Major alcohol withdrawal symptoms can develop within as short time as 7 consecutive weeks of heavy drinking.

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ch. 15 review – Flashcards 35 terms

Tilly Wilkinson

35 terms

Preview

ch. 15 review – Flashcards

question

Most of the resin is in which part of the cannabis plant? A. distributed throughout. B. leaves. C. stems. D. flowering tops.

answer

D. flowering tops.

question

Cannabis indica seems to have more psychoactive potency, whereas Cannabis sativa is more associated with A. pain relief. B. bad trips. C. hemp. D. making grain alcohol.

answer

C. hemp.

question

The primary active ingredient in marijuana is A. delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol (THC). B. psilocybin. C. phencyclidine. D. muscimol.

answer

A. delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol (THC).

question

Hashish refers to A. low-grade marijuana made from leaves. B. a mixture of marijuana and opium. C. pure cannabis resin. D. any smokable form of cannabis.

answer

C. pure cannabis resin.

question

The flowering tops (buds) of unpollinated female cannabis plants are referred to in the text as A. hashish. B. hemp. C. sativa. D. sinsemilla.

answer

D. sinsemilla.

question

Marco Polo first introduced Europe to stories of the "hashishiyya," from which the word _______________ seems to have developed. A. has-been B. sheesh C. assassin D. hatchet

answer

C. assassin

question

The American public began to take interest in the new drug menace known as marijuana A. after a New Orleans newspaper in 1926 associated its use with crime. B. after the 1937 movie "Reefer Madness." C. after World War II. D. when hippies began using it widely in the 1960s.

answer

A. after a New Orleans newspaper in 1926 associated its use with crime.

question

Which of the following is NOT true about the Marijuana Tax Act of 1937? A. It taxed the growers and distributors. B. It taxed the buyers and the sellers. C. It did not outlaw Cannabis. D. It made C. sativa illegal.

answer

C. It did not outlaw Cannabis.

question

The Marijuana Tax Act, the first federal law regulating cannabis, was passed in A. 1906. B. 1914. C. 1937. D. 1965.

answer

C. 1937.

question

The 1944 LaGuardia report of the New York Academy of Medicine concluded that "those who have been smoking marihuana for a period of years . . ." A. were unable to function as productive members of society. B. showed no mental or physical deterioration. C. were almost never drunkards. D. showed a high rate of primary impotence.

answer

B. showed no mental or physical deterioration.

question

The 70 chemicals that are known to be unique to the cannabis plant are called A. cannabinoids. B. THIQs. C. opioids. D. butyrates.

answer

A. cannabinoids.

question

The natural substance in the body that has marijuana-like effects is called A. cannabinum. B. ayahuasca. C. bufotenin. D. anandamide.

answer

D. anandamide.

question

In a study of heart rate changes following smoked marijuana with 4 percent THC or 20 mg oral THC. A. the heart rate increased much more after oral THC. B. the peak effects were similar, but smoking produced effects much sooner. C. smoked THC increased heart rate, but oral THC had no effect. D. heart rates remained elevated for up to three days after smoking marijuana.

answer

B. the peak effects were similar, but smoking produced effects much sooner.

question

The abuse potential of THC A. seems to be very low. B. is higher for smoked than for oral THC. C. is higher for oral than for smoked THC. D. is very high regardless of how it is consumed.

answer

B. is higher for smoked than for oral THC.

question

A consistent cognitive effect of marijuana, seen both in frequent users and in less experienced users, is A. slowing of cognitive processing. B. improved ability to focus attention for a long time. C. impaired inhibitory control. D. personality changes.

answer

A. slowing of cognitive processing.

question

A great number of studies have consistently reported that smoked marijuana and oral THC both produce A. permanent impairments in short-term memory. B. lung cancer. C. reduced immunity to diseases. D. increased total daily food intake.

answer

D. increased total daily food intake.

question

Studies show that marijuana increases which of the following? A. Verbal exchanges. B. Nonverbal social interactions. C. Nausea and vomiting. D. Empathy.

answer

B. Nonverbal social interactions.

question

In 1985, the FDA approved the sale of dronabinol (Marinol), which A. is a cannabis antagonist. B. is an effective treatment for cannabis dependence. C. is a capsule containing THC. D. reduces appetite.

answer

C. is a capsule containing THC.

question

The 1999 report from the Institute of Medicine suggested that marijuana cigarettes should A. never be made available for medical uses. B. be available for long-term use for a variety of purposes. C. only be used to treat glaucoma. D. be allowed for no more than six months for patients with intractable pain or vomiting.

answer

D. be allowed for no more than six months for patients with intractable pain or vomiting.

question

Tolerance to the effects of smoked marijuana A. allows experienced marijuana users to obtain euphoric effects with minimal cognitive impairment. B. has not been reliably found for any of marijuana's effects. C. is so powerful that chronic users must smoke more and more to attain less and less euphoria. D. is very rapid, such that it is almost impossible to get high again within a few days after smoking.

answer

A. allows experienced marijuana users to obtain euphoric effects with minimal cognitive impairment.

question

Studies of the effects of marijuana on automobile driving show A. consistent impairment in experienced and inexperienced users. B. no reliable impairment under a variety of circumstances. C. that chronic marijuana users have a much higher rate of traffic accidents. D. significant impairments when inexperienced users are studied in a laboratory environment.

answer

D. significant impairments when inexperienced users are studied in a laboratory environment.

question

One major behavioral problem that is seen in acute marijuana intoxication is: A. amotivational syndrome. B. panic reactions. C. anger and violence. D. blackouts.

answer

B. panic reactions.

question

Which of the following has NOT been found as an effect of regular marijuana use? A. Decreased testosterone levels in men. B. Decreased sperm counts in men. C. Increased testosterone levels in men. D. Increased heart rate in men and women.

answer

C. Increased testosterone levels in men.

question

Which of the following did NOT occur in the late 1960s and throughout the1970s in the United States? A. Young people began to distrust the government's messages about marijuana B. Grassroots groups such as NORML advocated for changes in laws. C. The American Medical Association recommended the decriminalization of marijuana for personal use. D. Marijuana use among high school students reached an all-time low.

answer

D. Marijuana use among high school students reached an all-time low.

question

The current shift in the U.S. public's attitude towards marijuana laws is probably partly related to which of the following? A. Increasing evidence that marijuana is relatively innocuous. B. Increased use of marijuana among young people. C. A desire to spend federal funds more wisely and gain tax revenue. D. A and C.

answer

D. A and C.

question

Cannabis sativa is grown primarily for its psychoactive resins. True False

answer

False

question

The primary active ingredient in marijuana is delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol (THC). True False

answer

True

question

The Marijuana Tax Act, the first federal law regulating cannabis, was passed in 1937. True False

answer

True

question

The natural substance found in the body that has marijuana-like effects is called ayahuasca. True False

answer

False

question

It is a common misperception that marijuana smokers get "the munchies" and eat more, but laboratory studies have not supported this idea. True False

answer

False

question

Dronabinol, THC in a capsule, is legally available for prescription by physicians. True False

answer

True

question

The 1999 report from the Institute of Medicine said that marijuana cigarettes should be made available to any medical patient on the recommendation of a physician. True False

answer

False

question

Laboratory studies have not been able to document impaired driving performance after smoking marijuana. True False

answer

False

question

Panic reactions can be a common reaction in marijuana smokers. True False

answer

True

question

Although regular marijuana smokers often show a slowing of cognitive processing, evidence for negative acute cognitive effects is less dramatic than it is for infrequent users. True False

answer

True

STUDY

Advanced Pathophysiology Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms Central Nervous System Depressants Pharmacology

Elsevier 321 Pharm Unit 2 – Flashcards 133 terms

Patricia Harrah

133 terms

Preview

Elsevier 321 Pharm Unit 2 – Flashcards

question

Which condition contraindicates barbiturates? 1 Drug allergy 2 Cardiac disease 3 Epileptic disease 4 Narrow-angle glaucoma

answer

Drug allergy

question

The nurse notes that a patient has taken an excessive dose of baclofen. Which action does the nurse implement immediately? 1 Comfort measures 2 Seizure precautions 3 Airway maintenance 4 Antidote preparation

answer

Airway maintenance

question

A patient is admitted to the emergency department after taking an overdose of a barbiturate 15 minutes before arrival. The nurse can anticipate that which drug will be prescribed? 1 Naloxone 2 Flumazenil 3 Ipecac syrup 4 Activated charcoal

answer

Activated charcoal

question

Which medication is beneficial for reducing presurgery anxiety and decreasing the patient's ability to remember an uncomfortable medical procedure? 1 Ramelteon 2 Midazolam 3 Alprazolam 4 Eszopiclone

answer

Midazolam

question

The nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the stages of non-rapid eye movement (non-REM) sleep. Which is the third stage of sleep? 1 Dozing 2 Relaxation 3 Deep sleep 4 Sleepwalking

answer

Deep sleep

question

A patient is scheduled for a brief surgical procedure. Which drug does the nurse expect to be used during surgery? 1 Thiopental 2 Butabarbital 3 Pentobarbital 4 Phenobarbital

answer

Thiopental

question

Which drug is used as an antidote for overdose of oral benzodiazepine or excessive intravenous sedation? 1 Flumazenil 2 Olanzapine 3 Furosemide 4 Activated charcoal

answer

Flumazenil

question

While assessing a patient, the nurse finds that the patient is allergic to aspirin. Which medication in the prescription does the nurse question? 1 Baclofen 2 Zaleplon 3 Diazepam 4 Pentobarbital

answer

Zaleplon - If a patient is allergic to aspirin, there is a possibility that the patient is allergic to nonbenzodiazepines such as zaleplon, too.

question

A patient with epilepsy is prescribed barbiturates. On further assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has depression. What classes of antidepressants does the nurse expect the primary health care provider to avoid when prescribing to this patient? Select all that apply. 1 Tricyclic antidepressant 2 Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) 3 Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) 4 Reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor (RMAOI) 5 Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)

answer

Tricyclic antidepressant Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) Reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor (RMAOI) - Tricyclic antidepressants, MAOIs, and RMAOIs interact with barbiturates. These drugs increase the activity of barbiturates and may lead to severe central nervous system depression.

question

A patient is brought to the trauma care unit for administration of activated charcoal via a nasogastric tube every 4 hours. What may be the reason for this? 1 The patient is experiencing a barbiturate overdose. 2 The patient is experiencing benzodiazepine toxicity. 3 The patient is experiencing a muscle relaxant overdose. 4 The patient was administered azole along with benzodiazepine.

answer

question

While teaching about a medication regimen, the nurse advises the patient to take the medication no later than midnight and at least 4 hours before the patient usually awakens. Which drug has been prescribed to the patient? 1 Zaleplon 2 Zolpidem 3 Diazepam 4 Midazolam

answer

Zaleplon

question

The nurse is assessing a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is prescribed amphetamine aspartate. The nurse instructs the parent to give medications 5 to 6 hours before bed. Why did the nurse give this instruction? 1 To prevent insomnia 2 To prevent gastric ulcer 3 To prevent hyperglycemia 4 To prevent nutrition deficiency

answer

To prevent insomnia

question

Which adverse effect does the nurse anticipate in a patient who uses analeptics at high doses? 1 Diarrhea 2 Reflex bradycardia 3 Decreased respiratory rate 4 Increased deep tendon reflexes

answer

Diarrhea

question

A patient is diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which drug is suitable for treatment of this disorder? 1 Orlistat 2 Doxapram 3 Sumatriptan 4 Atomoxetine

answer

Atomoxetine

question

A 7-year-old child is highly impulsive and has not been attentive in school for the last 2 months. The child's parents are worried about the child's behavior. What will the nurse inform the child's parents? 1 "This is the normal behavior of a 7-year-old child." 2 "You should consult a child psychiatrist immediately." 3 "Your child has attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)." 4 "You should continue to observe the child's behavior for 4 months."

