Management Ch’s 9-12 – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
When starting a new job, it is best to avoid giving or getting feedback during the first 60 days so that everyone has an opportunity to get an accurate impression.
answer
FALSE
question
Google's treatment of its employees is indicative of its belief that its biggest competitive advantage lies in its human resources.
answer
TRUE
question
Personnel management consists of the activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop, and retain an effective workforce.
answer
FALSE
question
The purpose of the strategic human resource management process is to get optimal work performance to help realize the company's mission and goals.
answer
TRUE
question
Recruiting and selecting people is the first step in the strategic human resource process.
answer
FALSE
question
Human capital is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions.
answer
TRUE
question
Collective capital is the economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and cooperative relationships.
answer
FALSE Social capital is the economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and cooperative relationships. Relationships do matter.
question
Understanding current employee needs and predicting future ones are the two parts of strategic human resources recruiting.
answer
TRUE
question
Interviews with people who currently hold a job is part of a job analysis for that position.
answer
TRUE
question
A job description describes the minimum qualifications a person must have to perform the job successfully.
answer
FALSE
question
The process of writing job analyses, descriptions, and specifications often helps you to hire people who are overqualified.
answer
FALSE
question
A human resource inventory organizes information for assessing which of your current employees are promotable and what kind of training your organization might have to do.
answer
TRUE In looking at those inside, you need to consider which employees are motivated, trainable, and promotable and what kind of training your organization might have to do. A device for organizing this kind of information is a human resource inventory, a report listing your organization's employees by name, education, training, languages, and other important information.
question
Reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics are a good source of information to assess internal candidates for promotion.
answer
FALSE you need to consider the availability of talent in your industry's and geographical area's labor pool
question
Collective bargaining consists of negotiations between top management and shareholders about disputes over compensation and benefits.
answer
FALSE Collective bargaining consists of negotiations between management and employees about disputes over compensation, benefits, working conditions, and job security.
question
The Wagner Act allows the President of the United States to prevent or end a strike that threatens national security.
answer
FALSE A 1947 law (the Taft-Hartley Act) allows the President of the United States to prevent or end a strike that threatens national security.
question
Products from child labor were banned under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938.
answer
TRUE The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 established minimum living standards for workers engaged in interstate commerce, including provision of a federal minimum wage (currently $7.25 an hour) and a maximum workweek (now 40 hours, after which overtime must be paid), along with banning products from child labor.
question
The 2010 health care reform legislation requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance.
answer
TRUE
question
The Family and Medical Leave Act requires employers to provide 12 weeks of paid leave for medical and family reasons like childbirth or adoption.
answer
FALSE The Family and Medical Leave Act requires employers to provide 12 weeks of unpaid (not paid) leave for medical and family reasons, including for childbirth, adoption, or family emergency. See Table 9.1
question
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 applies to all for-profit companies.
answer
FALSE
question
Antidiscrimination laws do not require employers to extend preferential treatment because of race, color, or religion.
answer
TRUE
question
Programs that attempt to make up for past discrimination in employment are known as affirmative action programs.
answer
TRUE Affirmative action focuses on achieving equality of opportunity within an organization. It tries to make up for past discrimination in employment by actively finding, hiring, and developing the talents of people from groups traditionally discriminated against.
question
One type of gender discrimination is known as quid pro quo.
answer
FALSE In the quid pro quo type of sexual harassment (rather than discrimination), the person to whom the unwanted sexual attention is directed is put in the position of jeopardizing being hired for a job or obtaining job benefits or opportunities unless he or she implicitly or explicitly acquiesces
question
Karen is a construction manager for the building of a large parking structure downtown. One day a group of steel workers whistled at her as she climbed a ladder. The men's actions created a hostile work environment.
answer
TRUE
question
External recruitment is the process of locating and attracting qualified applications for jobs open in the organization.
answer
FALSE Recruiting is the process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization. Recruiting is of two types: internal and external.
question
Job posting is the primary method of recruiting internally.
answer
TRUE
question
LinkedIn, a business-oriented social network, is an effective way to do internal recruiting.
answer
FALSE
question
In general, the most effective sources of good external candidates are employee referrals.
answer
TRUE In general, the most effective sources are employee referrals because, to protect their own reputations, employees are fairly careful about whom they recommend, and they know the qualifications of both the job and the prospective employee.
question
A job specification gives a candidate a picture of both positive and negative features of the job and the organization before he or she is hired.
answer
FALSE a realistic job preview
question
There are fewer risks associated with external recruiting than with internal since the pool of potential candidates is much larger.
answer
FALSE
question
The screening of job applicants in order to hire the best candidate is known as the preference process.
answer
FALSE
question
References are an effective way to obtain reliable information about a prospective job candidate.
answer
FALSE Suing is a huge issue
question
The most commonly used employee-selection technique is interviewing.
answer
TRUE
question
Unstructured interviews are more accurate than structured interviews in assessing an applicant's job-related personality traits.
answer
TRUE
question
The comparative interview involves asking each applicant the same questions and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers.
answer
FALSE: Structured View
question
In the situational interview a typical question might be "What is the best idea you ever sold to someone?"
answer
FALSE
question
In a behavioral-description interview, the interviewer explores what applicants have actually done in the past.
answer
TRUE
question
Application forms, interviews, and educational requirements are now legally considered employment tests.
answer
TRUE
question
An assessment center is typically used to assess physical capabilities of skilled labor candidates.
answer
FALSE Some companies have an assessment center, in which management candidates participate in activities for a few days while being assessed by evaluators
question
Managers should use personality tests in selecting new employees, because they are the most direct measure of how well the employee will perform in the job.
answer
FALSE use sparingly
question
A test is reliable if it measures what it purports to measure and is free of bias.
answer
FALSE Reliability is the degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently and validity means the test measures what it purports to measure and is free of bias.
question
An orientation helps a newcomer fit smoothly into the job and the organization.
answer
TRUE
question
Defining the organization's mission and operations should be considered an integral part of employee orientation.
answer
TRUE
question
The first step in the training process is setting objectives for what the training should achieve.
answer
FALSE The training process involves five steps, the first of which is an assessment of what training is needed, as shown in Figure 9.2.
question
For HR professionals, employee training is synonymous with development.
answer
FALSE HR professionals distinguish between training and development; training is upgrading the skills of technical and operational employees and development is upgrading the skills of professionals and managers.
question
Computer-assisted instruction is an example of on-the-job training.
answer
FALSE This is Off the job
question
When doing a performance appraisal the manager will provide the subordinate with feedback.
answer
TRUE
question
Performance management is a method used to improve profitability through a rapid downsizing.
answer
FALSE
question
A company that evaluates its truckers based on miles of freight hauled is using objective appraisals.
answer
TRUE
question
Objective appraisals are harder to challenge legally than subjective appraisals.
answer
TRUE
question
Trait appraisals are of questionable validity because an evaluator's personal biases can affect ratings.
answer
TRUE
question
A manager employing a BARS is using a trait appraisal.
answer
FALSE
question
The type of appraisal in which employees are evaluated not only by their managerial superiors but also by peers and subordinates is called the 180-degree assessment.
answer
FALSE 360!
question
The forced ranking performance review system may have negative effects on morale, productivity, and loyalty.
answer
TRUE
question
When it comes to performance appraisal feedback, the longer the appraisal document, the better.
answer
FALSE Proponents of forced ranking say it encourages managers to identify and remove poor performers and also structures a predetermined compensation curve, which enables them to reward top performers. If, however, the system is imposed on an organization overnight without preparation, by pitting employees against one another, it can produce shocks to morale, productivity, and loyalty.
question
Appraisals that are conducted on an unscheduled basis and consist of less rigorous indications of employee performance are known as unofficial appraisals.
answer
FALSE
question
The three parts of compensation are wages, incentives, and benefits.
answer
TRUE
question
One of the factors that determines base pay is what competitors are paying.
answer
TRUE
question
Stock options are considered a benefit, as part of a compensation package.
answer
FALSE Stock options are a type of incentive, rather than a benefit
question
Benefits are additional nonmonetary forms of compensation designed to enrich the lives of all employees in the organization, which are paid all or in part by the organization.
answer
TRUE
question
In the United States, benefits account for only about 10% of total employment compensation.
answer
FALSE
question
If managers regularly communicate with employees about the incentive pay plan, the organization's plan is more likely to meet its goals.
answer
TRUE
question
One of the keys to a successful incentive-pay plan is its uniformity.
answer
FALSE
question
A transfer can be used to retain an employee's interest and motivation by presenting a new challenge.
answer
TRUE
question
An employee cannot be dismissed permanently "for cause" for absenteeism.
answer
FALSE
question
The great majority of union workers are in the private sector; fewer than 20% of union workers have government jobs.
answer
FALSE
question
The "closed shop," in which an employer may hire for a job only workers who are already in the union, is illegal in the United States.
answer
TRUE
question
An arbitrator makes a decision that the parties have agreed will be binding on them.
answer
TRUE
question
Which of the following is not a recommended way to stand out in a new job? A. Come in early and stay late to observe others. B. Underpromise. C. Be aware of the power of first impressions. D. Make it easy for others to give you feedback. E. Overdeliver.
answer
B. Underpromise.
question
The activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop, and retain an effective workforce are called A. personnel development. B. contingency planning. C. human resource management. D. job analysis. E. performance appraisal.
answer
C. human resource management.
question
The strategic human resource management process includes which of these? A. Plan financial resources needed. B. Identify social capital. C. Orient, train, and develop. D. Investigate competitive job positions. E. Correct underperformance.
answer
C. Orient, train, and develop.
question
What is the final step in the strategic human resource management process? A. Plan future human resources needs. B. Perform appraisals of people. C. Assess success of recruitment process. D. Orient, train, and develop people. E. Recruit and select people.
answer
B. Perform appraisals of people.
question
The economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions is called A. human capital. B. labor capital. C. social capital. D. potential capital. E. productivity capital.
answer
A. human capital. Human capital is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions. A present or future employee with the right combination of knowledge, skills, and motivation to excel represents human capital with the potential to give the organization a competitive advantage.
question
Among aspects of ________ are goodwill, mutual respect, cooperation, and teamwork. A. relational capital B. social capital C. personal capital D. productivity capital E. human capital
answer
B. social capital
question
The purpose of the strategic human resource process is to A. maintain a stable workforce for the minimum expense. B. inform the grand strategy. C. formulate human resource-sensitive strategic plans. D. find the human resources needed in a timely fashion. E. get optimal work performance to help realize company's mission and vision.
answer
E. get optimal work performance to help realize company's mission and vision.
question
A specialist at UPS that rides with couriers to learn about delivery time measurements and potential service problems is conducting a job A. posting. B. specification. C. analysis. D. description. E. rotation.
answer
C. analysis.
question
Susan had been working as an executive assistant to the president for nearly 20 years, so when she retired no one had a good idea of all that her job entailed. Before she left, Ben sat with her for two weeks to observe her duties and ask her the details of all functions. Ben was performing a A. behavioral-description interview. B. performance appraisal. C. informal appraisal. D. job analysis. E. job rotation.
answer
D. job analysis.
question
A ______ summarizes what the holder of the job does and how and why he or she does it. A. job specification B. realistic job preview C. job description D. job analysis E. performance appraisal
answer
C. job description
question
In considering the staffing an organization might need in the future, human resource managers should A. focus efforts on replacing those who retire or resign. B. assume that the organization will not change much. C. assume that there will be radical changes in the supply of labor and the nature of the organization's jobs, so planning here must be deferred. D. understand the organization's vision and strategy and hire to support them. E. hire 10% more people than were needed last year to cover possible growth.
answer
D. understand the organization's vision and strategy and hire to support them.
question
A report listing your organization's employees by name, education, training, languages, and other important information is called a(n) A. human resource inventory. B. labor register. C. skills record. D. job analysis. E. employee database.
answer
A. human resource inventory.
question
Gwen, an HR manager, was using reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics and the U.S. Census Bureau for information about her industry's labor pool in her geographic area. Gwen is planning to A. perform a job analysis. B. recruit from inside the organization. C. analyze human capital. D. develop an affirmative action program. E. recruit from outside the organization.
