pokemon 2 – Flashcard

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In terms of the work environment, learning:
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is a change in behavior acquired through experience and knowledge acquisition
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The behaviorist approach to learning assumes observable behavior is a function of:
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its consequences
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In the animal learning research of Pavlov, the sound of the bell was the:
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conditioned stimulus
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Modifying behavior so that a conditioned stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus and elicits an unconditioned response defines:
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classical conditioning
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A person working at a computer terminal may get lower back tension as a result of poor posture. If the person becomes aware of that tension only when the manager enters the work area, then the person may develop lower back tension at the appearance of the manager. This scenario would be an example of:
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classical conditioning
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Which of the following is NOT a limitation of classical conditioning?
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Unconditioned responses and unconditioned stimulus have not been connected in humans.
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7. A form of operant conditioning that has been used successfully to shape organizational behavior is known as:
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organizational behavior modification
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8. Operant conditioning is based on the notion that behavior is a function of:
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its consequences
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9. Which of the following is a form of operant conditioning?
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organizational behavior modification
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10. The process of modifying behavior through the use of positive or negative consequences following specific behaviors is called:
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operant conditioning
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11. Which of the following reinforcement consequences would have the most effect under OBM?
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money-based reinforcement
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12. As a supervisor you decide to use positive reinforcement to increase the probability that desired job performance will be repeated. All of the following are appropriate as positive reinforcement except:
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no response or feedback when employee fails to complete task on time
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13. Reinforcement and punishment are administered through:
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positive or/and negative consequences
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14. All of the following are strategies used to influence the consequences of behavior except:
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neutral consequences
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15. A manager who reduces an employee’s pay if the employee comes to work late and refrains from doing so when the employee is on time has:
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negatively reinforced the employee’s on time behavior
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16. As an outcome for exceptional performance, Jeffery was provided the opportunity to make a highly visible presentation to the board of directors. However, Jeffery was extremely nervous and upset about the presentation. This consequence was viewed by Jeffery as:
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negative
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17. The schedule of reinforcement that provides the least impact or incentive for performing well is known as:
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fixed interval
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18. A colleague does not respond to the sarcastic comments of a coworker but compliments the sarcastic colleague for constructive comments. Which of the following statements are true?
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The colleague used extinction and positive reinforcement.
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19. A non-response approach that weakens a behavior is known as:
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extinction
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20. If a random number of responses must be emitted before reinforcement occurs, it is a:
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variable ratio schedule
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21. Central to Bandura’s social learning theory is the concept of:
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self-efficacy
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22. Social learning theory is based on the belief that:
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learning occurs through the observation of other people and the modeling of their behavior
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23. The strongest way for an employee to develop self-efficacy is to:
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succeed at a challenging task
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24. An individual’s beliefs and expectations about his or her ability to accomplish a specific task successfully is known as:
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self-efficacy
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25. Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the four sources of task-specific self-efficacy critical to the social learning theory of Albert Bandura?
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intelligence quotient
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26. Intuitors, in terms of learning, prefer:
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theoretical frameworks
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27. The process of establishing desired results that guide and direct behavior is known as:
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goal setting
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28. All of the following are generally considered to be good characteristics of work goals except:
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moderately difficult
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29. Outcome (or performance) feedback is greatly facilitated by:
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quantitative goals
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30. Which of the following is NOT a major function served by goal setting?
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It can result in a restriction of focus that leads to a lack of creativity, spontaneity, and flexibility.
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31. Which of the following has not been shown to moderate the relationship between goal difficulty and task performance?
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low self monitor
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32. An important intermediate step between goal acceptance and goal accomplishment is:
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goal commitment
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33. A prerequisite for successful goal-setting programs, such as management by objectives (MBO), is:
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organizational commitment
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34. An important function of goal setting is:
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reducing role stress associated with conflicting and/or confusing expectations
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35. As a supervisor, you can enhance the performance of your employees by:
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allowing employees to participate in goal setting
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36. A supervisor who wants to reduce the stress associated with work within the goal-setting guidelines would:
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clarify task-role expectations
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37. Management by objectives is a goal-setting and performance-planning program originated by:
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Peter Drucker
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38. Management by objectives involves:
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interaction between a superior and an employee for setting employees’ goals and later evaluating performance and progress toward goal accomplishment
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39. The process of defining, measuring, appraising, providing feedback on, and improving performance is called:
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performance management
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40. The first step in the performance measurement process is:
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defining performance in behavioral terms
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41. Performance appraisal is used for all of the following except:
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selecting persons from a pool of job applicants
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42. The major function(s) of performance appraisal include:
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all of these
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43. Performance feedback is more likely to lead to increased job performance when it is:
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constructive and specific
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44. A key criticism of self-evaluations is:
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they have a low level of agreement with supervisory evaluations
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45. All of the following are characteristics of 360-degree feedback except:
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When combined with self-evaluations, there is a high level of agreement with supervisory evaluations.
