.(The story meant here is Hans Christian Andersen's "The Little Mermaid.")

answer

spirituality mobility

question

Hans Christian Andersen's Little Mermaid tends a garden which she populates with objects of her fascination: "flowers as red as the_____________" and ________________.

answer

"sun" and a marble statute of a boy

question

Andersen's Little Mermaid can obtain ________ only if she gains the love of a human being and that love is attested to by marriage.

answer

an immortale soul

question

Andersen's Little Mermaid gets help from the sea witch. The Little Mermaid's acceptance of the sea witch's help and of the witch's terms reminds one of the literary/cultural motif of a pact with the devil. Generally, a pact with the devil requires one to give up his/her soul exchange for something. The Little Mermaid doesn't have one to give. Nevertheless, she seeks the witch's help for something she (The Little Mermaid) wouldn't normally be able to attain by herself--legs and a chance to win the love of a human being. One of the most famous examples of a pact with the devil occurs

answer

in the Faust legend, between Faust and Mephistopheles. Johann Wolfgang von Goethe (1749-1832) wrote perhaps the most famous version of this story

question

Andersen's Little Mermaid

answer

refuses to stab the prince and is rewarded with her transformation into a daughter of the air.

question

Andersen's Little Mermaid can earn a soul at the end of the story

answer

by her good deeds

question

When you think about it, Andersen's "The Little Mermaid" encourages good behavior among children because

answer

a and c but b

question

Not surprisingly, Disney's film "The Little Mermaid" ends

answer

with the marriage of Ariel and prince Eric.

question

In Disney's "The Little Mermaid," Ariel acts independently. Nevertheless, the lyrics of Ursula's "Poor Unfortunate Souls" and the depiction of Ariel and Ursula in the provided clip invite us to consider [choose all that apply]:

answer

a. latent (or not so latent) sexism and misogyny in society. b. ethnic and societal stereotypes that may influence the drawing of certain characters, such as Ursula. c. the importance of having a voice in human interactions and its connection to one's identity. d. the degree to which films promote and/or reflect notions of beauty and sexual attractiveness.

question

In the Grimms' "Rapunzel", a husband and wife want to have a child and the woman craves

answer

type of lettuce

question

The husband and wife in the Grimms' "Rapunzel" live in an apartment that has a view of a neighbor's luscious garden, and therein grows the Rapunzel that the wife desires. The wife's initial desire for the Rapunzel can be explained as (choose all that apply):

answer

a. resulting from a possible vitamin deficiency, such as a deficiency in folic acid. b. symbolic of temptation and the dangers of coveting what others have. c. as a pregnancy craving

question

The sorceress locks Rapunzel in a tower in the forest when she (Rapunzel) approaches an age associated with puberty.

answer

True

question

The sorceress locks Rapunzel away in an apparent attempt to remove her from the temptations of the world. When you think about it, the fact that the prince finds Rapunzel and that they conceive twins together unbekownst to the sorceress suggests

answer

a b and c

question

Rapunzel shows maturity and ingenuity by suggesting a plan to let herself down from the tower so she can accompany the prince, but immaturity when she reveals the secret of the princes' visits to Mother Gothel.

answer

True

question

Rapunzel and the prince both suffer when their relationship is revealed:

answer

Rapunzel is taken to a desolate location and the prince must wander around the forest blinded because he pierced his eyes on thorns.

question

Despite their suffering, Rapunzel and the prince experience a happy end.

answer

True

question

Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" blends Christian motifs and magical elements, a common practice among fairy tales of his and the Grimms' time periods.

answer

True

question

In considering Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty", we shouldn't forget that he was writing in late 17th century, for a court culture, and that he had been embroiled in the literary/cultural dispute now known as "The Quarrel of the Ancients and Moderns."

answer

True

question

In Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty", all of the fairies "that could be found" were invited to the christening. __________ fairies were invited.

answer

question

In Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty," one fairy was overlooked and not invited to the christening. This oversight suggests

answer

The imperfection of human knowledge. We can't know or find everything, try as we might.

question

The king's edict forbids spindles and spinning in Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" because he

answer

he wishes to avoid the prophesied misfortune.

question

The failure of the king's edict in Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" emphasizes

answer

the limits of regal, human, and even parental control.

question

The king's ultimate inability to avoid "misfortune" in Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" shouldn't come as a huge surprise, because fortune can't be controlled by any one person. The ancient notion of Fortuna speaks to this point. The Roman goddess of fortune, Fortuna, was often discussed and portrayed in artwork, especially in the middle ages. There, Fortuna embodies

answer

the fickleness or capriciousness of fortune and fate.

question

One way of depicting the concept of Fortuna was to show or discuss her ______________________, which most people only know nowadays in terms of the game show hosted in part by South Carolina native Vanna White.

answer

wheel of fortune

question

In Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty", the prince

answer

c. gets the girl because he happens to come along at the right time.

question

Bettelheim sees the princess's 100 years of sleep as symbolic of adolescence in general and of sexual maturation in particular, especially as it relates to the onset of menstruation.

answer

True

question

In Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty," the prince appears to have to mature into his role as husband. This can be seen by

answer

A and B

question

Perrault's "Sleeping Beauty" seems to suggest ____________________________. You see this with the awakening of the princess, the arrival of the prince, but even early on when the king and queen are described as trying everything to have a child, including making pilgrimages, "and nothing succeeded. At length, however, the queen became pregnant."

answer

that things happen when they are ready to happen. They don't so much depend on us. (We can't effect results as often and as much as we think.)

question

With respect to Grimms' "Brier Rose" (and indeed other fairy tales such as "The Frog King"), frogs have been seen as symbolic

answer

all of the above

question

Among other things, the Grimms' "Brier Rose" points at worst to parental negligence or at least to their being remiss in their duties as parents and as king/queen. They

answer

a and b

question

In regard to "Brier Rose," Bettelheim sees the key in the lock, the tower, and even the princess's path up to the top of the tower as

answer

symbolic of sexual maturation

question

In Perrault's "Bluebeard," the younger daughter begins to look past the man's bluebeard and the fact that no one knows what happened to his other wives because

answer

he throws lavish parties for her and her friends

question

In Perrault's "Bluebeard," the young wife's using of the small key to open the storeroom against her husband's wishes has been typically interpreted as (choose all that apply)

answer

a. depicting (female) curiosity and the dangers of it (like with Lot's wife, Pandora) b. portraying the temptation to know, to expand a human's knowledge base (reminiscent of Adam and Eve, though that does NOT mean that the husband should be seen as a God figure) c. female sexual enlightenment and exploration against the mandate of, here, the man (patriarch) d. depicting the advantages and disadvantages of humans' quest for more (self) knowledge

question

Perrault's "Bluebeard" also gives us an example of a bad or, at least, inconsiderate host, as the young wife forsakes her company by way of a back staircase in order to go open the forbidden door. Hospitality and being a good host were important in French court culture. On a positive note, though, this same action could be seen as indicating that the woman is an independent thinker willing to forsake the "herd" mentality of society in order to find out more about herself and her predicament.

answer

True

question

In the Grimms' "The Robber Bridegroom," the girl neglects to listen to

answer

her own intuition and the bird in the cage.

question

The robber's guilt is revealed by

answer

the severed finger with the ring

STUDY

Among Other Things Come Into Conflict

Federalist 78,79,81 9 terms

Ruth Blanco

9 terms

Preview

Federalist 78,79,81

question

What is said about the tenure of judges?

answer

Life tenure by which judges are to hold their places during good behavior.

question

Why is the judiciary the least dangerous branch?

answer

It is the weakest because it does not have executive or congress, so it has neither force nor will only judgement.

question

Why can the courts declare laws void?

answer

If laws go against the constitution the courts can declare the laws void and be a safeguard between the legislature and the people. The constitution is the will of the people, so the judges are responsible to stand up for the will of the people.

question

What is another obligation the judiciary has?

answer

The courts are an intermediate guard between the legislature and the people.

question

Why are the courts not superior to the legislature?

answer

The power of the people is superior, the courts just uphold the constitution and they cannot do anything else.

question

Why is Independence of judges necessary and how did the constitution provide it?

answer

The courts need to make the best decision when it comes down to laws and the constitution, so they cannot be swayed by different people. They must do whatever fits the constitution. THis is why they positions are permanent.

question

What can legislature do and can't do regarding judicial salary and what are two advantages of their salary?

answer

Legislature cannot diminish the salary, but can only increase it over time. 1) They can make decisions without concern. 2) They can measure for inflation, so they do not have to worry about making a living.

question

What insurance is given that all judges will act responsibly?

answer

they could be impeached by the House and tried by the Senate.

question

What is the importance of the inferior courts?

answer

Not everything has to go to the supreme courts because they take care of the less important cases to take the pressure off the superior courts.

