Marketing Exam 2 CH 10-18 – Flashcards

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question
Which of the following is NOT one of the activities carried on in a distribution center?
answer
Distributing paychecks and paystubs for retail employees
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Compared to the 1990s, supply chain management streamlines distribution by reducing problems associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
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verification of promotional allowances
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When Cynthia's Boutique receives dresses, they already have price tags and are on hangers. Cynthia's Boutique receives ________ merchandise.
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floor-ready
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In the United States, companies using email marketing must provide a way for individuals to _______ email lists; in the European Union, companies may send email only to those individuals who chose to _________ email lists.
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opt out of; opt in to
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Bertone's Office Supplies has large stores resemble warehouse environments, with racks stocked from floor to ceiling with different types of office supplies. Their assortment of office supplies is the largest in town, and their prices are low. Bertone's is a(n):
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category specialist
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Benton manages a building supply company. He wants to invite twenty of his most valuable building-contractor customers to a golf outing and party. Benton will probably use the firm's _________________ to identify these customers
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CRM database
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Which of the following types of research would be considered conclusive research?
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Experimental research
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Marketers often race too quickly into research studies to collect __________________ data because it is designed to address their specific questions, while _____________ data may exist that can sufficiently address the marketer's questions at a much lower cost.
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primary; secondary
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Firms spend millions of dollars annually to build brand equity, recognizing brand equity contributes to:
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profitability.
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Andy likes gourmet popcorn, and will spend time trying to find his favorite brand. His girlfriend, Joanne, loves popcorn but doesn't care about brands. For Andy popcorn is a _____________ good while for Joanne it is a _____________ good.
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specialty; convenience
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By adding new product lines beyond its core business of computer software, like the Zune MP3 player and XBox 360 game system, Microsoft primarily benefits by:
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creating diversification and reducing risk
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___________________ involves taking apart a product, analyzing it, and creating an improved product that does not infringe on the competitor's patents.
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Reverse engineering
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When marketers systematically collect, record, analyze, and interpret data in order to aid in decision making, they are engaged in
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marketing research.
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______ uses a variety of statistical analysis tools to uncover previously unknown patterns in data or relationships among variables.
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Data mining
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Which of the following is NOT included in the American Marketing Association's guidelines for marketing research?
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supporting efforts to overcome consumers' concerns about privacy
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One of the most important issues marketers must address before beginning a marketing research project is whether or not
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senior management is willing to abide by the results
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Scanner data, U.S. Census data, internal company data and Internet background research are all examples of ______ data
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secondary
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The major advantage of ________ data is that it can be tailored to meet specific marketing research needs
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primary
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Jerry is designing an online survey questionnaire. When designing the questionnaire, Jerry should
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use language respondents are familiar with.
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The disadvantages to secondary research are that it may not be precisely relevant to the information that is needed, the data sources may be biased and
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the methodologies for collecting data may not be appropriate.
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Commercial research firms such as Symphony IRI Group, J.D. Power and Associates and ACNeilsen all provide data that marketers can purchase. This type of data is known as _____ data
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syndicated
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Joe, the owner of a local hardware store, is in the process of going through his customer's purchase histories to determine if they purchase certain types of products together on a regular basis, so he can then market those products more effectively. What activity is Joe engaged in?
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data mining
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Because they will spend a fair amount of time comparing alternatives, for most consumers, a laptop computer would be considered a(n)
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shopping product.
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A firm's product mix is often made up of multiple
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product lines.
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The value of a brand can be determined by looking at the set of assets and liabilities linked to a brand that add to or subtract from its value. The result of this calculation is
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brand equity
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If consumers think that the discount store with the lowest prices on food is going to have the lowest prices on all goods, the discount store has achieved a positive
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brand association
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What are the two basic brand ownership strategies?
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manufacturer and retail
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A brand extension
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increases the product mix's breadth.
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Which of the following includes the nonphysical aspects of a product, such as warranties and product support?
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augmented product
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_______ is the practice of marketing two brands together on the same package, promotion or store
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Co-branding
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When one firm contracts with another to use a brand name, logo, symbol or character for a negotiated fee, this is known as
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brand licensing
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The _________ package is the one the consumer uses, while the _____________ package is the wrapper or exterior carton that provides the UPC label
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primary; secondary
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Firms can choose to market its current products to current customers or take the same product to another market with similar customers. Otherwise, to succeed they must
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innovate
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The _____ a product exists in the marketplace; the more likely it is that the market will become _____
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longer; saturated
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Consumers who feel the need to be the first to see a new movie, try a new restaurant, own a piece of new technology, or wear the latest fashion accessory are crucial to the success of any new product for they help the product gain market acceptance. These consumers are known as
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innovators
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Relative advantage, compatibility, observability, and trialability affect
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how quickly an innovative product will be accepted by a market
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Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the Product Development Process?
