question

In terms of the work environment, learning:

answer

is a change in behavior acquired through experience and knowledge acquisition

question

The behaviorist approach to learning assumes observable behavior is a function of:

answer

its consequences

question

In the animal learning research of Pavlov, the sound of the bell was the:

answer

conditioned stimulus

question

Modifying behavior so that a conditioned stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus and elicits an unconditioned response defines:

answer

classical conditioning

question

A person working at a computer terminal may get lower back tension as a result of poor posture. If the person becomes aware of that tension only when the manager enters the work area, then the person may develop lower back tension at the appearance of the manager. This scenario would be an example of:

answer

classical conditioning

question

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of classical conditioning?

answer

Unconditioned responses and unconditioned stimulus have not been connected in humans.

question

7. A form of operant conditioning that has been used successfully to shape organizational behavior is known as:

answer

organizational behavior modification

question

8. Operant conditioning is based on the notion that behavior is a function of:

answer

its consequences

question

9. Which of the following is a form of operant conditioning?

answer

organizational behavior modification

question

10. The process of modifying behavior through the use of positive or negative consequences following specific behaviors is called:

answer

operant conditioning

question

11. Which of the following reinforcement consequences would have the most effect under OBM?

answer

money-based reinforcement

question

12. As a supervisor you decide to use positive reinforcement to increase the probability that desired job performance will be repeated. All of the following are appropriate as positive reinforcement except:

answer

no response or feedback when employee fails to complete task on time

question

13. Reinforcement and punishment are administered through:

answer

positive or/and negative consequences

question

14. All of the following are strategies used to influence the consequences of behavior except:

answer

neutral consequences

question

15. A manager who reduces an employee's pay if the employee comes to work late and refrains from doing so when the employee is on time has:

answer

negatively reinforced the employee's on time behavior

question

16. As an outcome for exceptional performance, Jeffery was provided the opportunity to make a highly visible presentation to the board of directors. However, Jeffery was extremely nervous and upset about the presentation. This consequence was viewed by Jeffery as:

answer

negative

question

17. The schedule of reinforcement that provides the least impact or incentive for performing well is known as:

answer

fixed interval

question

18. A colleague does not respond to the sarcastic comments of a coworker but compliments the sarcastic colleague for constructive comments. Which of the following statements are true?

answer

The colleague used extinction and positive reinforcement.

question

19. A non-response approach that weakens a behavior is known as:

answer

extinction

question

20. If a random number of responses must be emitted before reinforcement occurs, it is a:

answer

variable ratio schedule

question

21. Central to Bandura's social learning theory is the concept of:

answer

self-efficacy

question

22. Social learning theory is based on the belief that:

answer

learning occurs through the observation of other people and the modeling of their behavior

question

23. The strongest way for an employee to develop self-efficacy is to:

answer

succeed at a challenging task

question

24. An individual's beliefs and expectations about his or her ability to accomplish a specific task successfully is known as:

answer

self-efficacy

question

25. Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the four sources of task-specific self-efficacy critical to the social learning theory of Albert Bandura?

answer

intelligence quotient

question

26. Intuitors, in terms of learning, prefer:

answer

theoretical frameworks

question

27. The process of establishing desired results that guide and direct behavior is known as:

answer

goal setting

question

28. All of the following are generally considered to be good characteristics of work goals except:

answer

moderately difficult

question

29. Outcome (or performance) feedback is greatly facilitated by:

answer

quantitative goals

question

30. Which of the following is NOT a major function served by goal setting?

answer

It can result in a restriction of focus that leads to a lack of creativity, spontaneity, and flexibility.

question

31. Which of the following has not been shown to moderate the relationship between goal difficulty and task performance?

answer

low self monitor

question

32. An important intermediate step between goal acceptance and goal accomplishment is:

answer

goal commitment

question

33. A prerequisite for successful goal-setting programs, such as management by objectives (MBO), is:

answer

organizational commitment

question

34. An important function of goal setting is:

answer

reducing role stress associated with conflicting and/or confusing expectations

question

35. As a supervisor, you can enhance the performance of your employees by:

answer

allowing employees to participate in goal setting

question

36. A supervisor who wants to reduce the stress associated with work within the goal-setting guidelines would:

answer

clarify task-role expectations

question

37. Management by objectives is a goal-setting and performance-planning program originated by:

answer

Peter Drucker

question

38. Management by objectives involves:

answer

interaction between a superior and an employee for setting employees' goals and later evaluating performance and progress toward goal accomplishment

question

39. The process of defining, measuring, appraising, providing feedback on, and improving performance is called:

answer

performance management

question

40. The first step in the performance measurement process is:

answer

defining performance in behavioral terms

question

41. Performance appraisal is used for all of the following except:

answer

selecting persons from a pool of job applicants

question

42. The major function(s) of performance appraisal include:

answer

all of these

question

43. Performance feedback is more likely to lead to increased job performance when it is:

answer

constructive and specific

question

44. A key criticism of self-evaluations is:

answer

they have a low level of agreement with supervisory evaluations

question

45. All of the following are characteristics of 360-degree feedback except:

answer

When combined with self-evaluations, there is a high level of agreement with supervisory evaluations.