STUDY

Among Other Things Dido And Aeneas Hildegard Von Bingen Music Appreciation Well Tempered Clavier

Music appreciation ch 1-5 50 terms

Donna Chou

50 terms

Preview

Music appreciation ch 1-5

question

Script

answer

Listening to music and imaging a specific story or short event to go with the music is characterized by which level?

question

Mezzo forte

answer

Medium loud

question

Grave

answer

Very slow

question

Fortissimo

answer

Very loud

question

Musically aware

answer

Utilizing all or several of the levels of listening to music would be listening to the....

question

Crescendo

answer

Gradually louder

question

Concertogrosso

answer

A work contrasting several soloists with a chamber orchestra

question

Hectorberlooe

answer

Added tubas English horn and saxophones to the orchestra

question

Prestissimo

answer

As fast as possible

question

Andante

answer

Medium walking pace

question

Accelerando

answer

Gradually faster

question

Allegro

answer

Fast, lively

question

Rubato

answer

Robbing time, a subtle device in which the performer deviates slightly from the exact execution of the Rhythm or tempo for emotional effect (robbing time)

question

Maestoso

answer

Majestically

question

Organ

answer

Often called the king of instruments

question

Polyphonic

answer

2 or more musical ideas played simultaneously defines what texture?

question

Piano

answer

Soft

question

Expressivo

answer

Expressively

question

Forte

answer

Loud

question

Virtuoso

answer

Highly skilled performer

question

Vibrato

answer

Pulsating on a note for expressive effect

question

Pianissimo

answer

Very soft

question

Listener

answer

Composers create their music primarily for the________.

question

Acapella

answer

Unaccompanied choir or voices

question

Confuoco

answer

With fire

question

Staccato

answer

Short detached

question

French horn

answer

The classical woodwind quintet consists of a flute, oboe, clarinet bassoon and a__________

question

Drecresendo

answer

Gradually softer

question

Pissicato

answer

Plucked strings

question

Harpsichord

answer

The most important instruments of the baroque period are the violin, the cello, and the _____________.

question

Contextual

answer

When Music supplies a background for familiar events such as a football game or a patriotic holiday we tend to listen at the________level

question

Sequence

answer

Repetition of a musical idea at a different pitch level

question

Glissando

answer

Sliding from one note to the other

question

Notation

answer

The process of writing musical ideas on paper is called_____

question

Tremolo

answer

Rapid alternation between notes or chords

question

Piccolo

answer

Highest pitched woodwind instrument

question

Mezzopiano

answer

Medium soft

question

Ostinato

answer

A short repeated music idea which is used in rock and classical music

question

Ritardando

answer

Gradually slower

question

Sensory

answer

Listening to music passively rather than actively

question

Conmoto

answer

With motion

question

Legato

answer

Smooth

question

Cantabile

answer

In a singing style

question

Homophobic

answer

A texture in which a single musical idea takes over the main melodic part while the other ideas accompany

question

Sostenuto

answer

Sustained

question

Stradivari

answer

Famous violin maker

question

Monophonic

answer

A single unaccompanied Music idea to find what temperature

question

Pissicato

answer

A performance technique in which strings are plucked with the finger

question

Clarinet

answer

Instrument Stephens is classically trained on

question

A viola

answer

String Quarted usually consists of two violins a cello and a_____

STUDY

Among Other Things Countries

All Naruto Vocab. 48 terms

Kenneth Wheeler

48 terms

Preview

All Naruto Vocab.

question

The Ninja World

answer

Name for all of the Ninja Nations within the land.

question

Land of Fire/Wind/Water

answer

Different areas within the ninja world.

question

Konohagakure

answer

Village hidden in the leaves.

question

Sunagakure

answer

Village hidden in the sand.

question

Iwagakure

answer

Village hidden in the stone.

question

Kirigakure

answer

Village hidden in the mist.

question

Kumogakure

answer

Village hidden in the clouds.

question

Amegakure

answer

Village hidden in the rain.

question

Takigakure

answer

Village hidden in the Waterfall.

question

Kusagakure

answer

Village hidden in the grass.

question

Five Great Nations

answer

Five Ninja villages that are stronger than the others.

question

Hokage

answer

Leader of the Leaf Village.

question

Kazekage

answer

Leader of the Sand Village.

question

Raikage

answer

Leader of the Cloud Village.

question

Mizukage

answer

Leader of the Mist Village.

question

Tseuchikage

answer

Leader of the Stone Village.

question

Divine Tree

answer

Giant tree that bore fruit forbidden to eat by the villagers that lived around it. The fruit was the first form of Chakra.

question

Kaguya Ootsutsuki

answer

She was the leader of the village that was around the Divine Tree. When the settlement went to war, she ate of the forbidden fruit and gained immense power and ended the war all by herself. She was the first human to use Chakra.

question

Ten Tails(Juubi).

answer

After the forbidden fruit was consumed, the Tree took the form of a monster with one big red eye and ten tails, that rampaged around attempting to regain its lost Chakra by absorbing it out of the people who had inherited it.

question

Sage of the Six Paths(Hagoromo Ootsutsuki)

answer

Kaguya's son, and the most powerful shinobi by legend, created Ninjutsu, the use of Chakra, and Ninshu, the Ninja Creed. Defeated the Juubi and sealed half of the monster in rock in the sky, the Moon, and the other half within himself.

question

Tailed Beasts

answer

Nine great, powerful creatures born from splitting up the Juubi. All are giant versions of animals and have a different number of tails that increases in number and power with different animals. They are all capable of a attack called Tailed Beast Bomb(Bijuu Bomb) that varies in power.

question

Ichibi/One-Tail/ Shukaku/Demon Sand Spirit

answer

First of the Tailed Beasts, a giant Tenuki with various powerful jutsu techniques and one big tail. He is sand colored with blue markings.

question

Nibi/Two-Tail/Matatabi

answer

Second of the Tailed Beasts, a giant tiger mouse thing with unique relative jutsu and two tails. She is blue with black underside and markings.

question

Sanbi/Three-Tail/Isobu

answer

Third of the Tailed Beasts, a giant turtle armadillo thing with various water style attacks and an overlapping segment shell and three armored tails.He is tan underneath but grey on the top.

question

Yonbi/Four-Tail/Son Goku

answer

Fourth of the Tailed Beasts, a giant red gorilla with tusks, who uses lava style scorching attacks and has four tails.

question

Gobi/Five-Tail/Kokuo

answer

Fifth of the Tailed Beasts, a giant horse type thing with an all white body and horns on its head. He doesn't use projectile type attacks or actual jutsu styles, but its horns and hooves to do damage and has five long flowing tails.