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46. An effective performance appraisal system will contain or display all of the following except:
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self-correcting behavior
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47. The reliability of an effective performance appraisal system comes from:
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insuring that evaluations from multiple sources and at different times are captured over the course of the evaluation period
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48. Traditional organizational reward systems in the United States place value on:
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individual performance
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49. Reward allocation decisions involve:
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sequential decisions about which people to reward, how to reward them, and when to reward them
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50. The notion of entitlement at work is considered:
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to engender passive, irresponsible behavior
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51. An informational cue indicating the degree to which a person behaves the same way in other situations is known as:
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distinctiveness
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52. Kelley proposed that individuals make attributions based on information gathered in the form of:
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consensus, distinctiveness, and consistency
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53. Minimal effort, lack of commitment, lack of motivation, and personal problems:
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are internal attributions for poor performance
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54. An important aspect of a mentoring relationship is:
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coaching and counseling
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55. The successful consequences of tri-mentoring, a formalized peer mentoring system, is based upon the recognition and importance of:
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tacit knowledge
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1. The demand, person, activity, or event that triggers an uncomfortable encounter is known as:
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the stressor
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2. The adverse psychological, physical, behavioral, and organizational consequence that may occur as a result of stressful events is known as:
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distress
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3. The unconscious preparation to fight or flee that a person experiences when faced with any demand is known as:
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stress
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4. Strain is the same as:
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distress
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5. The approach to stress that is based on the concept of homeostasis is known as:
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physiological
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6. The medical approach to stress is most similar to:
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homeostatic approach
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7. Which of the following people developed the idea of the stress response?
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Walter B. Cannon
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8. Utilizing the cognitive appraisal approach to stress, problem-focused coping emphasizes:
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managing the stressor
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9. The psychoanalytic approach to stress most likely include which of the following personality dimensions?
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self-esteem
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10. The person-environment fit approach to stress emphasizes the:
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fit between external and internal role expectations
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11. The person-environment fit approach to studying and understanding stress emphasizes:
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social and organizational role stress
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12. The fight-or-flight stress response is most closely associated with which approach to stress?
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homeostatic
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13. Which of the following is NOT a mind-body change associated with stress?
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normal physical fatigue
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14. Organizations need to be sensitive to sources of stress, which include all of the following except:
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resource
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15. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a source of stress at work?
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psychological demands
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16. Task demands include all of the following except:
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leadership style
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17. Two of the most stressful demands people face at work are:
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change and lack of control
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18. Role conflict results from:
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inconsistent expectations
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19. An employee with a major sales presentation on Monday and a sick child at home Sunday night is likely to experience:
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interrole conflict
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20. A manager who presses employees for both very fast work and high-quality work would likely cause:
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intrarole conflict
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21. A manager instructs an employee to ship an item with a minor defect to a customer. This is an example of:
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person-role conflict
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22. Role ambiguity is:
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the confusion one experiences related to the expectations of others
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24. Which of the following is the best example of a positive (challenge) stressor?