question

46. An effective performance appraisal system will contain or display all of the following except:

answer

self-correcting behavior

question

47. The reliability of an effective performance appraisal system comes from:

answer

insuring that evaluations from multiple sources and at different times are captured over the course of the evaluation period

question

48. Traditional organizational reward systems in the United States place value on:

answer

individual performance

question

49. Reward allocation decisions involve:

answer

sequential decisions about which people to reward, how to reward them, and when to reward them

question

50. The notion of entitlement at work is considered:

answer

to engender passive, irresponsible behavior

question

51. An informational cue indicating the degree to which a person behaves the same way in other situations is known as:

answer

distinctiveness

question

52. Kelley proposed that individuals make attributions based on information gathered in the form of:

answer

consensus, distinctiveness, and consistency

question

53. Minimal effort, lack of commitment, lack of motivation, and personal problems:

answer

are internal attributions for poor performance

question

54. An important aspect of a mentoring relationship is:

answer

coaching and counseling

question

55. The successful consequences of tri-mentoring, a formalized peer mentoring system, is based upon the recognition and importance of:

answer

tacit knowledge

question

1. The demand, person, activity, or event that triggers an uncomfortable encounter is known as:

answer

the stressor

question

2. The adverse psychological, physical, behavioral, and organizational consequence that may occur as a result of stressful events is known as:

answer

distress

question

3. The unconscious preparation to fight or flee that a person experiences when faced with any demand is known as:

answer

stress

question

4. Strain is the same as:

answer

distress

question

5. The approach to stress that is based on the concept of homeostasis is known as:

answer

physiological

question

6. The medical approach to stress is most similar to:

answer

homeostatic approach

question

7. Which of the following people developed the idea of the stress response?

answer

Walter B. Cannon

question

8. Utilizing the cognitive appraisal approach to stress, problem-focused coping emphasizes:

answer

managing the stressor

question

9. The psychoanalytic approach to stress most likely include which of the following personality dimensions?

answer

self-esteem

question

10. The person-environment fit approach to stress emphasizes the:

answer

fit between external and internal role expectations

question

11. The person-environment fit approach to studying and understanding stress emphasizes:

answer

social and organizational role stress

question

12. The fight-or-flight stress response is most closely associated with which approach to stress?

answer

homeostatic

question

13. Which of the following is NOT a mind-body change associated with stress?

answer

normal physical fatigue

question

14. Organizations need to be sensitive to sources of stress, which include all of the following except:

answer

resource

question

15. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a source of stress at work?

answer

psychological demands

question

16. Task demands include all of the following except:

answer

leadership style

question

17. Two of the most stressful demands people face at work are:

answer

change and lack of control

question

18. Role conflict results from:

answer

inconsistent expectations

question

19. An employee with a major sales presentation on Monday and a sick child at home Sunday night is likely to experience:

answer

interrole conflict

question

20. A manager who presses employees for both very fast work and high-quality work would likely cause:

answer

intrarole conflict

question

21. A manager instructs an employee to ship an item with a minor defect to a customer. This is an example of:

answer

person-role conflict

question

22. Role ambiguity is:

answer

the confusion one experiences related to the expectations of others

question

24. Which of the following is the best example of a positive (challenge) stressor?

answer

time pressure

question

23. The two major categories of "role stress" at work include:

answer

role conflict and role ambiguity

question

25. All of the following are stress-related interpersonal demands of the workplace except:

answer

intrarole conflict

question

26. All of the following would be considered a source of stress due to interpersonal demands except:

answer

role ambiguity

question

27. All of the following are approaches, services, or work arrangements intended to minimize the impact of nonwork demands on work except:

answer

mentoring

question

28. Healthy or normal stress is known as:

answer

eustress

question

29. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests that:

answer

in the midrange of the stress-performance curve, performance tends to be greatest

question

30. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests the relationship between stress level and performance arousal is:

