OB Practice

Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right candidate for the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic, scrupulous, and cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These characteristics about Lugo indicate her ________. A) Genealogy B) Talent C) Skill D) Personality E) Knowledge

Ellen Athers works as a communication executive at a travel house. She is known to be friendly with her colleagues and interacts with them regularly to build strong work relationships. She knows that her rapport with her co-workers is a crucial part of her work and invests time in these relationships. In addition, while making decisions, she is assertive and colleagues take her decisions seriously. Which of the following personality types is Athers most likely to be characterized by according to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) classification? _______ A) Introverted B) Perceiving C) Solitary D) Brooder E) Extroverted

Which of the following does the heredity approach state? A) An individual’s personality is determined by the social background one is brought up in. B) An individual’s personality is determined by molecular structure of the genes. C) An individual’s personality is influenced by the economic settings he is surrounded by. D) A person’s personality traits are created by the company he keeps i.e., his friends and family. E) A person’s personality traits are largely influenced by global trends and characteristics.

____ is as important for manages as for front-line employees and, among all Big Five Model traits, is most consistently related to job performance. A) Extroversion B) Agreeableness C) Conscientiousness D) Emotional Stability E) Openness to experience

Which of the following statements is true about people with positive core self-evaluations ? A) They are committed to their goals and set ambitious goals. B) They view themselves as powerless over their environment. C) They tend to question their capabilities and capacities. D) They lack persistence to achieve goals. E) They tend to be disliked by superiors and co-workers.

Which of the following is true of the baby boomer generation? A) They give high importance to achievement and material success. B) They rate highest in friendship and pleasure on the RVS. C) They are more questioning and entrepreneurial than the other generations. D) They lead lives shaped mainly by globalization. E) They give the highest importance to flexibility and life options.

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding people with proactive personalities? A) They react passively to situations. B) They tend to display their true dispositions and attitudes in every situation. C) They tend to be selfish and exploitative and believe others exist for their benefit. D) They are more likely than others to be seen as leaders. E) They are narcissistic in nature and require constant admiration.

Which of the following is true of values ? A) They are void of a judgmental element. B) They are invariably fluid and flexible in nature. C) They have content and intensity attributes. D) They never change irrespective of external factors. E) They are always established in a person’s later years.

Which of the following is an instrumental value according to the Rokeach value survey? A) economic success B) social recognition C) personal discipline D) world peace E) meaning in life

Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior? A) An employee is late to work because of a punctured tire. B) An employee postpones a meeting because he overslept. C) An employee was fired because he violated a company policy. D) An employee was promoted when he achieved more than the assigned objectives. E) An employee closed a sale with an important corporate client because of his excellent negotiation skills.

According to the attribution theory, if a behavior scores ________, we tend to attribute it to external causes. A) low on distinctiveness B) low on adaptability C) low on consistency D) high on stability E) low on consensus

Which of the following terms refers to a situation in which a person inaccurately perceives a second person, and the resulting expectations cause the second person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception? A) confirmation bias B) attribution theory C) self-fulfilling prophecy D) bandwagon effect E) contrast effect

Which of the following statements is true regarding the rational decision-making model? A) It takes into consideration the limited information-processing capability of individuals. B) It involves constructing simplified models without capturing all their complexity. C) It deals with satisficing decisions by seeking solutions that are satisfactory and sufficient. D) It assumes that an individual is able to identify all relevant options in an unbiased manner. E) It is an unconscious decision-making process created from distilled experience.

A process of making decisions by constructing simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity is known as A) bounded rationality B) active selection C) incremental decision making D) optimal decision making E) intuitive decision making

The tendency to seek out information that reaffirms past choices and to discount information that contradicts past judgments is known as a(n) ________ bias. A) anchoring B) distinction C) impact D) confirmation E) omission

A manager doing performance appraisals gives more weight to recent employee behaviors than to behaviors of 6 or 9 months earlier. This shows that the manager’s perception is affected by a(n) ________ bias. A) self-serving bias B) availability C) impact D) distinction E) hindsight

If Alberta is a categorized as a Theory X manager, which of the following behaviors is she most likely to exhibit? A) She will let her employees choose their own goals. B) She will trust her employees to use their discretion in most matters. C) She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing. D) She will delegate authority extensively to junior managers. E) She will empower her subordinates.