answer

"You should continue to observe the child's behavior for 4 months."

question

The nurse prepares to collect the health history of a patient with narcolepsy. Which strategy should be used to complete this assessment? 1 Provide a structured form for the patient to complete in writing. 2 Seek information from significant others rather than the patient. 3 Use the patient's past medical records to locate important information. 4 Use short, focused interview sessions with active participation by the patient.

answer

Use short, focused interview sessions with active participation by the patient.

question

Which drug is used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? 1 Orlistat 2 Modafinil 3 Sumatriptan 4 Dextroamphetamine

answer

Dextroamphetamine

question

While caring for a patient, the nurse learns that the patient has dysfunctional rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. This finding is a symptom of which condition? 1 Diplopia 2 Glaucoma 3 Narcolepsy 4 Migraine headache

answer

Narcolepsy

question

A patient is diagnosed with narcolepsy. Which symptom does the nurse expect to find in the patient? 1 Hyperactivity 2 Pulsating headache 3 Skeletal muscle weakness 4 High body mass index (BMI)

answer

Skeletal muscle weakness

question

Which is an adverse effect of orlistat therapy? 1 Mania 2 Diarrhea 3 Fecal incontinence 4 Foul taste in the mouth

answer

Fecal incontinence - Orlistat is a drug used in the treatment of obesity. A common adverse effect of orlistat is gastrointestinal distress, which causes fecal incontinence and oily stools.

question

Which characteristic of amphetamines is the most likely reason that these drugs are abused? 1 They induce euphoria. 2 They increase energy. 3 They induce wakefulness. 4 They promote industriousness.

answer

They induce euphoria.

question

Which drug is most commonly used for the treatment of a spinal headache? 1 Caffeine 2 Modafinil 3 Sumatriptan 4 Atomoxetine

answer

Caffeine - Caffeine is a xanthine cerebral stimulant used to treat spinal headache. It acts by antagonizing the purine receptors.

question

The nurse is teaching a new nurse about medication administration for patients with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which statement by the new nurse indicates understanding of the teaching? 1 "I may dispense these medications to nursing staff if needed." 2 "I will give these drugs 30 to 45 minutes before meals to improve absorption." 3 "It is permissible to crush extended-release medications for patients who have difficulty swallowing pills." 4 "If I notice side effects of these medications, I should stop giving the drug immediately and notify the provider."

answer

"I will give these drugs 30 to 45 minutes before meals to improve absorption."

question

The nurse is assessing a patient who is obese. After reviewing the prescription the nurse instructs the patient to take the medication in the morning and avoid taking the medication before going to bed. Which drug is this patient taking? 1 Morphine 2 Diazepam 3 Phentermine 4 Phenobarbitone

answer

Phentermine

question

Which patients who have which conditions are contraindicated for anorexiant therapy? Select all that apply. 1 Patients who have glaucoma 2 Patients who have hypotension 3 Patients who have drug allergies 4 Patients who have hypothyroidism 5 Patients who have bulimia nervosa

answer

Patients who have glaucoma Patients who have drug allergies Patients who have bulimia nervosa

question

What is the dose regimen of methylphenidate (Ritalin) for a 6-year-old child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? 1 20 mg after lunch 2 120 mg at each meal 3 50 mg as a single dose 4 5 mg before breakfast and lunch

answer

5 mg before breakfast and lunch

question

Which is the primary action site for serotonin agonists? 1 Cerebral cortex 2 Medulla and brainstem 3 Cerebrovascular system 4 Hypothalamic and limbic regions

answer

Cerebrovascular system

question

The nurse explains to a patient using caffeine that which disease process/condition may be exacerbated by this drug? 1 Heart block 2 Constipation 3 Myelin degeneration 4 Cardiac dysrhythmias

answer

Cardiac dysrhythmias

question

Which drug should be used with caution with the herbal drug ginseng to prevent possible drug interactions? 1 Aspirin 2 Warfarin 3 Metformin 4 Disulfiram

answer

Metformin

question

Which class of drugs is prescribed for a patient who is obese to promote weight reduction? 1 Ergot alkaloids 2 Lipase inhibitors 3 Serotonin receptor agonists 4 Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

answer

Lipase inhibitors

question

The patient's serum phenytoin level is 31 mcg/mL. What is the appropriate nursing action? 1 Hold the medication. 2 Increase the medication dose. 3 Administer the medication intravenously. 4 Have the patient continue the current regimen.

answer

Hold the medication. - A therapeutic drug level for phenytoin is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. The nurse should hold the medication and then call the health care provider.

question

A patient receiving lamotrigine therapy has started using oral contraceptives. What is essential for the nurse to teach the patient? 1 "This combination may cause liver toxicity." 2 "With oral contraceptive use, you may need more lamotrigine." 3 "This medication may stop your oral contraceptive from working." 4 "This medication, together with oral contraceptives, may cause toxicity."

answer

"With oral contraceptive use, you may need more lamotrigine." - When given with oral contraceptives, lamotrigine [1] [2] may need an increased dose to be effective because the oral contraceptives also compete for the CYP450 enzyme pathway.

question

What is appropriate information for the nurse to give the patient who is taking an antiepileptic drug with a narrow therapeutic index? 1 Take the medication every other day. 2 Keep the medication with you at all times. 3 Make certain the drug is taken at the same time daily. 4 Crush the drug and put it in applesauce for better absorption.

answer

Make certain the drug is taken at the same time daily.

question

What is the appropriate way for the nurse to prepare a dosage of a suspension medication for a pediatric patient? 1 Pour it into a teaspoon 2 Draw it up in an oral syringe 3 Pour it into a medication cup 4 Pour the suspension without shaking

answer

Draw it up in an oral syringe

question

A patient is receiving carbamazepine to treat trigeminal neuralgia. What assessment indicates a therapeutic response to the medication? 1 The patient states no facial pain. 2 The patient states she is able to walk. 3 The patient has a reduction in foot pain. 4 The patient states they have no dizziness.

answer

The patient states no facial pain.

question

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been started on antiepileptic drug therapy for seizures. What information should be included in the teaching plan for the patient? 1 Alter drug therapy based on normal meal times. 2 If there are side effects of therapy, stop the drug. 3 Take the medication at the same time each day. 4 If this medication is not effective, another drug will be added.

answer

Take the medication at the same time each day.

question

Which intervention will best maintain therapeutic levels of an antiepileptic drug? 1 Give the medication every 8 hours. 2 Administer the medication intravenously. 3 Administer the medication only during the day. 4 Establish a drug regimen based on the half-life of the medication.

answer

Establish a drug regimen based on the half-life of the medication.

question

Which patient should the nurse assess first? 1 The patient taking valproic acid with an increased appetite. 2 The patient taking carbamazepine who has bruises on his arms. 3 The patient taking carbamazepine who is not oriented to place or time. 4 The patient taking valproic acid who has lost 2 pounds since starting therapy.

answer

The patient taking carbamazepine who is not oriented to place or time. - Any patient who is not oriented has a potential risk to his safety. The patient who is not oriented and taking carbamazepine could be experiencing adverse effects of therapy. This is the patient the nurse should assess first.

question

Which patient is most likely to have toxic effects of antiepileptic therapy? 1 The patient with a primidone level of 10 mcg/mL 2 The patient with a phenobarbital level of 8 mcg/mL 3 The patient with a valproic acid level of 50 mcg/mL 4 The patient with a carbamazepine level of 15 mcg/mL

answer

The patient with a carbamazepine level of 15 mcg/mL - The only value listed that is above therapeutic plasma levels is the carbamazepine, which has a therapeutic range of 4 to 12 mcg/mL; this patient is most likely to have toxic effects of therapy.

question

A patient is receiving phenobarbital. What information is essential to include in the discharge teaching plan? Select all that apply. 1 "This medication may cause confusion." 2 "Checkups with a cardiologist are essential." 3 "Respiratory assessments should be performed daily." 4 "Good dental care is essential while on this medication." 5 "Don't drive until you determine how the medication affects you."

answer

"This medication may cause confusion." "Good dental care is essential while on this medication." "Don't drive until you determine how the medication affects you." - The most common adverse effects are lethargy and cognitive changes as well as gingival hyperplasia. Confusion can be a result of this therapy. Good dental care is essential because the medication can cause gingival hyperplasia. The patient should evaluate how the drug affects him before driving.

question

The nurse is caring for a patient with a phenytoin level of 12 mcg/mL. What is the nurse's best action? 1 Continue to monitor the patient on this medication. 2 Assess liver function tests for clearance of the drug. 3 Call the health care provider for a decrease in the daily dose. 4 Call the health care provider for an increase in the daily dose.

answer

Continue to monitor the patient on this medication.

question

The nurse instructs a patient receiving phenytoin to visit the dentist regularly and perform frequent oral hygiene. What side effect will these interventions assist in preventing? 1 Oral candidiasis 2 Gingival hyperplasia 3 Increased risk of dental abscesses 4 Increased incidence of dental caries

answer

Gingival hyperplasia

question

What is the goal of antiepileptic therapy? 1 Reducing seizure occurrence to one per week. 2 Maximizing drug dosages to control seizure activity. 3 Maximally reducing seizure activity while minimizing side effects of medication therapy. 4 Eradicating all seizure activity and then weaning off medication once the patient is seizure-free for 3 months.

answer

Maximally reducing seizure activity while minimizing side effects of medication therapy.

question

The patient was started on an antiepileptic medication 6 weeks ago. The nurse notes that the patient's blood level of the medication is very low after 6 weeks of therapy. How will the nurse interpret this result? 1 The patient has received a toxic amount of the drug. 2 The patient should be placed on a different medication. 3 The patient may not be taking the medication as ordered. 4 The patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to the drug.

answer

The patient may not be taking the medication as ordered.

question

The nurse is teaching a patient about therapy for a newly diagnosed seizure disorder. What statement should the nurse include? 1 "You will only need to be on therapy for a few months." 2 "Your medication is chosen based on your type of seizure." 3 "You will be started on several drugs to control your seizures." 4 "Medication therapy is not essential to treat seizure disorders."

answer

"Your medication is chosen based on your type of seizure."

question

What is the reason for many potential drug interactions with antiepileptic drug therapy? 1 Altered urinary output 2 Altered electrolyte balances 3 Altered CYP450 enzyme metabolism 4 Alterations in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

answer

Altered CYP450 enzyme metabolism

question

What is important to teach the patient taking valproic acid for seizure management? 1 Do not take the medication with meals. 2 Take the medication every other day only. 3 Take the medication an hour before or after other medications. 4 Do not take the medication with milk or carbonated beverages.

answer

Do not take the medication with milk or carbonated beverages. - Oral forms of valproic acid are not to be given with milk, because this may cause the drug to dissolve early and irritate the mucosa. Carbonated beverages must also be avoided during the time of drug administration.

question

The health care provider has ordered once-daily phenytoin for an 8-year-old child who has a seizure disorder. The parents state the child cannot swallow pills. What intervention would the nurse recommend to the health care provider? 1 Suggest another medication be prescribed. 2 Suggest the phenytoin be administered intramuscularly. 3 Ask for a suspension form of the medication to be prescribed. 4 Ask for an intravenous form of the medication to be prescribed

answer

Ask for a suspension form of the medication to be prescribed.

