Micro 3 – Flashcard
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Chemotherapy to inhibit the progression of HIV infection utilizes all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
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destruction of viral ribosomes
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T or F? HIV attack of CD4+T cells causes suppression of both cell mediated and humoral immune responses.
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True
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T or F? Human stem cells are pluripotent
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Ture
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T or F? Autoimmune disease occur when the immune system is unable to discriminate self from non self.
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True
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Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection result in
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immunosuppression
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The process of desensitization to prevent allergies involves the injection of increasing amounts of
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Antigen
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The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to
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complement fixation
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A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with
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CTLs and activated macrophages
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Allergic contact dermatitis is due to
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sensitized T cells
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A reaction to poison ivy after your initial exposure is an example of
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delayed cell mediated immunity
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Graft versus host disease will most likely be a complication of a
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bone marrow transplant
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In rheumatoid arthritis, IgM, IgG, and complement deposit in joints This is an example of
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immune complex autoimmunity
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Which of the following are used to determine relatedness between donor and a recipient for transplants
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HLA, MHC, and ABO blood group antigens
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Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from
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an Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus
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Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+?
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Anti-A
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Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with
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IgE antibodies
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Which of the following may result form systemic anaphylaxis?
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shock
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The chemicals that cause anaphylaxis are
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found in basophils and mast cells
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All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT
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it occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time
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ADCC is a process that is most effective in destroying
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eukaryotic pathogens
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A Treg cell deficiency could result in
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autoimmunity
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Thymic selection
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destroys all T cells that do not recognize self-molecules of MHC
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Cytokines released by TH1 cells
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activate CD8+cells to CTLs
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Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?
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CTLs
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The antibody that can bind to large parasites and modulate allergic anaphylaxis is
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IgE
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells?
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They recognize antigens associated with MHC I.
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T or F? Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system.
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True
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Which of the following is the best definition of antigen?
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something that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive, cell mediated immunity?
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The cells originate in the bone marrow.
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When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as
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neutralization
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Which fo the following cells is NOT an APC?
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natural killer cells
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Which of the following statements is NOT a possible outcome of an antigen-antibody reaction?
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clonal deletion
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What type of immunity results form recovery from mumps?
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naturally acquired active immunity
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What type of immunity results from vaccination?
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artificially acquired active immunity
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Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT?
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production of antibody
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Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT
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they produce antibacterial chemicals
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Which of the following is an effect of complement opsonization?
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increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
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Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT
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interference with viral replication
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A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?
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phagocytosis and the inflammatory response
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Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?
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macrophages
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The function of the ciliary escalator is to
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trap inhaled dust and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract
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All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection except
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HCl
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Innate immunity
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is nonspecific and present at birth
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T or F? Infections with some viruses may induce chromosomal changes that alter the growth properties of host cells.
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True
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T or F? LD50 is a measurement that can indicate virulence.
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True
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T or F? Biofilms provide pathogens with an adhesion mechanism and aid in resistance to antimircobial agents.
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True
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Which of the following is NOT a cytopathic effect of viruses?
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toxin production
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Endotoxins in sterile injectable drugs could cuase
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septic shock syndrome
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Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by
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the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test
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Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages can
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give new gene sequences to the host bacteria
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Superantigens produce intense immune responses by stimulating lymphocytes to produce
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cytokines
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Which of the following contributes to the virulence of a pathogen
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Numbers of microorganisms that gain access ot a host, evasion of host defenses, and toxin production.
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Symptoms of protozoan and helminthic disease are due to
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tissue damage due to growth of the parasite on teh tissues, waste products excreted by the parasite and products released from damaged tissues.
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All fo the following are examples of entry via the parenteral route EXCEPT?
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hair follicle
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Symptoms of intense inflammation and shock occur in some gram positive bacterial infections due to
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superantigens
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Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to
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viral infections
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Siderophores are bacterial proteins that take what element from the host
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iron
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The ID50 is
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the does that will cause an infection in 50% of the test population
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Endotoxins are
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part of the gram negative cell wall
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All of the following contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness EXCEPT
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Toxins
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T or F? Many pathogens use the same portal for entry and exit from the body
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True
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The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
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mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