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new product promotion
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When Diego and his team took apart the competitor's product, analyzed it, and tried to create an improved product that did not infringe on the competitor's patents, they were engaged in the process of
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reverse engineering.
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Alpha testing and beta testing are two processes that take place during which stage of the product development process?
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product development
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When fast food restaurants come up with new offerings, they often market them in a dozen or so of their outlets. When they do this, they are engaged in
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test marketing.
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In the Product Development Process, the step that requires tremendous financial resources and extensive coordination of all aspects of the marketing mix is
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product launch
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Which of the following is the correct order for the product life cycle?
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Introduction, growth, maturity, decline
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The marketing of services differs from product marketing because services are
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intangible, inseparable, heterogeneous and perishable
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As a service industry, many hotels use satisfaction guarantees to overcome the problem of
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inseparability
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Because services like airline flights and hotel beds are perishable, many marketers attempt to match demand with supply through the use of
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pricing strategies.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the five dimensions used by consumers to determine overall service quality?
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repeatability
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The zone of tolerance identifies
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the difference between what a customer really wants and what the customer is willing to accept before going elsewhere.
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Firms can attempt to close a standards gap by
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setting appropriate service standards and measuring service performance
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Clayton is a customer service representative for a music supply store. When customers call the store to order products, Clayton is allowed to work directly with them to ensure they select the right product to meet their needs. Likewise, if the customers call back with issues regarding those products, Clayton is authorized to make decisions that will rectify the situation and satisfy the customer. This is an example of
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empowering service providers.
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Which of the following is a component of effective service recovery?
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providing a fair solution
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With regard to service recovery, _____ fairness pertains to a customer's perception of the benefits he or she received compared with the costs
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distributive
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Even though it has been around for years, people never tire of eating at the White Hall Inn Restaurant. The customers who frequent the restaurant say it is the cleanest, most comfortable restaurant in town and the staff is always impeccably dressed and very courteous. Based on this feedback, the White Hall Inn would receive high marks on which service quality dimension?
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tangibles
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What is the difference between internal and external secondary research?
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Secondary data might come from free or very inexpensive external sources, such as census data, information from trade associations, and reports published in magazines. Secondary sources can also be accessed through internal sources, including the company's sales invoices, customer lists, and other reports generated by the company itself.
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What are the types of qualitative research?
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Observation, In-Depth Interviews, Focus Groups, and Social Media.
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What are the types of quantitative research?
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Experiments, Survey, Scanner, and Panel
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Under what circumstances is it ethical to use consumer information in marketing research?
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Many customers demand increasing control over the information that has been collected about them. Companies must disclose their privacy practices to customers before using information.
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What challenges do technological advances pose for the ethics of marketing research?
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As technology continues to advance though, the potential threats to consumers' personal information grow in number and intensity.
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Explain the three components of a product.
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Core customer value, actual product, and associated services
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What are the four types of consumer products?
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Specialty, shopping, convenience, and unsought.
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What is the difference between product line breadth versus depth?
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Breadth (sometimes also referred to as variety) represents the number of product lines offered by the firm; Product line depth, in contrast, is the number of categories within a product line.
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Why change product line breadth?
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To capture new or evolving markets, increase sales, and compete in new venues. address changing market conditions or meet internal strategic priorities.
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Why change product line depth?
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To address changing consumer preferences or preempt competitors while boosting sales, to realign resources.
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How do brands create value for the customer and the firm?
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Brands facilitate the consumer search process are valuable in a legal sense, can lead to lower marketing costs because the brand and its associations help sell the product and brands have real market value as a company asset.
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What are the components of brand equity?
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Brand awareness, perceived value, brand associations, and brand loyalty.
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What are the differences among manufacturer and private-label brands?
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Manufacturer brands are owned and managed by the manufacturer. The manufacturer develops the merchandise, produces it to ensure consistent quality, and invests in a marketing program to establish an appealing brand image. Private-label brands are products developed by retailers.
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What is co-branding?
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Co-branding is the practice of marketing two or more brands together, on the same package or promotion.
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What is the difference between brand extension and line extension?