question

The nurse is administering intravenous diazepam. When will the nurse expect the onset of action to occur? 1 Immediately 2 Within 1 hour 3 Within 5 minutes 4 Within 15 minutes

answer

Immediately

question

What intervention is appropriate to include in discharge teaching for a patient prescribed phenytoin therapy? 1 Perform good oral hygiene. 2 See a physical therapist for tremors. 3 Report headaches to your health care provider. 4 Report drowsiness to your health care provider.

answer

Perform good oral hygiene.

question

The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving antiepileptic drug therapy with phenytoin. What assessment finding requires immediate action? 1 Nystagmus 2 Weight gain 3 Heart rate 60 beats/min 4 Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg

answer

Nystagmus - The patient who has nystagmus may be presenting with adverse effects to phenytoin therapy and should be assessed for other signs of toxicity.

question

Which assessment is a priority for the patient starting on gabapentin therapy for a seizure disorder? 1 Cardiac assessment 2 Urologic assessment 3 Neurologic assessment 4 Respiratory assessment

answer

Neurologic assessment - Gabapentin requires a thorough neurologic assessment, including baseline energy levels, vision level, sensory and motor functioning, and any changes in speech.

question

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been taking phenytoin for the past week and has developed a rash. What is the first action the nurse should take? 1 Monitor the area. 2 Assess the patient. 3 Apply a topical steroid cream. 4 Notify the prescribing health care provider.

answer

Assess the patient.

question

A patient with a seizure disorder is taking oral phenytoin. He is nothing by mouth (NPO) for elective surgery. What is the appropriate nursing action? 1 Draw a serum phenytoin level after surgery. 2 Administer the medication immediately postoperatively. 3 Call the health care provider to clarify medication orders. 4 Administer the oral phenytoin before the patient goes to surgery.

answer

Call the health care provider to clarify medication orders.

question

What assessment indicates the patient is having a therapeutic response to valproic acid? 1 Nystagmus 2 Absence of seizures 3 Normal liver enzymes 4 Decrease in headaches

answer

Absence of seizures

question

A patient has been taking valproic acid and is being switched to another medication due to elevated liver function tests. What nursing action is appropriate? 1 Taper the valproic acid while starting the new medication. 2 Administer the new medication intravenously for fastest therapeutic action. 3 Stop the valproic acid and start the same dose of the new medication immediately. 4 Wait until the valproic acid is completely out of the patient's system before starting a new medication.

answer

Taper the valproic acid while starting the new medication.

question

A patient is admitted who has reportedly stopped taking her antiepileptic medication. What is the appropriate nursing action? 1 Assess for hypotension. 2 Assess for confusion and delirium. 3 Monitor for rebound seizure activity. 4 Monitor for acute withdrawal syndrome.

answer

Monitor for rebound seizure activity.

question

What intervention is essential before a patient starts therapy with lamotrigine? 1 Platelet count 2 Kidney function tests 3 Assessment of weight 4 Assessment of risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome

answer

Assessment of risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome

question

The nurse is administering intravenous phenytoin. When will the nurse expect the onset of the drug to occur? 1 Immediately 2 Within 5 minutes 3 Within 15 minutes 4 Within 1 to 2 hours

answer

Within 1 to 2 hours

question

What information should the nurse provide to a patient who will self-administer an antiepileptic agent for the first time at home? 1 "Do not take the medication if you have a fever." 2 "Lie in bed for at least an hour after taking your medication." 3 "Wait to see how you react to the medication before driving." 4 "Take the antiepileptic agent with milk or juice to prevent stomach upset."

answer

"Wait to see how you react to the medication before driving."

question

The nurse is administering morning medications. Which administration technique is in error? 1 The nurse administers intravenous phenytoin with a filter. 2 The nurse administers phenobarbital elixir with fruit juice. 3 The nurse administers carbamazepine with grapefruit juice. 4 The nurse administers gabapentin without checking when the patient ate.

answer

The nurse administers carbamazepine with grapefruit juice.

question

When administering phenytoin via intravenous (IV) push, which action will the nurse perform? 1 Monitor for hypertension. 2 Always use an infusion pump. 3 Administer through peripheral IV sites only. 4 Flush the line with normal saline before and after administration.

answer

Flush the line with normal saline before and after administration. - Phenytoin is very irritating to veins and incompatible with all fluids except normal saline.

question

A patient reports switching from brand-name antiepileptic drug therapy to generic drug products. What is an essential nursing intervention? 1 Call the insurance company. 2 Request a decrease in the patient's dose. 3 Request an increase in the patient's dose. 4 Monitor the patient's neurologic status closely.

answer

Monitor the patient's neurologic status closely. - Increased monitoring of the patient's neurologic status is necessary because there is concern that generic drugs may not be as effective as brand-name medications. When the patient switches preparations, the patient may have seizures if the blood level does not remain therapeutic.

question

The nurse is administering phenytoin intravenously. What interventions are essential? Select all that apply. 1 Administer using a filter. 2 Administer the medication through a large vein. 3 Administer the medication no faster than 50 mg/min. 4 Mix the medication in 5% dextrose with 0.9% saline. 5 Administer the medication through a 20-gauge or larger catheter.

answer

Administer using a filter. Administer the medication through a large vein. Administer the medication no faster than 50 mg/min. Administer the medication through a 20-gauge or larger catheter.

question

The patient asks the nurse why she is receiving a different drug than her usual phenytoin. The patient is NPO (nothing by mouth) and is receiving intravenous fosphenytoin. Which is the nurse's most accurate response? 1 "You cannot take phenytoin orally while you are NPO." 2 "You need to ask your health care provider this question." 3 "Your serum phenytoin levels were most likely not therapeutic." 4 "This is the same class of drug, but better tolerated intravenously."

answer

"This is the same class of drug, but better tolerated intravenously."

question

Which patient should receive her medication as ordered at 8 am? 1 The patient who is receiving phenobarbital and has a plasma level of 38 mcg/mL. 2 The patient who is scheduled to receive carbamazepine who was started on verapamil. 3 The patient who has been taking aspirin for a headache and is scheduled to receive valproic acid. 4 The patient who is scheduled to receive a barbiturate and was admitted after a night of drinking alcohol.

answer

The patient who is receiving phenobarbital and has a plasma level of 38 mcg/mL. - The patient who is scheduled to receive phenobarbital and has a plasma level of 38 mcg/mL is safe to receive the medication. The therapeutic range is 10 to 40 mcg/mL. Carbamazepine interacts with verapamil and can cause toxicity.

question

A patient receiving phenytoin complains of "blurred vision." What is the priority nursing action? 1 Monitor for seizure activity. 2 Assess the patient's pupils. 3 Hold the patient's medication. 4 Assess serum phenytoin levels.

answer

Assess serum phenytoin levels

question

What information should the nurse include in the care plan of a young woman who has been prescribed phenytoin? 1 "Take your blood pressure daily." 2 "Use birth control while on this medication." 3 "Do not take this medication with grapefruit juice." 4 "If your weight increases, call your health care provider."

answer

"Use birth control while on this medication." - The nurse should tell the young woman to use birth control while on the medication because an increased incidence of fetal defects occurred in those who took phenytoin while pregnant.

question

A patient receiving valproic acid should be monitored for which adverse effects? Select all that apply. 1 Dizziness 2 Pancreatitis 3 Weight gain 4 Hepatotoxicity 5 Hypoglycemia

answer

Dizziness Pancreatitis Weight gain Hepatotoxicity

question

The nurse is monitoring a patient with a phenytoin level of 8 mcg/mL. What is an appropriate nursing action? 1 Draw another drug level within the hour. 2 Hold the medication and call the health care provider. 3 Call the health care provider for an increase in dosage. 4 Document the value and continue to monitor the patient.

answer

Call the health care provider for an increase in dosage.

question

The parent of a child with a history of a seizure disorder calls into the clinic to report her child has a rash on his torso. What is the most appropriate assessment question for the nurse to ask? 1 "Has your child been outside today?" 2 "Does your child have seasonal allergies?" 3 "Has your child been around anyone who is ill?" 4 "Has your child started on any new medications lately?"

answer

"Has your child started on any new medications lately?"

question

A nurse is caring for a patient who has tonic-clonic seizures and is prescribed phenytoin therapy. What assessments should the nurse make to look for potential side effects? Select all that apply. 1 Eye exams for glaucoma 2 Changes in facial appearance 3 Assessment for increased body hair 4 Assessment for changes in the gums 5 Assessment for Stevens-Johnson syndrome

answer

Changes in facial appearance Assessment for increased body hair Assessment for changes in the gums

question

The nurse is assessing four patients who have seizures and are started on medication therapy. Which patient is receiving the correct assessment after starting medication therapy? 1 Patient starting barbiturate therapy being assessed for a rash. 2 Patient starting gabapentin therapy being assessed for anemia. 3 Patient starting iminostilbene therapy being assessed for neurologic symptoms. 4 Patient starting levetiracetam therapy being assessed for neuropsychiatric symptoms.

answer

Patient starting levetiracetam therapy being assessed for neuropsychiatric symptoms.

question

A patient was prescribed gabapentin for neuropathic pain. What information is essential to include in the patient's discharge teaching? 1 Take the medication before meals. 2 Do not drink alcohol while on this medication. 3 Take the medication with a full glass of water. 4 Stop the medication if you develop gastric upset.

answer

Do not drink alcohol while on this medication. - Gabapentin is effective as a single-drug therapy for new-onset epilepsy and is most commonly used for the treatment of neuropathic pain. It is essential to teach the patient that he should not drink alcohol while on the medication, as it contributes to neurologic depression and sleepiness.

question

A patient receiving phenytoin develops a measleslike rash. What is the appropriate nursing action? 1 Administer an antihistamine immediately. 2 Apply topical steroid cream for inflammation. 3 Instruct the patient to take oatmeal baths if it itches. 4 Stop the medication and notify the health care provider.

answer

Stop the medication and notify the health care provider. - The patient has a measleslike rash, which is an adverse effect of phenytoin. The nurse should stop administering the medication and notify the health care provider.

question

A patient is being seen at the clinic for follow-up regarding treatment for seizures. The nurse notes that the patient is diaphoretic and her hands are trembling. The patient is alert. What is the priority nursing action? 1 Document the finding and perform a neurologic assessment. 2 Question the patient regarding her state of mind during the visit. 3 Call for assistance from another health care professional in the clinic. 4 Stop the appointment and notify the health care provider of the findings.

answer

Document the finding and perform a neurologic assessment.

question

Which antiepileptic drug may cause gingival hyperplasia in patients? 1 Phenytoin 2 Gabapentin 3 Phenobarbital 4 Levetiracetam

answer

Phenytoin

question

Which action is the highest priority for a patient who is receiving antiepileptic drug therapy for the first time? 1 Weighing the patient weekly 2 Encouraging regular check-ups 3 Assessing for suicidal tendencies 4 Teaching the patient about potential side effects

answer

Assessing for suicidal tendencies

question

The patient taking carbamazepine should be instructed to avoid taking her dose with which beverage? 1 Grape juice 2 Apple juice 3 Orange juice 4 Grapefruit juice

answer

Grapefruit juice

question

A 25-year-old female patient is prescribed phenobarbital therapy for seizure control. What information is essential for the nurse to assess before discharge? 1 "Have you ever had headaches? 2 "What type of insurance do you have?" 3 "What form of birth control do you use?" 4 "How often have you been having seizures?"

answer

"What form of birth control do you use?"