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time pressure
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23. The two major categories of “role stress” at work include:
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role conflict and role ambiguity
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25. All of the following are stress-related interpersonal demands of the workplace except:
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intrarole conflict
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26. All of the following would be considered a source of stress due to interpersonal demands except:
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role ambiguity
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27. All of the following are approaches, services, or work arrangements intended to minimize the impact of nonwork demands on work except:
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mentoring
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28. Healthy or normal stress is known as:
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eustress
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29. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests that:
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in the midrange of the stress-performance curve, performance tends to be greatest
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30. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests the relationship between stress level and performance arousal is:
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bell-shaped
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31. Benefits of eustress include all of the following except:
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overstimulation
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32. Psychosomatic disorders:
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are physical ailments that begin in the mind
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33. The three forms of individual distress include:
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psychological, medical, and behavioral problems
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34. A positive consequence of organizational distress may take the form of:
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functional turnover
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35. Three direct costs of organizational distress include:
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participation problems, performance decrements, and compensation awards
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36. Costs associated with absenteeism, tardiness, strikes, work stoppages, and turnover are known as:
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participation problems
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37. Organizational costs of distress may take the form of all of the following except:
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sabotage
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38. Individuals possessing a Type A personality:
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may become aggressive, even somewhat hostile when faced with conflict and other work-related difficulties
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39. Assume you are a supervisor of ten employees, one of whom is clearly a Type A personality. Which of the following approaches would you follow to effectively manage this employee?
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Assist the employee through encouraging time management applications and convincing the person to pace him or herself.
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40. A personality that tends to be resistant to distress is:
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hardy
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41. An individual who is relatively good at transformational coping is/has:
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a hardy personality
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42. The stress-handling strategy that is considered an alternative to transformational coping and may lead to short-term stress reduction at the cost of long-term healthy life adjustment is:
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regressive coping
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43. Self-reliance is a healthy, secure, _____ pattern of behavior.
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interdependent
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44. As a supervisor of claim adjusters for a property and casualty insurance company, you assign and reassign adjusters to handle routine and emergency situations. Your managerial skills have become severely tested because several adjusters, after short-term emergency assignments, are threatening to quit. What short-term approach to their stressful situation would be most appropriate?
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Reduce task demands and make sure no adjuster works more than five days a week.
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45. A manager’s decision to reduce task demands in a stress management situation is:
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stressor directed
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46. Secondary prevention is intended to:
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alter or modify the individual’s or the organization’s response to a demand
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47. The stage in preventive stress management designed to heal individual or organizational symptoms of distress and strain is called:
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tertiary prevention
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48. A secondary prevention method of organizational stress is:
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team building
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49. Job redesign, goal setting, and career management would be organizational stress prevention strategies applied at which stage of prevention?
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primary stage
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50. The job strain model presented in your text suggests:
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that the combination of high job demand and restricted job decision latitude leads to a high-strain job
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51. Job redesign as a stress prevention method may involve any one or all of the following except:
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giving the worker inspection responsibility or expanding the employee’s job decision latitude
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52. Evaluative feedback is an aspect of a(n) _____ approach to stress prevention.
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social support system
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53. Learned optimism is:
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is non-negative thinking
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54. The biggest benefits of physical exercise come as a result of:
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low intensity exercise
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55. An employee assistance program is:
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an individual prevention approach to stress relief or reduction
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1. The Department of Labor has identified which interpersonal communication skill as being necessary for successful functioning in the workplace?
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serving clients
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2. The evoking of a shared or common meaning in another person is called:
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communication
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3. The element of the communication model that contains the thoughts and feelings the communicator is attempting to elicit in the receiver is the:
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message
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4. The window through which we interact with people and influences the quality, accuracy, and clarity of the communication is called:
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a perceptual screen
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5. When a supervisor sends a message to his/her employees who comprise a diverse workgroup, both parties to the message should be sensitive to:
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perceptual screens
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6. A communication medium that is moderate in both information richness and data capacity is:
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electronic mail
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7. As a supervisor, you decide you need to communicate with several of your employees about below standard or unsatisfactory work. Which of the following would be the best way to send your message?
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written memo followed by a face-to-face meeting
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8. Richness in a communication message refers to:
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the ability of the medium to convey the meaning
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9. If one of your employees was in the early stages of expressing thoughts and feelings about a problem, especially when there may be some associated anxiety or discomfort, it would be most appropriate for you to:
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make affirming contact
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10. Providing the time to identify and isolate the listener’s personal responses and exclude them from the dialogue is one of the purposes of:
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silence
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11. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning reflective listening?
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Reflective listening emphasizes more strongly the role of the communicator.
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12. All of the following are included in reflective listening except:
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criticism
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13. A software engineer has just discovered a major problem, which is not yet fully defined, in a large information system she is building for a very difficult customer. Her supervisor is listening to the engineer as she begins to talk through the problem. Which of the following responses would best exemplify the “reflecting of core feelings”?