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Whereas a brand extension uses the same brand name for a new product that gets introduced into new or the same markets, a line extension is simply an increase of an existing product line by the brand.
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What is brand re-positioning?
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Brand re-positioning refers to a strategy in which marketers change a brand's focus to target new markets or realign the brand's core emphasis with changing market preferences.
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What are the reasons firms innovate?
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Changing customer needs, market saturation, managing risk through diversity, and fashion cycles
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What are the five groups on the diffusion of innovation curve?
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Innovators, early adopters, early majority, late majority, laggards.
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What factors enhance the diffusion of a good or service?
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Relative advantage, compatibility, complexity and trialability
question
What are the steps in the new product development process?
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First, they generate ideas for the product or service. Second, firms test their concepts by either describing the idea of the new product or service to potential customers or showing them images of what the product would look like. Third, the design process entails determining what the product or service will actually include and provide. Fourth, firms test market their designs. Fifth, if everything goes well in the test market, the product is launched. Sixth, firms must evaluate the new product or service to determine its success.
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Identify different sources of new product ideas.
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Internal research and development (R&D) efforts, collaborate with other firms and institutions, license technology from research-intensive firms, brainstorm, research competitors' products and services, and/or conduct consumer research;
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What are the stages in the product life cycle?
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Introduction, growth, maturity, decline
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How do sales and profits change during the various stages?
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Profits and sales grow until maturity and then begin to decline
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What are the four marketing elements that distinguish services from products?
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Services are intangible, inseparable, variable, and perishable.
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Why can't we separate firms into just service or just product sellers?
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Many of them are a blend and fall within the product-service continuum
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Explain the four service gaps identified by the Gaps Model.
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The knowledge gap reflects the difference between customers' expectations and the firm's perception of those customer expectations. Firms can understand consumer expectations and evaluate service quality
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List at least two ways to overcome each of the four service gaps.
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The standards gap pertains to the difference between the firm's perceptions of customers' expectations and the service standards it sets. Firms can set appropriate service standards and measure service performance The delivery gap is the difference between the firm's service standards and the actual service it provides to customers. This gap can be closed by getting employees to meet or exceed service standards by providing incentives and support. The communication gap refers to the difference between the actual service provided to customers and the service that the firm's promotion program promises. If firms are more realistic about the services they can provide and manage customer expectations effectively, they generally can close this gap.
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Why is service recovery so important to companies?
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Despite a firm's best efforts, sometimes service providers fail to meet customer expectations. Effective service recovery efforts can significantly increase customer satisfaction, purchase intentions, and positive word of mouth, though customers' post recovery satisfaction levels usually fall lower than their satisfaction level prior to the service failure.
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What can companies do to recover from a service failure?
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Distributive Fairness and Procedural Fairness.
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What are the three different strategies for setting pricing?
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Cost based, competitor based, value based
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How can you use value-based strategies for setting prices?
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Value based include approaches to setting prices that focus on the overall value of the product offering as perceived by the consumer. Two key approaches include Improvement Value Method and Cost of Ownership Method.
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Explain the difference between EDLP and high/low pricing.
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EDLP saves search costs of finding lowest overall prices, and High/low provides the thrill of the chase for the lowest price.
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What pricing strategies should be considered when introducing a new product?
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Price skimming and penetration pricing.
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What are some consumer-oriented pricing tactics?
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Price lining. price bundling. leader pricing
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What are some B2B-oriented pricing tactics?
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Seasonal discounts, cash discounts, allowances, quantity discounts, uniform delivered versus zone pricing
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What common pricing practices are considered to be illegal or unethical?
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Deceptive reference prices, loss leader pricing, bait and switch
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What are the differences between an indirect and a direct marketing channel?
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There are no intermediaries between the buyer and seller in a direct marketing channel. In indirect marketing channels, one or more intermediaries work with manufacturers to provide goods and services to customers.
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What are the differences among the three types of vertical marketing systems?
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In an administered vertical marketing system there is no common ownership or contractual relationships, but the dominant channel member controls or holds the balance of power. In contractual vertical marketing systems independent firms at different levels of the marketing channel join together through contracts to obtain economies of scale and coordination and to reduce conflict. In a corporate vertical marketing system, the parent company has complete control and can dictate the priorities and objectives of the marketing channel because it owns multiple segments of the channel, such as manufacturing plants, warehouse facilities, and retail outlets.
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How do firms develop strong strategic partnerships with their supply chain partners?