answer
E. recruit from outside the organization.
question
Passed in 1935, the ______ Act resulted in the National Labor Relations Board. A. Wagner B. Social Security C. Taft-Hartley D. Occupational Safety and Health E. Civil Rights
answer
A. Wagner
question
Which piece of legislation first established the U.S. federal minimum wage? A. Wagner Act B. Social Security Act C. Fair Labor Standards Act D. Occupational Safety and Health Act E. Civil Rights Act
answer
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
question
The ______ Act established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. A. Equal Pay B. Wagner C. Social Security D. Occupational Safety and Health E. Civil Rights
answer
E. Civil Rights
question
Which of the following protects employees who raise accusations of fraud to a federal agency? A. Privacy Act B. Civil Rights Act C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act E. Polygraph Protection Act
answer
D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
question
The law that requires an extension of health insurance benefits after termination is the A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) B. Social Security Act C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) D. Occupational Safety and Health Act E. Civil Rights Act
answer
C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
question
Which of the following requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance? A. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) B. Occupational Safety and Health Act C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) D. Social Security Act E. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
answer
E. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
question
A California software firm was growing rapidly and hiring frequently, but primarily focused on campus recruiting at Berkeley and Stanford. When one older candidate did not get an interview after a phone screening, he went to the company's website and noted all of the young people in charge. He filed a discrimination lawsuit based on which law? A. Civil Rights Act B. Age Discrimination in Employment Act C. Americans with Disabilities Act D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
answer
B. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
question
Oscar has a degenerative eye disease that is causing him to gradually lose his eyesight. When Oscar asked his employer to purchase a low vision computer for his use at work, he was instead let go. This violates provisions of the A. Civil Rights Act, Title VII. B. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. C. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA). D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). E. Privacy Act.
answer
D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).
question
______ occurs when people are hired or promoted, or denied hiring or promotion, for reasons not relevant to the job. A. Affirmative action B. Discrimination C. A hiring quota D. Quid pro quo E. A hostile work environment
answer
B. Discrimination
question
After being referred by a friend, Hasina attended a job interview. She didn't feel it went well but was surprised when her friend told her the boss didn't like that she had worn her hijab, a traditional headscarf. The boss told a coworker after the interview, "Our customers prefer working with Christians." This is an example of A. affirmative action. B. quid pro quo. C. discrimination. D. hostile work environment. E. favoritism.
answer
C. discrimination.
question
Which type of workplace discrimination occurs when an organization uses an employment practice that results in unfavorable outcomes to a protected class? A. Adverse impact B. Reverse discrimination C. Harassment D. Unequal application E. Disparate treatment
answer
A. Adverse impact
question
If a firm gives all international assignments to people without disabilities, assuming they will therefore not require special accommodations, which type of workplace discrimination has occurred? A. Adverse impact B. Harassment C. Reverse discrimination D. Disparate treatment E. Inequality
answer
D. Disparate treatment There are two types of workplace discrimination: adverse impact and disparate treatment. Disparate treatment results when employees from protected groups (such as disabled individuals) are intentionally treated differently. An example would be making a decision to give all international assignments to people with no disabilities because of the assumption that they won't need any special accommodations related to travel.
question
Top managers at Kendrick Construction want to increase the percentages of minorities and women in its ranks. The company began an active recruitment program with a local university and a special career development program. Kendrick has started a(n) ______ plan. A. reverse discrimination B. equality C. civil rights D. preferential treatment E. affirmative action
answer
E. affirmative action
question
Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true? A. A hostile work environment is characterized by a tangible economic harm. B. The organization cannot be sued for sexual harassment as long as its managers did not know about the situation. C. A person who feels he or she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his or her job is facing a quid pro quo. D. Uninvited hugging or patting someone is not considered sexual harassment. E. Sexual harassment is defined as occurring between members of the opposite sex.
answer
C. A person who feels he or she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his or her job is facing a quid pro quo.
question
Melissa worked in a distribution warehouse for a power tool company. Throughout the building, there were posters and calendars of a sexually explicit nature, and they made Melissa very uncomfortable. This is A. a quid pro quo harassment. B. not of legal concern because none of the offensive materials are directed at Lauren. C. sexual discrimination. D. not of legal concern because Lauren is not suffering any economic injury. E. a hostile work environment.
answer
E. a hostile work environment.
question
The process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization is called A. enlisting. B. selection. C. hiring. D. recruiting. E. job posting.
answer
D. recruiting.
question
Placing information about job vacancies and qualifications in places where employees can see them such as on bulletin boards or the company's intranet is called A. job analysis. B. realistic job previewing. C. position advertising. D. recruiting. E. job posting.
answer
E. job posting.
question
Which of the following external recruiting methods works best? A. Private employment agencies B. Employee referrals C. Newspaper ads D. College recruiters E. Unions
answer
B. Employee referrals
question
Which of the following is true of external recruiting, compared to internal recruiting? A. It encourages greater employee loyalty. B. The process is cheaper. C. The pool of talent is more limited. D. It creates the need for multiple recruitments. E. The process takes longer.
answer
E. The process takes longer.
question
When Jake became one of three final candidates for a managerial position with a large medical supply company, the director of the department scheduled a special meeting with him. There, the two talked about the stressful deadlines and heavy travel required of the position, as well as the great compensation and multiple perks. Jake appreciated that the director took time to conduct a(n) A. behavioral-description interview. B. realistic job preview. C. unstructured interview. D. situational interview. E. performance appraisal.
answer
B. realistic job preview.
question
Which of the following statements about background information is false? A. Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees. B. The most prevalent distortion in a résumé is lying about education. C. Many employers don't give honest assessments of former employees. D. People sometimes attempt to cover gaps in employment history. E. People lie about their ages in their application information.
answer
A. Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees.
question
The type of interview that is most likely to cause managers problems because of its potential for bias and questionable legality is the A. realistic job preview. B. unstructured interview. C. performance interview. D. situational interview. E. behavioral description interview.
answer
B. unstructured interview.
question
In an interview Allison asked Jeff to tell her about a time when he was able to overcome some sort of adversity. Allison is conducting a(n) A. realistic job preview. B. performance interview. C. situational interview. D. behavioral description interview. E. unstructured interview.
answer
D. behavioral description interview.
question
Which of the following is a good suggestion for managers when conducting interviews? A. Ask about the candidate's family to show personal interest. B. The résumé should be used for selection of interview candidates only; ignore it thereafter. C. Do more than half of the talking to make sure you are sharing enough about the company and its culture. D. Ask questions spontaneously to get the most straightforward answers from the candidate. E. After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications.
answer
E. After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications.
question
Which of the following is not considered, legally, to be an employment test? A. Personality tests B. Interviews C. Job analyses D. Application forms E. Educational requirements
answer
C. Job analyses
question
The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is considered a(n) ______ test. A. ability B. character C. performance D. personality E. reliability
answer
D. personality
question
When Cara interviewed for a position as an entry-level structural engineer, she was asked to solve several engineering problems by hand. This is an example of a(n) A. ability test. B. performance test. C. aptitude test. D. personality test. E. capability test.
answer
B. performance test.
question
The degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently is known as its A. legality. B. reliability. C. validity. D. significance. E. dependability.
answer
B. reliability.
question
______ refers to educating ______ employees in skills needed to do their jobs in the future. A. Training; technical and operational B. Development; technical and operational C. Training; managerial and professional D. Development; managerial and professional E. Orientation; seasoned
answer
D. Development; managerial and professional
question
Emilio, an HR manager, had a meeting with the director of operations to determine if the new training program appears to be effective in improving productivity on the shop floor. Tracy is performing which step of the training process? A. Assessment B. Objectives C. Selection D. Implementation E. Evaluation
answer
E. Evaluation
question
Which of the following training and development methods is most appropriate when people just need to learn facts such as work rules or legal matters? A. Videotapes B. Role-plays C. Practice work D. Discussion E. Coaching
answer
A. Videotapes
question
Keri, an HR manager, is designing a training class for those working on the new cross-functional teams within her company. This class that is aimed at improving group decision making. What method of delivery should she choose? A. Lectures B. Role-playing C. Workbooks D. Videotapes E. Computer-aided training
answer
B. Role-playing
question
Which of the following is an on-the-job training method? A. Role-playing B. Videotapes C. Job rotation D. Classroom programs E. Computer-assisted instruction
answer
C. Job rotation
question
Which of the following is a form of off-the-job training? A. Planned work activities B. Classroom instruction C. Training positions D. Job rotation E. Coaching
answer
B. Classroom instruction
question
Performance appraisal consists of A. managerial and peer feedback. B. setting standards and monitoring performance. C. assessing performance and providing feedback. D. motivating and counseling. E. motivating and monitoring performance.
answer
C. assessing performance and providing feedback.
question
MBO is consistent with a(n) ______ performance appraisal. A. subordinate B. trait C. BARS D. objective E. behavioral
answer
D. objective
question
Amy is a sales manager and she is conducting performance appraisals for her team members. To do so, she tracks each person's sales calls and revenues on a quarterly basis. Amy is using a(n) ______ system of appraisal. A. objective B. behavioral C. trait D. informal E. 360-degree
answer
A. objective
question
The type of appraisal that is most subject to validity problems due to evaluator bias is the ______ appraisal. A. behavioral B. 360-degree feedback C. objective D. results E. trait
answer
E. trait
question
The type of performance appraisal that consists of ratings of subjective attributes like attitude or leadership is a(n) ______ appraisal. A. objective B. trait C. behavioral D. self E. 360-degree
answer
B. trait
question
The type of performance appraisal that judges specific, observable aspects of performance like being on time for work is a(n) ______ appraisal A. results B. objective C. trait D. behavioral E. MBO
answer
D. behavioral
question
Lottie is conducting a performance appraisal for Matt, one of her subordinates. The company's performance appraisal form asks her to rate Matt's performance on various items like "Turns in reports on time with minimal errors" on a scale from 1 to 5. Lottie's company has a(n) ______ appraisal system. A. results B. objective C. trait D. BARS E. MBO
answer
D. BARS
question
A feedback technique in which an employee is appraised by her boss, peers, subordinates, and possibly clients is called a(n) A. MBO appraisal. B. reciprocal appraisal. C. BARS appraisal. D. 360-degree appraisal. E. results appraisal.
answer
D. 360-degree appraisal.
question
Using 360-degree feedback appraisals to trigger pay and personnel decisions puts ______ at risk. A. trust B. change C. feedback D. performance E. development
answer
A. trust
question
A performance review system in which all employees within a business unit are ranked against one another is known as a A. standard curve. B. normal distribution. C. performance positioning. D. forced ranking. E. unit grading.
answer
D. forced ranking.
question
Carmela was surprised to learn that at her company not everyone would receive a bonus this year. Instead, management planned to rank all of the employees in her division and award bonuses only to the top 20%. This is an example of a ______ performance review system. A. standard curve. B. normal distribution. C. functional positioning. D. forced ranking. E. unit grading.
answer
D. forced ranking.
question
The point of the performance appraisal is to A. provide a paper trail of manager-employee interactions. B. stimulate better job performance. C. demonstrate correct methods for work procedures. D. make sure that the subordinate's behavior is tightly controlled. E. avoid legal problems, especially discrimination complaints.
answer
B. stimulate better job performance.
question
In giving feedback to a subordinate, a manager should A. communicate her general impression of the subordinate. B. avoid giving negative feedback. C. deliver feedback through a one-way communication process. D. save giving feedback for annual or semi-annual formal appraisals. E. keep diaries about specific incidents of the subordinates' performance.
answer
E. keep diaries about specific incidents of the subordinates' performance.
question
Which of the following is the best statement of feedback? A. "You're always doing personal stuff at work." B. "That's the wrong way to sort those packages." C. "You are really unmotivated at work lately." D. "Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve." E. "You've got to figure out how to improve your relationship with Susie."
answer
D. "Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve."
question
Which of the following is not a type of compensation? A. Wages B. Promotions C. Incentives D. Benefits E. Salaries
answer
B. Promotions
question
Which of the following is an example of an employee benefit? A. Education reimbursements B. Commissions C. Profit-sharing plans D. Bonuses E. Stock options
answer
A. Education reimbursements
question
Executives often negotiate generous severance packages that they receive if the company is taken over by another. These are known as A. quid pro quo. B. golden parachutes. C. maquiladoras. D. BARS. E. 360-degree pay.
answer
B. golden parachutes.
question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful incentive pay plan? A. Clear goals B. Regular communication with employees about the incentive plan C. Realistic goals D. Complex and comprehensive rules E. Consistency with the organization's existing goals
answer
D. Complex and comprehensive rules
question
In managing subordinates under an incentive pay plan, a manager should A. regularly communicate with subordinates about the plan. B. set goals with subordinates, but then leave them alone to pursue those goals. C. change the plan frequently to continue to motivate subordinates. D. set "stretch" goals that are very difficult (perhaps impossible) to achieve. E. design complex plans that cover all contingencies.
answer
A. regularly communicate with subordinates about the plan.
question
In considering a promotion for a subordinate, a manager must ensure fairness and A. openness. B. permanence. C. profitability. D. nondiscrimination. E. safety.