question

Rokubi/Six-Tail/Saiken

answer

Sixth of the Tailed Beasts, a giant slug with three body sections, eye stalks, and small arms and legs with slime all over it. He uses the corrosive acid slime to attack foes and shoots bubbles at opponents as that's the jutsu of his Jinchuriki. He is big, slimy, and white.

question

Shichibi/Seven-Tail/Chomei

answer

Seventh of the Tailed Beasts, and giant flying bug, has one big stinger which is one of his tails and primary attack asset. The other six tails are his six wings, three on each side. He uses powder as an acidic material to distract foes. He is big, has a big stinger, has six big wings, and a vented mouth for the dust.

question

Gyuki/Eight-Tail/Eight-o

answer

Eighth of the Tailed Beasts, a giant octopus and ox thing that uses brute strength and sometimes ink to fight. He is light purple with eight tentacles and two curved horns.

question

Kyuubi/Nine-Tail/Kurama/Demon Fox/Monster Fox

answer

Ninth of the Tailed Beasts, a giant fox with bright orange fur, sharp teeth and claws, bright red eyes, and nine long tails. He is the strongest Tailed Beast with the strongest Bijuu Bomb.

question

Jinchuriki

answer

Select individual that has been chosen by a village leader to have a Bijuu sealed within them for containment.

question

Ninshu

answer

The Ninja creed or belief and code of guidelines.

question

Ninjutsu

answer

Mandatory ninja know-how tactics number 3 :Ninjutsu is the art of using one's spiritual energy(Chakra), as well as one's physical energy(the hand seals) to produce energy attacks that fall in one of the five basic nature transformations, or Keikke Genkai unique to one person or clan.

question

Five Basic Nature Transformations

answer

Five different unique Chakra natures that can be combined with physical energy that take the form of five different elements, and the type of element and number of them a ninja possesses depends on the ninja.

question

Katon(fire release)

answer

Type of Chakra nature that uses fire manipulating attacks.

question

Fuuton(wind release)

answer

Type of Chakra nature that uses wind manipulating attacks.

question

Raiton(lightning release)

answer

Type of Chakra nature that uses lightning manipulating attacks.

question

Doton(earth release)

answer

Type of Chakra nature that uses earth manipulating attacks. Famously used by Hatake Kakashi, Tseuchikages of Iwa.

question

Suiton(water release)

answer

Type of Chakra nature that uses water manipulating attacks. Famously used by the Mizukages of Kiri, Hoshigake Kisame and Hozuki Suigetsu of the Mist Seven Swordsmen, Senju Tobirama 2nd Hokage of Konoha, and Hatake Kakashi.

question

Chakra Paper

answer

Special paper that determines the type of Chakra nature one is when they run their Chakra through it; Katon roasts the paper, Fuuton cuts the paper in half, Raiton makes the paper crinkle, Doton make the paper muddy, Suiton dampens the paper.

question

Kekkei Genkai

answer

Meaning bloodline limit, represents special changes in Chakra nature that only a certain person or specific clan can use composed of two basic elements plus physical energy are equally combined to make a new style of attack.

question

Mokuton(wood release)

answer

Kekkei Genkai naturally used only by Hashirama of the Senju clan, used by Yamato Nadeshiko after being genetically modified by Orochimaru as a child, and Madara Uchiha after he shaved off some of Hashirama's flesh after he "lost" in their death battle and used it to heal his worst wounds and gain the Mokuton. The release itself had an equal fuse of Doton release and Suiton release to create Mokuton release which created thriving powerful branches and trees that could destroy and restrain and make flowering plants that releases poison pollen.

question

Hyoton(Ice release)

answer

Kekkei Genkai that is only naturally used by members of the Yuki clan and was not copied and implanted in anyone like Mokuton was, gave the Yuki clan members the ability to freely create and manipulate crystal ice at will.

question

Jiton(magnet release)

answer

Kekkei Genkai that was most famously used by the 4th Kazekage of Sunagakure who manipulated gold dust with Jiton to immobilize the Ichibi and it's sand when it rampaged, and the 3rd Kazekage of Sunagakure who used the Jiton to manipulate his special iron sand which was unique to him because of his special Jiton Kekkei Genkai and his unbelievable strength with it which also allowed him to form the iron sand into anything giving him the best weapon to deal with any situation.

question

Kekkei Touto

answer

Chakra nature combination of three or more elements by using Kekkei Genkai or basic transformations and having a partner use Kekkei Genkai or basic transformations that are compatible with each other and have the same strength, power, speed, adaptability and alignment depending on what is weaker and stronger than other things to create an all powerful attack that fuses and joins power and doesn't cancel out. Almost impossible to do by oneself.

question

Taijutsu

answer

Mandatory ninja know-how tactics number 1: Taijutsu is art of using purely ones physical energy and raw power with no spiritual energy. Primarily things like kicks and punches mainly for close combat or when things like Ninjutsu are unavailable and can use Chakra not as a combination, like Ninjutsu, but as an amplifier to increase the power of physical attacks.

question

Genjutsu

answer

Mandatory ninja know-how tactics number 2 : Genjutsu is the art of using only ones spiritual energy. Unlike a blend such as Ninjutsu, all physical energy like Taijutsu, Genjutsu is the art of sending your Chakra flow to disrupt another person's and make them see illusions by manipulating their Chakra flow and deceiving their senses to paralyze them or confuse them to make them temporarily helpless to complete control.

question

Kinjutsu

answer

Type of jutsu where one focuses energy into whatever weapon they are wielding to get top notch efficiency.

STUDY

Among Other Things Functions Of The Nervous System Psychology

Chapter 1 & 2 Psych Quiz 53 terms

Steven Colyer

53 terms

Preview

Chapter 1 & 2 Psych Quiz

question

Which of the following best describes the mind?

answer

The brain & its activities

question

The scientific study of behavior and mental processes is called ____.

answer

Psychology

question

Although the bulk of psychology focuses on human behavior, studying animal behavior has been an essential part of the discipline that allows for ____.

answer

making essential comparisons with humans

question

A doctor notices that many soldiers returning from fighting in the trenches in World War I were highly anxious, fearful of loud noises, and having difficulty reconnecting with their families. He asks them to record personal observations of their own thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in a journal. This process is called ____.

answer

Introspection

question

As a discipline, psychology dates back to ____.

answer

the Roman Empire

question

The psychology family tree includes two major roots: ____.

answer

philosophy and the physical sciences

question

The relationship between behavior and biology is ____.

answer

reciprocal: biology affects behavior and vice versa

question

Most philosophers beginning with Aristotle commonly believed that all knowledge is ____.

answer

gained through sensory experience

question

The first experimental psychologist and proponent of the structuralist approach, along with his students, was ____.

answer

Wilhelm Wundt

question

Wundt's student Edward Titchener developed an approach in which the mind is broken into the smallest elements of mental experience. What is this called?

answer

structuralism

question

Acknowledging that an experience is different than the sum of its elements is reflective of ____.

answer

Gestalt psychology

question

The Gestalt psychologists believed that breaking a \"whole\" perception into its building blocks, as advocated by the structuralists, would result in the loss of ____.

answer

important psychological information

question

What was a major shortcoming of early psychologists?

answer

They tried to establish theories without a large body of experimental data.

question

What is the psychological perspective that focuses on the relationships between mind, behavior, and their underlying biological processes, including genetics, biochemistry, anatomy, and physiology?

answer

biological psychology

question

Which of the following is most likely to be the topic of research of a biological psychologist?

answer

Do stress hormones due to abuse in early childhood affect the ability to form memories?

question

The psychological perspective that investigates how physical structure and behavior have been shaped by their contributions to survival and reproduction is called ____ psychology.

answer

evolutionary

question

An evolutionary psychologist would be most interested in the question of ____.

answer

whether there is an adaptive reason why men tend to gamble more than women

question

Entering the 21st century and armed with in-depth research results compiled in the various perspectives, psychologists are returning to ____.