question

A nurse is assessing a patient who has developed Stevens-Johnson syndrome as a result of medication therapy. What is the nurse's first intervention? 1 Hold all medications. 2 Assess for severity of rash. 3 Call the health care provider. 4 Increase the patient's fluid intake.

answer

Assess for severity of rash.

question

What is the most appropriate nursing action for a patient in status epilepticus? 1 Apply restraints. 2 Apply restraints, start and intravenous line and administer intravenous diazepam. 3 Start an intravenous line and administer intravenous diazepam. 4 Start an intravenous line and administer intravenous pain medications.

answer

Apply restraints, start and intravenous line and administer intravenous diazepam.

question

In administering barbiturate therapy for seizure disorders, what safety measures are essential for the nurse to perform? Select all that apply. 1 Assess the room for safety measures 2 A neurologic assessment before administration 3 Assess drug levels before each dose of medication 4 Assess vital signs before medication administration 5 Attach patient to electroencephalogram (EEG) monitoring before each dose of medication

answer

Assess the room for safety measures A neurologic assessment before administration Assess vital signs before medication administration

question

Which is the priority action when administering intravenous phenytoin therapy? 1 Monitor for side effects. 2 Monitor serum drug levels. 3 Flush the tubing after administration. 4 Administer by slow intravenous (IV) push.

answer

Administer by slow intravenous (IV) push. - The priority is to administer phenytoin slowly to prevent irritation to veins.

question

A patient is in status epilepticus. Which are essential nursing actions? Select all that apply. 1 Call a code. 2 Assess oxygenation. 3 Administer diazepam. 4 Sit the patient in high Fowler. 5 Turn the patient's head to the side.

answer

Assess oxygenation. Administer diazepam. Turn the patient's head to the side.

question

A patient who is postoperative neurosurgery is admitted to the intensive care unit and begins to have seizures. What is the nurse's priority action? 1 Reassure the patient. 2 Notify the family members. 3 Call the health care provider. 4 Assess for a patent intravenous line.

answer

Assess for a patent intravenous line.

question

Which phenomena does the nurse recognize as positive symptoms of schizophrenia? Select all that apply. 1 Catatonia 2 Delusions 3 Hallucinations 4 Poverty of speech 5 Social withdrawal 6 Conceptual disorganization

answer

Delusions Hallucinations Conceptual disorganization

question

Which activity should the patient be cautioned to avoid while taking a monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor? 1 Eating aged cheese 2 Sunbathing at the pool 3 Participating in a bowling league 4 Smoking a low-nicotine cigarette

answer

Eating aged cheese - Eating foods high in tyramine, including aged cheese, can cause a hypertensive crisis in patients taking MAO inhibitors.

question

Which patient is a poor candidate for therapy with diazepam to treat generalized anxiety disorder? 1 One with a history of alcoholism 2 One with type 2 diabetes mellitus 3 One who had convulsions as a child 4 One who has had a myocardial infarction

answer

One with a history of alcoholism - A patient with a history of alcoholism is a poor candidate for therapy with diazepam because of the potential for substance abuse and the adverse effects of therapy.

question

The nurse notes lithium on a patient's drug history upon admission. Which condition would the nurse suspect that this patient has been diagnosed with? 1 Bipolar disorder 2 Absence seizures 3 Paranoid schizophrenia 4 Obsessive-compulsive disorder

answer

Bipolar disorder

question

Which theory states that depression and mania are caused by alterations in the concentration of dopamine and norepinephrine and serotonin and histamine in the brain? 1 Dopamine hypothesis 2 Permissive hypothesis 3 Dysregulation hypothesis 4 Biogenic amine hypothesis

answer

Biogenic amine hypothesis

question

Which medication increases the rate of urinary elimination of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) in the event of an overdose? 1 Diazepam 2 Antidysrhythmic 3 Activated charcoal 4 Sodium bicarbonate

answer

Sodium bicarbonate

question

The nurse is assessing a patient with depression who has been prescribed nortriptyline. Following the assessment, the nurse finds that the patient has constipation and urinary retention due to interaction between the prescribed medications. Which class of medication found in the patient's prescription is responsible for these effects? 1 Diuretics 2 Anxiolytics 3 Anticholinergics 4 Antihypertensives

answer

Anticholinergics

question

Which are common symptoms of serotonin syndrome? Select all that apply. 1 Delirium 2 Myoclonus 3 Drowsiness 4 Coarse tremors 5 Suicidal thoughts

answer

Delirium Myoclonus Coarse tremors

question

The nurse is assessing a patient who has been prescribed alprazolam to treat panic disorder. Which adverse effects does the nurse monitor for in the patient? Select all that apply. 1 Ataxia 2 Dizziness 3 Confusion 4 Blurred vision 5 Paradoxical anxiety

answer

Ataxia Dizziness Confusion

question

Which adverse effects result from antipsychotic drugs' action on alpha-adrenergic receptors? Select all that apply. 1 Weight gain 2 Lightheadedness 3 Reflex tachycardia 4 Tardive dyskinesia 5 Postural hypotension

answer

Lightheadedness Reflex tachycardia Postural hypotension

question

What is another approved and indicated use for bupropion, a second-generation antidepressant? 1 Smoking cessation 2 Orthostatic hypotension 3 Nocturnal enuresis in children 4 Anorexia in patients undergoing chemotherapy

answer

Smoking cessation

question

Which mood-stabilizing drugs are used to treat bipolar disorder? Select all that apply. 1 Bupropion 2 Imipramine 3 Isocarboxazid 4 Oxcarbazepine 5 Lithium carbonate

answer

Oxcarbazepine Lithium carbonate

question

Which anxiolytic drug promotes antagonistic activity at both the serotonin and dopamine receptors? 1 Buspirone 2 Alprazolam 3 Lorazepam 4 Amitriptyline

answer

Buspirone

question

Which instruction does a nurse provide to a patient who is taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)? 1 "Change positions frequently." 2 "Avoid foods or beverages rich in tyramine." 3 "Avoid hot baths, saunas, and hot climates." 4 "Increase the intake of dietary fiber supplements."

answer

"Increase the intake of dietary fiber supplements."

question

A patient is detoxifying from alcohol abuse. Which type of medication is indicated to help the patient manage withdrawal symptoms? 1 Phenothiazine 2 Dibenzazepine 3 Benzisoxazole 4 Benzodiazepine

answer

Benzodiazepine

question

The nurse notes that the patient has an increased blood glucose level, increased blood pressure (BP), and abnormal cholesterol levels. What does the nurse infer from these observations? 1 The patient has mania. 2 The patient has dystonia. 3 The patient has dyskinesia. 4 The patient has metabolic syndrome.

answer

The patient has metabolic syndrome.

question

What are the current indications for tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)? Select all that apply. 1 Seizures 2 Insomnia 3 Depression 4 Childhood enuresis 5 Neuropathic pain syndrome

answer

Insomnia Childhood enuresis Neuropathic pain syndrome

question

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) both function by which mechanism? 1 Increasing the placebo effect 2 Increasing alertness levels in the brain 3 Blocking the reuptake of neurotransmitters at nerve endings 4 Decreasing levels of epinephrine and serotonin at nerve endings

answer

Blocking the reuptake of neurotransmitters at nerve endings

question

What atypical antipsychotic medication would the nurse anticipate a health care provider prescribing for treatment of refractory schizophrenia? 1 Trazodone 2 Phenelzine 3 Amoxapine 4 Risperidone

answer

Risperidone

question

A patient with bipolar disorder has involuntary wavelike movements of the legs. Which drug is responsible for this adverse effect in the patient? 1 Diazepam 2 Buspirone 3 Alprazolam 4 Lithium citrate

answer

Lithium citrate

question

The nurse is caring for a patient who is experiencing respiratory depression due to long-term use of diazepam in high doses. The patient has been prescribed flumazenil by the primary health care provider. What does the nurse monitor while caring for the patient? 1 Presence of seizures 2 Presence of impaired vision 3 Presence of increased pulse rate 4 Presence of reduced blood glucose

answer

Presence of seizures

question

A patient who has depression is prescribed duloxetine. Which tests will the nurse suggest to the provider before the therapy is started? 1 Renal function test 2 Liver function test 3 Complete blood count 4 Complete urine examination

answer

Liver function test

question

A patient diagnosed with depression is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) after failure to improve symptoms on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. The nurse should include which teaching point when educating the patient about the new medication? 1 There are no contraindications to this medication. 2 The medication is safe; it has been used longer than many others. 3 There is a risk of toxicity when this medication is taken with alcohol. 4 This class of medications has no other use and is only for depression.

answer

There is a risk of toxicity when this medication is taken with alcohol.

question

What is the main receptor in the central nervous system (CNS) that is blocked by conventional antipsychotic drugs? 1 Serotonin 2 Dopamine 3 Acetylcholine 4 Norepinephrine

answer

Dopamine

question

The nurse is caring for a patient with acute mania who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. The blood tests of the patient indicate the serum lithium level to be 1.2 mEq/L. What does the nurse interpret from this result? 1 The patient will have persistent manic symptoms. 2 The patient may have cardiac dysrhythmia and tremors. 3 The patient may have impaired liver and renal functioning. 4 The patient should have effective relief from the manic symptoms.

answer

The patient should have effective relief from the manic symptoms. - There is a narrow therapeutic window between the therapeutic and toxic serum levels of lithium. A serum lithium level of 1 to 1.5 mEq/L is optimum for the treatment of acute mania. Therefore a serum lithium level of 1.2 mEq/L indicates that the patient will have effective relief from the manic symptoms. If the serum lithium level is less than 1 mEq/L, then the patient may have persistent manic symptoms. The adverse effects of lithium toxicity include cardiac dysrhythmia and tremors. If the lithium serum level is more than 1.5 mEq/L, then the patient may have lithium toxicity, which is characterized by impaired liver and renal functioning.

question

A female patient who takes lorazepam for anxiety tells the nurse that she plans to become pregnant. What is the best instruction for the nurse to give the patient? 1 Eat a well-balanced diet that includes milk. 2 Stop taking the drug and form another plan to manage anxiety. 3 Discuss tapering the drug with the health care provider before conception. 4 Visit an obstetrician to determine the correct dose of lorazepam during pregnancy.

answer

Discuss tapering the drug with the health care provider before conception.

question

Clozapine, an atypical antipsychotic medication, is prescribed for a patient with a schizophreniform disorder. Which information would be most important to include in the teaching plan for this patient? 1 The importance of promptly reporting flulike symptoms 2 Strategies to manage breast enlargement and nipple discharge 3 Contraceptive measures and expected changes in menstruation 4 The meaning of various components of a white blood cell count

answer

The importance of promptly reporting flulike symptoms

question

A patient asks the nurse how long it will take for escitalopram to be completely effective. Which time frame should the nurse include in patient teaching? 1 1 week 2 2 or 3 days 3 2 or 3 months 4 Several weeks

answer

Several weeks

question

A patient is admitted to the emergency department after an overdose of oxazepam. Which antagonist may be used to treat this patient? 1 Naloxone 2 Naltrexone 3 Nalmefene 4 Flumazenil

answer

Flumazenil

question

A patient diagnosed with an anxiety disorder has been using lorazepam but finds the side effect of drowsiness to be interfering with life. Which anxiolytic medications might be a better option for this patient? 1 Buspirone 2 Alprazolam 3 Chlordiazepoxide 4 Hydroxyzine hydrochloride salt

answer

Buspirone

question

The primary health care provider reviews the medical history of a patient who is receiving buspirone. The health care provider instructs the nurse to continuously monitor the patient's blood pressure to prevent hypertension due to a drug interaction. Which other medication is the patient taking? 1 Iron supplement 2 Oral contraceptives 3 Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs 4 Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)

answer

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)

question

A patient with psychosis is experiencing adverse effects of conventional antipsychotic pharmacotherapy, including dystonia, akathisia, and abnormal limb movements. The nurse collaborates with the psychiatrist to enact a change in therapy. Which medication is best suited to this patient? 1 Molindone 2 Haloperidol 3 Risperidone 4 Chlorpromazine

answer

Risperidone

question

The nurse is caring for a patient who has bipolar disorder who has been administered lithium citrate. The primary health care provider asks the nurse to constantly monitor the patient's blood sodium levels. What is the reason for giving such an instruction? 1 To ensure proper nourishment in the patient 2 To prevent renal toxicity caused by the drug 3 To maintain therapeutic concentration of lithium 4 To maintain normal cholesterol levels in the body

answer

To maintain therapeutic concentration of lithium

question

The nurse prepares a patient who is taking sertraline for discharge. Which instruction should the nurse include in patient education? 1 Report any increase in mania. 2 Expect to feel better in 4 to 6 days. 3 Take sertraline at the same time each day. 4 Avoid overheating and direct sun exposure.