answer
D. nondiscrimination.
question
Which of the following is not a principal reason why an employee may be transferred? A. Employee's skills are needed in another part of the organization. B. To retain employee interest and motivation by presenting a new challenge. C. Employee is suspected of illegal behavior. D. Employee has a personal differences with present boss. E. To broaden employee experience.
answer
C. Employee is suspected of illegal behavior.
question
If employees have been dismissed "for cause," this means that A. they have the right to get their position back in the future. B. they quit the job. C. the company is downsizing, and their jobs are permanently eliminated. D. they are being laid off. E. they are being fired for their job performance.
answer
E. they are being fired for their job performance.
question
The risk of "wrongful termination" lawsuits is reduced with careful A. coaching. B. discussion at the time of dismissal. C. documentation. D. employee training. E. goal setting.
answer
C. documentation.
question
______ means that anyone can be dismissed at any time for any reason at all, or for no reason. A. Employment at will B. Capricious dismissal C. Quid pro quo D. Nonrational dismissal E. Fair termination
answer
A. Employment at will
question
Hezekiah has an employee, Pamela, who has had frequent outbursts in the workplace when dealing with others. Despite repeated attempts to correct her behavior, she has not improved. Which of the following is a good suggestion for handling this case? A. Fire Pamela if her outbursts continue for another year. B. Fire Pamela effective immediately, and have her escorted off the premises. C. Use Pamela's dismissal as an example to others to increase their productivity. D. Dismiss Pamela, but offer her assistance in finding another job. E. Don't dismiss Pamela because she needs your sympathy.
answer
D. Dismiss Pamela, but offer her assistance in finding another job.
question
_______ are organizations of employees formed to protect and advance their members' interests by bargaining with management over job-related issues. A. Mediation firms B. Right-to-work groups C. COLA organizations D. Arbitration associations E. Labor unions
answer
E. Labor unions
question
The part of the labor-management agreement that states that employees who receive union benefits must join the union, or at least pay dues to it, is known as the A. union security clause. B. right-to-work clause. C. COLA clause. D. givebacks clause. E. agency clause.
answer
A. union security clause.
question
Bethany had a starring role in a film that was shot in her hometown of Baton Rouge, Louisiana. Though the Screen Actors Guild, an actors' union, exists in Louisiana, Bethany was not required to join it because of the state's ________ law. A. union security B. right-to-work C. givebacks D. COLA E. agency
answer
B. right-to-work
question
Typically the ________ in a union contract is tied to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics' consumer price index (CPI). A. union security clause B. right-to-work clause C. COLA clause D. givebacks clause E. agency clause
answer
C. COLA clause
question
In 2009, the United Auto Workers union negotiated with Ford Motor Company a variety of ________, such as a $1/hour pay decrease and changes to overtime structure, designed to prevent Ford from declaring bankruptcy. A. union security clauses B. right-to-work agreements C. COLAs D. givebacks E. arbitration agreements
answer
D. givebacks
question
If a grievance procedure is not sufficient to solve a labor-management dispute, a binding decision may be sought from A. a shop steward. B. the AFL-CIO. C. a mediator. D. the EEOC. E. an arbitrator.
answer
E. an arbitrator.
question
An important component of dealing with change is to allow grieving over the loss of old ways.
answer
TRUE
question
People are generally comfortable with and embrace change, even change in apparently major matters.
answer
FALSE
question
According to Jim Collins, researcher of enduring great companies, hubris and denial are among the stages of institutional decline.
answer
TRUE
question
The marketplace is becoming more homogeneous and moving toward more similar products.
answer
FALSE
question
Demassification refers to a trend of customer groups being segmented into smaller, specialized groups responding to narrowly targeted messages.
answer
TRUE
question
One of the strengths of Virgin Group Ltd. is its ability to enter new businesses quickly.
answer
TRUE
question
Successful large companies are more able than other firms to survive and prosper in an environment of radically innovative change.
answer
FALSE Clayton M. Christensen, a Harvard Business School professor, thinks it's very difficult for an existing successful company to take full advantage of a technological breakthrough such as digitalization, what he calls "disruptive innovation." Instead, he argues that such a company should set up an entirely separate organization that can operate much like a start-up.
question
China and India are changing the way American companies work, in part, through substantial labor savings.
answer
TRUE
question
Information is rapidly becoming the new competitive advantage.
answer
FALSE Information is rapidly becoming a profitless commodity, and knowledge is becoming the new competitive advantage
question
The two types of change are practical and theoretical.
answer
FALSE REACTIVE AND PROACTIVE
question
Reactive change is carefully thought out.
answer
FALSE
question
Proactive change involves making carefully thought-out changes in anticipation of possible or expected problems or opportunities.
answer
TRUE
question
BP handled the 2010 oil spill crisis in the Gulf of Mexico in a proactive manner.
answer
FALSE
question
Hasbro's move to create a version of its Monopoly game for iPad for technology-obsessed children is an example of proactive change.
answer
TRUE
question
Coleman Natural Foods began selling natural beef back when most shoppers were unaware of the term. This is an example of proactive change.
answer
TRUE
question
The need for change comes solely from outside the organization.
answer
FALSE
question
Employee problems are one type of outside force for change in the organization.
answer
FALSE The four outside forces include demographic characteristics, market changes, technological advancements, and social and political pressures
question
Managers' behavior is one type of inside force for change in the organization.
answer
TRUE
question
Secondhand shops suffering from a recession-induced decline in thrift store donations is an example of an outside force for organizational change.
answer
TRUE
question
While customers may act as a force for change, shareholders support stability.
answer
FALSE SH'S enjoy change
question
Job dissatisfaction within an organization can be an indicator that change is needed.
answer
TRUE
question
Putting an end to servant leadership is a change that is likely to improve manager-employee relationships.
answer
FALSE
question
The four areas in which change is most apt to be needed are people, technology, structure, and strategy.
answer
TRUE
question
People changes in an organization are not required until that organization reaches about 20 people in size, when the level of specialization reaches a critical point.
answer
FALSE
question
In the context of change, technology refers to computer technology used to gain a competitive advantage.
answer
FALSE
question
The recent structural trend is toward a taller organizational hierarchy.
answer
FALSE Flattening the Hierarchy
question
Sabotage can be a form of resistance to change in the workplace.
answer
TRUE
question
Mistrust between change agents and employees can cause failure of well-conceived changes.
answer
TRUE
question
Innovative change is the least threatening type of change and is therefore least likely to create resistance.
answer
FALSE
question
Adaptive change involves introducing a practice that is new to an industry.
answer
FALSE Adaptive change is reintroduction of a familiar practice, the implementation of a kind of change that has already been experienced within the same organization. Radically innovative change involves introducing a practice that is new to the industry.
question
Innovative change is the introduction of a practice that is new to the organization.
answer
TRUE
question
Changes in power structures that occur with administrative and technological changes are generally embraced by employees because of the new opportunities they present.
answer
FALSE
question
One of the reasons employees resist change is fear of the unknown.
answer
TRUE
question
According to Lewin, for unfreezing to take place, people need to become dissatisfied with the old way of doing things.
answer
TRUE
question
In the refreezing stage of change of Lewin's change model, employees need to be given new information, perspectives, and models for behavior.
answer
FALSE In the changing stage
question
Benchmarking is a technique that can be used in the refreezing stage of Lewin's change model.
answer
FALSE
question
During the refreezing stage of Lewin's change model, managers should model the change themselves, as well as coach employees and reinforce the desired behaviors.
answer
TRUE
question
Kotter's change step of anchoring new approaches in the culture corresponds to refreezing in Lewin's model.
answer
TRUE
question
Kotter's research reveals that management of organizational change is more essential than leadership throughout it.
answer
FALSE Kotter's research reveals that successful organizational change is 70%-90% leadership and only 10%-30% management. Senior managers are thus advised to focus on leading rather than on managing change.
question
OD focuses specifically on the technology aspects of change.
answer
FALSE OD focuses specifically on people in the change process
question
A change agent is a behavioral sciences consultant who helps organizations deal with old problems in new ways.
answer
TRUE
question
One of the primary situations in which OD is used is when adapting to mergers.
answer
TRUE
question
Even when it comes to technology-induced change, OD can be helped by opening communication and dealing with stress.
answer
TRUE
question
The three steps of the OD process are diagnosis, experimentation, and adaptation.
answer
FALSE
question
The first step of the OD process is evaluation, which uses employee surveys, interviews, and observation to ascertain attitudes and problem areas.
answer
FALSE Diagnosis, intervention, Evaluation, Feedback
question
In the OD process, feedback is used to refine the diagnosis.
answer
TRUE
question
Intervention is the treatment phase of OD in which problems are corrected.
answer
TRUE
question
Hard data about absenteeism, turnover, and profitability are used in the intervention stage of the OD process.
answer
FALSE An OD program needs objective evaluation (the last step) to see if it has done any good. Answers may lie in hard data about absenteeism, turnover, grievances, and profitability, which should be compared with earlier statistics.
question
Patagonia was satisfied with its OD intervention to become greener.
answer
FALSE
question
In OD, combined interventions have been found to work better than single interventions.
answer
TRUE
question
An OD intervention that worked in the United States is likely to work equally well around the world because the practices are very fundamental to human nature.
answer
FALSE
question
Innovation differs from creativity or invention in that it requires useful application.
answer
TRUE
question
Innovation most often happens in a "eureka" moment of epiphany.
answer
FALSE
question
Having employees that experiment may limit an organization's ability to learn from failure.
answer
FALSE
question
The self-serving bias can lessen an employee's ability to learn from failure.
answer
TRUE
question
According to Scott Berkun, the search for wealth is one of six seeds of innovation.
answer
TRUE
question
A product innovation is a change in the way a product or service is conceived, manufactured, or disseminated.
answer
FALSE A process innovation is a change in the way a product or service is conceived, manufactured, or disseminated.
question
Radical innovation is the creation of products, services, or technologies that replace existing ones.
answer
TRUE
question
In 1961, Procter & Gamble introduced the first affordable, readily-available disposable diaper called Pampers. At that time, Pampers were an example of a radical innovation.
answer
TRUE
question
Conventional electric vehicle batteries use a liquid electrolyte but an Orlando start-up is developing a solid-state lithium-ion battery with improved stability and lifetime. This is an example of incremental innovation.
answer
TRUE
question
Chicago Cutlery reinstituted a sales contest with the same rules as the one that it used five years ago. This is an example of a process innovation.
answer
FALSE
question
Entrepreneurs tend to be tolerant of ambiguity.
answer
TRUE
question
Most organizations experience innovation as a matter of course; it happens naturally as part of everyday business.
answer
FALSE
question
The three most important ways to encourage innovation are by providing the right organizational culture, a team-based structure, and creative talent.
answer
FALSE Innovation doesn't happen as a matter of course. Organizations have to develop ways to make it happen over and over. Three ways to do so are by providing (1) the right organizational culture, (2) the appropriate resources, and (3) the correct reward system.
question
An organizational culture that celebrates failure helps foster innovation.
answer
TRUE
question
Innovation can be fostered by withholding raises or promotions from those whose attempts to innovate are not successful.
answer
FALSE
question
One step for fostering innovation is gaining allies by communicating your vision.
answer
TRUE
question
The most effective way to handle rewards for innovation is to provide them at the end of a successful project.
answer
FALSE
question
Which of the following is an effective way to deal with change and innovation? A. Insist on success. B. Increase work rules and hierarchy. C. Copy others' successes. D. Have the courage to follow your ideas. E. Jump right into it.
answer
D. Have the courage to follow your ideas.
question
According to Jim Collins, undisciplined pursuit of more and grasping for salvation are stages of organizational A. innovation. B. change. C. intervention. D. resistance. E. decline.
answer
E. decline.
question
Which of the following is not a supertrend shaping the future of business? A. More niche products. B. Traditional companies struggling with radically innovative change. C. Information becoming a competitive advantage. D. Offshore suppliers affecting U.S. business. E. Faster speed-to-market.
answer
C. Information becoming a competitive advantage.
question
A change that is made in response to arising problems or opportunities is called A. reactive change. B. incremental change. C. proactive change. D. radical change. E. process change.
answer
A. reactive change.
question
Which of the following is an example of a proactive change? A. Ciara's staff is unhappy about the long hours they have been working and several of them quit before she knows there is a problem. B. Ciara cannot get permission to hire another person until her group misses several deadlines. C. Ciara's group sent a product that was nearing its launch date back to the drawing board based on a competitor's superior new offering. D. Ciara explores improvements in bonus structures with her staff and begins to implement them despite the fact that her employees are generally content. E. Ciara is constantly "putting out fires," responding to daily crises in her group.
answer
D. Ciara explores improvements in bonus structures with her staff and begins to implement them despite the fact that her employees are generally content.