answer

a more comprehensive view of the mind

question

Alejandro is developing a preliminary research study to address the question of whether four-year-olds who are asked to delay gratification (e.g., to delay eating candy) perform differently in solitude than with other four-year-olds. Which combination of research perspectives would be best for this preliminary study?

answer

developmental psychology and social psychology

question

Many of the new ways of looking at the mind will take advantage of the revolution in techniques for studying the brain; for example, ____ currently investigate the biological factors that vary along with people's feelings and experience of social inclusion, rejection, or loneliness.

answer

social neuroscientists

question

A biological psychologist studies the effects of amphetamine on aggression in rhesus monkeys. However, to the researcher's surprise, the experimental results differ for isolated monkeys versus monkeys in a colony. What is missing from this experiment?

answer

The social psychology perspective

question

The diversity of career pathways for those with degrees in psychology reflects, in relation to other disciplines, that psychology is a(n) \"____.\"

answer

hub

question

Harold is trying to decide between teaching at the nearby community college or obtaining a therapist's license. What degree is the minimum degree required for these positions?

answer

master's degree

question

The clinical or counseling specialty includes extensive internships and supervised training prior to ____ that usually add at least one year to students' graduate studies.

answer

government-regulated licensure

question

Josh has a doctoral degree in psychology and is a therapist in New York. His sister Sarah has a medical degree and is in a residency program for psychiatry. Currently, the biggest difference between the two professions is that, in contrast to Josh, Sarah can ____.

answer

prescribe medication

question

Science comes from the Latin scientia, which means \"knowledge.\" According to your text, which of the following best describes \"science\" today?

answer

A special way of learning about reality through systematic observation and experimentation

question

One important difference between science and everyday observations is that science relies on ____.

answer

objectivity

question

Any observation by a human being is, by definition, ____.

answer

subjective

question

What is a research design that controls for placebo effects in which neither the participant nor the experimenter observing the participant knows whether the participant was given an active substance or treatment, or a placebo?

answer

double-blind procedure

question

A set of facts and relationships between facts that can explain and predict related phenomena is called a(n)

answer

theory

question

The best scientific theories not only explain and organize known facts, but they also generate new ____.

answer

predictions

question

A proposed explanation for a situation, usually taking the form \"if A happens then B will be the result\" is called a(n) ____.

answer

Hypothesis

question

Scientific hypotheses must be both ____.

answer

falsifiable and testable

question

Research methods designed for making careful, systematic observations are called ____.

answer

descriptive methods

question

Which of the following lends itself to the use of a descriptive method?

answer

Jonathan would like to develop a hypothesis regarding the role of parental expression of affection in reducing toxic stress in early childhood.

question

You decide to study weekend dorm life for a sociology term paper. In order to do this, you attend several fraternity parties at a large university, week after week. What method of research are you employing?

answer

naturalistic observation

question

What is one advantage of using naturalistic observation over the case study method?

answer

Looking at a much larger group supports application of the results to the general population.

question

A measure of the direction and strength of the relationship between two variables is called ____.

answer

correlation

question

A factor that has a range of values is called a ____.

answer

variable

question

A newspaper headline states \"Autism correlation to wealth affirmed.\" Researchers found that affluent youngsters were almost twice as likely as the poorest children in the study to have autism. This is a ____.

answer

positive correlation

question

Consider the following relationships between two variables. Which pair is most likely to have the weakest correlation?

answer

hair color and intelligence

question

What is an experimental design for assessing age-related changes in which data are obtained simultaneously from people of differing ages?

answer

cross-sectional study

question

Which of the following is a drawback of longitudinal studies?

answer

Participants may drop out of the study over time.

question

The consistency of a measure, including test-retest, inter-rater, inter-method, and internal consistency, is called ____.

answer

reliability

question

The SAT II single subject achievement test shows the highest positive correlation with first-year college grades compared to both the SAT I aptitude test and high school grade point average. This indicates that of the three tests, it is the most ____.

answer

valid

question

Callie has gathered extensive data regarding the working conditions and stress levels of domestic workers in five U.S. cities, including their annual income. She arranges the data from low to high and notes how many workers are in each category using a histogram. This is called a ____.

answer

frequency distribution

question

The mean, median, and mode are all measures of a data set's ____.

answer

central tendency

question

Neil has gathered data regarding self-report of successful smoking cessation. He finds that one of the eight methods used by study participants accounts for a high proportion of the successes. The most useful measure of central tendency to report would be the ____.

answer

mode

question

In statistics, the extent to which scores differ from one another or from their mean; often measured using the standard deviation, is called ____.

answer

variability

question

Researchers working in universities and other agencies must receive the approval of institutional review boards (IRBs) for human participant research and institutional animal care and use committees (IACUCs) before conducting research, ____.

answer

if their institution receives federal funding

question

At the core of ethical standards for human research is the idea that participation should involve ____.

answer

no coercion

question

Noreen is a graduate student in psychology. She is designing a study regarding health care decision-making among teenagers. Which of the following research participants can legally provide his or her own informed consent?

answer

An eighteen year old male with HIV/AIDS

question

Dr. Harmon has conducted a study of social networks and health within an isolated community. Which of the following would breach a research participant's right to confidentiality?

answer

Dr. Harmon stored the completed surveys and the key linking names and code numbers on his laptop, to which only he and his wife have the password.

STUDY

Among Other Things AP Government Politics of the United States State Supreme Court

Jeffco American Government Summer course 136 terms

Christine Brunetti

136 terms

Preview

Jeffco American Government Summer course

question

The US Supreme Court can review a state supreme court decision

answer

only if there is a federal question involved.

question

If a case is remanded, it

answer

is sent back to the original court that heard the case.

question

Federal Courts have jurisdiction

answer

both A and B

question

Usually appellate courts look at questions of

answer

law

question

a court rule bearing on subsequent legal decisions in similar cases is called

answer

precedent

question

a writ of certiorari by the Supreme Court Orders

answer

a lower court to send up the record of case for review

question

The Us District Courts are

answer

trial courts

question

a justice who agrees with the result reached by the majority of the court but wants to voice disappoval on grounds which the decision was made would write

answer

a concurring opinion

question

a body of judge made law is known as

answer

common law

question

The power of the courts to determine whether a law or action by other branches of government is called

answer

judicial review

question

Powers held jointly by both state and national goverments are called

answer

concurrent powers

question

in a confederate political system, the central governing unit has

answer

only those powers granted by the states

question

Education

answer

is primarily a state and local responsibility

question

The Supreme Court ceased to interfere with national legislaton on the economy after

answer

roosevelt tried but failed to expand the court by adding six new judges

question

of the different ways of orderin relations between the central goverments and local units, the most common method of the world today is

answer

the unitary system

question

The US Supreme Court

answer

all of the above

question

In a unitary system of goverment, ultimate goverment authority is located

answer

on a national or central level

question

In the case Gibbons v Odgen, commerce is defined as

answer

all commercial intercourse, including navigation and transport of people.

question

Implied powers come from

answer

the necessary and proper clause

question

functions of political parties in the US include all of the following except

answer

singing up large numbers of committed members

question

A political party differs from an interest group in that

answer

political parties want to operate the government while interest groups do not.

question

Progressivivisim was

answer

a belief that honest, impartial goverment could effectively curb the growing power of large corporations

question

the party organization is

answer

the formal structure and leadership of a political party

question

Local party organizations are still important to local campaigns today because

answer

they provide footsoldiers for the campaigns

question

George Washington viewed policial parties as a

answer

threat to national unity and popular government

question

Many political scientists content that third parties

answer

serve as a safety valve for dissident political groups, preventing major confrontations and political unrest

question

A Major reason for the two party system is the electoral system which is based on

answer

winner take all or plurality system

question

Why has the two party system endured in the united states?