answer

bell-shaped

question

31. Benefits of eustress include all of the following except:

answer

overstimulation

question

32. Psychosomatic disorders:

answer

are physical ailments that begin in the mind

question

33. The three forms of individual distress include:

answer

psychological, medical, and behavioral problems

question

34. A positive consequence of organizational distress may take the form of:

answer

functional turnover

question

35. Three direct costs of organizational distress include:

answer

participation problems, performance decrements, and compensation awards

question

36. Costs associated with absenteeism, tardiness, strikes, work stoppages, and turnover are known as:

answer

participation problems

question

37. Organizational costs of distress may take the form of all of the following except:

answer

sabotage

question

38. Individuals possessing a Type A personality:

answer

may become aggressive, even somewhat hostile when faced with conflict and other work-related difficulties

question

39. Assume you are a supervisor of ten employees, one of whom is clearly a Type A personality. Which of the following approaches would you follow to effectively manage this employee?

answer

Assist the employee through encouraging time management applications and convincing the person to pace him or herself.

question

40. A personality that tends to be resistant to distress is:

answer

hardy

question

41. An individual who is relatively good at transformational coping is/has:

answer

a hardy personality

question

42. The stress-handling strategy that is considered an alternative to transformational coping and may lead to short-term stress reduction at the cost of long-term healthy life adjustment is:

answer

regressive coping

question

43. Self-reliance is a healthy, secure, _____ pattern of behavior.

answer

interdependent

question

44. As a supervisor of claim adjusters for a property and casualty insurance company, you assign and reassign adjusters to handle routine and emergency situations. Your managerial skills have become severely tested because several adjusters, after short-term emergency assignments, are threatening to quit. What short-term approach to their stressful situation would be most appropriate?

answer

Reduce task demands and make sure no adjuster works more than five days a week.

question

45. A manager's decision to reduce task demands in a stress management situation is:

answer

stressor directed

question

46. Secondary prevention is intended to:

answer

alter or modify the individual's or the organization's response to a demand

question

47. The stage in preventive stress management designed to heal individual or organizational symptoms of distress and strain is called:

answer

tertiary prevention

question

48. A secondary prevention method of organizational stress is:

answer

team building

question

49. Job redesign, goal setting, and career management would be organizational stress prevention strategies applied at which stage of prevention?

answer

primary stage

question

50. The job strain model presented in your text suggests:

answer

that the combination of high job demand and restricted job decision latitude leads to a high-strain job

question

51. Job redesign as a stress prevention method may involve any one or all of the following except:

answer

giving the worker inspection responsibility or expanding the employee's job decision latitude

question

52. Evaluative feedback is an aspect of a(n) _____ approach to stress prevention.

answer

social support system

question

53. Learned optimism is:

answer

is non-negative thinking

question

54. The biggest benefits of physical exercise come as a result of:

answer

low intensity exercise

question

55. An employee assistance program is:

answer

an individual prevention approach to stress relief or reduction

question

1. The Department of Labor has identified which interpersonal communication skill as being necessary for successful functioning in the workplace?

answer

serving clients

question

2. The evoking of a shared or common meaning in another person is called:

answer

communication

question

3. The element of the communication model that contains the thoughts and feelings the communicator is attempting to elicit in the receiver is the:

answer

message

question

4. The window through which we interact with people and influences the quality, accuracy, and clarity of the communication is called:

answer

a perceptual screen

question

5. When a supervisor sends a message to his/her employees who comprise a diverse workgroup, both parties to the message should be sensitive to:

answer

perceptual screens

question

6. A communication medium that is moderate in both information richness and data capacity is:

answer

electronic mail

question

7. As a supervisor, you decide you need to communicate with several of your employees about below standard or unsatisfactory work. Which of the following would be the best way to send your message?

answer

written memo followed by a face-to-face meeting

question

8. Richness in a communication message refers to:

answer

the ability of the medium to convey the meaning

question

9. If one of your employees was in the early stages of expressing thoughts and feelings about a problem, especially when there may be some associated anxiety or discomfort, it would be most appropriate for you to:

answer

make affirming contact

question

10. Providing the time to identify and isolate the listener's personal responses and exclude them from the dialogue is one of the purposes of:

answer

silence

question

11. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning reflective listening?

answer

Reflective listening emphasizes more strongly the role of the communicator.

question

12. All of the following are included in reflective listening except:

answer

criticism

question

13. A software engineer has just discovered a major problem, which is not yet fully defined, in a large information system she is building for a very difficult customer. Her supervisor is listening to the engineer as she begins to talk through the problem. Which of the following responses would best exemplify the "reflecting of core feelings"?