answer

Take sertraline at the same time each day.

question

The nurse is assessing a patient with depression who has been prescribed isocarboxazid. The nurse advises the patient to use steam inhalation for a cold rather than taking cetirizine. What is the reason for giving such advice to the patient? 1 To prevent the increased risk of bleeding 2 To prevent the increased risk of infection 3 To prevent impaired cardiovascular function 4 To prevent central nervous system depression

answer

To prevent central nervous system depression

question

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with depression who has been prescribed isocarboxazid. Due to a slight increase in blood pressure and agitation, the primary health care provider prescribed buspirone for the patient. What does the nurse do to prevent adverse effects in the patient? 1 Administer buspirone at night and isocarboxazid after lunch. 2 Administer buspirone intravenously and isocarboxazid orally. 3 Administer buspirone and isocarboxazid by dissolving in water. 4 Administer buspirone 14 days after discontinuing isocarboxazid.

answer

Administer buspirone 14 days after discontinuing isocarboxazid. - Buspirone is prescribed for the treatment of agitation. It should not be coadministered with monoamine oxidase inhibitors such as isocarboxazid because the drugs interact and increase blood pressure. In order to prevent such adverse effects, the drug must be administered after a sufficient washout period. Therefore the nurse should administer buspirone 14 days after discontinuing isocarboxazid. On the other hand, continuing the administration of isocarboxazid by changing the administration time, by changing the dosage forms, or by diluting the drugs in water may not be helpful in preventing adverse effects. Therefore in order to prevent the drug interaction, the nurse should not simply administer isocarboxazid after lunch, dissolve the drug in water, or give it orally.

question

A patient taking risperidone has a necrotic foot ulcer that started as a minor scratch. Which patient data should the nurse check to help prevent complications of the pharmacotherapy? 1 Leukocyte count 2 Liver function studies 3 Fasting blood glucose 4 Kidney function studies

answer

Fasting blood glucose

question

A male patient tells the nurse that he wants to stop taking citalopram because of the sexual side effects. Which instruction should the nurse provide while educating the patient to help relieve the patient's sexual dysfunction? Select all that apply. 1 Avoid alcoholic beverages. 2 Discontinue the medication. 3 Decrease the regular dosage. 4 Take infrequent "drug holidays." 5 Report complaints to the psychiatrist. 6 Maintain the current pharmacotherapy.

answer

Avoid alcoholic beverages. Take infrequent "drug holidays." Report complaints to the psychiatrist. Maintain the current pharmacotherapy.

question

A patient currently prescribed duloxetine comes to the health clinic complaining of restlessness, agitation, diaphoresis, and tremors. The nurse suspects serotonin syndrome and questions the patient regarding concurrent use of which substance? 1 Gingko 2 Ibuprofen 3 St. John's wort 4 Glucosamine chondroitin

answer

St. John's wort

question

Which laboratory test should be monitored frequently to assess for a potential life-threatening adverse reaction to clozapine? 1 Renal panel 2 Liver function tests 3 Complete blood count 4 Immunoglobulin levels

answer

Complete blood count

question

A patient with schizophrenia presents to a clinic with a poorly healing leg ulcer and hyperglycemia. Which atypical antipsychotic agent is the best medication for this patient? 1 Olanzapine 2 Quetiapine 3 Ziprasidone 4 Risperidone

answer

Ziprasidone

question

Which food can be included in the diet of a patient who is taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors? 1 Red wine 2 Fava beans 3 Corned beef 4 Cottage cheese

answer

Cottage cheese

question

The nurse obtains a medication history from a patient diagnosed with primary hypertension. The nurse recognizes that teaching is needed when the patient states that he takes which over-the-counter medication and/or supplement? 1 Garlic 2 Ginseng 3 Valerian root 4 St. John's wort

answer

Ginseng

question

The nurse is assessing a patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. On reviewing the laboratory reports of the patient, the nurse suspects that the drug has a risk of causing cardiac dysrhythmia. What is the reason for reaching such a conclusion? 1 The sodium level of the patient was 142 mEq/L. 2 The sodium level of the patient was 160 mEq/L. 3 The sodium level of the patient was 140 mEq/L. 4 The sodium level of the patient was 138 mEq/L.

answer

The sodium level of the patient was 160 mEq/L.

question

Which statement made by a patient demonstrates a lack of understanding of patient teaching regarding phenothiazine drug therapy? 1 "I need to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness." 2 "I will need to wear sunscreen and protective clothing when outdoors." 3 "It is okay to take this drug with a small glass of wine to help me relax." 4 "I should call my doctor if I notice any uncontrollable movements of my tongue."

answer

"It is okay to take this drug with a small glass of wine to help me relax."

question

Which piece of objective data contraindicates the use of clozapine? 1 Allergy to phenothiazines 2 Self-destructive behavior 3 Failed antipsychotic therapy 4 Acute lymphocytic leukemia

answer

Acute lymphocytic leukemia

question

The nurse finds that a patient who has been prescribed tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) therapy consumes alcohol regularly. What intervention will the nurse expect to perform to promote drug safety? 1 Refer the patient for regular hemodialysis. 2 Perform urine acidification until the pH is 5. 3 Administer hypotensive drugs as prescribed. 4 Administer multiple doses of activated charcoal.

answer

Administer multiple doses of activated charcoal.

STUDY

Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome Nursing

First Aid Psychiatry Drugs – Flashcards 83 terms

Thomas Owen

83 terms

Preview

First Aid Psychiatry Drugs – Flashcards

question

how to treat: Alcohol withdrawal

answer

Benzodiazepines

question

how to tx Anxiety

answer

SSRIs, SNRIs, Busprione

question

ADHD

answer

methyphenidate, amphetamines

question

Bipolar Disorder

answer

Mood stabilizers: lithium, valproic acid, carbamazepine, atypical antipsychotics

question

Bulimia

answer

SSRIs

question

Depression

answer

SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, busprione, mirtazapine (especially with insomnia)

question

Obsessive compulsive disorder

answer

SSRIs, clomipramine

question

Panic Disorder

answer

SSRIs, venlafaxine, benzodiazepines

question

PTSD

answer

SSRIs

question

Schizophrenia

answer

Antipsychotics

question

Social Phobias

answer

SSRIs

question

Tourette's syndrome

answer

antipsychotics haloperidol, risperidone

question

what are the CNS stimulants?

answer

Methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, methamphetamine

question

what is the CNS stim method of action

answer

increase catecholamines at the synaptic cleft, especially NE and dopamine

question

What is the clinical use of CNS stimulants:

answer

ADHD, narcolepsy, appetite control

question

haloperidol

answer

antipsychotics

question

trifluoperazine

answer

antipsychotics

question

fluphenazine

answer

antipsychotics

question

thioridazine

answer

antipsychotics

question

chloropromazine

answer

antipsychotics

question

so what's the name thing for antipsychotics?

answer

haloperidol + "azines"

question

mechanism of Antipsychotics

answer

all typical antipsychotics block dopamine D2 receptors, increasing cAMP

question

what are the high potency antipsychotics? and what are the side effects?

answer

Trifluperazine, fluphenazine, Haloperidol...try to fly high? neurolgoic side effects (extrapyrimidal)

question

clinical use of antipsychotics

answer

schizo (primarily positive symptoms) psychosis, acute mania, Tourette's syndrome

question

what are the low potency antipsychotics? side effects?

answer

chloropromazine, thioridazine -cheating thieves are low.....non neurologic side effects (anticholinergic, antihistamine and alpha 1 blockade effects)

question

what is the toxicity of antipsychotics?

answer

highly lipid soluble, and stored in body fat; thus very slow to be removed from the body, extrapyramidal system side effects: dyskinesias, endocrine side effects: dopamine receptor antagonism---hyperprolactinemia: galactorrhea, side effects from blocking muscarinic receptors; hypotension, and dry mouth, and sedation.

question

Chloropromazine causes:

answer

corneal deposits

question

thioridazine causes

answer

retinal deposits

question

haloperidol:

answer

NMS, tardive dyskinesia

question

evolution of EPS side effects:

answer

4 hr of acute dystonia (muscle spasm, stiffness, oculogyric crisis) 4 day akathisia (restlessness) 4 wk bradykinesia (parkinsonism) 4 mo tardive dyskinesia

question

what is neuroleptic malignant syndrome-and what drug is this associated with? Treatment:

answer

rigidity, myoglobinuria, autonomic instability, hyperpyrexia. Tx=dantrolene, D2 agonists (bromocriptine)

question

Tardive dyskinesia:

answer

stereotypic oral facial movements as a result of long term antipsychotic use...often irreversible

question

for neuoleptic malignant syndrome: (NMS) think

answer

think fever: fever, encephalopathy, vitals unstable, elevated enzymes, rigidity of muscles

question

atypical antipsychotics mmneom..

answer

it's ATYPICAL for OLd CLOSets to QUIETly RISPER from A to Z

question

olanzapine

answer

atypical antipsychotic

question

clozapine

answer

atypical antipsychotic

question

quetiapine

answer

atypical antipsychotic

question

risperidone

answer

atypical antipsychotic

question

aripiprazole

answer

atypical antipsychotic

question

ziprasidone

answer

atypical antipsychotic

question

mechanism of atypical antipsychotics...

answer

not understood...varied effects on 5ht2, dopamine and alpha and H1 receptors

question

clinical use of atypical antipsychotics

answer

schizophrenia-both positive and negative symptoms: also used for bipolar disorder, ocd, anxiety disorder, depression, mania, tourette's syndrome

question

what are the toxicities for atypical antipsychotics?

answer

fewer extrapyramidal and anticholinergic side effects than traditional antipsychotics.....olazapine, clozapoine may cause significant eight gain...clozapine may cause agranulocytosis...requires weekly wbc monitoring and sezure ziprasidone may prolong the QT interval

question

olanzapine/clozapine may cause significant:

answer

weight gain

question

clozapine may cause

answer

agranulocytosis -rqrs weekly wbc monitoring and seizure

question

ziprasidone

answer

may prolong the QT interval

question

Lithium Mechanism:

answer

not established, possibly related to inhibition of phosphoinositol cascade

question

clinical use of lithium

answer

mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder-blocks relapse and acute manic events...also for SIADH

question

Toxicity of Lithium-what do teratogenic effects include:and mnemonic:

answer

tremor, sedation, edema, heart block, polyuria...ADH antagonist-causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, TERATOGENIC...cardiac defects-ebstein anomaly and malformaltion of the great vessels... LMNOP-lithium side effects: movement (tremor), nephrogenic diabetes insipid us, hypothyroidism, pregnancy problems.