answer

In the beginning of the two party system, there were multiple, historic forces that shaped our two party system into what it is today. The system has been changing and developing as historical events happened in US history. Additionally, the political socialization that decided if a person is a republican or democrat at a remarkably young age. The winner take all system, and how state and federal laws favor the two party system.

question

The number of members each state will have in the electoral college changes every five years

answer

true

question

When the two top candidates in a primary compete in a second primary for the majority of votes, it is called

answer

a run off primary

question

When voters can vote in either party primary without disclosing their party affiliation is called

answer

an open primary

question

The bipartisan Campagin Reform Act of 2002 bans the practice of lobbying

answer

false

question

The supreme cour ruled i buckely v valeo that the amount a candidate spends on a campaign cannot be banned under the constitiution

answer

true

question

The purpose of introducing the primary as a means of nominating candidates for office was to

answer

open the nomination process to ordinary party members and to weaken the influence of party bosses

question

Party column ballots were ruled unconstitutional in 1948

answer

False

question

Advertising paid for by an interest groups that support or oppose a candidate or candidates position on an issue without mentioning voting or elections is called

answer

issue advocacy advertising

question

Civil liberties specify what the government cannot do while civil rights specify what goverment must do to ensure equal protection and freedom from discrimination

answer

true

question

The 14th amendment says slavery is prohibited

answer

False

question

The direct result of Plessy V. Ferguson

answer

the development of a system of legal racial segreation

question

The white primary in southern states allowed whites to exclude African Americans from voting in democratic parties

answer

true

question

Defacto Segregation means racial secregation

answer

False

question

The civil rights movement led by Dr. Martin Luther King was based on the philosophy of civil disobedience

answer

true

question

The owner and proprietor of an eatery located at the confluence of three interstate highways, despises minorities and wants to refuse to allow them to eat at his restaurant. His actions violate the

answer

Civil Rights act of 1964

question

The equal rights amendment was not approved in the senate

answer

false

question

Qualifications for President

answer

1) Natural born citizen of the United States 2) Must be at least 35 years old 3) Resident of the United States for at least 14 years

question

Chief Of Party

answer

this role, the president helps members of his political party get elected or appointed to office.

question

Chief Excecutive

answer

Executes the laws, appoints key federal officials, grants pardons and reprieves.

question

Chief Legislator

answer

Only Congress has the actual power to make laws, but the Constitution gives the president power to influence Congress in its lawmaking. Presidents may urge Congress to pass new laws or veto bills that they do not favor.

question

Standing committee

answer

a permanent committee in Congress that oversees bills that deal with certain kinds of issues

question

House vs. Senate

answer

Congress is split into two chambers—the House of Representatives and Senate. Congress writes national legislation by dividing work into separate committees which specialize in different areas. Some members of Congress are elected by their peers to be officers of these committees

question

Money Bills start

answer

All Bills for raising Revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives; but the Senate may propose or concur with Amendments as on other Bills

question

Electoral College total votes needed

answer

A majority of 270 electoral votes is required to elect the President.

question

If there is a tie

answer

Although it was first addressed by Article II, if there were a tie in the Electoral College we would follow the process outlined in the 12th Amendment (ratified in 1804): \"the House of Representatives shall choose immediately, by ballot, the President\" and \"the Senate shall choose the Vice-President.\"

question

Census

answer

taken every ten years

question

Marbury vs. Madison

answer

1803: establishes judicial review as a check on legislative power. Marshall: If the constitution is the supreme law of the land, something must ensure laws are in accordance with it. Judgement against commission.

question

Direct Democracy

answer

a form of government in which the power to govern lies directly in the hands of the people rather than through elected representatives. Every citizen votes on the laws.

question

Speaker of the House

answer

the leader of the majority party who serves as the presiding officer of the House of Representatives

question

Chief Diplomat

answer

Makes friends with other nations

question

Commander in cheif

answer

runs armed forces

question

Vice President roles

answer

As President of the Senate, the Vice President has two primary duties: to cast a vote in the event of a Senate deadlock and to preside over and certify the official vote count of the U.S. Electoral College.

question

25th amendment

answer

Presidential Succession and Disability

question

Impeachment

answer

To accuse a public official of misconduct in office

question

House rules committee

answer

the traffic cops of the home, can move bill ahead quick, can slow bill down, can stay or kill a bill altogether

question

Franking privilage

answer

The ability of members of Congress to mail letters to their constituents free of charge by substituting their facsimile signature (frank) for postage.

question

Pork Barrel Spending

answer

This type of spending is inserted into generally non related bill as either a reward or an incentive for political support from constituents.

question

Reapportinment

answer

dividing the seats of the House among the states based on the census

question

Redistricting

answer

State legislatures redraw district boundaries after number of representatives is set by Congress

question

Constituent Services

answer

one of the persons represented by a legislator or other elected or appointed official

question

Unitary

answer

A government that gives all key powers to the national or central government

question

Federal

answer

A system in which power is divided between the national and state governments

question

Confederation

answer

A joining of several groups for a common purpose.

question

Process to amend consitution

answer

two thirds of both houses of congress to propose the amendment and 38 states must agree

question

Concurrent Powers

answer

Powers of government exercised independently by both the federal and state governments, such as the power to tax.

question

Checks and balances

answer

A system that allows each branch of government to limit the powers of the other branches in order to prevent abuse of power

question

Recall Election

answer

a special election called by voters to remove an elected official before his/her term expires.

question

Goverment

answer

Organization set up to make and enforce rules for a society

question

Legitimacy

answer

Political authority conferred by law or by a state or national constitution

question

Power

answer

question

Federalists

answer

A term used to describe supporters of the Constitution during ratification debates in state legislatures.

question

Initative

answer

Process through which voters may propose new laws.

question

Anti-Federalists

answer

Anti-Federalists rose up as the opponents of the Constitution during the period of ratification. They opposed the Constitution's powerful centralized government, arguing that the Constitution gave too much political, economic, and military control. They instead advocated a decentralized governmental structure that granted most power to the states

question

Democratic Republic

answer

Led by Thomas Jefferson, believed people should have political power, favored strong STATE governments, emphasized agriculture, strict interpretation of the Constitution, pro-French, opposed National Bank

question

Referendum

answer

a legislative act is referred for final approval to a popular vote by the electorate

question

Bicameral vs. Unicameral

answer

two chamber. one chamber.

question

Weakness of Articles of Confederation

answer

Congress could not levy nor collect taxes from states 1. Lacked power to enforce laws 2. Lacked power to levy taxes 3. Lacked power to regulate trade among the states 4. Required all 13 states to approve changes to the Articles

question

Supremacy Clause

answer

Article VI of the Constitution, which makes the Constitution, national laws, and treaties supreme over state laws when the national government is acting within its constitutional limits.

question

Authority

answer

right to use power

question

Continental Congress

answer

the legislative assembly composed of delegates from the rebel colonies who met during and after the American Revolution

question

Politics

answer

Method of maintaining, managing, and gaining control of government (who gets what, when, and how)

question

Connecticut Compromise

answer

Agreement during the Constitutional Convention that Congress should be composed of a Senate, in which States would be represented equally, and a House, in which representation would be based on a State's population.

question

intolerable acts

answer

(4.1) passed by Parliament in 1774 in reaction to the Boston Tea Party. Passed series of measures including shutting down Boston Harbor and the Quartering Act, which allowed British commanders to house soldiers in vacant private homes and other buildings. This resulted in the colonists forming the First Continental Congress and drawing up a declaration of colonial rights. - Tom says this was a combination of the Coercive Acts and the Quebec Act.

question

Issues not in constitution

answer

question

Totalitariansm

answer

government has total control over every aspect of public and private life

question

universal sufferage

answer

The right of all adults to vote for their representatives.