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Successful strategic relationships require mutual trust, open communication, common goals, and credible commitments.
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What are the marketing channel links associated with each information flow?
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Flow 1 (Customer to Store) , Flow 2 (Store to Buyer), Flow 3 (Buyer to Manufacturer), Flow 4 (Store to Manufacturer) , Flow 5 (Store to Distribution Center), Flow 6 (Manufacturer to Distribution Center and Buyer)
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How do marketing channel members use data warehouses to make decisions?
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As shown on the horizontal axis, data can be accessed according to the level of merchandise aggregation—SKU (item), vendor, category (e.g., dresses), or all merchandise. Along the vertical axis, data can be accessed by level of the company - store, divisions or the total company. Finally, along the third dimension, data can be accessed by point in time - day, season, or year.
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What is EDI and how is it used?
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Electronic data interchange (EDI) is the computer-to-computer exchange of business documents from a retailer to a vendor and back.
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Why do some marketing channels use VMI, while others do not?
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Although it is a more advanced level of collaboration than simply using EDI and sharing information, retailers cannot use VMI blindly. Whereas the manufacturer coordinates the supply chain for its specific products, it does not know what other actions the retailer is taking that might affect the sales of its products in the future.
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What is the difference between push and pull supply chains?
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In a pull supply chain —orders for merchandise are generated at the store level on the basis of sales data captured by POS terminals. In a push supply chain , the merchandise is allocated to stores on the basis of forecasted demand.
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How does merchandise flow through a typical marketing channel?
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Manufacturing - Distribution Center (optional) - Store - Customer
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What activities occur in a distribution center and what technologies facilitate those activities?
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Management of inbound transportation, Receiving and checking using UPC and RFID, Storing and Cross-Docking, Getting Merchandise Floor Ready, Preparing to ship, Shipping to store
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Why have just-in-time supply chain systems become so popular?
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JIT leads to reduced lead time, increased product availability, and lower inventory investment.
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What issues should manufacturers consider when choosing retail partners?
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When choosing retail partners, manufacturers must look at the basic channel structure, where their target customers expect to find the products, channel member characteristics, and distribution intensity.
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What is the difference between intensive, exclusive, and selective levels of distribution intensity?
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An intensive distribution strategy is designed to get products into as many outlets as possible. Exclusive distribution policy grants exclusive geographic territories to one or very few retail customers so no other customers in the territory can sell a particular brand. Selective distribution uses a few selected customers in a territory.
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What strategies distinguish the different types of food retailers?
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Food retailers include: Supermarkets : a self service food store offering groceries, meat, and produce with limited sales of nonfood items, such as health and beauty aids and general merchandise. Supercenters: the fastest growing retail category, are large stores (150,000-220,000 square feet) that combine a supermarket with a full-line discount Store.. By offering broad assortments of grocery and general merchandise products under one roof, supercenters provide a one-stop shopping experience. Warehouse Clubs: large retailers (at least 100,000-150,000 square feet) that offer a limited and irregular assortment of food and general merchandise with little service at low prices for ultimate consumers and small businesses. Convenience Stores: provide a limited variety and assortment of merchandise at a convenient location in 2,000-3,000 square foot stores with speedy checkout.. Milk, eggs, and bread once represented the majority of their sales, but now the majority of sales comes from gasoline and cigarettes.
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What strategies distinguish the different types of general merchandise retailers?
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General merchandisers include: Department Stores: carry a broad variety and deep assortment, offer customer services, and organize their stores into distinct departments for displaying merchandise. Full-Line Discount Stores :offer a broad variety of merchandise, limited service, and low prices. Specialty Stores: concentrate on a limited number of complementary merchandise categories and provide a high level of service in relatively small stores. Specialty stores tailor their retail strategy toward very specific market segments by offering deep but narrow assortments and sales associate expertise. Drugstores: specialty stores that concentrate on pharmaceuticals and health and personal grooming merchandise. Category Specialists: discount stores that offer a narrow but deep assortment of merchandise. Extreme Value Retailers: small, full-line discount stores that offer a limited merchandise assortment at very low prices. Off-Price Retailers: offer an inconsistent assortment of brand name merchandise at low prices.
question
Are organizations that provide services to consumers considered to be retailers?
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Services retailers, or firms that primarily sell services rather than merchandise, are a large and growing part of the retail industry.
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What are the components of a retail strategy?
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Like other marketers, retailers perform important functions that increase the value of the products and services they sell to consumers. These functions are classified into the four Ps: product, price, promotion, and place.