question

what rqrs close monitoring of serum levels of lithium...

answer

narrow therapeutic window.

question

lithium is almost exclusively excreted by:___ where?

answer

the kidneys-most is reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule following Na reabsorption

question

buspirone: used in:

answer

used in generalized anxiety disorder....

question

buspirone MOA: mnemonic

answer

stimulates 5HT1a receptors: I'm always anxious if the BUS will be ON time, so I take BUSpirONe

question

how long does it take for buspirone to take effect? doesn't cause what? takes ____ weeks to take effeect? does it interact w/alcohol compared to __

answer

1-2 weeks for it to take effect...does not cause sedation, addiction, or tolerance. does not interact with alcohol-vs barbiturates and benzodiazepines

question

SSRIs...names and mnemonic:

answer

FLashbacks PARalyze Senior CITizens Fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, Citalopram

question

fluoxetine

answer

SSRI

question

Paroxetine

answer

SSRI

question

Sertraline

answer

SSRI

question

Citalopram

answer

SSRI

question

MOA of SSRI-how many weeks does it usually take for antidepressants to have an effect?

answer

serotonin specific reuptake INHIBITORS. 4-8 weeks to take effect?

question

Clinical use of SSRIs

answer

depression, genralized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, OCD, bulimia, social phobias, PTSD.

question

Toxicity of SSRIs

answer

Fewer than TCAs-Gi distress, SEXUAL DYSFUNCTION-anorgasmia and decreased libido. Serotonin synddrome: with any drug that increases serotonin (MAOIs, SNRIs, TCAs): hyperthermia, confusion, myoclonus, cardiovascular collapse..flushing, diarrhea, seizures....tx of it: 5HT2 receptor antagonist: (octreotide)

question

So generalized anxiety disorder can be tx w/

answer

Busiprone and SSRIs, SNRIs

question

Venlafaxine, duloxetine

answer

SNRIs

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SNRI MOA

answer

inhibit serotoinin and NE uptake

question

Clinical use of SNRIs...duloxetine is also indicated for. which SNRI has a greater effect on NE

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Depression....Venlafax-also used in generalized anxiety disorder and panic disorders....Duloxetine=also indicated for diabetic peripheral neuropathy...Duloxetine=greater effect on NE

question

Tricyclic antidepressants:

answer

all end in -iptyline and -ipramine except doxepin and amoxapine

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MOA TCAs

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Block reuptake of NE and serotonin

question

clinical use of tCAs...bedwetting, OCD drugs

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Major depression, bedwetting (imipramine), OCD (clomipramine) fibromyalgia

question

Toxicity of TCAs...which ones to use in elderly, which one for ppl with seizures...how to tx some of the tox?

answer

alpha 1 blocking effects like hypotension, and dry mouth, urinary retention...amitryp(3rd degree) have more anticholin effects than 2ndary-nortriptyline...despiramine=less sedating-and higher sezure threshold...TRI-C's=convulsions, coma, cardiotoxicity....also resp depression and hyperpyrexia...confusion and hallucinations in elderly due to tricyclic effecs-use nortryptyline in elderly. use NaHCO3 for cardio tx

question

MAO Inhibitors (MAOIs)

answer

MAO Takes Pride In Shanghai Tranylcypromine, Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid, Selegiline(selective MAO B inhibitor)

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Tranylcypromine

answer

MAOI

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Phenelzine

answer

MAOI

question

Isocarboxazid

answer

MAOI

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Selegiline

answer

MAOI-selective MAOB inhibitor

question

MOA of MAOIs

answer

nonselective MAO inhibition increases levelsof amine neurotransmitters-NE, serotonin, dopoamine

question

Clicical use of MAOIs

answer

atypical depression, anxiety, hypochondriasis..

question

Toxicity of MAOIs--a lot due to ingestion of:

answer

Hyperensive crisis-MOST NOTABLY WITH ingestion of TYRAMINE-which is found in many foods such as wine and cheese....CNS stimulation, contraindicated with SSRIs, TCAs, St. John's Wort, Meperidine, and dextromethophan-(to prevent serotonin syndrome)

question

Atypical Antidepressants:

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buproprion, Mirtazapine, Maprotilline, Trazadone

question

Buproprion: MOA, type of drug, side effects...be careful w/giving to which type of ppl

answer

Used for smoking cessation...increases Norepinephrine and dopamine via unknown mechanism..atypical antidepressant...tox=stimulant effects=tachycardia, insomnia) also headache, seizure in Bulimic pts...no sexual side effects.

question

Mirtazapine. Type of drug, moa, toxicity

answer

alpha 2 antagonist (increases the release of NE and serotonin), and potent 5Ht2 and 5HT3 receptor antagonist. this drug is an atypical antidepressant, and it's toxic effects: sedation (may be desired in depressed pts w/insomnia), increased appetite and weight gain-may be good in elderly or anorexic, and dry mouth

question

Maprotilline: type of drug and MOA, tox

answer

Blocks NE reuptake. Toxicity : sedation, orthostatic hypotension. This drug is an atypical antidepressant

question

Trazodone-type of drug, Moa, used mostly for___ toxicity....male side effects:

answer

atypical antidepressant. Primarily inhibits serotonin reuptake. used primarily for insomnia, as high doses are nedded for antidepressant effects...toxicity: sedation, nausea, priapism, postural hypotension...called trazoBONE to ue to male specific side effects :)

STUDY

Alcohol Withdrawal Symptoms Nicotine Replacement Therapy

Substance Use Ch. 10-18 – Flashcards 218 terms

Carol Rushing

218 terms

Preview

Substance Use Ch. 10-18 – Flashcards

question

One of SAMHSA's model community prevention programs

answer

Works for changes in alcohol policies and ordinances.

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The DARE program stands for

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Drug Abuse Resistance Education

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Beginning in 1986, the federal government launched a massive campaign based on anti-drug policies, locker searches, etc., to promote

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"Drug-Free" schools

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In discussing what we should be doing in drug prevention, the text says, "above all"

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Avoid sensational scare stories and preachy approaches

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Having students discuss their reactions to various moral and ethical dilemmas as a means to help them clarify their own values was one example of the general prevention approach known as

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affective education

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Tertiary prevention programs are aimed at

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People who have completed treatment for dependence and need relapse prevention or follow up

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Teaching students relaxation or meditation techniques was seen as one possible way of providing

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Alternatives to drug use

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The textbook pointed out that drug prevention and what else might have different goals and use different approaches.

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prevention of relapse

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According to the text, the ultimate goal of workplace drug prevention programs is to

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Prevent drug use by making clear that it is not condoned.

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One study of the Life Skills Training program found significantly lower use of

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marijuana, alcohol, and tobacco after 6 years

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Project ALERT and Life Skills Training were included as examples of

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Programs that Work, according to the Center for Substance Abuse Prevention

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Primary prevention programs are aimed at

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Young people who have not tried drugs

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In the early 1970s, the Knowledge-Attitudes-Behavior model began to be questioned when it was learned that

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Students with more knowledge about drugs had a more positive attitude toward drugs

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Which of these is NOT one of the successful components included in the social influence model?

answer

Discussing the penalties for getting caught with cigarettes

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Which of these is NOT one of the Institute of Medicine's classifications for prevention programs?

answer

affective prevention

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Out-of-school peer programs include peer influence approaches, as well as

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Peer participation programs, such as community service

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The ad campaign Above the Influence targets which age group?

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12-17

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DARE is one of the most widespread drug prevention programs in schools. Research on DARE has shown that

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It has not produced lasting reductions in drug or alcohol use

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The social influence model grew out of a 1976 paper describing a successful prevention approach aimed at

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Cigarette smoking

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The most consistent feature of workplace drug prevention programs has been

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random urine testing

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In the public health model, programs designed to reach people who have started using some substances and to prevent them from abusing these substances or moving to more dangerous substances, would be classified as

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secondary prevention

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Which of these was NOT discussed as an effective family-based drug prevention approach?

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parenting, interactions and support (These are the effective family-based drug prevention approaches)

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CBT approaches to treatment

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Have the clients identify people, places, and behaviors associated with drug use.

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Because of the potential danger of alcohol withdrawal symptoms, these symptoms are often prevented or treated by administering

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Benzodiazepines

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Besides methadone, another substitute medication has recently been approved for maintaining opioid dependent patients. It is

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Buprenorphine

question

Giving the user rewards for drug-free urine samples

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Is a form of contingency management

question

Which one of these is an agonist therapy?

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methadone, nicotine replacement

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Because most opioid dependent people prescribed naltrexone stop taking it,

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researchers are testing a depot form that blocks heroin's effects for up to 6 weeks.

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Motivational enhancement therapy has as its goal

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has as its goal helping the user move to another "stage of change."

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Both drug agonist (substitution) and antagonist treatments are included in the __________ phase of treatment.

answer

maintenance

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Although many medications have been tested for treating cocaine dependence, most have shown little promise and none has yet been approved. The most promising results have been found with

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modafinil.

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Is treatment for drug dependence effective?

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Statistically, treatment does reduce crime and increase employment.

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Which of these has NOT received FDA approval for use during the maintenance phase of alcohol

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disulfiram(Antabuse), naltrexone, and acamprostate(calcium acetyl) THESE ARE USED IN THE MAINTENANCE

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Rapid opioid detoxification is based on

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Anesthetizing users and administering an antagonist, so that withdrawal occurs while they are asleep

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substance that accounted for the most admissions in the Treatment Episode Data Set from 2009 was

answer

opioid?

question

The most common form of medical treatment for opioid dependence is

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methadone maintenance

question

Before we can evaluate the success of a drug treatment program, we have to understand the program's

answer

Goals

question

Which of these is NOT an FDA-approved form of nicotine replacement therapy?

answer

THESE ARE APPROVED: transdermal nicotine patch, gum, nasal spray, vapor inhaler, lozenge.

question

Studies of court-ordered referrals to Alcoholics Anonymous versus other types of interventions have

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Not found differences in effectiveness between AA and other approaches

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Although naltrexone has been used to treat alcohol dependence, it

answer

Is an opioid antagonist, and it is not clear how it works with alcohol users.

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The "therapeutic workplace" is an example of what approach to drug treatment?

answer

Contingency management

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Although no medication has yet received FDA approval for treating cannabis dependence, one has shown effectiveness in relieving cannabis withdrawal symptoms. That medication is

answer

oral THC

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Varenicline, approved in 2006 for smoking cessation.

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Is a partial nicotine-receptor agonist.

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Prevention of withdrawal symptoms using medications would be considered part of the ____________ process.

answer

Detoxification

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Which of these was NOT one of the three reasons given for why we focus so much attention on drug use by athletes?

answer

Athletes make so much money

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One of the early types of stimulant drug reported to be used by boxers and others was

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strychnine.

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In the 1800s, the French cycling team endorsed Mariani's "wine for athletes" that contained

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cocaine.

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Stimulant drugs like caffeine, amphetamines, and cocaine are sometimes considered to increase energy output and are, therefore, called __________ drugs.

answer

ergogenic

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The International Olympics Committee first established rules disqualifying competitors who failed or who refused to take drug tests in

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1968.

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After the National Football League banned the distribution of amphetamines in 1971,

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individual players could still get a prescription and use amphetamines if they wanted.

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During and after World War II, it was found that malnourished people could gain weight more rapidly if they were treated with

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testosterone.