question

Conference committee

answer

A special joint committee appointed to reconcile differences when bills pass the two chambers of Congress in different forms.

question

Proclamation of 1763

answer

question

Gibbons V. Ogden

answer

question

McColloch vs. Maryland

answer

question

Judicial Activsm

answer

question

Judicial Restraint

answer

A philosophy that the Supreme Court should avoid constitutional questions when possible and uphold acts of Congress unless they clearly violate a specific section of the Constitution.

question

Diversity of Citizenship

answer

Cases which involve citizens of different states and in which the amount of money in dispute exceeds $75,000.

question

Federal Question

answer

A question that has to do with the U.S. Constitution, acts of Congress, or treaties. A federal question provides a basis for federal jurisdiction.

question

Trial Court

answer

First court to hear a dispute.

question

Rule of Four

answer

At least four justices of the Supreme Court must vote to consider a case before it can be heard.

question

Remand

answer

the act of sending an accused person back into custody to await trial (or the continuation of the trial)

question

Party Platform

answer

A political party's statement of its goals and policies for the next four years. The platform is drafted prior to the party convention by a committee whose members are chosen in rough proportion to each candidate's strength. It is the best formal statement of a party's beliefs.

question

How is the supreme court checked?

answer

the president appoints people and the senate approves them

question

Political Party Interest groups

answer

Any groups of individuals who agree on basic political interests, and on that basis organize to win control of government.

question

Functions of Political Parties

answer

nominate and elect their members to public office, educate the public, mobilize voters by encouraging participation in the electoral process, run the government, serve as the loyal opposition to the party in power

question

Party

answer

A citizen's self-proclaimed preference for one party or the other. An informal and subjective affiliation with a political party that most people acquire in childhood.

question

Organization

answer

Arranged in an orderly way. A group of people who work together to achieve some specific purpose

question

Runoff Primary

answer

A second primary election held when no candidate wins a majority of the votes in the first primary

question

Open Primary

answer

A primary in which any registered voter can vote (but must vote for candidates of only one party).

question

Closed Primary

answer

A primary in which only registered members of a particular political party can vote

question

Ballot

answer

A document listing the alternatives that is used in voting.

question

Divided Government

answer

Governance divided between the parties, as when one holds the presidency and the other controls one or both houses of Congress.

question

One Party State

answer

A political system in which one party controls the government and actively seeks to prevent other parties from contesting for power

question

What types of Cases does the supreme court hear?

answer

Contract and tort; cases for the recovery of land; disputes over over partnerships, trusts, and inheritance up to a value of £30,000; divorce cases. constitutional law

question

Public Opinion

answer

The distribution of the population's beliefs about politics and policy issues.

question

Consensus

answer

General agreement

question

Divided Opinion

answer

public opinion that is polarized between two quite different positions

question

Political Socialization

answer

Process by which background traits influence one's political views

question

Agenda setting

answer

Determining the actions to take, and prioritizing them.

question

gender gap

answer

A term that refers to the regular pattern by which women are more likely to support Democratic candidates. Women tend to be significantly less conservative than men and are more likely to support spending on social services and to oppose higher levels of military spending.

question

Functions of the US media

answer

be trash

question

Sampling techniques

answer

can be used to estimate densities and total population sizes population, sample, representative - sample needs to represent the population, probability and non-probability

question

Lobbyist

answer

A person who is employed by and acts for an organized interest group or corporation to try to influence policy decisions and positions in the executive and legislative branches.

question

Ralph Nader

answer

A leftist American politician who promotes the environment, fair consumerism, and social welfare programs. His book Unsafe at Any Speed brought attention to the lack of safety in American automobiles.

question

direct techniques

answer

an interest group activity that involves interaction with government officials to further the group's goals

question

Indirect techniques

answer

a strategy employed by interest groups that uses third parties to influence government officials

question

Independants

answer

people that do not belong to a political party

question

Presidential Primary

answer

A statewide primary election of delegates to a political party's national convention, held to determine a party's presidential nominee.

question

Caucus

answer

A meeting of local party members to choose party officials or candidates for public office and to decide the platform.

question

501 (c)

answer

tax-exempt groups. = groups are regulated only under tax laws by the irs

question

Buckley v. Valeo

answer

A case in which the Supreme Court of the United States upheld federal limits on campaign contributions and ruled that spending money to influence elections is a form of constitutionally protected free speech. The court also stated candidates can give unlimited amounts of money to their own campaigns.

question

Hatch Act

answer

A federal law prohibiting government employees from active participation in partisan politics.

STUDY

Among Other Things Mortgage Backed Securities White Collar Crime

INTB crossword vocab 53 terms

Judith Simpson

53 terms

Preview

INTB crossword vocab

question

commodity futures modernization act

answer

2000 law that allowed for unregulated derivatives trading

question

special economic areas

answer

Chinese coastal manufacturing

question

moral hazard

answer

incentive to take risk

question

petrodollars

answer

oil earnings

question

interchangeable parts

answer

mass production innovation

question

Ickes

answer

US petroleum administrator for war

question

Altagracia

answer

\"no sweat\" unionized manufacturer of college apparel

question

market fundamentalism

answer

neoliberalism

question

Fifty Fifty deal

answer

revenue split between the seven sisters and host governments

question

global federalism

answer

term used by Veseth to describe global governance

question

Plaza

answer

1985 managed devaluation of the dollar

question

concessions

answer

right to natural resources

question

Golden straight jacket

answer

term for nations deep integration into the global economy

question

securitization

answer

transforming illiquid assets into trad-able securities

question

structural adjustments

answer

free market reforms pushed by the IMF and the world bank

question

Dengxiaoping

answer

Chinese market reformer

question

OPEC

answer

organization of petroleum producers

question

Five Star

answer

Chinese factory designed for international monitors

question

TPS

answer

pioneering system for lean manufacturing

question

Anglo-Iranian

answer

British oil company in Iran

question

Occidental

answer

US independent oil company squeezed by Libya

question

Gini coefficient

answer

inequality measurement

question

Golden Gimmick

answer

Foreign tax credit for US oil companies

question

Mossadegh

answer

Iranian nationalist leader

question

subprime

answer

risky home mortgages

question

chimerica

answer

state of mutual dependence between the US and China

question

Pull Production

answer

Wal-Mart model of capitalism

question

Guangdong

answer

Chinese manufacturing center

question

King Abd al-Aziz Ibnsaud

answer

founder of the modern Saudi Arabia

question

Brady plan

answer

third world debt renegotiation

question

fordism

answer

mass production and mass consumption

question

Purchasing power parity

answer

income and poverty measurement

question

Volcker

answer

US Federal reserve chairman 1980's

question

Qaddafi

answer

Libyan and OPEC leader

question

East Asia

answer

Region that experienced an export manufacturing \"miracle\"

question

Summers

answer

Powerful treasury official under Clinton administration

question

Mundell Trilemma

answer

constraints imposed by globalization on all nations

question

Bove

answer

French farmer who protested against McDonald's

question

Rome

answer

Anti soccer sports personality

question

Centcom

answer

US military command responsible for the Middle East

question

Tina

answer

margaret thatchers motto

question

Wallach

answer

leader of Public Citizen's Global Trade Watch

question

Garmeen

answer

Micro lender in Bangladesh

question

Seattle

answer

city where 1999 anti WTO protests took place

question

Yamani

answer

Saudi Arabian oil minister

question

Ali

answer

American boxer who became global celebrity

question

ITT

answer

US MNC that worked with CIA to overthrow Chilean president

question

Gifford

answer

Subject of sweatshop scandal

question

Ghawar

answer

Saudi Arabian oil field

question

Suez

answer

1956 middle East crisis

question

WTO

answer

organization that replaced GATT in 1995

question

Aramco

answer

Consortium of US oil companies in Saudi Arabia

question

Nasser

answer

Egyptian leader

STUDY

18th And 19th Centuries Among Other Things Introductory Sociology Sociology William Graham Sumner

Sociology 101 Midterm 70 terms

Kenneth Miller

70 terms

Preview

Sociology 101 Midterm

question

Chapter 1 The fundamental principle or lesson of sociology is that

answer

the social context shapes what people do and think

question

Chapter 1 Sociologists believe that persistent problems in the U.S. are

answer

embedded in society

question

Chapter 1 In Durkheim's view of society, people come to believe what society expects them to believe because

answer

they internalize the existence of society in their minds.

question

Chapter 1 According to Marx, the beliefs of the common people tend to support the interests of the capitalist system, not the workers themselves. This is because

answer

the capitalist class control the production of ideas

question

Chapter 1 Applying the _____means that one has the ability to see the societal patterns that influence individual and group life

answer

sociological perspective

question

Chapter 1 A fundamental concept for using one's sociological imagination is the distinction that Mills made between

answer

troubles and issues

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Chapter 1 Which of the following was not a condition that led to the development of sociology?