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“I hear that you are feeling very upset about the problem and may be worried about the customer’s reaction when you inform him”.
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14. One-way communication in contrast to two-way communication:
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is more efficient
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15. In a study of managers’ communication skills and performance,:
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higher performing managers are better and less apprehensive communicators than lower performing managers
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16. As a supervisor in an emergency situation, you should be:
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directive and assertive
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17. A barrier to effective communication is:
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status difference
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18. A main method to overcome physical separation as a barrier to communication is:
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to increase the use of face-to-face communication
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19. The use of new information technologies reduces status differences as a barrier to communication because:
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it encourages the formation of nonhierarchical working relationships
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20. The FAME model of leadership communication is based upon which of the following message characteristics?
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focus, articulate, model, engage
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21. All of the following except _____ can be used by a supervisor to reduce communication barriers.
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encouraging men and women to interact the same way
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22. An effective method to reduce or overcome barriers to communication due to gender differences is to:
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seek clarification meaning
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23. Which of the following is NOT considered a result or outcome of defensive communication?
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assertive but accurate message sending
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24. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic rules Catherine Crier (news anchor for a major television network) uses to prevent defensive communication?
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bring the focus back to the person
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25. Defensive communication can lead to:
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strained working relationships
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26. You witness an incident at work where a supervisor loudly criticizes an employee in front of several other employees. Later, you learn that the employee didn’t make any mistake. The supervisor’s communication is an example of:
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dominant defensiveness
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27. Passive-aggressive communication and behavior frequently end up as:
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dominant defensive behavior
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28. A manager comments to her secretary, “How come Nancy (a word processor) is always hard to find when there is a deadline? She is a loafer.” This is an example of:
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labeling
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29. A defensive tactic where an individual attempts to manipulate and control others is:
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a power play
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30. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nondefensive communication and behavior?
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evasive
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31. Which of the following statements is an example of nondefensive communication?
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“I received the report from Dan yesterday and have briefly reviewed it. It looks good but I need to talk to him about one recommendation before I approve it.”
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32. As much as 65 to 90 percent of the substance or content of a message sent in person can be through:
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nonverbal communication
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33. What percent of the meaning in a message can be conveyed by nonverbal communication?
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65 to 90
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34. Nonverbal communication can be utilized in which of the following communication situations?
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committee meeting
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35. Friends typically interact within the:
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intimate zone
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36. Persons from many other countries prefer to interact (in face-to-face situations) at a/an _____ distance.
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intimate
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37. Americans generally do not like to communicate with one another within their:
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intimate distance
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38. The study of an individual’s perception and use of space, including territorial space, is called:
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proxemics
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39. Seating arrangements and dynamics can be examined in a/an _____ study.
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proxemics
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40. You are chairing quality circle meetings with your employees and want to maximize opportunities for all to speak and contribute. The seating arrangement and table shape to accomplish this should be:
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round
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41. To facilitate direct and open communication, which of the following seating arrangements would be most appropriate?
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seat the other party across a corner of your desk from you or in a place where you will be a right angles
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42. In nonverbal communication, the study of body movements, including posture, is known as:
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kinesics
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43. Positive, healthy communication is achieved when:
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all of these
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44. At the core of personal integrity as displayed by executives is:
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healthy communication
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45. Personal integrity in positive, healthy communication is achieved through:
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emotional competence
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46. Which form of communication has high to moderate data capacity and moderate to low information richness?
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written communication
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47. Which of the following statements about communication technologies is not true?
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Significant disparities in participation levels of persons within the group.
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48. Many of the communications technologies significantly limit or eliminate _____ forms of communication.
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nonverbal
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49. The use of new technologies encourages what kind of activity?
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polyphasic
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50. Polyphasic activity is known as:
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doing more than one thing at time
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1. Work groups place a strong emphasis on:
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shared leadership
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2. A group is a collection of two or more persons with common interests or objectives, whereas a work team:
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is usually a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common goal for which they are mutually accountable
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3. A small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common mission, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable is known as a/an:
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work team
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4. Groups emphasize all of the following except:
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collective work products
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5. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-functioning group?