You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe has a high need for achievement, Mary has a high need for power, and Tim has a high need for affiliation. Sarah scored high on the need for power and low on the need for affiliation. Doug scored low on both need for power and need for affiliation. Which of these five employees is most suitable for handling your responsibilities when you are on a vacation? A) Doug B) Joe C) Sarah D) Tim E) Mary

Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one’s hunger, thirst, and other bodily needs? A) safety B) physiological C) social D) esteem E) psychological

According to the two-factor theory, ________. A) there exists a hierarchy of needs within every human being, and as each need is satisfied, the next one becomes dominant B) most employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it C) employees view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore learn to accept, and even seek, responsibility D) the aspects that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction E) achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation

Which of the following theories proposes that people prefer to feel they have control over their actions, so anything that makes a previously enjoyed task feel more like an obligation than a freely chosen activity will undermine motivation? A) self-serving theory B) motivation-hygiene theory C) two-factor theory D) self-determination theory E) goal setting theory

Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory? A) Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control. B) Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback. C) Generalized goals produce a higher level of output as compared to specific goals. D) People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals. E) Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-distance cultures.

According to Albert Bandura, the most important source of increasing self-efficacy is ________. A) arousal B) vicarious modeling C) verbal persuasion D) enactive mastery E) cognitive learning

A(n) ________ is any consequence, immediately following a response, that increases the probability that the behavior will be repeated. A) conclusion B) reinforcer C) goal D) objective E) referent

Jim is a salaried employee whose job is to develop content for online web sites. He discovers that he is paid substantially more than his colleagues, even though their jobs and levels of performance are very similar. According to the equity theory, what impact is this discovery most likely to have on his behavior and performance? A) He will reduce the amount of work that he does on a daily basis. B) He will compare his earnings to those of another group of employees. C) He will increase his productivity and/or the overall quality of his work. D) He will seek a position within the company commensurate with his pay. E) He will begin to look for a position outside of the company.

An informal group is characterized by the ________. A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization B) predetermined designation of tasks of members. C) pursuit of particular organizational goals. D) fulfillment of the need for social contact E) creation of timelines and rationale

The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________. A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group B) pride in the accomplishments of the group C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group D) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group E) intragroup conflict within the group

When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to be in the stage of ________. A) storming B) norming C) inertia D) forming E) performing

4) Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs? A) similarity B) role expectation C) diversity D) dispersion of responsibility E) uncertainty reduction

The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job. A) reference B) appearance C) organizational D) social arrangement E) performance

Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him. A) reference group B) organizational group C) control group D) nominal group E) intervention group

According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status? A) contribution to goals B) talent C) personality D) ability to conform to group norms E) control over the resources needed by the group

Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing? A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds B) increasing the amount by which the group’s progress is monitored C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group’s outcome are identified D) increasing the size of the group E) increasing the group’s workload

Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual decision making? A) increased pace of decision making B) increased ambiguous responsibility C) increased diversity of views D) increased conformity pressures E) increased dispersion of accountability

________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group. A) Assertiveness B) Social dominance C) Authoritativeness D) Cohesiveness E) Diversity

Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager so as to minimize groupthink? A) increasing the group size B) encouraging group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity C) preventing all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning D) asking the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives E) seeking input from employees before the group leader presents his opinions

A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique. A) reference groups B) nominal groups C) brainstorming D) interacting groups E) in-group

Groupshift is seen when ________. A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else’s culture over their own E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm for consensus.

According to the traditional view of conflict, all conflict is ________. A) necessary and improves creativity of a group B) healthy and improves productivity C) rational and cannot be avoided D) natural and helps generate discussion E) harmful and must be avoided

For process conflict to be productive, it must be ________. A) kept low B) subject to managerial control C) kept at moderate levels D) kept high E) kept at moderate-to-high levels

The ________ stage of the conflict process is important because it’s where conflict issues tend to be defined. A) potential opposition B) cognition and personalization C) intentions D) behavior E) reaction and transference

________ is a conflict-handling technique in which the parties in a conflict each desire to satisfy fully the concerns of all parties. A) Collaborating B) Competing C) Accommodating D) Avoiding E) Compromising

A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent’s interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this intention as ________. A) collaborating B) avoiding C) compromising D) competing E) accommodating

Which of the following is a conflict-stimulation technique? A) expansion of resources B) compromise C) bringing in outsiders D) exercising authoritative command E) problem solving

Conflict is dysfunctional when it ________. A) provides a medium to release tension B) reduces group cohesiveness C) fosters an environment of self-evaluation D) provides a means for expressing frustration E) leads to change

Which of the following statements best defines a work group? A) A work group performs at a level greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members. B) A work group consists of members having complementary skills that are applied in a coordinated fashion to the task at hand. C) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort. D) A work group consists of members who work together and generate positive synergy through coordinated effort. E) A work group involves individual and mutual accountability regarding results and outcomes.