question
Walmart's implementation of RFID, a type of technology that allows it to improve inventory tracking, is an example of a(n) ______ change. A. reactive B. incremental C. proactive D. responsive E. radical
answer
C. proactive
question
Which of the following is an example of a force for change originating outside the organization? A. Productivity issues B. Conflict management C. Structural reorganization D. Absenteeism E. Social pressures
answer
E. Social pressures
question
The increasing diversity of the American workforce is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. demographic B. market C. social and political D. political E. economic
answer
A. demographic
question
The invention of a machine to make plastic corks for wine bottles has severely affected companies that produce traditional cork. This is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. market B. social and political C. demographic D. technological E. economic
answer
D. technological
question
Arizona Pottery is having a difficult time finding inexpensive labor, which it attributes to an unfriendly climate toward Hispanics since passage of tough illegal immigration legislation in that state. This is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. market B. employee C. social or political D. technological E. economic
answer
C. social or political
question
Inside forces for change include which of the following? A. Domestic competition B. Low productivity C. Advancements in automation D. Immigration E. Recession
answer
B. Low productivity
question
During the recession and its accompanying high levels of unemployment, Giordano Construction has had its choice of employees to support its growth. This is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. market B. social or political C. arbitrary D. technological E. demographic
answer
A. market
question
Recently many older workers who had planned to retire soon decided to keep working longer. This is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. social or political B. arbitrary C. demographic D. financial E. structural
answer
A. social or political
question
Which of the following is not an inside force that indicates organizational change might be needed? A. High turnover B. Excessive conflict between managers and employees C. Job dissatisfaction D. High levels of stress among employees E. Increased competition
answer
E. Increased competition
question
Nonmanagerial employees at Kennedy Steel belong to a union. The union has come close to striking several times over the years, and labor negotiations have recently been very tense. Kennedy likely needs to focus on changing A. values among potential customers. B. the likelihood that an acquisitions might occur. C. manufacturing processes and procedures. D. population variables. E. forces originating inside the organization.
answer
E. forces originating inside the organization.
question
The Human Resources manager at the Apex Golf and Tennis Club has just calculated the employee absenteeism rate for 2012, and it is 25% higher than it was in 2010 and 2011. He should A. wait until the end of 2013 and see what the rate is then. B. begin a major restructuring effort. C. reduce employees' work hours. D. address job design and ways to deal with work overload. E. institute strict disciplinary procedures for employees who are absent.
answer
D. address job design and ways to deal with work overload.
question
Which of the following is not an area in which change is often needed? A. Strategy B. Information C. People D. Structure E. Technology
answer
B. Information
question
Employees might feel they are being underpaid for what they do, even if pay and benefits are superior to the competition. Here, managers must change A. the tone of the debate. B. attitudes. C. tendencies toward greed. D. perceptions. E. the facts.
answer
D. perceptions.
question
Maid to Clean is considering implementing a system that will pay its cleaning workers based on the number of completed residential jobs, coupled with satisfactory ratings on random inspections to ensure quality. Managers believe that this will reduce labor costs. Maid to Clean is focusing on changing employee A. performance. B. skills. C. attitudes. D. management. E. structure.
answer
A. performance.
question
Saitou Insurance is about to install a new computer system that will change the way claims adjusters settle claims. Adjusters will be able to do the adjustment and issue the check right at the scene of the accident. Saitou most likely needs to focus on changing employee A. performance. B. skills. C. attitudes. D. management. E. perceptions.
answer
B. skills.
question
Mattress Emporium has had several incidents lately in which its drivers became lost when attempting deliveries. The drivers have no GPS or other access to computerized information and rely on the customers themselves for directions. Mattress Emporium probably needs to change its A. structure. B. people. C. technology. D. culture. E. strategy.
answer
C. technology.
question
Managers at Lucky Peach magazine are in the process of cross training entry-level employees to be able to take phone orders or answer customer questions, and to process orders in overflow situations. The company is changing its A. people. B. skills. C. technology. D. attitudes. E. structure.
answer
B. skills.
question
Frisco Recreational Vehicles recently instituted cross-functional teams to develop new products. Team members are spread across the country, so it is expensive and time consuming for people to travel to headquarters to meet. The company would benefit most from a change in ______ involving A. technology; teams meeting "virtually" through electronic media. B. structure; disbanding the teams and relying on individuals to develop products. C. culture; sending team members to conflict management courses. D. people; hiring new people in the organization at the headquarters location. E. strategy; dropping the strategy of developing new products.
answer
A. technology; teams meeting "virtually" through electronic media.
question
The record industry has been forced into a ______ change because of the prevalence and ease of illegally downloading music. A. technology B. structure C. culture D. people E. strategy
answer
E. strategy
question
________ is an emotional/behavioral response to real or imagined threats to an established work routine. A. A change agent B. Resistance to change C. An OD intervention D. Radical innovation E. Benchmarking
answer
B. Resistance to change
question
Which of the following is not an interacting factor that affects the level of resistance to change? A. Longevity of the change agent. B. Employee perceptions of change. C. Individual differences of the change agent. D. Change agent-employee relationship. E. Change agent actions and inactions.
answer
A. Longevity of the change agent.
question
The reintroduction of a familiar practice within the same organization is called a(n) A. practical change. B. adaptive change. C. reactive change. D. innovative change. E. radically innovative change.
answer
B. adaptive change.
question
Employees are likely to see an adaptive change as A. highly threatening. B. moderately threatening. C. somewhat threatening. D. least threatening. E. totally unacceptable.
answer
D. least threatening.
question
At Hartford Toy Depot, employees know that during the month of December they are generally required to work different schedules, often with some overtime, to support the holiday shopping season. This is an example of a(n) ______ change. A. adaptive B. reactive C. innovative D. incremental E. radically innovative
answer
A. adaptive
question
Peter, the owner and lead accountant at a tax preparation firm, is changing the work schedule of his long-term employees for the months of March and April, the company's busiest time. He is requiring work on weekends for everyone, using the same basic schedule as last year. Peter should expect that his employees will be A. terribly upset and quit. B. terribly upset but not quit. C. moderately upset and complain. D. moderately upset but not complain. E. hardly upset or not upset at all.
answer
E. hardly upset or not upset at all.
question
A change that represents the introduction of a new practice to an organization but that is not new to the industry is called a(n) A. mimicry change. B. adaptive change. C. reactive change. D. innovative change. E. radically innovative change.
answer
D. innovative change.
question
An innovative change involves ______ complexity, cost, and uncertainty. A. no B. minimum C. moderate D. high E. extreme
answer
C. moderate
question
Great Plains Credit Union has decided that tellers must rotate through a new weekend shift on Saturday afternoons since several of its competitors in the area have recently begun to offer these hours to customers. This is a(n) ______ change. A. radically innovative B. innovative C. adaptive D. proactive E. reactive
answer
B. innovative
question
Introducing a practice that is new to the industry is called a(n) ______ change. A. revolutionary B. radically innovative C. adaptive D. reactive E. innovative
answer
B. radically innovative
question
Evanston Cable Television has decided to offer a one-hour appointment window for customers needing installation or repair of its service, which will require them to have several technicians on call. Evanston hopes this practice will give them an advantage over the competition, none of whom have adopted such a practice. It is introducing a(n) ______ change. A. reactive B. innovative C. activist D. adaptive E. radically innovative
answer
E. radically innovative
question
Which of the following is not a leading reason that employees resist change? A. Individual predisposition toward change B. Climate of mistrust C. Fear of failure D. Lack of personal ethics E. Nonreinforcing reward systems
answer
D. Lack of personal ethics
question
Lewin's change model consists of A. three types: adaptive, innovative, and radically innovative. B. three forces: employee characteristics, change agent characteristics, and change agent-employee relationships. C. four steps: recognize problems, gain allies, overcome resistance, and execute. D. three stages: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. E. three steps: diagnosis, intervention, and evaluation.
answer
D. three stages: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.
question
During Lewin's changing stage, managers should A. reduce the barriers to change. B. give employees new models for behavior. C. reinforce the desired change. D. make employees dissatisfied with the present situation. E. encourage employees to exhibit the new change.
answer
B. give employees new models for behavior.
question
During Lewin's refreezing stage, managers should A. make employees dissatisfied with the present way of doing things. B. give employees the tools for change. C. provide benchmarking results. D. reduce the barriers to change. E. reinforce the desired change in the employees.
answer
E. reinforce the desired change in the employees
question
The process by which a company compares its performance with that of high-performing organizations is called A. reference innovation. B. competitive change. C. benchmarking. D. continuous improvement. E. radical innovation.
answer
C. benchmarking.
question
Creighton Bicycles and Repair conducted a survey and discovered that among customers who had tried both bike shops, its successful cross-town competition was preferred about 80% of the time. The most frequently cited reason was customer service. This information would be most helpful to introduce to employees during which stage of Lewin's change model? A. Unfreezing B. Continuous improvement C. Benchmarking D. Empowerment E. Refreezing
answer
A. Unfreezing
question
Kotter proposed which of the following for organization change? A. A three stage model: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. B. Three types of innovation: adaptive, innovative, and radically innovative. C. Eight steps for leading organizational change. D. A three-step model: diagnosis, intervention, and evaluation. E. Ten reasons employees resist change.
answer
C. Eight steps for leading organizational change.
question
The set of techniques used for implementing planned change to make people and organizations more effective is called A. corporate transformation. B. TQM. C. revitalization. D. organizational development. E. incremental innovation.
answer
D. organizational development.
question
Organizational development is often put into practice by a A. catalytic consultant. B. change agent. C. behavioral consultant. D. transformative consultant. E. behavioral agent.
answer
B. change agent.
question
Which of the following is not one of the primary uses of OD? A. Improving recruitment B. Adapting to a merger C. Managing conflict D. Revitalizing an organization E. Adapting to an acquisition
answer
A. Improving recruitment
question
In which of the following situations would OD techniques be the most helpful? A. Increasing efficiency among employees in a firm. B. Assisting employees in dealing with stressful situations. C. Helping employees from two similar organizations work better together in a strategic alliance. D. Facilitating discussion of ethical issues in preparing a company's code of ethics. E. Working with the CEO to determine how to increase profitability.
answer
B. Assisting employees in dealing with stressful situations.
question
Caleb, an OD consultant, is designing a survey of employee attitudes to be given to workers at Tandem Investments. Caleb is conducting the ______ stage of OD. A. unfreezing B. intervention C. diagnosis D. evaluation E. process consultation
answer
C. diagnosis
question
The question "What shall we do about the problem?" would most likely be asked during the ______ stage of OD. A. changing B. diagnosis C. adaptation D. evaluation E. intervention
answer
E. intervention
question
Tirzah, an OD consultant, is working with members of with a cross-functional team to help them build cohesiveness and practice skills to function better as a team. Tirzah is conducting the ______ stage of OD. A. intervention B. diagnosis C. evaluation D. changing E. adaptation
answer
A. intervention
question
Marc, an OD consultant, is visiting Cassidy Engineering a year after he assisted them in making changes to their employee incentive plan. Now he is comparing sales and turnover data from the last three years to the current year. Marc is in the ______ stage of OD. A. refreezing B. intervention C. diagnosis D. adaptation E. evaluation
answer
E. evaluation
question
Which of the following circumstances is likely to increase the success of OD? A. Applying each OD intervention uniformly in international locations. B. A single large intervention. C. Support of top managers. D. Implementing organization change for its own sake. E. Goals focused on the short term rather than the long term.
answer
C. Support of top managers.
question
When it comes to failure in the innovation process, Procter & Gamble CEO A. G. Lafley suggests that the key is to A. work within a competent team so that blame is spread around among strong players. B. look for innovation in small increments, so that failure risks are small. C. develop a tolerance for ambiguity so that failure does not personally upset you. D. fail early, fail cheaply, and don't make the same mistake twice. E. avoid it by almost any means necessary, since it will irreparably harm your reputation.
answer
D. fail early, fail cheaply, and don't make the same mistake twice.
question
Which of the following is the factor that most reduces an organization's ability to learn from failure? A. Employees that like to experiment with multiple solutions. B. Employees with a strong desire to acquire personal wealth. C. Employees that blame others for failure. D. Employees that embrace a learning culture. E. Employees with a high tolerance for ambiguity.