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people express both their feelings and their thoughts
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6. Teams are appropriate where:
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the knowledge and talent of workers are dispersed across members and require integration
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7. A beneficial team environment is one where an individual does the following:
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comes up with initiatives
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8. The two sets of social benefits available to team or group members includes:
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psychological intimacy and integrated involvement
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9. Integrated involvement as a social benefit of group or team membership includes:
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opportunity for influence
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10. The standards that a work group uses to evaluate the behavior of its members are called:
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norms of behavior
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11. The behavioral norms expected within work groups and considered to be among the most important from the organization’s perspective are known as:
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organizational culture and credos
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12. Which of the following statements regarding group cohesion is NOT accurate?
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highly cohesive groups tend to have higher interpersonal exchanges away from the workplace.
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13. Social loafing is usually:
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detrimental to the group and may cause interpersonal conflict within the group
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14. A method for countering social loafing includes:
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formal evaluation of member contributions
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15. People may engage in immoral acts or even violent behavior as committed members of their group when:
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there is a loss of individuality
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16. All of the following would be considered positive norms of behavior within a group except:
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loss of individuality
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17. One of the contributing factors to the violent and aggressive acts that led to the riot that destroyed Los Angeles following the Rodney King verdict in the early 1990’s included:
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loss of individuality
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18. According to the group development model discussed in the text, a group addresses which of the following issues?
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interpersonal, task, and authority issues
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19. Which of the following includes the set of interpersonal issues that need to be addressed according to the group development model?
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trust, personal comfort, and security
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20. According to the group development model, which of the following set of issues need to be addressed as part of a group’s authority issues?
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who is in charge, management of power and influence, and who has the right to tell whom to do what
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21. Which of the following would NOT be considered a formal or deliberately designed group in a work setting?
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lunch hour table group
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22. An emergent group is known as a/an:
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informal group
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23. Dependence on guidance and direction is the defining characteristic in what stage of group development?
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forming
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24. Which stage requires that team members feel they are a part of the team for further progression in group development to occur?
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forming
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25. At what stage of group development does the leader need to adopt a coaching style due to team challenges?
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storming
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26. At what stage of group development is the leader’s role primarily one of recognition of the group’s achievements?
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performing
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27. Which of the following statements best reflects the punctuated equilibrium model of group development?
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all of these.
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28. The notion that groups alternate between periods of inertia and bursts of energy as they develop is most consistent with:
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punctuated equilibrium
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29. The development of group cohesiveness is negatively influenced by:
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internal competition
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30. The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:
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status structure
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31. An effective team exhibits:
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shared leadership
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32. Which of the following is NOT a maintenance function of a group?
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elaborating concepts
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33. Task functions relate to a group’s efforts to complete an assignment. These functions include all of the following except:
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consensus testing
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34. As a member of a quality circle, you frequently check with other members to make sure all are focused on the same problem and that everyone has opportunities to contribute. You are performing the group maintenance function of:
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gatekeeping communication
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35. Tension reduction activities are considered a:
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maintenance function
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36. Work team effectiveness in the new team environment requires attention by management to both:
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team structure and team process
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37. The contributor role in a team is usually occupied by someone who:
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provides data and necessary information for problem solutions
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38. An important role in the performance of cross-functional teams is:
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integrator
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39. Cooperative rewards in work teams will have the most effective impact on:
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accuracy of performance
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40. All of the following are considered important work process issues except:
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role specification
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41. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the impact of dissimilarity on teams and team members?
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value dissimilarity is negatively related to team involvement
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42. Some experts believe that only individuals within a team can be creative, but a professor at Northwestern University suggests that team creativity can be achieved. Which of the following practices would NOT enhance team creativity?
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conformity
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43. A team-oriented work environment places emphasis on:
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empowerment and collaboration
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44. Which of the following is not considered to be a foundation for successful teamwork?
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goal clarity
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45. Self-managed teams are sometimes called:
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autonomous work groups
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46. Hambrick and Fukutomi’s research on CEO tenure found that the second stage of tenure involved:
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experimentation
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47. Upper echelon theory argues that:
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characteristics of the top management team can predict organizational characteristics
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48. For successful chief executive officers, their peak performance years are usually after:
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five to seven years
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49. A “wild turkey” in the top management team is:
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a devil’s advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives

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