The goal of work groups is ________. A) enhancing team efficacy B) improving collective performance C) sharing relevant information D) inculcating a climate of trust E) generating positive synergy

The supervisors of the production division of one of the branches of Georgia Mills have been informed of some irregularities noticed in inventory of raw materials by some trusted subordinates. To get a clearer picture, the supervisors had a quick meeting with the subordinates who reported the matter over lunch. The subordinates recommended rotating the schedule of employees who account for the incoming and used up stock so as to pinpoint the defaulting employee. The supervisors agreed that this was a good strategy but admitted that the matter must be escalated to the production manager before such a change can be implemented. They followed up this meeting with subsequent sessions to evaluate how the change worked. The supervisors and subordinates form a(n) ________ team in this scenario. A) cross-functional B) problem-solving C) virtual D) independent E) self-managed

The extensive use of work teams benefits organizations by ________. A) generating neutral synergy among all employees of the team B) eliminating the need for mutual accountability for results C) developing the various team member’s skills such that they are random and varied D) generating a potential for creating greater outputs without increasing inputs E) ensuring that the mere accumulation of individual efforts is used for group work

Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team? A) Work teams are rarely used in organizations today. B) Work teams involve members of random and varied skill sets. C) Work teams are generally less flexible than traditional departments. D) Work teams are less responsive to changes in the internal and external environment of the company. E) Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated effort.

Which of the following teams is more likely to be made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas? A) problem-solving B) self-managed work C) cross-functional D) traditional E) departmental

Which of the following represents the three general categories into which the key components of effective teams are grouped? A) internal, external, and peripheral factors B) cardinal, central, and secondary factors C) standard, segregated, and advanced factors D) basic, functional, and strategic factors E) context, composition, and process factors

Araceli is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in team meetings because she has seen members talk behind each others’ backs after the meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other members’ work and looking for mistakes to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is lacking in Araceli’s team? A) adequate resources B) performance evaluations C) team structure D) climate of trust E) leadership

Which of the following pairs of personality dimensions contribute to high team effectiveness? A) type A and type B B) perfectionism and rule consciousness C) introversion and reflexivity D) reflexivity and submissiveness E) conscientiousness and openness to experience

Which of the following statements is true regarding team composition? A) A team’s performance is merely the summation of its individual members’ abilities. B) High-ability teams find it hard to adapt to changing situations. C) Agreeableness is the only personality dimension that aids the ability to work in groups. D) In successful teams, members should be selected to ensure all the various roles are filled. E) A high-ability team will function well irrespective of the deficits in the abilities of the leader.

According to the concept of organizational demography, if team members have dissimilar experiences, it will lead to ________. A) increased employee satisfaction B) decreased level of conflicts C) higher employee motivation D) higher employee turnover E) higher team efficacy

Which of the following statements is true regarding size of teams? A) The most effective teams have twelve to fifteen members. B) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness declines. C) As team size increases, social loafing decreases. D) When teams have excess members, mutual accountability increases. E) Members of large teams coordinate work better when pressed for time.

________ illustrates a process loss from using teams. A) Organizational demography B) Role conflict C) Social loafing D) Multitasking E) Profit-sharing

While discussing their marketing campaign for a new product, the members of the cross-functional team responsible for Carver Inc. realized that a couple of changes relating to their prior plan would be beneficial. The offer of a franchising that had earlier been brushed off by the company head was discussed thoroughly and it was decided that it would be implemented on a trial basis initially, and on full scale if found to work well. From the information provided, it can be concluded that this cross-functional team has a high degree of ________. A) conformity B) demography C) uncertainty D) reflexivity E) diversity

Alberto’s team is developing a database for the water pollution data of three cities. Before he begins on this intensive project, he wants to improve the team efficacy of his team. Which of the following actions can Alberto take to increase team efficacy before the project starts? A) plan a team outing for the team members B) create team goals that are very challenging C) spend considerable time evaluating team members and allocating proper roles for each D) make sure that his team is not comprised of more than nine people E) provide client’s software and database training for all the team members

When teams are performing nonroutine activities, ________ stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions. A) task conflicts B) disciplinary conflicts C) relationship conflicts D) resource allocation conflicts E) discriminatory conflicts

When individuals engage in ________, they coast on the group’s effort because their particular contributions cannot be identified. A) task conflicts B) gainsharing C) retaliating D) process gains E) social loafing