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What are the advantages of traditional stores versus Internet-only stores?
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The relative advantages of the most traditional retail channels are browsing, touching and feeling products, personal service, cash and credit payment, entertainment and social experience, immediate gratification, and risk reduction.
question
What challenges do retailers face when marketing their products through multiple channels?
answer
Consumers desire a seamless experience when interacting with multichannel retailers. However, providing this seamless experience for customers is not easy for retailers. Because each of the channels is somewhat different, a critical decision facing multichannel retailers is the degree to which they should or are able to integrate the operations of the channels.
question
What are the different steps in the communication process?
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The sender, the transmitter, encoding, the communication channel, the receiver, noise, feedback loop
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What is the AIDA model?
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Awareness, interest, desire, action
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What are the different elements of an IMC program?
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Advertising, sales promotion, public relations and personal selling, electronic media, direct marketing.
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Why is the objective-and-task method of setting an IMC budget better than the rule-of-thumb methods?
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The objective-and-task method determines the budget required to undertake specific tasks to accomplish communication objectives.
question
How do firms use GRP to evaluate the effectiveness of traditional media?
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When measuring IMC success, the firm should examine when and how often consumers have been exposed to various marketing communications. Marketing communications managers usually state their media objectives in terms of GRP, which represents reach multiplied by frequency (GRP = reach * frequency).
question
How would a firm evaluate the effectiveness of its Google advertising?
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Using Google AdWords, a firm can assess the effectiveness of his advertising expenditures by measuring the reach, relevance and return on investment for each of the keywords that were used.
question
Data
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are raw numbers or other factual information that, on their own, have limited value to marketers.
question
Experimental research
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is a type of quantitative research that systematically manipulates one or more variables to determine which variables have a causal effect on another variable
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Marketing research
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consists of a set of techniques and principles for systematically collecting, recording, analyzing, and interpreting data that can aid decision makers involved in marketing goods, services, or ideas.
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Panel research
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is a type of quantitative research that involves collecting information from a group of consumers (the panel) over time
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Scanner research
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is a type of quantitative research that uses data obtained from scanner readings of UPC codes at check-out counters.
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survey
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is a systematic means of collecting information from people that generally uses a questionnaire
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Syndicated data
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are data available for a fee from commercial research firms such as Information Resources Inc. (IRI), National Purchase Diary Panel, and ACNielsen
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brand association
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reflects the mental links that consumers make between a brand and its key product attributes, such as a logo, slogan, or famous personality.
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Brand dilution
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occurs when the brand extension adversely affects consumer perceptions about the attributes the core brand is believed to hold.
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Brand equity
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is the set of assets and liabilities linked to a brand that add to or subtract from the value provided by the product or service.
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brand extension
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refers to the use of the same brand name for new products being introduced to the same or new markets.
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Brand licensing
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is a contractual agreement between firms, whereby one firm allows another to use its brand name, logo, symbols, and/or characters in exchange for a negotiated fee.
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Brand loyalty
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occurs when a consumer buys the same brand's product or service repeatedly over time rather than buy from multiple suppliers within the same category.
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Brand repositioning or rebranding
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refers to a strategy in which marketers change a brand's focus to target new markets or realign the brand's core emphasis with changing market preferences.
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Co-branding
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is the practice of marketing two or more brands together, on the same package or promotion.
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Perceived value
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of a brand is the relationship between a product or service's benefits and its cost.
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Product assortment
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or product mix is the complete set of all products offered by a firm
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Product lines
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are groups of associated items, such as items that consumers use together or think of as part of a group of similar products.
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Product mix
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or product assortment is the complete set of all products offered by a firm.
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The three basic pricing strategies that firms use to set their prices are cost-based, value-based, and
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competitor-based
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One of the reasons marketers don't always select a ______ pricing strategy is that it necessitates a great deal of consumer research to be implemented successfully
answer
value-based
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_________ is an example of an external reference price.
answer
The "regular price" or "original price"
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To recoup high research and development costs, signal high quality, limit demand, or test consumers' price sensitivity, marketers would most likely use a _______ pricing strategy
answer
skimming
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If Hewlett-Packard introduced a new home printer system for which consumers could only use HP paper, toner and software, they might logically use a ________ strategy for their printer in order to maximize profits from the sale of paper, toner and software.