answer
C. Employees that blame others for failure.
question
Which of the following is not one of Scott Berkun's seeds of innovation for organizations? A. Hard work in a specific direction B. Curiosity C. Philanthropy D. Hard work with direction change E. Necessity
answer
C. Philanthropy
question
A technological innovation that improves the speed of a computer's microprocessor would be considered a(n) ______ innovation. A. adaptive B. product C. reactive D. process E. industrial
answer
B. product
question
A(n) ______ innovation is a change in the way a product or service is conceived, manufactured, or disseminated. A. procedural B. radical C. product D. process E. adaptive
answer
D. process
question
A managerial innovation that improves the efficiency of a company's cross-functional teams would be considered a(n) ______ innovation. A. product B. method C. process D. adaptive E. practical
answer
C. process
question
The management department at a local university began posting all assignments and other class materials to a course management website instead of creating a packet for students to purchase each term. This is a(n) ______ innovation. A. practice B. product C. process D. adaptive E. reactive
answer
C. process
question
The creation of products, services, or technologies that modify those that already exist is called ______ innovation. A. incremental B. product C. process D. radical E. adaptive
answer
A. incremental
question
Researchers working on hydrogen fuel cells hope that this could be a(n) ______ innovation, leading to a clean, renewable energy source, and reducing dependence on depleting fossil fuels with their adverse impact on the global environment. A. incremental B. product C. process D. radical E. disruptive
answer
D. radical
question
Hollywood Hair recently introduced a new acai berry moisture shampoo. Wenling, director of new product development, has just reviewed the dismal results. It appears that her team did adequate research on the product's acceptance by consumers prior to its introduction and is confused by the outcome. Wenling should A. step down as director. B. fire and replace the team lead as an example to others. C. reward her team for their effort. D. ignore the product failure. E. demote the team leader.
answer
C. reward her team for their effort.
question
Which of the following is not a way to encourage innovation? A. Creating a culture that celebrates failure. B. Supporting innovation with investments of time and money. C. Rewarding successful innovations. D. Withholding raises and promotions when innovation attempts don't work out. E. Hiring top scientists, despite expense.
answer
D. Withholding raises and promotions when innovation attempts don't work out.
question
Once you have been able to gain allies and overcome employee resistance, excellent ______ will be a key to fostering innovation. A. organization B. communication C. production D. execution E. recognition
answer
D. execution
question
Which of the following sequences best describes how a manager can foster innovation in an organization? A. Recognize problems, gain allies, overcome resistance, execute well B. Recognize problems, overcome resistance, gain allies, stabilize system C. Overcome resistance, empower employees, execute well, provide incentives D. Recognize problems, empower employees, devise solutions, execute well E. Devise solutions, reorganize, change culture, stabilize system
answer
A. Recognize problems, gain allies, overcome resistance, execute well
question
While different from Gen Xers that were born in the generation before them, the Millennials can be managed in much the same way the Boomers are.
answer
FALSE
question
Millennials should be provided with constant feedback and recognition in the workplace.
answer
TRUE
question
One of the things that Millennials are looking for is a job with regular working hours.
answer
FALSE
question
The opportunity to receive mentoring in the workplace is appealing to Millennials.
answer
TRUE
question
Individuality is defined as the stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes that give a person his or her identity.
answer
FALSE
question
One of the Big Five personality dimensions is emotional stability.
answer
TRUE
question
Conviviality is one of the Big Five personality traits and is a measure of how outgoing, talkative, sociable, and assertive a person is.
answer
FALSE
question
Steadiness is the Big Five personality trait that refers to how dependable, responsible, achievement-oriented, and persistent one is.
answer
FALSE
question
Across professions, extroversion is a stronger predictor of job performance than agreeableness.
answer
TRUE
question
The personality trait of conscientiousness has the strongest positive correlation with job performance.
answer
TRUE
question
Often personality tests can be used effectively as the sole basis for hiring.
answer
FALSE
question
Integrity tests are effective because dishonest people are unable to fake conscientiousness, even on a paper-and-pencil test.
answer
TRUE
question
The proactive personality has been associated with job satisfaction and commitment to one's employer.
answer
TRUE
question
A person with an external locus of control is likely to respond more productively to merit pay incentives than one with an internal locus.
answer
FALSE
question
If you have a personal belief that you have what it takes to succeed, you would be best described as having an internal locus of control.
answer
FALSE
question
Learned helplessness is the debilitating lack of faith in one's ability to control one's environment.
answer
TRUE
question
Employees with low self-efficacy need lots of constructive pointers and positive feedback.
answer
TRUE
question
People with high self-esteem take more risks and handle failure better than those with low self-esteem.
answer
TRUE
question
Self-awareness is the extent to which people are able to observe their own behavior and adapt it to external situations.
answer
FALSE
question
Low self-monitoring individuals tend to have greater career success than high self-monitors.
answer
FALSE
question
Self-awareness is the most essential trait of emotional intelligence.
answer
TRUE
question
As an emotional intelligence trait, social awareness refers to the ability to communicate clearly, disarm conflicts, and build strong personal bonds.
answer
FALSE
question
Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary field dedicated to better understanding and management of people at work.
answer
TRUE
question
Lifelong behavior patterns are dictated by values that are fairly well set by the time people are in their early teens.
answer
TRUE
question
Status is a common value held in the workplace.
answer
TRUE
question
A value is a learned predisposition toward a specific object.
answer
FALSE
question
Attitudes are abstract ideals that are directed toward all objects, people, or events consistently over time and related situations.
answer
FALSE
question
The affective component of an attitude consists of the feelings or emotions one has about a situation.
answer
TRUE
question
The intentional component of an attitude is also known as the cognitive component.
answer
FALSE
question
"I don't like socializing with my coworkers outside of work" is an example of the behavioral component of an attitude.
answer
FALSE
question
Self-serving bias, according to Leon Festinger, describes the psychological discomfort a person experiences between his or her cognitive attitude and incompatible behavior.
answer
FALSE
question
Belittling the importance of one's inconsistent behavior is a way to reduce cognitive dissonance.
answer
TRUE
question
A smoker who claims that the habit is not as dangerous as antismoking messages suggest, saying "My grandmother smokes and she's in her 80s," is attempting to reduce cognitive dissonance.
answer
TRUE
question
Gina was pregnant with her first child, and she ordered a beer at lunch. She drank it despite reading the label that said consumption of alcohol during pregnancy has been linked to birth defects. Her actions are likely to cause cognitive dissonance in the other patrons in the restaurant.
answer
FALSE
question
Causal attribution is the process of interpreting and understanding one's environment.
answer
FALSE
question
The first step of the perception process is selective attention.
answer
TRUE
question
Stereotyping is a type of distortion in perception.
answer
TRUE
question
Stereotyping is holding negative notions about less privileged groups such as women or ethnic minorities.
answer
FALSE
question
In research, both men and women prefer male bosses.
answer
TRUE
question
As employees' age increases, so does their job involvement and satisfaction.
answer
TRUE
question
The halo effect occurs only with positive traits.
answer
FALSE
question
Leah has hired two new employees for her team, Jake and Margaret. Jake is outgoing and attractive, while Margaret is very bright but seems quiet and unsure of herself. Leah immediately expects Jake to outperform Margaret at the job. Jake is likely experiencing the halo effect.
answer
FALSE
question
The activity of inferring causes for observed behavior is called causal attribution.
answer
TRUE
question
In the fundamental attribution bias, people tend to take more personal responsibility for success than for failure.
answer
FALSE
question
A student who blames his failing test grade on unclear lectures and a poorly worded exam rather than his limited effort likely has a self-serving bias.
answer
TRUE
question
The self-fulfilling prophecy describes the phenomenon in which people's expectations of themselves or others lead them to behave in ways that make those expectations come true.
answer
TRUE
question
One of the ways to create a Pygmalion effect is to encourage employees to visualize the successful execution of tasks.
answer
TRUE
question
Job commitment is defined as an individual's involvement, satisfaction, and enthusiasm for work.
answer
FALSE
question
Job security and feelings of psychological safety propel engagement among employees.
answer
TRUE
question
Job satisfaction is correlated with lower absenteeism and turnover.
answer
TRUE
question
High job satisfaction is a fundamental predictor of high job performance.
answer
FALSE
question
Organizational commitment reflects the extent to which an employee identifies with an organization and is dedicated to its goals.
answer
TRUE
question
Studies show a surprising lack of correlation between organizational commitment and job satisfaction.
answer
FALSE
question
When an employee does not show up for work every day it is known as turnover.
answer
FALSE
question
Turnover is very costly for an organization in terms of recruitment and training.
answer
TRUE
question
At a working lunch with her boss and several people from other departments, Sanaa asked others about their projects and was genuinely interested in what they were trying to do. Here, Sanaa was exhibiting organizational citizenship.
answer
TRUE
question
Violence is considered a dysfunctional work behavior.
answer
FALSE
question
While it would be desirable, there is currently no way to screen employees at hiring to prevent counterproductive work behaviors.
answer
FALSE
question
Diversity is synonymous with differences.
answer
FALSE
question
One of the four layers of diversity on Gardenswartz and Rowe's diversity wheel is labeled as organizational dimensions.
answer
TRUE
question
Personality is at the center of Gardenswartz and Rowe's diversity wheel.
answer
TRUE
question
On Gardenswartz and Rowe's diversity wheel, internal dimensions of diversity include gender, age, and race.
answer
TRUE
question
On Gardenswartz and Rowe's diversity wheel, biographical dimensions of diversity consist of the personal characteristics that people acquire, discard, or modify throughout their lives.
answer
FALSE
question
Individuals have some ability to control their external dimensions of diversity.
answer
TRUE
question
In today's workplaces, the further up the pay scale and the higher the education level, the wider the earnings gap becomes between men and women.
answer
TRUE
question
The glass ceiling is a concept that applies to both minorities and women.
answer
TRUE
question
The Americans with Disabilities Act requires organizations to make all requested accommodations for an individual's disabilities.
answer
FALSE
question
Declining literacy is a problem in the American workforce.
answer
TRUE
question
Ethnocentrism is a strong self-identification with one's race or ethnicity, often to the exclusion of other personal characteristics.
answer
FALSE
question
Cognitive dissonance is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities and are uncertain about their ability to handle them effectively.
answer
FALSE
question
Very low levels of stress lead to the best workplace performance.
answer
FALSE
question
Stressors can be both positive and negative.
answer
TRUE
question
Type A behavior has been associated with decreased work performance.
answer
FALSE
question
Sets of behaviors that people expect of occupants of a position are known as roles.
answer
TRUE
question
Having to decide between working late at your boss's request or attending your child's birthday party is an example of role overload.
answer
FALSE
question
Boredom, irritability, and nervousness can be symptoms of stress.
answer
TRUE
question
Role overload is a state of emotional, mental, and physical exhaustion, expressed as listlessness, indifference, or frustration.
answer
FALSE
question
Extra staff at peak periods is an example of buffers managers can use to prevent employee burnout.
answer
TRUE
question
Employee assistance programs focus on self-responsibility, nutritional and environmental awareness, relaxation techniques, and physical fitness.
answer
FALSE
question
Millennials are more likely than older workers to A. be very independent. B. focus exclusively on financial rewards. C. appreciate a slower pace. D. want more hands-on guidance. E. be more patient in seeing the results of their work.
answer
A. be very independent.
question
The stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes that give a person her identity are known as her A. character. B. values. C. attitudes. D. attributions. E. personality.
answer
E. personality.
question
Which of the following is one of the Big 5 personality dimensions? A. Dependability B. Tolerance for ambiguity C. Openness to change D. Agreeableness E. Openness to extremes
answer
D. Agreeableness
question
______ is the personality dimension that describes how intellectual, imaginative, curious, and broad-minded a person is. A. Inquisitiveness B. Emotional stability C. Openness to experience D. Extroversion E. Inventiveness
answer
C. Openness to experience
question
______ is the personality dimension that describes how achievement-oriented and persistent a person is. A. Emotional stability B. Conscientiousness C. Extroversion D. Locus of control E. Self-efficacy
answer
B. Conscientiousness
question
Michael is frequently nervous, tense, and worried, both at work and at home. He likely scores low on which of the Big Five personality dimensions? A. Emotional stability B. Conscientiousness C. Extroversion D. Openness to experience E. Self-monitoring
answer
A. Emotional stability
question
Jenna really enjoys mingling at work functions, both to network for new contacts and simply to share stories with other interesting people. Jenna probably scores high in A. emotional stability. B. conscientiousness. C. extroversion. D. agreeableness. E. openness to experience.
answer
C. extroversion.
question
______ has been associated with success for managers and salespeople. A. Extroversion B. Agreeableness C. Openness to experience D. Emotional stability E. Conscientiousness
answer
A. Extroversion
question
How should a manager use personality tests? A. Use graphology tests to infer personality. B. Create personality profiles of the desirable employee for different jobs. C. Experiment with various personality tests that appear on the Internet. D. Assess testing for any possible adverse impact on hiring women and minorities. E. Avoid them, as they are illegal.