Which of the following must be avoided if one wants to create and maintain an effective team? A) congruent mental models B) reflexivity C) specific goals D) task conflicts E) relationship conflicts

Diane Fielding, owner of the famous “Mint” chain of restaurants, planned to revamp the whole concept and structure of her outlets. With this purpose in mind, she selected five managers from her existing outlets based on their performance in relation to targets, experience, and motivation. Each manager was asked to take up an aspect of the restaurant’s functioning like menu, décor, and customer service measures. Diane was sure that this group of high performers possessed a clear understanding of the ground realities which made them the best candidates to contemplate and implement the required changes. In order to reward them, she announced a hefty bonus for their collective performance. Six months later, after the changes were implemented, Diane realized that the group had made many questionable decisions which were resulting in problems. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome? A) Two of the branches of “Mint” were located in the suburbs, while the other three outlets were located in busy areas and witnessed more customers. B) The team members had skills that were complementary to each other and added value to the project. C) Typically, these managers viewed each other as competition as Diane only rewarded the highest earning outlet with incentives. D) The team members had high levels of affective commitment to their jobs as Diane was a good leader. E) The team members were clear about their duties and role ambiguity was minimal.

20) The work of your group would be better done in teams if the members of the team are ________. A) reflexive B) independent C) individualistic D) autonomous E) interdependent

“Stability” is one of the seven primary characteristics that captures the essence of an organization’s culture. It indicates the degree to which ________. A) work activities are organized around teams rather than individuals B) employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks C) management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve them D) management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization E) organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between organizational culture and job satisfaction? A) Job satisfaction is immeasurable, whereas organizational culture is measurable. B) Job satisfaction depends upon the level of “power distance” in the country but organizational culture does not. C) Organizational culture is static, whereas job satisfaction is dynamic. D) Job satisfaction depends on the structure of the organization but organizational culture does not. E) Organizational culture is descriptive, whereas job satisfaction is evaluative.

The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization are known as ________. A) core values B) foundational traits C) institutional traits D) shared values E) unique values

Which of the following is most likely to result from a strong organizational culture? A) low employee satisfaction B) high absenteeism C) low employee turnover D) low behavioral control resulting from the climate within the organization E) low organizational commitment

Which of the following statements is true regarding the establishment of the organizational culture and its effects on the organization? A) Employees organized in teams always show greater allegiance to the values of the organization as a whole than to their team and its values. B) Culture acts as a control mechanism and guides the behavior of employees. C) In a virtual organization a strong culture can be established quickly and easily. D) Today’s trend toward decentralized organizations makes it is easier to establish a strong culture. E) Cultures reduce the stability of the social system in an organization.

Culture is most likely to be a liability when ________. A) the organization is highly centralized B) the employees of the organization are highly skilled C) the organization scores low on the degree of formalization D) the organization’s environment is dynamic E) the organization’s management is highly efficient

The selection process helps sustain the organization’s culture by ________. A) hiring candidates who fit well within the organization B) rewarding conformity C) developing performance evaluation criteria D) socializing the new employees E) establishing and enforcing norms

Top management has a major impact on the organization’s culture by ________. A) ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values B) socializing new applicants in the pre-hiring phase C) establishing norms that filter down through the organization D) providing a framework for metamorphosis of new hires E) properly rewarding employees’ initiatives

If there is a basic conflict between the individual’s expectations and the reality of working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during the ________ stage of socialization. A) metamorphosis B) prearrival C) post-arrival D) encounter E) post-encounter

A strong culture can act as a substitute for which of the following? A) institutionalization B) formalization C) socialization D) centralization E) social support

Grace works for a pet store where everyone is committed to the happiness of the animals. Often employees, bosses, and hourly workers alike, come into the store “off the clock” and spend time training the animals. Everyone loves the store, the animals, and their jobs. This attitude of her co-workers inspires Grace to do her best. Based on this information, we can say that Grace is experiencing the effects of ________. A) decentralization B) organizational climate C) high departmentalization D) low formalization E) high work specialization

Bruce is new at Wayne Corp., but after a week he already knows that the founder of the corporation started the business in his garage with only $4,000 and one client. This information was most likely transmitted to Bruce by way of ________. A) rituals B) corporate chants C) material symbols D) stories E) organizational charts

Company chants are examples of ________. A) company policies B) business strategies C rituals D) material symbols E) stories