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An American physician came back from the 1956 Olympic games after learning about the Soviets' use of a steroid drug and helped to develop and test more selective ____________ steroids.

answer

anabolic

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The 2003 BALCO scandal involved a laboratory that was

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selling a previously undetectable steroid to baseball players

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One side effect of the tougher 2006 drug testing policies in Major League Baseball is that

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more players are diagnosed with ADHD so they can have therapeutic-use exemptions to take stimulant drugs.

question

College athletes who want to avoid failing a drug test

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have to be very careful, because there are more than 3,000 products containing banned substances.

question

Extensive testing of the effects of amphetamines has concluded that they

answer

can improve performances by a few percentage points.

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Laboratory studies of endurance on stationary bicycles have found that caffeine

answer

can significantly improve work output at doses of 300-500 mg.

question

One ingredient in dietary supplements was banned by the FDA in 2004 after a Major League Baseball pitcher died from heat stroke after using it. The ingredient was

answer

ephedrine.

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Although testosterone and related anabolic steroids clearly increase muscle mass during puberty, it has been more difficult to determine scientifically whether adult men with normal testosterone can get much stronger from extra steroids, partly because

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it would be unethical to expose research participants to the high doses of multiple steroids reportedly used by athletes.

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It has been difficult to do double-blind, placebo-controlled studies on the effects of steroids because

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they produce detectable psychological effects.

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Which of these was NOT mentioned as one of the psychological side effects of high doses of steroids? A. memory loss B. psychological dependence C. mood swings D. increased aggressiveness ("'roid rage")

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memory loss

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Women who use steroids to increase their strength might produce some irreversible effects, including

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increased facial hair growth.

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As part of the Omnibus Crime Control Act of 1990, anabolic steroids were

answer

listed as Schedule III controlled substances, with limited prescription refills

question

So-called "pituitary giants" often die at an early age because their internal organs continue to grow due to excessive production of

answer

human growth hormone.

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Clenbuterol was first detected in Olympic athletes in 1992. Originally developed as a bronchodilator for treating asthma, this drug is

answer

a beta-2 agonist

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One widely-used legal dietary supplement that has been shown to increase strength is

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creatine.

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Some bodybuilders are trying to appear not only big and strong, but also lean. This is sometimes referred to as looking

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cut, ripped, or shredded.

question

An ideal body fat range for a healthy male is

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14 to 20 percent

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Which of the following stimulant drugs have been used as performance enhancers in athletic competitions

answer

A. Strychine B. Cocaine C. Caffeine

question

The origin of the word "dope" is derived from the Dutch word used in South Africa to refer to

answer

a cheap brandy used to impair the performance of racing horses

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Most of the resin is in which part of the cannabis plant?

answer

flowering tops.

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Cannabis indica has more psychoactive potency, whereas Cannabis sativa is more associated with

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hemp.

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The primary active ingredient in marijuana is

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delta-9 tetrahydrocannabinol (THC).

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Hashish refers to

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pure cannabis resin.

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The flowering tops (buds) of unpollinated female cannabis plants produce a high-grade marijuana known as

answer

sinsemilla.

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The American public began to take interest in the new drug menace known as marijuana

answer

after a New Orleans newspaper in 1926 associated its use with crime.

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The 1944 LaGuardia report of the New York Academy of Medicine concluded that "those who have been smoking marihuana for a period of years . . ."

answer

showed no mental or physical deterioration

question

The 70 chemicals that are known to be unique to the cannabis plant are called

answer

cannabinoids.

question

The natural substance in the body that has marijuana-like effects is called

answer

anandamide.

question

In a study of heart rate changes following smoked marijuana with 4 percent THC or 20 mg oral THC

answer

the peak effects were similar, but smoking produced a faster onset of effects.

question

The abuse potential of THC

answer

is higher for smoked than for oral THC

question

A consistent cognitive effect of marijuana, seen both in frequent users and in less experienced users, is

answer

slowing of cognitive processing.

question

A great number of studies have consistently reported that smoked marijuana and oral THC both produce

answer

increased total daily food intake

question

Studies show that marijuana increases which of the following?

answer

Nonverbal social interactions.

question

In 1985, the FDA approved the sale of dronabinol (Marinol), which

answer

is a capsule containing THC

question

The 1999 report from the Institute of Medicine suggested that marijuana cigarettes should

answer

be allowed for no more than six months for patients with intractable pain or vomiting

question

Tolerance to the effects of smoked marijuana

answer

allows experienced marijuana users to obtain euphoric effects with minimal cognitive impairment.

question

Studies of the effects of marijuana on automobile driving show

answer

significant impairments when inexperienced users are studied in a laboratory environment.

question

Which of the following has NOT been found as an effect of regular marijuana use?

answer

Increased testosterone levels in men

question

Which of the following did NOT occur in the late 1960s and throughout the1970s in the United States?

answer

Marijuana use among high school students reached an all-time low.

question

The current shift in the U.S. public's attitude towards marijuana laws is probably partly related to which of the following?

answer

Increasing evidence that marijuana is relatively innocuous A desire to spend federal funds more wisely and gain tax revenue

question

Rimonabant is currently available as an anti-obesity agent. What is its primary mechanism of action?

answer

CB1 receptor antagonist

question

As of mid-2012, at least _____ states and Washington, D.C. have passed ballot initiatives allowing the use of medical marijuana.

answer

question

In hunter-gatherer societies, the shaman or medicine man (or woman) was important not only for understanding what we now call medicine, but also because he or she was

answer

a spiritual, or religious leader.

question

One name that has been used for hallucinogenic drugs is psychedelic, which means

answer

mind-viewing, and implies a beneficial, visionary effect.

question

One major grouping of hallucinogens typically allows the user to remain in some touch with the real world and to remember much of what he or she experienced. This group of drugs was referred to as the

answer

phantastica.

question

LSD and psilocybin belong to the chemical grouping of

answer

indoles.

question

LSD was synthesized from alkaloids derived from

answer

ergot fungus.

question

The psychological effect of LSD was first reported by

answer

Albert Hofmann, the Swiss chemist who developed the drug.

question

The major thrust of early research on LSD was for its

answer

supposed ability to access the subconscious mind.

question

During the 1950s, one U.S. government agency that conducted research with LSD was the

answer

Central Intelligence Agency.

question

The early LSD researcher who was fired from his academic job, became a proponent of hallucinogenic drug use, and started a religion in which LSD was the sacrament is:

answer

Timothy Leary.

question

LSD is considered to be the most potent psychoactive agent known to man because

answer

it produces effects at such low doses.

question

. Although LSD has complex effects in the brain, the best evidence indicates that its hallucinogenic properties are due to stimulating

answer

serotonin-2A receptors.

question

The sensation of experiencing sounds as pictures, or of seeing movements produced by musical rhythms, is known as

answer

synesthesia.

question

In rare cases, people who have used LSD experience similar symptoms weeks or months later. The common term for this has been

answer

flashbacks.

question

Psilocybe mexicana and Psilocybe cubensis are examples of

answer

hallucinogenic mushrooms.

question

A close relative of LSD, d-lysergic acid amide, is found naturally in

answer

morning glories and Hawaiian baby woodroses

question

DMT, a short-acting hallucinogen that is usually ineffective when taken orally, is found in

answer

Cohoba snuff.

question

The combination of two plants, one containing DMT and the other containing harmaline (an MAO inhibitor), was originally used by indigenous cultures in South America and is called,

answer

ayahuasca

question

The Native American Church includes aspects of Christianity and uses __________ as a sacrament.

answer

peyote

question

Besides hallucinations, mescaline also produces

answer

pupil dilation, increased heart rate and blood pressure.

question

The catechol hallucinogens include mescaline plus a variety of synthetic derivatives of

answer

amphetamine.

question

A drug that has been reported to produce an increase in sociability and euphoria, as well as an increase in blood pressure, body temperature, and pulse is:

answer

MDMA

question

PCP was patented as Sernyl and first tested as

answer

a dissociative anesthetic.

question

The PCP experience differs from LSD and mescaline experiences in that PCP users

answer

report more changes in body perception

question

Peace pill and angel dust have been street names for

answer

PCP

question

Atropa belladonna is also known by the name

answer

deadly nightshade

question

The anticholinergic plant with a forked root that is mentioned in the Bible is

answer

mandrake.

question

The red and white speckled mushroom that has been associated with an early Christian cult as well as with other religions all over the world is

answer

amanita muscaria.

question

The indole originally found in toad skins, that turns out not to be a very potent hallucinogen, is

answer

bufotenin.

question

Which of the following hallucinogens has NOT received recent scientific interest as a psychotherapeutic agent?

answer

PCP

question

Which of the following most accurately describes recent psilocybin research?

answer

the acute effects on mystical experiences

question

When evaluating drug-related data from animal studies, which of these questions should be asked?

answer

A. Was the dosing regimen used similar to that used by humans? B. Was the route of administration similar to that used by humans? C. Was the drug self-administered by the animal

question

In 2009, the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act

answer

authorized the FDA to regulate tobacco products in specific ways.

question

One big factor associated with lower rates of cigarette smoking among adults is

answer

Higher level of education

question

Per capita sales of cigarettes in the U.S. began to decline

answer

after the 1964 Surgeon General's report

question

Reynolds was unable to market Premier, a plastic cigarette containing catalytic crystals coated with tobacco extract, because

answer

the FDA considered them a "nicotine delivery device" rather than an agricultural product

question

The major commercial species of Nicotiana that is grown for tobacco products is

answer

Nicotiana tobacum.

question

People who switch to low tar and nicotine brand cigarettes

answer

typically take more and deeper puffs and probably get no safety benefit.

question

90 percent of all U.S. cigarettes sold are now

answer

Filter cigars

question

Tobacco use became popular in European culture because:

answer

it was associated with wealth and status

question

During the 18th century, which method of use of tobacco increased in England

answer

Snuff

question

In 2000, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the FDA

answer

Had no authority to regulare tobacco products

question

Chewing was the most popular form of tobacco use until about 1900, but by 1920 the most popular form was

answer

cigars

question

The biggest health concern for users of smokeless tobacco has been

answer

cancer of the mouth, pharynx, and esophagus.

question

As a potent poison, nicotine causes death by

answer

increasing blood pressure until a stroke occurs.

question

Recent research on the dependence produced by nicotine has focused on genetic differences related to:

answer

acetylcholine receptors

question

One recent fad in tobacco use has been

answer

hookahs (water pipes)

question

Gum, patches, lozenges, and inhalers are all various forms of

answer

nicotine replacement therapy

question

Although lung cancer is not common, about _______ percent of all lung cancers occur in smokers.

answer

question

In 1993, the Environmental Protection Agency declared that

answer

secondhand smoke is a known carcinogen that increases lung cancer risk.

question

Nicotine acts in the brain by

answer

first stimulating and then blocking cholinergic receptors

question

In July 2011, the nicotine vaccine NicVax was

answer

found to be no better than placebo.

question

The psychological effect of cigarette smoking is

answer

arousal and activation--a mild stimulant effect calm and relaxation--a mild antianxiety effect.

question

In 2006, the FDA approved a nicotine partial agonist drug as a smoking treatment. The drug is

answer

varenicline (Chantix)

question

Annual "smoking attributable mortality" in the U.S. is estimated at

answer

440,000

question

About 90 percent of the more than 40 million former smokers in the U.S. report that

answer

they quit smoking without a treatment program.