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the increasingly important role of religion

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Chapter 1 According to the text, a significant difference between the early American sociologists and their European counterparts was that the American sociologists were more _____.

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practical

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Chapter 1 The type of applied sociological thinking that focused on how society shaped the mind and identity of people was called _____.

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the Chicago School

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Chapter 1 Sociology is a/n _____ discipline, meaning the conclusions are based on systematic observations.

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empirical

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Chapter 2 How does language influence patterns of social inequality?

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Language may produce inequalities through stereotypes and assumptions that may be built into what people say.

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Chapter 2 Which of the following is an example of non-material culture?

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table manners

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Chapter 2 People generally follow norms for behavior because

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they have learned and internalized the common expectations for behavior.

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Chapter 2 The strength or seriousness of social sanctions is (negative punishment)

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generally lighter for violations of folkways than violations of mores.

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Chapter 2 The theoretical perspective that examines how culture creates group identity from diverse cultural meanings is _____.

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symbolic interaction

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Chapter 2 The complex system that includes a group's beliefs, values, dress, and way of life, is called

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culture

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Chapter 2 Why are norms such an important element of culture?

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Without norms society would be chaotic.

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Chapter 2 The invention of subways and trains illustrates which cause of social change?

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innovation

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Chapter 2 In every society, the dominant culture is

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the culture of the most powerful group.

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Chapter 2 Puerto Ricans in New York and the Amish are examples of __________.

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subculture

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Chapter 3 Compared to survey research, participant observation creates a greater risk that

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the researcher may be subjective in their interpretations.

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Chapter 3 A study of how women are depicted in advertisements is an example of what method?

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content analysis

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Chapter 3 Asking your roommates to answer a survey you designed for your sociology class is problematic because:

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they are not randomly selected.

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Chapter 3 To study the difference in academic achievement between male and female athletes, one might look at rates of graduation among university students involved in sports. This is an example of _____ research.

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quantitative

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Chapter 3 Which of the following is not a step in the scientific research process?

answer

finding funding for the research

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Chapter 3 You eat everyday in the same cafeteria on campus and notice that everyone seems to sit with the same group of people whenever they come to eat. You notice that people seem to be sitting with others who share traits such as race or gender, and you decide to explore if this is the case. What kind of reasoning does this involve?

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inductive reasoning

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Chapter 3 Qualitative research is based on

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interpretive observations

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Chapter 3 A student's grades are not an accurate reflection of the student's intelligence. Therefore a student's grades lack _____ in a study of intelligence.

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validity

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Chapter 3 If the research conclusions may be generalized to a broader population, what does that mean?

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The findings from the sample can be applied to the population.

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Chapter 3 A student is given the same survey three times, each time sitting alone in a room. The student's results on the survey are different each time. This is an indication that the survey

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is not reliable.

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Chapter 4 Molly wants to be a nurse. During college she volunteers at the local hospital. This is an example of:

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anticipatory socialization.

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Chapter 4 Social scientists and others debate whether humanness is naturally occurring or socially created. This is called the ______ debate.

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nature - nurture

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Chapter 4 _____ are the expected behaviors associated with a given status in society.

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Roles

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Chapter 4 Which of the following is not evidence that socialization serves as a form of social control?

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Social control eliminates individuality.

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Chapter 4 Sociologists believe that socialization

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is not uniform; no two people have exactly the same experience.

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Chapter 4 Albert likes to play catch with his brother, but he cannot understand the complete game of baseball. Albert is likely in which of Mead's stages?

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play

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Chapter 4 According to Charles Horton Cooley, the self is formed as we

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respond to the expectations that others have of us.

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Chapter 4 Although the process of socialization promotes conformity, individual are also shaped by resistance to conformity and to oppression. This is an argument of _____.

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conflict theory

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Chapter 4 According to _____, society maintains its stability through socialization.

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functionalism

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Chapter 4 Through the process of socialization we do all of the following, except

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experience diversity

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Chapter 5 Functionalist theorists contend that social institutions

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assure the stability and continuance of society.

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Chapter 5 Which of the following is likely not an example of one's master status?

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height

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Chapter 5 A medical doctor and a judge are examples of _____.

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achieved statuses

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Chapter 5 Students are expected to spend a lot of time on their studies, but students are also increasingly expected to perform some sort of volunteer work and to socialize in their residence halls. The result is

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role strain.

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Chapter 5 Which of the following is not a social institution?

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Religion Family **Friends** Education

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Chapter 5 From the perspective of conflict theorists, social institutions

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provide for some members of society more than for others.

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Chapter 5 The type of social solidarity that exists in the United States and other industrialized societies is _____ solidarity.

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organic

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Chapter 5 Using impression management, individuals

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present different "selves" to others, depending on the situation.

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Chapter 5 Which of these would interest a sociologist who prefers macroanalysis of social interaction?

answer

how laws governing family leave have affected families in the U.S.

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Chapter 6 AARP and the NAACP are examples of _____ organizations.

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normative

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Chapter 6 What was the outcome of the classic prison simulation done by Zimbardo and his associates?

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Without being told to do so, students playing the role of guards behaved sadistically toward the students in the role of prisoners.

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Chapter 5 A student who admires her basketball coach and plans to become a coach herself is an example of _____.

answer

role modeling

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Chapter 6 _____ are small and intimate; _____ are larger and short-lived.

answer

Primary groups; secondary groups

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Chapter 6 As _____, trends in risk-taking are amplified.

answer

groups become larger.

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Chapter 6 Which perspective is most likely to focus on the fact that individuals experience stress and alienation as a result of being subordinated within a formal organization?

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conflict theory

question

Chapter 6 Considering oneself as part of "people like us" is an example of being part of _____.

answer

an in-group

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Chapter 6 Individuals often join _____ organizations for monetary reasons.

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utilitarian

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Chapter 6 By definition, groups must be at least _____ people.

answer

question

Chapter 6 According to Ouchi's theory of organizations, increased interaction between superiors and subordinates on a primary group basis reduces organizational dysfunctions. This is a type of _____.

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symbolic interaction theory

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Chapter 6 Which of the following does not illustrate a common type of attribution error?

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All of these are illustrations of attribution error.

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Chapter 7 A high school student acts bored in class and the teacher decides she is a bad student. This teacher discusses the student with other teachers who then treat that student as if she were a bad student. This describes the process of _____.

answer

labeling

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Chapter 7 If a sociologist considered tattoos a form of deviance, they would categorize it as a type of ______ deviance.

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informal

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Chapter 7 Differential association theory explains deviance by

answer

question

Chapter 7 A soldier who kills in battle is not considered deviant, but a murderer is. This illustrates the point that

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whether or not behavior is considered deviant depends on the context.