answer

"I hear that you are feeling very upset about the problem and may be worried about the customer's reaction when you inform him".

question

14. One-way communication in contrast to two-way communication:

answer

is more efficient

question

15. In a study of managers' communication skills and performance,:

answer

higher performing managers are better and less apprehensive communicators than lower performing managers

question

16. As a supervisor in an emergency situation, you should be:

answer

directive and assertive

question

17. A barrier to effective communication is:

answer

status difference

question

18. A main method to overcome physical separation as a barrier to communication is:

answer

to increase the use of face-to-face communication

question

19. The use of new information technologies reduces status differences as a barrier to communication because:

answer

it encourages the formation of nonhierarchical working relationships

question

20. The FAME model of leadership communication is based upon which of the following message characteristics?

answer

focus, articulate, model, engage

question

21. All of the following except _____ can be used by a supervisor to reduce communication barriers.

answer

encouraging men and women to interact the same way

question

22. An effective method to reduce or overcome barriers to communication due to gender differences is to:

answer

seek clarification meaning

question

23. Which of the following is NOT considered a result or outcome of defensive communication?

answer

assertive but accurate message sending

question

24. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic rules Catherine Crier (news anchor for a major television network) uses to prevent defensive communication?

answer

bring the focus back to the person

question

25. Defensive communication can lead to:

answer

strained working relationships

question

26. You witness an incident at work where a supervisor loudly criticizes an employee in front of several other employees. Later, you learn that the employee didn't make any mistake. The supervisor's communication is an example of:

answer

dominant defensiveness

question

27. Passive-aggressive communication and behavior frequently end up as:

answer

dominant defensive behavior

question

28. A manager comments to her secretary, "How come Nancy (a word processor) is always hard to find when there is a deadline? She is a loafer." This is an example of:

answer

labeling

question

29. A defensive tactic where an individual attempts to manipulate and control others is:

answer

a power play

question

30. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nondefensive communication and behavior?

answer

evasive

question

31. Which of the following statements is an example of nondefensive communication?

answer

"I received the report from Dan yesterday and have briefly reviewed it. It looks good but I need to talk to him about one recommendation before I approve it."

question

32. As much as 65 to 90 percent of the substance or content of a message sent in person can be through:

answer

nonverbal communication

question

33. What percent of the meaning in a message can be conveyed by nonverbal communication?

answer

65 to 90

question

34. Nonverbal communication can be utilized in which of the following communication situations?

answer

committee meeting

question

35. Friends typically interact within the:

answer

intimate zone

question

36. Persons from many other countries prefer to interact (in face-to-face situations) at a/an _____ distance.

answer

intimate

question

37. Americans generally do not like to communicate with one another within their:

answer

intimate distance

question

38. The study of an individual's perception and use of space, including territorial space, is called:

answer

proxemics

question

39. Seating arrangements and dynamics can be examined in a/an _____ study.

answer

proxemics

question

40. You are chairing quality circle meetings with your employees and want to maximize opportunities for all to speak and contribute. The seating arrangement and table shape to accomplish this should be:

answer

round

question

41. To facilitate direct and open communication, which of the following seating arrangements would be most appropriate?

answer

seat the other party across a corner of your desk from you or in a place where you will be a right angles

question

42. In nonverbal communication, the study of body movements, including posture, is known as:

answer

kinesics

question

43. Positive, healthy communication is achieved when:

answer

all of these

question

44. At the core of personal integrity as displayed by executives is:

answer

healthy communication

question

45. Personal integrity in positive, healthy communication is achieved through:

answer

emotional competence

question

46. Which form of communication has high to moderate data capacity and moderate to low information richness?

answer

written communication

question

47. Which of the following statements about communication technologies is not true?

answer

Significant disparities in participation levels of persons within the group.

question

48. Many of the communications technologies significantly limit or eliminate _____ forms of communication.

answer

nonverbal

question

49. The use of new technologies encourages what kind of activity?

answer

polyphasic

question

50. Polyphasic activity is known as:

answer

doing more than one thing at time

question

1. Work groups place a strong emphasis on:

answer

shared leadership

question

2. A group is a collection of two or more persons with common interests or objectives, whereas a work team:

answer

is usually a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common goal for which they are mutually accountable

question

3. A small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common mission, performance goals, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable is known as a/an:

answer

work team

question

4. Groups emphasize all of the following except:

answer

collective work products

question

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-functioning group?