question

One of the most consistent and best-documented effects of cigarette smoking during pregnancy is

answer

low birth weight

question

In 1970, Americans drank more coffee than any other nonalcoholic beverage product. By 2009,

answer

Americans drank approximately twice as many gallons of soft drinks as compared to coffee

question

Most regular brewed teas have about how much caffeine per cup?

answer

40-60 mg (about half the amount in coffee)

question

_____________ is prescribed to asthma sufferers because it relaxes bronchial passages.

answer

theophylline

question

The early history of coffee included a 1674 pamphlet from England titled

answer

The Women's Petition Against Coffee.

question

Theobroma, the genus name for the cacao tree, is Latin for

answer

food of the gods

question

The largest exporters of coffee to the U.S. are

answer

Colombia, Brazil, Guatemala, and Mexico.

question

Green, black, and oolong tea are all prepared from leaves of

answer

Camellia sinensis

question

In the 18th century, English coffeehouses were referred to as

answer

penny universities

question

The legend of the discovery of coffee relates to

answer

Kaldi and his dancing goats

question

The world's greatest per-capita consumers of tea are found in

answer

Turkey

question

All of the xanthines have similar effects. But which one has the greatest overall effect?

answer

caffeine

question

According to current FDA rules on "cola" drinks

answer

they cannot contain more than 6 mg caffeine per ounce

question

One important determinant of the behavioral effects of caffeine is

answer

whether the person is a regular user

question

The most consistent withdrawal symptom after chronic caffeine use is

answer

headache

question

In 1909, the FDA seized some Coca-Cola syrup and filed charges against the company partly because

answer

the syrup contained caffiene

question

Often people who drink too much alcohol attempt to "sober up" by drinking coffee. Several studies support the idea that caffeine

answer

is likely to lead to increased arousal, but the drinker is still impaired

question

Caffeine has been shown to be an effective treatment for

answer

migraine headaches

question

The unique xanthine in chocolate is

answer

theobromine

question

Drinking 5 or more cups of coffee per day

answer

doubles the risk of heart attack

question

Caffeine works in the brain by

answer

blocking adenosine receptors

question

The main active ingredient in Red Bull and other energy drinks is

answer

caffeine

question

Caffeine is thought to relieve headaches because it is

answer

a vasoconstrictor.

question

The maximum CNS effect of caffeine is reached about _____ after drinking coffee.

answer

2 hours

question

The 1994 Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act

answer

expanded the definition of dietary supplements and restricted the FDA's regulatory authority over them.

question

What dietary supplement ingredient has been tested for its ability to improve memory in Alzheimer's disease, but has produced only small and unreliable improvements in published research?

answer

Ginkgo biloba

question

Starting in 2007, the only FDA-approved OTC weight-control ingredient is

answer

orlistat (alli).

question

The FDA was given additional authority over dietary supplements in 2006 to set up

answer

an "Adverse Events Reporting" process.

question

Because of the way the FDA reviews and approves OTC drugs,

answer

various brands of a given type of remedy usually contain the same few active ingredients

question

Many of the capsules, pills, and powders that look like drugs and that consumers think of as drugs are actually classified by the FDA as

answer

food products

question

If you buy a bottle of St. John's wort 300 mg tablets, each tablet will contain 300 mg

answer

total tablet weight, with an unknown amount of plant material or ingredients

question

The U.S. market for over-the-counter drug products totals about

answer

$18 billion

question

The only active ingredient the FDA allows in OTC stimulants is

answer

caffeine

question

The 2006 revised PATRIOT Act required that products containing __________ be kept "behind the counter," and buyers must show identification and sign for their purchase.

answer

pseudoephedrine

question

SAMe (S-adenosyl-L-methionine) is a dietary supplement that has some research support for its possible use in treating

answer

depression

question

Why would you want dextromethorphan in a cold remedy?

answer

It acts as a cough suppressant

question

NSAID stands for

answer

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

question

Suppose you have a cold and you choose to take Tylenol Cold to treat your symptoms (runny nose, congested nasal passages, and fever). Which of these ingredients in this OTC product is unnecessary?

answer

dextromethorphan

question

There has been some reported abuse by young people of products containing _________, which they take in high doses to produce visual and auditory hallucinations

answer

dextromethorphan

question

The generic name for Tylenol and Datril is

answer

acetaminophen.

question

Acetylsalicylic acid was developed in the Bayer laboratory in Germany in 1898 and sold under the brand name

answer

Aspirin

question

Aspirin should not be used with children who have a viral infection because of increased risk of

answer

Reye's syndrome

question

The textbook suggests that consumers are best able to choose from among the wide variety of OTC products by

answer

knowing a fairly small number of ingredient names.

question

Suppose you had a fever, a headache, and a swollen knee. Which medication would be most appropriate to treat all three symptoms?

answer

dextromethorphan

question

Besides analgesia (pain relief), another important effect of aspirin is as a(n)

answer

antipyretic (reduces fever)

question

The acronym GRAS stands for

answer

generally recognized as safe

question

Cold viruses are usually transmitted

answer

by being picked up on the hands and touching your eyes or nose

question

The earliest recorded use of opium as a medicine was probably by

answer

Egyptians, around 1500 BC

question

The 16th century European physician Paracelsus, and later Dr. Thomas Sydenham promoted the use of

answer

laudanum.

question

In 1898, Bayer laboratories marketed diacetylmorphine tablets under the brand name

answer

Heroin

question

The two major active chemicals in opium are

answer

morphine and codeine.

question

Papaver somniferum is the scientific name for

answer

the opium poppy

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Heroin became the drug of choice for many opioid users

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during the 1920s, because it was easier to smuggle the small amounts needed for an effective dose.

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One thing that apparently contributed to the spread of opium smoking in China was

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a 1644 edict from the emperor forbidding tobacco smoking.

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By the beginning of the 20th century, a greater percentage of Americans were dependent on opioids than at any time before or since. Opium smoking and medical use of injected pure morphine were important contributors to this, along with

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Patent medicines containing opium extracts or morphine

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Possession of opium, morphine, or heroin without a prescription was made a crime by

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a 1915 Supreme Court decision.

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The Opium War of 1839-1842 resulted, among other things, in

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the island of Hong Kong becoming a British possession.

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"Black tar" is

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a name given heroin from Mexico that is brown or black in its pure form

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At the current time, most of the heroin in the U.S. originates from poppy fields in

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Colombia and Mexico.

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Vicodin and OxyContin are examples of

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prescription opioids that are being misused at relatively high rates.

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Which of these opioids is about 100 times as potent as morphine?

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fentanyl

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Naloxone, nalorphine, and naltrexone are examples of

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opioid antagonists.

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Enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins are

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three classes of endogenous chemicals that have effects similar to morphine

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Although pain relief is now the major medical use for opioids, they have been used to save many lives (especially in underdeveloped countries) because of their ability to

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treat diarrhea

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Siegel and his colleagues have shown in animal studies that tolerance to opioids

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is partly due to conditioned responses

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The textbook says that opioid withdrawal is similar to

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a bad case of intestinal flu

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The fact that animals with no history of opioid withdrawal will press a lever to self-administer low doses of intravenous morphine or heroin demonstrates the importance of ____________ in developing opioid dependence.

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positive reinforcement

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In a heroin user, negative reinforcement of drug-taking behavior can occur when

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withdrawal symptoms are alleviated by another injection

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Long-term exposure to opioid drugs

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has not been clearly shown to produce damage to any tissue or organ system

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Heroin is more potent than morphine because

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it more readily crosses the blood-brain barrier

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Psychology of Drug Use and Effects Exam #4 – Flashcards 42 terms

Clarence Louder

42 terms

Preview

Psychology of Drug Use and Effects Exam #4 – Flashcards

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Paraprofessionals

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People working in direct patient care and not possessing a formal degree

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TV and Radio

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The most frequently used vehicles for mass media prevention efforts

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The Amethyst Initiative

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Argues that lowering the legal drinking age from 21 to 18 years of age would reduce binge drinking on college campuses

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A. SOS B. SMART C. RR D. All of these Answer is D. All of these

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Differs from AA in that there is no emphasis on spirituality or a higher power

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Antipsychotic drugs

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Account for a small fraction of psychotherapeutic prescriptions

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Detoxification

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Involved the medical management of alcohol withdrawal symptoms

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Motivational enhancement

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A non-medical treatment for alcohol use disorders in which verbal psychotherapy is used to encourage the individual to move forward in the stages of changes alcohol-use patterns

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Acamprosate

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A pharmacotherapy for alcoholism that affects the NMDA receptor and the metabotrophic glutamate receptors

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Alcoholics Anonymous (AA)

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A self-help group for alcohol abusers that was founded by Dr. Bob and Bill W.

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SMART

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A self-help group that is purported to be based on methods that are scientifically validated and is led by a coordinator who has maintained a period of sobriety or has never had an alcoholic problem

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social detoxification

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An approach in which a persons withdrawal is monitored by professional staff in a treatment setting, but no drugs are administered

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St. John's Wart

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A herb that has been used extensively in Europe for mild to moderate depression

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sponsorship

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One of the last steps in Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) and involves a stable one-to-one relationship between a member with more sobriety and one with less

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Denial

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The greatest barrier to changing a substance abuse problem

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Maintenance

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The last stage of the stages of change model

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Lithium

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The only drug in psychiatry for which there is effective prophylaxis against disease reoccurrence

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harm reduction

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Policies focus on decreasing the negative consequences of Drug Use for the individual and the community

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tertiary prevention

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Includes treating persons who are beyond the early stages of substance abuse or dependence

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secondary prevention

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Used in the legal system response to substance misuse

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primary prevention

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Pertains to the avoidance of substance abuse before it has a chance to occur

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EAP

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These programs are examples of worksite prevention programs

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Affect-oriented

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These programs often involve values clarification and decision making

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Affect oriented

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These programs typically emphasize exploration of one's own needs and beliefs regarding drugs

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Spontaneous remission

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Refers to the resolution of a problem without the use of formal treatment

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electroshock therapy

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Was an early treatment for severe depression and is still used today

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Chlorpromazine

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Was synthesized in 1950 by Paul Charpentier, was initially used as an anesthesia in surgery, and was later widely used for its calming effects on agitated psychotic patients

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Primary

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A TV spot emphasizing the need to not let friends drive drunk would be an example of what type of prevention?

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Roofies

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A common name for flunitrazepam

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Gingko biloba

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A dietary supplement that has been touted to improve memory and cognitive function

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over-the-counter

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A drug that does not require a prescription to purchase

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Sedative

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A drug that induced sleep

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Anxiolytic

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A drug that reduces anxiety

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Harm reduction

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A needle exchange program would be an example of the ______________ approach to substance abuse

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Outpatient treatment

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About 60% of the drug abusers in treatment receive their treatment in ______________________.

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Catecholamine

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According to the ________________hypothesis, tricyclics antidepressants are believed to block the uptake of norepinephrine from the synaptic cleft

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Moral

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According to the __________ model, treatment consists of spiritual or legal intervention

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Social learning

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According to the ____________ model, treatment includes arranging a person's environment so that nonabuse of psychoactive substances is reinforced.

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45%

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According to the national Comorbidity Survey Replication, what percentage of U.S. adults with one mental disorder also met criteria for at least one other disorder

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Dopaminergic

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According to the predominant theory regarding the action of antipsychotics, psychosis is induced by increasing levels of _________________ activity.

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Precontemplation

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According to the stages of change model, individuals in the ______________stage often have not acknowledged a problem

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Aspirin

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Acetylsalicylic avid is better known as what?

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Sociocultural

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Advertising and education approaches to the problem of driving after drinking follow the _________ model of prevention.

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