answer
D. Assess testing for any possible adverse impact on hiring women and minorities.
question
A person who is apt to take initiative and persevere to influence the environment is said to have a(n) ______ personality. A. emotionally stable B. proactive C. extroverted D. emotionally intelligent E. self-efficacious
answer
B. proactive
question
The extent to which people believe they control their own fate through their own efforts is called their A. tolerance for ambiguity. B. locus of control. C. emotional stability. D. self-efficacy. E. self-monitoring.
answer
B. locus of control.
question
People with ______ exhibit less anxiety, greater motivation, and stronger expectations that effort leads to performance. A. high self-efficacy B. high self-monitoring C. internal locus of control D. high tolerance for ambiguity E. high self-esteem
answer
C. internal locus of control
question
Employees with a(n) ______ locus of control will probably resist close managerial supervision. A. high B. internal C. external D. absent E. low
answer
B. internal
question
Cara's manager notices that she exhibits an internal locus of control when she speaks about her work. Her manager should A. give Cara a lot of positive feedback. B. ensure that Cara has a highly structured job. C. give Cara a job with much social contact with coworkers and customers. D. closely supervise Cara's work. E. provide an incentive structure to pay Cara.
answer
E. provide an incentive structure to pay Cara.
question
Belief in one's personal ability to do a task is called A. self-esteem. B. openness to experience. C. self-efficacy. D. locus of control. E. self-monitoring.
answer
C. self-efficacy.
question
Complex, challenging, and autonomous jobs tend to enhance people's perceptions of their A. self-efficacy. B. increased anxiety. C. tolerance for pain. D. learned helplessness. E. self-esteem.
answer
A. self-efficacy.
question
Wei is a manager of several subordinates who seem to be low in self-efficacy. In an effort to improve this, she should A. let them learn new tasks independently. B. give them simplistic jobs. C. immediately create very challenging goals for them. D. provide guided experiences and mentoring. E. avoid giving positive feedback.
answer
D. provide guided experiences and mentoring.
question
The extent to which people like or dislike themselves is called their A. emotional stability. B. self-esteem. C. locus of control. D. self-efficacy. E. self-monitoring.
answer
B. self-esteem.
question
People with low self-esteem ______ than those who with higher self-esteem. A. handle failure better B. choose more unconventional jobs C. focus more on their strengths D. are more dependent on others E. exhibit more aggressive behavior
answer
D. are more dependent on others
question
If a manager knows one of her subordinates has low self-esteem and wishes to enhance it, she should A. provide frequent reminders about improving weaknesses. B. avoid delegating work to this subordinate. C. redesign the work so that it is routine and structured. D. avoid giving feedback. E. express confidence in the employee's abilities to complete given tasks.
answer
E. express confidence in the employee's abilities to complete given tasks.
question
People with high ______ are responsive to social and interpersonal cues of others. A. self-esteem B. self-monitoring C. locus of control D. self-efficacy E. agreeableness
answer
B. self-monitoring
question
Low self-monitors are often criticized for being ______ to others. A. insincere B. boastful C. aggressive D. unfair E. insensitive
answer
E. insensitive
question
The ability to cope, empathize with others, and be self-motivated is called A. emotional intelligence. B. self-awareness. C. social awareness. D. self-efficacy. E. self-monitoring.
answer
A. emotional intelligence.
question
Which of the following is a trait of emotional intelligence? A. situational awareness B. self-sufficiency C. self-monitoring D. social awareness E. self-efficacy
answer
D. social awareness
question
The ability to control your emotions and act with honesty and integrity in reliable and adaptable ways is known as A. self-awareness. B. self-management. C. social awareness. D. situational awareness. E. relationship management.
answer
B. self-management.
question
Organizational ______ tries to explain and predict workplace behavior to help managers better lead and motivate others. A. behavior B. development C. culture D. strategy E. science
answer
A. behavior
question
The abstract ideals that guide a person's thinking and behavior across all situations are called A. ethics. B. culture. C. values. D. attitudes. E. perceptions.
answer
C. values.
question
Surveys show that employees are more interested in ______ rather than just earning a paycheck. A. advancement opportunity B. recognition C. benefits D. work-life balance E. status
answer
D. work-life balance
question
The three components of ______ are affective, cognitive, and behavioral. A. value assessment B. attitude C. job satisfaction D. personality E. stress
answer
B. attitude
question
The ______ component of an attitude consists of the beliefs and knowledge one has about a situation. A. behavioral B. decisional C. cognitive D. affective E. factual
answer
C. cognitive
question
The statement, "I really don't like that Samuel got so angry in that meeting," reflects the ______ component of an attitude. A. behavioral B. emotion C. cognitive D. affective E. value
answer
D. affective
question
The statement, "I won't give Kim such a tight deadline again," reflects the ______ component of an attitude. A. behavioral B. decisional C. cognitive D. affective E. value
answer
A. behavioral
question
The statement, "Spencer is slow to return phone calls," reflects the ______ component of an attitude. A. behavioral B. decisional C. cognitive D. affective E. value
answer
C. cognitive
question
Because people are uncomfortable with inconsistency between their attitudes and behaviors, they will seek to reduce A. a self-fulfilling prophecy. B. fundamental attribution. C. a self-serving bias. D. causal attribution. E. cognitive dissonance.
answer
E. cognitive dissonance.
question
Under which of the following circumstances would the desire to reduce cognitive dissonance be greatest? A. When large amounts of money are on the line. B. When the individual has little control. C. When the elements seem like an inconsequential ambiguity. D. When there is little emotional investment in the situation. E. When the components of attitude have no inconsistency.
answer
A. When large amounts of money are on the line.
question
Which of the following is not one of the main ways to reduce cognitive dissonance? A. Change your attitude. B. Change your behavior. C. Eliminate the self-serving bias. D. Find consonant elements that outweigh the dissonant ones. E. Belittle the importance of the inconsistent behavior.
answer
C. Eliminate the self-serving bias.
question
According to Festinger, which of the following factors is most relevant as people deal with the discomfort of cognitive dissonance? A. Personal ethics B. Judgment of others C. Personality differences D. Control over the situation E. Experience with decision-making
answer
D. Control over the situation
question
The process of interpreting and understanding one's environment is called A. self-awareness. B. perception. C. cognition. D. self-monitoring. E. openness to experience.
answer
B. perception.
question
Which of the following is not a step in the perceptual process? A. Selective attention. B. Retrieving from memory to make judgments and decisions. C. Causal attribution. D. Interpretation and evaluation. E. Storing in memory.
answer
C. Causal attribution.
question
Which of the following is not a distortion in perception? A. Cognitive dissonance B. Stereotyping C. Halo effect D. The recency effect E. Causal attribution
answer
A. Cognitive dissonance
question
The tendency to attribute to an individual the characteristics one believes are typical of the group to which that individual belongs is called A. generalization. B. selective perception. C. a fundamental attribution error. D. stereotyping. E. the halo effect.
answer
D. stereotyping.
question
As an employee's age increases, his or her A. job involvement decreases. B. absenteeism increases. C. job satisfaction increases. D. work motivation decreases. E. organizational commitment decreases.
answer
C. job satisfaction increases.
question
Brad was hiring a new financial analyst, and he had several good candidates. He was leaning towards hiring Kai, a Japanese American woman, since he thinks Asians are better at math. Brad is exhibiting which distortion in perception? A. Racism B. The recency effect C. A fundamental attribution error D. Stereotyping E. The halo effect
answer
D. Stereotyping
question
The ______ occurs when we form an impression of an individual based on a single trait. A. halo effect B. self-fulfilling prophecy C. fundamental attribution error D. self-serving bias effect E. selective perception error
answer
A. halo effect
question
The tendency to remember recent information better than earlier information is called A. the recency effect. B. a self-serving bias. C. the fundamental attribution bias. D. selective perception. E. stereotyping.
answer
A. the recency effect.
question
The tendency to attribute another person's behavior to his or her personal characteristics rather than to the situation the person is in is called A. the halo effect. B. a self-serving bias. C. the fundamental attribution bias. D. selective perception. E. stereotyping.
answer
C. the fundamental attribution bias.
question
Tori has been telling everyone in the sales department of her incredible skill as a salesperson, since she beat her goal this year by nearly 30%. But last year when she didn't even reach her goal, she said it was simply the economy. This is an example of the A. halo effect. B. self-fulfilling prophecy. C. fundamental attribution bias. D. self-serving bias. E. selective perception error.
answer
D. self-serving bias.
question
A waiter expects a group of poorly dressed customers to be stingy tippers and gives them poor service, so he gets the result that he expects, a very small tip. This is an example of the A. halo effect. B. self-fulfilling prophecy. C. fundamental attribution bias. D. self-serving bias. E. selective perception error.
answer
B. self-fulfilling prophecy.
question
The extent to which employees have positive or negative feelings about various aspects of their work refers to their A. job involvement. B. job performance. C. organizational commitment. D. job enrichment. E. job satisfaction.
answer
E. job satisfaction.
question
Julia really doesn't like her new boss and is not happy with the new tasks she's been assigned and the long hours she's been working. Still, she truly believes in what the company is trying to accomplish. Julia has A. poor job performance. B. low job involvement. C. low organizational commitment. D. poor job enrichment. E. low job satisfaction.
answer
E. low job satisfaction.
question
Which of the following factors is most relevant to a person's overall satisfaction with his or her job? A. Life outside of work B. Coworkers C. Locus of control D. Industry E. Self-efficacy
answer
B. Coworkers
question
Job satisfaction results in stronger ______ and lower levels of ______ A. job involvement; work-life balance. B. motivation; life satisfaction. C. organizational commitment; perceived stress. D. perceived stress; life satisfaction. E. perceived stress; absenteeism.
answer
C. organizational commitment; perceived stress.
question
The extent to which an employee identifies with an organization and is committed to its goals is called A. job involvement. B. job performance. C. organizational commitment. D. job satisfaction. E. job enrichment.
answer
C. organizational commitment.
question
________ programs help employees to integrate and transition to a new job. A. Organizational citizenship B. Employee assistance C. Onboarding D. Self-efficacy E. Proactive
answer
C. Onboarding
question
Employee behaviors that exceed the work-role requirements for the job are known as A. organizational citizenship behaviors. B. the halo effect. C. counterproductive work behaviors. D. self-efficacy behaviors. E. proactive behaviors.
answer
A. organizational citizenship behaviors.
question
Miles impressed his boss by making lots of suggestions for department improvements and by putting in many weekend hours to do extra tasks to develop the new procedures. Miles is exhibiting A. self-efficacy. B. onboarding traits. C. organizational citizenship behaviors. D. the halo effect. E. counterproductive work behaviors.
answer
C. organizational citizenship behaviors.
question
Absenteeism, drug and alcohol abuse, and disciplinary problems are examples of A. organizational citizenship behaviors. B. self-efficacy. C. causal attribution. D. counterproductive work behaviors. E. self-serving bias.
answer
D. counterproductive work behaviors.
question
______ represent(s) all the ways people are unlike and alike. A. Lifestyle B. Dimensions C. Background D. Conditions E. Diversity
answer
E. Diversity
question
Which of the following is one of the four layers of the diversity wheel? A. Gender B. External dimensions C. Llfestyle D. Management status E. Physical ability
answer
B. External dimensions
question
______ is at the center of the diversity wheel. A. Philosophy B. Personality C. Psychometrics D. Philanthropy E. Psychology
answer
B. Personality
question
Which of the following would be considered a primary dimension of diversity? A. Physical ability B. Religion C. Lifestyle D. Appearance E. Educational background
answer
A. Physical ability
question
Which of the following dimensions is an example of a secondary dimension on the diversity wheel? A. Income B. Race C. Sexual orientation D. Physical abilities E. Age
answer
A. Income
question
Which of the following dimensions is an example of an organizational dimension on the diversity wheel? A. Income B. Work experience C. Union affiliation D. Educational background E. Physical abilities
answer
C. Union affiliation
question
Which of the following diversity issues is true in the U.S. workforce? A. Unemployment among the disabled has dropped sharply since the introduction of the Americans with Disabilities Act. B. Literacy has ceased to be an issue among American workers. C. The median age of the American worker is increasing. D. White households continue to have higher median incomes than Asian ones. E. Among the top 500 U.S. companies, most currently do not yet offer domestic partner benefits for same-sex couples.
answer
C. The median age of the American worker is increasing.
question
Which of the following is a reason that some women face a glass ceiling? A. Poor goal-setting B. Inability to motivate others C. Poor financial performance D. Lack of mentors E. Inability to produce high-quality work
answer
D. Lack of mentors
question
The Americans with Disabilities Act requires employers to A. hire all qualified disabled persons who apply. B. reasonably accommodate an individual's disability. C. hire quotas of qualified disabled persons. D. actively solicit job applications from disabled persons. E. hire disabled persons to qualify for tax breaks.