Alcoa headquarters has few individual offices, even for senior executives. The space is essentially made up of cubicles, common areas, and meeting rooms. This informality conveys to employees that Alcoa values ________. A) autocracy B) equality C) rigidity D) formalization E) competitiveness

An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards among its members is one that ________. A) is low in risk tolerance B) is high in aggressiveness C) focuses only on outcomes D) takes a short-term perspective E) balances the rights of multiple stakeholders

A positive organizational culture emphasizes ________. A) individual vitality and growth B) the significance of highly centralized management C) the use of rituals in transmitting organizational culture D) the use of negative reinforcement and punishment E) organizational standardization and institutionalization

17) Liz is the lead editor for a small, city newspaper. One of her advertising sales representatives is pulling in a lot of restaurant clients. Liz realizes that the representative is quite knowledgeable about food and speaks quite elegantly when describing different dishes. She has begun discussing with the representative the possibility of collaborating with a writer to include a weekly restaurant review, which includes the representative on the byline. After the first couple of reviews, the representative is able to increase ad sizes and sales. He is very happy with his new job diversification. Which aspect of creating a positive organizational culture is Liz utilizing? A) building on organization strengths B) using narrow spans of control C) rewarding more than punishing D) emphasizing individual vitality and growth E) creating loose management oversight

How can U.S. managers be culturally sensitive? A) by discussing politics frequently B) by listening more C) by talking in a high tone of voice D) by speaking quickly E) by indulging in frequent discussions about religion

Which of the following terms refers to the recognition that people have an inner life that nourishes and is nourished by meaningful work that takes place in the context of community? A) dominant culture B) fundamental mechanism C) workplace spirituality D) outcome orientation E) subculture

Which of the following statements is true regarding effects of national culture on organizational culture and ethical behavior within organization? A) Organizations can safely ignore local culture while establishing its operation in another country. B) Most U.S. managers do not view profit maximization as a moral obligation. C) Organizational cultures rarely reflect national culture. D) Generally, U.S. managers see bribery, nepotism, and favoring personal contacts as highly unethical. E) As compared to managers in the United States, managers in developing economies are less likely to see ethical decisions as embedded in a social environment.

Trait theories of leadership focus on ________. A) the special relationship that leaders establish with a small group of their followers B) the way the leader makes decisions C) the match between the leader’s style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader control D) the personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from nonleaders E) the extent to which followers are willing and able to accomplish a specific task

Emotional intelligence (EI) is critical to effective leadership because one of its core components is ________ which reflects the consideration that leaders must be able to express. A) conscientiousness B) empathy C) optimism D) introversion E) perfectionism

Adrian Atwood, a senior manager at MNC, spends a lot of his time assigning group members to particular tasks and scheduling their work such that deadlines are achievable. Adrian also sets high expectations for standards of performance, and holds regular meetings to ensure that productivity and quality are up to the mark. In the light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Adrian, as a leader, is ________. A) employee oriented B) high in initiating structure C) high in consideration D) low in task orientation E) relationship oriented

Nellie Fritz, the head of client support services at Olson Inc., is very popular among her subordinates. Many believe that Nellie has a knack for getting the work done without making the employees feel pushed into a corner. She is often seen speaking to her subordinates and support staff about their families, helping them with any personal problems they have, and praising employees for their good work. In light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Nellie, as a leader, is ________. A) task oriented B) production oriented C) low in relationship orientation D) high in consideration E) low in trust propensity

Norman has been working in the sales division for a large manufacturing company for four months. In this short period of time, Norman has learned that Mr. Hill, his manager, keeps increasing monthly targets significantly, and though each time the target appears unrealistic, Norman has been able to achieve them throughout the last four months. Mr. Lee’s approach of leading his employees to work more efficiently by setting successively higher targets is an example of his ________ leadership. A) consideration-based B) support-oriented C) production-oriented D) person-oriented E) employee-oriented

The least preferred co-worker (LPC) questionnaire is used to measure whether ________. A) the followers are able and willing B) a leader is task or relationship-oriented C) the members are in the in-group or out-group D) employees prefer servant leadership over situational leadership E) the leader is high on the dimension of conscientiousness

Fiedler’s contingency leadership model assumes that ________. A) an individual’s leadership style is essentially fixed B) an individual is constantly striving to develop a more productive style C) an individual’s leadership is primarily determined by the the features of the followers D) an individual’s leadership style can be altered much like his/her personality traits E) an individual’s leadership style must be task oriented to be effective

Which of the following theoretical approaches in the study of leadership focuses on followers’ readiness as a determinant of effective leadership? A) Big Five personality model B) behavioral theories C) Fiedler contingency model D) laissez-faire leadership E) situational leadership theory

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the path-goal theory of leadership? A) The theory considers leadership to be a set of attributes ascribed to leaders by followers. B) The theory proposes only a passive and supportive role for leaders. C) The theory considers removing obstacles to be a component of effective leadership. D) The theory proposes that leaders must work closely with followers throughout. E) The path-goal theory represents a laissez-faire approach to leadership.