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Chapter 7 The Ku Klux Klan and Neo-Nazis are both examples of which type of structural strain?

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rebellion

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Chapter 7 Anomie, as defined by Durkheim, is frequently referred to as a state of

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relative normlessness caused by the breakdown of social influences.

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Chapter 7 The sociological definition of social deviance

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stresses social context, not individual behavior.

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Chapter 7 According to Durkheim, why do societies actually need deviance?

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in order to recognize normal behavior

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Chapter 7 When labeling theory and conflict theory are linked they explain

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why members of oppressed groups are more likely to be incarcerated or institutionalized.

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Chapter 7 The recommended solution for alcoholism usually includes some type of treatment and possibly hospitalization. In contrast, the use of crack cocaine is legally punished. The difference may be explained by the fact that alcoholism has been ______ and crack cocaine use has not.

answer

medicalized

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Among Other Things AP Government Council Manager Form Council Manager Form Of Government Government Regulation Of The Economy Political Science

Texas Gov (Exam 2) Ch. 3-5 – Flashcards 50 terms

Claire Scott

50 terms

Preview

Texas Gov (Exam 2) Ch. 3-5 – Flashcards

question

What is Dillon's rule?

answer

A local government should only have those powers expressly granted by the state.

question

What is the minimum population requirement in Texas for becoming a city?

answer

201

question

Texas communities with a population of less than 5,000 may become what kind of city?

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General-law city

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Texas communities with a population over 5,000 may become what kind of city?

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Home-rule city

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What is the main advantage that a home-rule city has over a general-law city?

answer

Greater flexibility in its organization and operation

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What form of government influences the daily lives of citizens the most?

answer

Municipal government

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What is an initiative?

answer

A proposed law arising from a citizen petition.

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In Texas home-rule cities, which form of municipal structure prevails?

answer

Council-manager form

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Is a mayor with power to veto council actions a characteristic of the council-manager form of government?

answer

question

What is the role of political parties in Texas municipal elections?

answer

Political parties have no formal involvement in these nonpartisan elections

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Historically, at-large elections in Texas cities have resulted in what?

answer

Less diversity of representation

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What are the two largest tax sources for Texas municipalities?

answer

Sales tax and property tax

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Under the Texas Constitution, what local governments are administrative arms of the state?

answer

Counties

question

How many counties are there in Texas?

answer

254

question

N/A

answer

N/A

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Which county official has both administrative and judicial responsibilities?

answer

County judge

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Who is responsible for keeping the peace in each county?

answer

County sheriff

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Which county official is responsible for collecting vehicle registration fees and registering voters?

answer

County tax assessor-collector

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Which county official is responsible for record-keeping and conducting elections?

answer

County clerk

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Are congressional districts considered special districts?

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No/ Is not

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What segment of Texas higher education receives support from property taxes?

answer

Junior and community collges

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Define political party

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An organization of individuals/ Interested in controlling government/ By winning elections

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In Texas, what are the two leading political parties?

answer

Democratic and Republicans

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When is a general election held?

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November of even-numbered years

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The American political party system consists of what levels?

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National, state, county, and precinct levels.

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When are the primary elections in Texas usually held?

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March of even-numbered years

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What is the lowest level of the temporary party organizations in Texas?

answer

Precinct conventions

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Who is nominated at a party's precinct convention?

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Delegates to the county convention

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Describe the usual attendance level at precinct conventions in Texas.

answer

Lightly or sparsely attended

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Where are the resolutions adopted at the precinct convention submitted first?

answer

County or district convention

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What is the main business of county and district conventions?

answer

Select delegates to the state convention

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What happens at the party state convention during presidential election years only?

answer

Select potential presidential electors.

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The number of electoral voters each state receives is equal to what?

answer

The number of seats each state has in Congress.

question

As mandated by Texas state law, how much each party's state executive committee be comprised?

answer

Be composed equally of men and women

question

Concerning the "left-right" political divide in Texas, what term would most likely describe a politician that is generally opposed to government-managed or government-subsidized programs?

answer

Conserative

question

Since the 1930's what terms have meant more to many Texas voters than the names of political parties?

answer

Liberal and Conservative

question

The history of the Texas political party system has tended toward what?

answer

Texas being a one-party state

question

After Reconstruction, what political party dominated in Texas for more than 100 years?

answer

Democratic

question

What Texas governor was successful at the Republican Party's candidate for President in 2000?

answer

George Bush

question

In what case did the Supreme Court overturn a ban on unlimited independent expenditures made by corporations, unions, and nonprofit organizations in federal elections?

answer

In Citizens United vs Federal Election Commission (2010)

question

What did Raza Unida lose political effectiveness?

answer

because The Texas Democratic Party has adopted issues appealing to Hispanic voters

question

What percent of Texas's African Americans citizens say that they are Democrats?

answer

80%

question

For most Texans, their principal political activity consists of what?

answer

Voting in elections

question

What is gerrymandering?

answer

Manipulating legislative district lines to favor a political party or group.

question

In Texas, who has the responsibility or redistricting?

answer

State legislature

question

What was the purpose of the so called "motor-voter law"

answer

To expand the voting registering process

question

Compared to the rest of the country, voter turnout in Texas is higher or lower than the national average?

answer

Lower

question

Of the various socioeconomic factors that influence voter turnout, what is considered the strongest?

answer

Education

question

What is the purpose of primary election?

answer

To select candidates to run for public office

question

What size vote is necessary for a candidate to win a general election?

answer

Plurality

STUDY

Among Other Things AP World History Sub Saharan Africa

AP World History – Ch. 8 vocab – Flashcards 17 terms

Steven Colyer

17 terms

Preview

AP World History – Ch. 8 vocab – Flashcards

question

stateless societies

answer

African societies organized around kinship or other forms or obligation and lacking the concentration of political power and authority associated with states

question

Ifriqiya

answer

the Arabic term for western north Africa

question

Almohadis

answer

A reformist movement among the Islamic Berbers of northern Africa; later than the Almoravids; penetrated into sub-saharan Africa

question

Sundiata (sunjata)

answer

the "Lion Prince"; a member of the Keita clan; created a unified state that became the Mali Empire; died about 1260

question

griots

answer

professional oral historians who served as keepers of traditions and advisors to kings within the Mali empire

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Ibn Batua (b. 1304)

answer

Arab traveler who described African societies and cultures in his travel records

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Timbuktu

answer

port city of Mali; located just off the flood plain on the great bend in the Niger Rivers population of 50m000; contained a library and a university

question

Songhay

answer

successor state to Mali; dominated middle reaches of Nigher Valley; formed an independent kingdom under a Berber dynasty capital at Gao; reached imperial status under Sumi Ai (1464-1492)?

question

Hausa

answer

people of northern Nigeria; formed states following the demise of Songhay Empire that combined Muslim & Pagan traditions

question

Muhammad the Great

answer

Extended the boundaries of the Songhay Empire; Islamic ruler of the mid-16th century

question

Sharia

answer

Islamic law; defined among other things the patrilineal nature of Islamic inheritance

question

demography

answer

the study of population

question

demographic transition

answer

shift to low birthrate, low infant death rate, stable population; first emerged in western Europe and U.S. in late 19th century

question

Zanj

answer

Arabic term for the east African coast

question

Benin

answer

powerful city-state (in present day Nigeria) which came into contact with the Portuguese in 1485 but remained relatively free of European influence; important comm. and political entity until 19th century

question

Kongo

answer

kingdom, based on agriculture, formed on lower Congo River by late 15th century; capital @ Mbanza Kongo, ruled by hereditary monarchy

question

Great Zimbabwe

answer

Bantu confederation of Shona-speaking peoples located between Zambezi adn Limpopo rivers, developed after 9th century, featured royal courts, built of stone; created centralized state by 15th century; king took title of Mwene Mutapa

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