answer
B. reasonably accommodate an individual's disability.
question
Melanie has a master's degree in psychology, but she is working at a sunglasses cart in the mall. She is currently A. experiencing reverse discrimination. B. underemployed. C. lacking a support system. D. demotivated. E. recession-resistant.
answer
B. underemployed.
question
______ is the belief that one's native country, culture, language, abilities, or behavior is superior to those of another culture. A. Reverse discrimination B. Stereotyping C. An ethical dilemma D. Diversity E. Ethnocentrism
answer
E. Ethnocentrism
question
Chris believes that he was not promoted to professor at State University because of the university's desire to promote minorities and women to achieve greater diversity at higher ranks. Chris thinks he is experiencing A. reverse discrimination. B. ethnocentrism. C. an ethical dilemma. D. diversity. E. stereotyping.
answer
A. reverse discrimination.
question
______ is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities and are uncertain about their ability to handle them effectively. A. Apprehension B. Role conflict C. Role overload D. Stress E. Anxiety
answer
D. Stress
question
Which of the following best describes the graph of stress (x-axis) versus performance (y-axis)? A. Line with a positive slope B. Line with a negative slope C. A horizontal line D. U-shaped curve E. Inverted u-shaped curve
answer
E. Inverted u-shaped curve
question
When others' expectations exceed one's ability, ______ has occurred. A. Burnout B. Role overload C. Learned helplessness D. Role conflict E. Role ambiguity
answer
B. Role overload
question
You have important clients in town who want to have dinner with you, but your mother has a plumbing leak and has asked you to come over and shut off the water until she can get it fixed tomorrow. You are experiencing A. role ambiguity. B. burnout. C. learned helplessness. D. role overload. E. role conflict.
answer
E. role conflict.
question
Which of the following is not a symptom of stress? A. Slurred speech B. Insomnia C. Hostility D. Alcohol abuse E. Heart attack
answer
A. Slurred speech
question
______ is a state of emotional, mental, and even physical exhaustion, expressed as listlessness, indifference, or frustration. A. Eustress B. Distress C. Role overload D. Burnout E. Breakdown
answer
D. Burnout
question
Which of the following is the most common drug of abuse? A. Marijuana B. Tranquilizers C. Prescription pain medication D. Methamphetamine E. Alcohol
answer
E. Alcohol
question
A(n) ______ program includes plans to help employees cope with stress, burnout, substance abuse, health problems, and family issues that influence job performance. A. holistic wellness B. employee engagement C. counterproductive behavior D. employee assistance E. self-monitoring
answer
D. employee assistance
question
Which of the following is not a suggested strategy for reducing unhealthy stressors in organizations? A. Rollout employee assistance programs. B. Recommend a holistic wellness approach. C. Develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision. D. Make jobs interesting. E. Make career counseling available.
answer
C. Develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision.
question
In managing for motivation, you should think about employees as capital assets.
answer
FALSE
question
Having a best friend at work is one factor that is characteristic of the best workplaces.
answer
TRUE
question
Motivation can be directly observed in another's behavior.
answer
FALSE
question
Unfulfilled needs are a part of the simple motivation model.
answer
TRUE
question
Feedback in the simple motivation model serves to tell you if you have demanded appropriate benefits.
answer
FALSE
question
An intrinsic reward is the payoff a person receives from others for performing a particular task.
answer
FALSE
question
When GE paid employee smokers up to $750 to quit and stay off cigarettes, it was an extrinsic reward.
answer
TRUE
question
Managers use motivation to get talented people to come work for them.
answer
TRUE
question
Content perspectives of motivation emphasize the emotions that employees feel in the workplace.
answer
FALSE
question
Alderfer's ERG theory is a need-based perspective on motivation.
answer
TRUE
question
According to Maslow, a person who is deprived in both physiological and love needs will attempt to satisfy his or her love needs first.
answer
FALSE
question
According to Maslow's theory, friendship and affection are esteem needs.
answer
FALSE
question
According to Maslow's theory, safety needs are the most basic, at the lowest level in the hierarchy of needs.
answer
FALSE
question
Though research does not clearly support Maslow's theory, it reminds managers that employees have needs beyond earning a paycheck.
answer
TRUE
question
Employers need only focus on fulfilling the bottom two levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
answer
FALSE
question
ERG theory assumes that three basic needs influence behavior: esteem, relatedness, and growth.
answer
FALSE
question
One difference between it and Maslow's theory is that ERG theory suggests that more than one level of needs may be activated at one time.
answer
TRUE
question
According to Alderfer's ERG theory, when one's higher-level needs are frustrated, he or she will seek more intensely to fulfill lower-level needs in what is called the frustration-regression component.
answer
TRUE
question
According to McClelland's theory, people are born with their needs for power, achievement, and affiliation.
answer
FALSE
question
In McClelland's acquired needs theory, the desire to excel at challenging tasks is part of the need for power.
answer
FALSE
question
McClelland identifies the need for personal power as positive and involving problem solving to further mutual goals.
answer
FALSE
question
If you are happy with accomplishment of a task being its own reward, you may have a high need for achievement.
answer
TRUE
question
Those with a high need for affiliation may not be the most efficient managers because they resist making decisions that make others resent them.
answer
TRUE
question
In Herzberg's theory, the lower-level needs are known as security factors, and the higher-level needs are called motivating factors.
answer
FALSE
question
According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, a worker's salary is not a possible source of job satisfaction.
answer
TRUE
question
According to Herzberg, motivating factors are the only factors associated with job satisfaction.
answer
TRUE
question
In two-factor theory, hygiene factors include achievement, recognition, and responsibility.
answer
FALSE
question
Expectancy theory is considered a reinforcement perspective on motivation.
answer
FALSE
question
Process perspectives try to explain why employees have different needs and what behaviors they select to satisfy them.
answer
TRUE
question
Equity theory focuses on how fairly employees think they are being treated compared to others.
answer
TRUE
question
Inputs, outputs, and comparisons are the essential elements in goal-setting theory.
answer
FALSE
question
In equity theory, employees are most motivated to make a change under circumstances in which they perceive all parties to have the same ratios.
answer
FALSE
question
According to equity theory, increasing their inputs is one way that employees deal with perceptions of inequity.
answer
FALSE
question
Janice has been difficult for some of her teammates to work with. According to equity theory, if she were to receive a raise so as to be compensated similarly to her peers, she would be more likely to cooperate in a group setting.
answer
TRUE
question
Management's assessment of fairness is most important under equity theory.
answer
FALSE
question
Expectancy theory suggests that people are motivated by how much they want something and how likely they think they are to get it.
answer
TRUE
question
In expectancy theory, a person's expectancy is her belief that a particular level of effort will lead to a particular level of performance.
answer
TRUE
question
Emilio's sales manager just told his group about this year's contest, the winner of which will take a lavish trip to France. Emilio does not like to travel to places where he can't speak the language, so he is not very enthusiastic. Here, Emilio's instrumentality is low.
answer
FALSE
question
According to expectancy theory, for a person's motivation to be high, he or she must be high on all three elements: instrumentality, expectancy, and valence.
answer
TRUE
question
Specificity of goals can often be improved by making them quantitative.
answer
TRUE
question
To be most motivating, goals should be set to be very difficult, just out of the reach of workers, so that they never stop pushing themselves.
answer
FALSE
question
Job design involves the division of an organization's work among its employees and the application of motivational theories to jobs to increase satisfaction and performance.
answer
TRUE
question
Job simplification increases job satisfaction by allowing workers to become expert at a fewer number of tasks.
answer
FALSE
question
Job design that fits jobs to people is based on the assumption that people are underutilized at work and that they want more variety and responsibility.
answer
TRUE
question
Job enrichment consists of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase variety and motivation.
answer
FALSE
question
Job enlargement by itself does not have a significant and lasting positive effect on job performance.
answer
TRUE
question
Job enrichment requires some vertical loading rather than just horizontal loading.
answer
TRUE
question
According to the job characteristics model, job characteristics directly affect the work outcomes.
answer
FALSE
question
The extent to which a job allows an employee to make choices about scheduling different tasks and deciding how to do them is known as task identity.
answer
FALSE
question
Task significance describes the extent to which a job affects the lives of other people, whether inside or outside the organization.
answer
TRUE
question
In the job characteristics model, feedback is one of the five core job characteristics.
answer
TRUE
question
According to reinforcement theory, workers will be more motivated and perform better when they experience their work as meaningful, feel responsible for results, and know how well they are doing.
answer
FALSE
question
Job design works even when the affected employees have no desire for personal growth.
answer
FALSE
question
A job diagnostic survey can be used to identify problems with a job's motivational characteristics and help determine if a job redesign is appropriate.
answer
TRUE
question
Reinforcement theory suggests behavior tends to be repeated if it has positive consequences and tends not to be if it has negative consequences.
answer
TRUE
question
The use of reinforcement theory to change human behavior is called behavior alteration.
answer
FALSE
question
Something that inhibits a given behavior can be called reinforcement.
answer
TRUE
question
Negative reinforcement is the process of weakening behavior by presenting something negative.
answer
FALSE
question
In reinforcement theory, both extinction and punishment reduce the likelihood that a given behavior will be repeated.
answer
TRUE
question
A manager should reward only desirable behavior, and should do so as soon as possible after the behavior appears.
answer
TRUE
question
A manager should administer punishment in public because the embarrassment amplifies the punishment and therefore its effectiveness.
answer
FALSE
question
Pay for performance compensation plans base employee pay on the number of job-relevant skills or academic degrees they earn.
answer
FALSE
question
Stock options allow certain employees to buy stock at a future date for a discounted price.
answer
TRUE
question
Research shows that the cubicle is a motivational environment for most employees.
answer
FALSE
question
______ is defined as the psychological processes that arouse and direct goal-directed behavior. A. Stimulus B. Productivity C. Enticement D. Motivation E. Incented action
answer
D. Motivation
question
A simple model of motivation does not include which of the following? A. Unfulfilled need B. Behaviors C. Reactions D. Motivation E. Rewards
answer
C. Reactions
question
Craig's sales manager has just told the group that all sales in the month of September will earn an extra 5% commission. The team gets right to work, being motivated by a(n) A. intrinsic reward. B. physiological need. C. high need for power. D. extrinsic reward. E. hygiene factor.
answer
D. extrinsic reward.
question
Arianna's management professor just told her class that the final exam is optional for students like her who currently have an A. She decides to take the exam anyway, since she likes the subject and wants to master the material. Here, Arianna is motivated to take the exam by a(n) A. intrinsic reward. B. physiological need. C. high need for power. D. extrinsic reward. E. hygiene factor.
answer
A. intrinsic reward.
question
Which of the following is a need-based perspective on motivation? A. Expectancy theory B. Herzberg's two-factor theory C. Job characteristics model D. Goal-setting theory E. Equity theory
answer
B. Herzberg's two-factor theory
question
Maslow's levels of needs, in order from lowest (most basic) to highest level, are A. self-actualization, esteem, love, safety, and physiological. B. safety, love, esteem, self-actualization, and physiological. C. physiological, safety, self-actualization, esteem, and love. D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization. E. safety, physiological, esteem, love, and self-actualization.
answer
D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization.
question
The need for status, reputation, and recognition are part of A. self-actualization. B. esteem. C. love. D. safety. E. physiological.
answer
B. esteem.
question
After a series of bus accidents, one of which resulted in a critical injury to a driver, Inland Shuttle drivers received additional training and buses were retrofitted with new braking systems. This helps to satisfy which of Maslow's needs? A. Self-actualization B. Esteem C. Love D. Safety E. Physiological
answer
D. Safety
question
An accounting firm provides employees with educational reimbursements if they complete job-related coursework with a B or better, which helps them meet which of Maslow's levels of needs? A. Self-actualization B. Esteem C. Love D. Safety E. Physiological
answer
A. Self-actualization
question
For managers, the importance of Maslow's contribution is that he showed that workers A. are only interested in compensation that helps them fulfill physiological needs. B. are as complex as their organization. C. have needs that cannot be understood by their employer. D. expect an employer to fulfill every level of their hierarchy of needs. E. have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.
answer
E. have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.
question
Which of the following is a need in Alderfer's ERG theory? A. Esteem B. Existence C. Realization D. Rating E. Generalization
answer
B. Existence
question
______ assumes that three basic needs influence behavior and that they may be activated concurrently. A. Maslow's theory B. Expectancy theory C. Alderfer's ERG theory D. Hertzberg's theory E. Equity theory
answer
C. Alderfer's ERG theory
question
According to the acquired needs theory, the desire to influence others is part of the need for A. affiliation. B. power. C. self-actualization. D. relatedness. E. achievement.