answer
market penetration pricing
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_____ are the reductions retailers take on the initial selling price of the product or service
answer
Markdowns
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Markdowns, price bundling and leader pricing are all pricing tactics aimed at
answer
consumers
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Manufacturers like ________ because as much as 90 percent of consumers never bother to redeem them
answer
rebates
question
Which of the following pricing tactics is directly related to shipping, which represents a major cost for many manufacturers?
answer
zone pricing
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If all gas stations within a one-mile radius agree to charge the same price for gas, they would be engaging in
answer
horizontal price fixing
question
Which of the following are NOT participants in supply chain management systems?
answer
consumers
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A(n) ______ is a facility for the receipt, storage, and redistribution of goods to company stores or customers.
answer
distribution center
question
When Bill sells the produce that he grows at the local farmers market, he is utilizing a(n) _____ marketing channel.
answer
direct
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In a(n) ______ marketing channel, one or more intermediaries work with manufacturers to provide goods and services to customers
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indirect
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If a marketing channel is to run efficiently, the participating members must cooperate. Often, however, supply chain members do not share the same goals and this can lead to what is known as _____ conflict.
answer
channel
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______ is the electronic exchange of business documents from a retailer to a vendor and back, and may include sales data, purchase orders, invoices, and data about returned merchandise
answer
EDI
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It is advantageous for retailers to use distribution centers for all following reasons EXCEPT
answer
the distribution center works best when the retailer has only a few outlets
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RFID tags have dramatically reduced the time and labor associated with
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checking and receiving merchandise
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If you were to visit a distribution center, you'd likely see all the following activities EXCEPT
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coordination of advertising in local outlets
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______ merchandise arrives in the delivery truck ready to be sold
answer
Floor-ready
question
Which of the following is NOT one of the factors, outlined in your text, that manufacturers consider to establish their strategy for working with retailers?
answer
identifying retail locations
question
With regard to channel structure, the level of difficulty a manufacturer experiences in getting retailers to purchase its products is determined by the degree to which the manufacturer has a strong brand, the relative power of the manufacturer and retailer, and
answer
the degree to which the channel is vertically integrated
question
Frito-Lay has developed a new line of snack foods. The company wants to place the products in as many outlets as possible—grocery stores, vending machines, convenience stores and restaurants. By doing so, Frito-Lay is striving to achieve _______ distribution.
answer
intensive
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Manufacturers would be using a(n) ______ distribution strategy if they were to grant one or a very few retail customers the right to sell its product in a given geographic territory, thereby ensuring no other retailers in the territory could sell the product
answer
exclusive
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Which of the following is NOT considered one of the types of general merchandise retailers?
answer
Convenience stores
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Save-A-Lot and ALDI are two types of ______ food retailers.
answer
extreme value
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Manufacturers can use data they collect on customer shopping habits to modify a product, its price and/or its promotion strategy. In doing so, they are attempting to increase the percentage of customers purchasing from them, otherwise known as
answer
share of wallet.
question
When manufacturers choose to add value by offering customers a variety of ways to purchase products, they are using a(n) ______ strategy
answer
multichannel
question
Browsing, personal service, cash and credit payment, entertainment and social interaction, instant gratification, and risk reduction are benefits provided by which channel?
answer
Stores
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When a company houses a complete history of each customer's interaction in order to expedite returns or target future promotions, they are addressing which aspect of multichannel marketing?
answer
integrated CRM
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Personal selling, advertising, public relations and direct marketing are all part of
answer
integrated marketing communications
question
The IMC communication process model includes all of the following EXCEPT
answer
the objective and task method.
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The steps in the AIDA model include awareness, action, interest, and
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desire.
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The first goal of a marketing communication is to
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gain the attention of the consumer
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For any communications campaign to succeed, the firm must deliver the right _______ to the right audience through the right media.
answer
message
question
The form of direct marketing that communicates with consumers' wireless handheld devices (such as smart phones) has been used for innovative applications to address the personal needs of consumers. This practice is known as
answer
mobile marketing.
question
When customers use the Internet to interact among themselves, sharing their thoughts and evaluations about a firm's products, they are engaged in
answer
social media
question
Comparative parity, percentage-of-sales, and available budget are all _______ used to set budgets.
answer
rule-of-thumb methods
question
To reach out to new customers using the Internet, some marketers use _____ to ensure that customers searching for the firm's products have every opportunity to find them.
answer
search engine marketing
question
When measuring success of integrated marketing communication programs, _____ refers to the percentage of the target population exposed to a specific marketing communication.
answer
gross rating points
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