answer

people express both their feelings and their thoughts

question

6. Teams are appropriate where:

answer

the knowledge and talent of workers are dispersed across members and require integration

question

7. A beneficial team environment is one where an individual does the following:

answer

comes up with initiatives

question

8. The two sets of social benefits available to team or group members includes:

answer

psychological intimacy and integrated involvement

question

9. Integrated involvement as a social benefit of group or team membership includes:

answer

opportunity for influence

question

10. The standards that a work group uses to evaluate the behavior of its members are called:

answer

norms of behavior

question

11. The behavioral norms expected within work groups and considered to be among the most important from the organization's perspective are known as:

answer

organizational culture and credos

question

12. Which of the following statements regarding group cohesion is NOT accurate?

answer

highly cohesive groups tend to have higher interpersonal exchanges away from the workplace.

question

13. Social loafing is usually:

answer

detrimental to the group and may cause interpersonal conflict within the group

question

14. A method for countering social loafing includes:

answer

formal evaluation of member contributions

question

15. People may engage in immoral acts or even violent behavior as committed members of their group when:

answer

there is a loss of individuality

question

16. All of the following would be considered positive norms of behavior within a group except:

answer

loss of individuality

question

17. One of the contributing factors to the violent and aggressive acts that led to the riot that destroyed Los Angeles following the Rodney King verdict in the early 1990's included:

answer

loss of individuality

question

18. According to the group development model discussed in the text, a group addresses which of the following issues?

answer

interpersonal, task, and authority issues

question

19. Which of the following includes the set of interpersonal issues that need to be addressed according to the group development model?

answer

trust, personal comfort, and security

question

20. According to the group development model, which of the following set of issues need to be addressed as part of a group's authority issues?

answer

who is in charge, management of power and influence, and who has the right to tell whom to do what

question

21. Which of the following would NOT be considered a formal or deliberately designed group in a work setting?

answer

lunch hour table group

question

22. An emergent group is known as a/an:

answer

informal group

question

23. Dependence on guidance and direction is the defining characteristic in what stage of group development?

answer

forming

question

24. Which stage requires that team members feel they are a part of the team for further progression in group development to occur?

answer

forming

question

25. At what stage of group development does the leader need to adopt a coaching style due to team challenges?

answer

storming

question

26. At what stage of group development is the leader's role primarily one of recognition of the group's achievements?

answer

performing

question

27. Which of the following statements best reflects the punctuated equilibrium model of group development?

answer

all of these.

question

28. The notion that groups alternate between periods of inertia and bursts of energy as they develop is most consistent with:

answer

punctuated equilibrium

question

29. The development of group cohesiveness is negatively influenced by:

answer

internal competition

question

30. The set of authority and task relations among group members is known as:

answer

status structure

question

31. An effective team exhibits:

answer

shared leadership

question

32. Which of the following is NOT a maintenance function of a group?

answer

elaborating concepts

question

33. Task functions relate to a group's efforts to complete an assignment. These functions include all of the following except:

answer

consensus testing

question

34. As a member of a quality circle, you frequently check with other members to make sure all are focused on the same problem and that everyone has opportunities to contribute. You are performing the group maintenance function of:

answer

gatekeeping communication

question

35. Tension reduction activities are considered a:

answer

maintenance function

question

36. Work team effectiveness in the new team environment requires attention by management to both:

answer

team structure and team process

question

37. The contributor role in a team is usually occupied by someone who:

answer

provides data and necessary information for problem solutions

question

38. An important role in the performance of cross-functional teams is:

answer

integrator

question

39. Cooperative rewards in work teams will have the most effective impact on:

answer

accuracy of performance

question

40. All of the following are considered important work process issues except:

answer

role specification

question

41. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the impact of dissimilarity on teams and team members?

answer

value dissimilarity is negatively related to team involvement

question

42. Some experts believe that only individuals within a team can be creative, but a professor at Northwestern University suggests that team creativity can be achieved. Which of the following practices would NOT enhance team creativity?

answer

conformity

question

43. A team-oriented work environment places emphasis on:

answer

empowerment and collaboration

question

44. Which of the following is not considered to be a foundation for successful teamwork?

answer

goal clarity

question

45. Self-managed teams are sometimes called:

answer

autonomous work groups

question

46. Hambrick and Fukutomi's research on CEO tenure found that the second stage of tenure involved:

answer

experimentation

question

47. Upper echelon theory argues that:

answer

characteristics of the top management team can predict organizational characteristics

question

48. For successful chief executive officers, their peak performance years are usually after:

answer

five to seven years

question

49. A "wild turkey" in the top management team is:

answer

a devil's advocate who challenges the thinking of the CEO and other top executives

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