Which of the following leadership behaviors is likely to differentiate between transactional and transformational leaders? A) laissez-faire B) individualized consideration C) contingent reward D) micromanagement E) management by exception (active and passive)

Leaders who function primarily by clarifying role and task requirements to accomplish established goals exhibit a(n) ________ style of leadership. A) transformational B) transactional C) charismatic D) laissez-faire E) employee-oriented

The president of a small Asian country was hailed as a visionary and a genius when the nation’s economy burgeoned during his first term in office. However, when the currency and the stock markets crashed during his government’s second term, he was censured as arrogant, elitist, and shortsighted. Which of the following theoretical approaches is reflected here? A) path-goal theory B) attribution theory C) behavioral theories D) trait theories E) servant leadership perspective

Which of the following is true of substitutes? A) Substitutes are factors and conditions that replace formal leadership. B) Organizations cannot provide any substitutes for leadership. C) Substitutes are clearly distinguishable from neutralizers. D) Substitutes increase the levels of identification-based trust. E) Substitutes enhance the need for leader’s support or ability to create structure.

________ make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower outcomes. A) Neutralizers B) Hygiene factors C) Vision and charisma D) Mentors E) Catalysts

In terms of the full range of leadership models, which leadership behavior is the least effective? A) management by exception (active) B) contingent reward C) management by exception (passive) D) individualized consideration E) laissez-faire

________ is defined as a psychological state that exists when you agree to make yourself vulnerable to another because you have positive expectations about how things are going to turn out. A) Consideration B) Trust C) Support D) Empathy E) Respect

Ellen Ortiz works as a sales manager at a telecom firm. The company has recently launched a new product in the market. Her work in the next few weeks involves sharing knowledge about the product with her team members. She will also need to inspire them to reach their sales targets, and clarify any doubts about the new product. Which of the following roles is Ortiz playing? A) leader B) liaison C) disseminator D) spokesperson E) negotiator

________ are defined as people who oversee the activities of others and who are responsible for attaining goals in organizations. A) Assistants B) Managers C) Secretaries D) Interns E) Apprentices

Which of the following best defines organizational behavior? A) It involves the study of groups of people coming together for collective bargaining. B) It involves the study of what people do in a company and how it affects the company’s output. C) It involves analyzing different people in an industry with independent profit-centered motives. D) It involves developing exclusively the knowledge of managers and senior -level employees. E) It is a field which is not influenced by factors in the external world.

Researchers now recognize three major types of behavior that constitute performance at work. Which of the following are these three major types of behavior? A) task performance, productivity, tenure B) productivity, efficiency, absenteeism C) task performance, citizenship, counterproductivity D) citizenship, counterproductivity, personality E) leadership, knowledge, efficiency

Which of the following is the least predictive set of criteria used to evaluate employees? A) traits B) task outcomes C) behaviors D) personality E) technical skills

________ involves evaluating one’s performance against the performance of one or more others. A) BARS B) The critical incident method C) An assessment center evaluation D) Forced comparison E) Likert analysis

The approach to evaluation that uses feedback from those who have daily contact with an employee (everyone from mailroom personnel to customers to bosses to peers) is termed ________. A) critical incidents B) 360-degree evaluation C) assessment center D) multiperson comparisons E) downward evaluation

If a manager uses critical incidents as a method of performance evaluation, then ________. A) the employees generally receive poor ratings B) the evaluator’s writing skills become the determining factor of the evaluation C) the employees are more likely to become motivated to achieve their goals D) the focus of the evaluation will center on key behaviors E) the cost of the evaluation is likely to be incredibly high for the organization

________ ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular classification, such as top one-fifth or second one-fifth. A) Individual B) Group order C) Paired D) Fractional E) Percentile

The concept of ________ can be applied to appraisals to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly. A) selective evaluation B) due process C) multiple raters D) selective retention E) counterproductivity

Political behaviors usually ________. A) lie outside of an individual’s specified job requirements B) are counterproductive to individual goals C) are seen only in large organizations D) are sanctioned by organizational leaders E) are expected as part of each job requirement

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