answer
B. power.
question
Anne has excelled as a consultant for a large financial institution. She loves building mutually beneficial relationships and is extremely well liked by her clients. Anne likely has a A. low need for affiliation. B. low need for power. C. low need for achievement. D. high need for affiliation. E. high need for achievement.
answer
D. high need for affiliation.
question
Even when he started his first job, Galen was not content to be just one of the employees. His boss noticed that he often coached his coworkers about ways to improve their work, even when it wasn't his job. Galen probably has a A. high need for achievement. B. high need for affiliation. C. high need for power. D. low need for achievement. E. high need for leadership.
answer
C. high need for power.
question
Janet is very aggressive at her job, and her coworkers complain that she often manipulates them and her boss in order to get ahead. She attempts to direct everything and everyone, regardless of the consequences to others or even the organization itself. Janet is expressing what type of need for power? A. Personal B. Destructive C. Legitimate D. Organizational E. Compensatory
answer
A. Personal
question
McClelland's need for achievement corresponds most closely to A. Herzberg's hygiene factors. B. Maslow's esteem needs. C. extrinsic rewards. D. Alderfer's relatedness needs. E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.
answer
E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.
question
According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a motivating factor? A. Pay B. The work itself C. Working conditions D. Company policy E. Supervisors
answer
B. The work itself
question
According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a hygiene factor? A. Responsibility B. Advancement C. The work itself D. Relationships E. Recognition
answer
D. Relationships
question
According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, in the zone between the motivating factors and the hygiene factors, employees are A. dissatisfied. B. satisfied. C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied. D. unmotivated. E. stagnant.
answer
C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.
question
According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, only ______ factors can make employees satisfied with their jobs. A. motivating B. self-actualization C. growth D. hygiene E. achievement
answer
A. motivating
question
Which of the following is a higher-level need based on the four content theory perspectives? A. Esteem B. Existence C. Hygiene D. Physiological E. Safety
answer
A. Esteem
question
Anders is manager for a large freight company. He has noticed low morale lately, perhaps because of the cramped quarters and lack of raises this year among workers on his shift. According to Herzberg, Anders should first concentrate on A. needs for achievement. B. hygiene factors. C. esteem needs. D. motivating factors. E. growth needs.
answer
B. hygiene factors.
question
According to Herzberg's theory, the first thing managers of employees who dislike their jobs should do is to A. provide opportunities for achievement. B. publicly recognize good performance. C. make sure pay levels, policies, and working conditions are reasonable. D. create opportunities for personal growth and advancement. E. increase employees' responsibility and opportunity for leadership.
answer
C. make sure pay levels, policies, and working conditions are reasonable.
question
Theories that try to understand the thought processes by which people decide how to act are called A. needs-based perspectives. B. reinforcement perspectives. C. job design perspectives. D. cognitive perspectives. E. process perspectives.
answer
E. process perspectives.
question
Which of the following is a process perspective on motivation? A. Goal-setting theory B. Job characteristics model C. Two-factor theory D. ERG theory E. Acquired needs theory
answer
A. Goal-setting theory
question
In equity theory, employees are motivated to A. work harder when they have more freedom. B. resolve feelings of injustice. C. correct themselves when they aren't working hard enough. D. blame others when they miss work or fail at tasks. E. work just hard enough to get what they want.
answer
B. resolve feelings of injustice.
question
When workers perceive they are being treated fairly on the job, they are most likely to A. pass up promotional opportunities. B. show improved safety practices. C. be a whistleblower. D. support organizational change. E. seek additional education.
answer
D. support organizational change.
question
Brady went to his boss Lynn to complain that he got the same bonus this quarter as everyone else, despite the longer hours he's been putting in and his higher level of experience and efficiency. If Lynn can't change the bonuses, she should A. tell Brady "That's just the way bonuses are given." B. suggest that Brady take this up with her boss. C. expect that Brady will reduce his hours. D. start documenting Brady's complaints for future disciplinary action. E. expect that Brady's performance will improve.
answer
C. expect that Brady will reduce his hours.
question
The theory under which people make the choice that promises them the greatest reward if they think they can get it is A. goal-setting theory. B. expectancy theory. C. reinforcement theory. D. equity theory. E. two-factor theory.
answer
B. expectancy theory.
question
After struggling with the training, Sachin is unsure whether he can complete the end-of-year financial reporting with minimal errors in the time allotted at his new job. In this case, Sachin is low on the ______ element of expectancy theory. A. valence B. expectancy C. outcomes D. instrumentality E. performance
answer
B. expectancy
question
______ is the expectation that successful performance of the task will lead to the desired outcome. A. Expectancy B. Reinforcement C. Valence D. Instrumentality E. Effort
answer
D. Instrumentality
question
At his review last year, Ryan was promised a big raise if he met his production goals. Raises were included in today's paychecks, and despite that Ryan has met all of his goals, he only received a cost-of-living raise. In the future, Ryan's ______ will probably be A. instrumentality; low. B. valence; low. C. expectancy; low. D. instrumentality; high. E. expectancy; high.
answer
A. instrumentality; low.
question
Chad was interviewing for jobs, and the HR manager at one firm told him that the company pays the total health insurance costs for a family of four. As a single man, this benefit did not seem especially important to him right now. Here, Chad is low on the ______ element of the expectancy theory. A. valence B. instrumentality C. outcomes D. expectancy E. significance
answer
A. valence
question
When using goal-setting theory to motivate employees, managers should A. set targets that are just out of employees' reach. B. help workers understand and accept the goals. C. set general goals that are emotionally appealing. D. hold employees responsible for getting their own feedback. E. set goals that are easily achievable.
answer
B. help workers understand and accept the goals.
question
A goal that states "Attend work at least 80% of the time this quarter" has which of the following problems? A. It is not specific enough. B. It is not measurable. C. It does not have a target date. D. It is not challenging enough. E. It is not achievable.
answer
D. It is not challenging enough.
question
According to goal-setting theory, which of the following is necessary for goals to create high motivation and performance? A. Setting general goals that will work for multiple employees. B. Predetermining acceptable rewards for meeting goals. C. Setting goals that fulfill self-actualization needs. D. Reinforcing of desired behaviors. E. Setting goals linked to an action plan.
answer
E. Setting goals linked to an action plan.
question
Which of the following is the best statement of a goal? A. Give your very best effort. B. Get through most of those reports by 9/1. C. Reduce production errors by 10 percent by the end of the quarter. D. Increase customer retention. E. Be late to work less often.
answer
C. Reduce production errors by 10 percent by the end of the quarter.
question
______ involves division of an organization's work and applies motivational theories to jobs to increase satisfaction and performance. A. Job enlargement B. Job design C. Job simplification D. Job development E. Job enrichment
answer
B. Job design
question
The process of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase variety and motivation is called A. job enlargement. B. job design. C. job development. D. job rotation. E. job enrichment.
answer
A. job enlargement.
question
Research shows that simplified jobs lead to A. job satisfaction. B. poor mental health. C. a sense of accomplishment. D. a sense of personal growth. E. decreased worker productivity.
answer
B. poor mental health.
question
Job ______ is the opposite of job A. rotation; enrichment. B. rotation; enlargement. C. loading; enrichment. D. simplification; enrichment. E. simplification; enlargement.
answer
E. simplification; enlargement.
question
The process of building into a job such motivating factors as recognition and achievement is called A. MBO. B. job design. C. job enrichment. D. job enlargement. E. horizontal loading.
answer
C. job enrichment.
question
Gwen's job as an accounting assistant was recently modified to include reconciling of bank accounts and delivering checks to the bank, two tasks previously done by the accounting manager. This increase in responsibility would best be described as A. job development. B. job enlargement. C. job satisficing. D. job design. E. vertical loading.
answer
E. vertical loading.
question
Of the following, which is a core job characteristic? A. Meaningfulness B. Skill specificity C. Task significance D. Teamwork E. Task variety
answer
C. Task significance
question
According to the job characteristics model, the core job characteristics of skill variety, task identity, and task significance combine to affect A. knowledge of results. B. meaningfulness of work. C. autonomy of work. D. responsibility for results. E. feedback from others.
answer
B. meaningfulness of work.
question
The extent to which a job allows an employee to make decisions about scheduling different tasks and deciding how to perform them is called A. horizontal loading. B. skill variety. C. task identity. D. task significance. E. autonomy.
answer
E. autonomy.
question
Vanessa runs a flower shop. She recently made some changes so that one employee answers phones and does paperwork, while another creates arrangements, and a third packages and delivers the arrangements. Previously, each employee was responsible for the order from the phone call through the delivery. Vanessa's job redesign has A. increased task identity. B. decreased task identity. C. increased task significance. D. decreased task significance. E. decreased autonomy.
answer
B. decreased task identity.
question
As a maintenance person for the Air Force, Craig services aircraft engines, which protects the lives and safety of military personnel and their ability to conduct missions. Craig's job has a high level of A. autonomy. B. task identity. C. skill variety. D. task significance. E. context satisfactions.
answer
D. task significance.
question
Which of the following is a contingency factor in the job characteristics model? A. Autonomy B. Knowledge of actual results C. High work satisfaction D. Desire for personal growth E. Feedback
answer
D. Desire for personal growth
question
The motivating potential score is calculated as part of using A. reinforcement theory. B. McClelland's acquired needs theory. C. the job characteristics model. D. goal-setting theory. E. equity theory.
answer
C. the job characteristics model.
question
The theory that attempts to explain behavior change by suggesting that behavior with positive consequences tends to be repeated while behavior with negative consequences tends not to be repeated, is called A. reinforcement theory. B. equity theory. C. expectancy theory. D. acquired needs theory. E. two-factor theory.
answer
A. reinforcement theory.
question
The use of desirable consequences to strengthen a particular behavior is called A. constructive feedback. B. extinction. C. intrinsic motivation. D. positive reinforcement. E. valence.
answer
D. positive reinforcement.
question
The process of strengthening a behavior by withdrawing something negative is called A. positive reinforcement. B. negative reinforcement. C. extinction. D. intrinsic motivation. E. punishment.
answer
B. negative reinforcement.
question
Estefan tells one of his staff that he is taking her off of probation since she has corrected her tardiness problem. Estefan is using A. instrumentality. B. negative reinforcement. C. punishment. D. intrinsic motivation. E. positive reinforcement.
answer
B. negative reinforcement.
question
The weakening of behavior by ignoring it or making sure it is not reinforced is called A. extinction. B. intrinsic motivation. C. punishment. D. instrumentality. E. negative reinforcement.
answer
A. extinction.
question
It has been seven quarters since any employee has received a bonus at R & G Mills, so now the possibility of getting one does not seem to be motivating the workers any longer. In this case, management has inadvertently applied A. expectancy. B. negative reinforcement. C. extinction. D. intrinsic motivation. E. punishment.
answer
C. extinction.
question
Your boss requires you to give up your company car since you have missed your sales goals for three consecutive quarters. She is using A. positive reinforcement. B. negative reinforcement. C. extinction. D. intrinsic motivation. E. punishment.
answer
E. punishment.
question
In using reinforcement, a manager should A. avoid using punishment. B. reward both desired and undesired behavior. C. give all subordinates the same rewards to ensure fairness. D. save rewards for weekly or monthly celebrations. E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.
answer
E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.
question
When using punishment, a manager should A. ignore undesirable behaviors. B. save reprimands until the end of the workday, or preferably before a weekend. C. do it in conjunction with positive reinforcement. D. make sure that other employees witness the punishment. E. punish even minor infractions, to appear consistent.
answer
C. do it in conjunction with positive reinforcement.
question
Which of the following is not an advisable criterion for an effective incentive plan? A. The rewards are believable. B. The rewards are linked to performance. C. The rewards satisfy individual needs. D. The rewards require rarely attainable performance. E. The rewards are agreed on by the manager and employees.
answer
D. The rewards require rarely attainable performance.
question
A sales commission is an example of a ______ compensation plan. A. pay-for-knowledge B. profit-sharing C. pay-for-performance D. gainsharing E. Scanlon
answer
C. pay-for-performance
question
Gabe has a summer job hand-dying shirts that will be sold on the boardwalk. He is paid $3.50 per shirt. This is an example of a ______ compensation plan. A. pay-for-performance B. pay-for-knowledge C. bonus D. profit-sharing E. gainsharing
answer
A. pay-for-performance
question
Mark's employer passes out checks at the end of each quarter, representing an equitable portion of 5% of the company's pretax profits for the previous period. This is known as A. pay for performance. B. pay for knowledge. C. a bonus. D. profit sharing. E. gainsharing.
answer
D. profit sharing.
question
A Scanlon plan is a type of ______ compensation plan. A. pay-for-knowledge B. gainsharing C. benchmarking D. pay-for-performance E. profit-sharing
answer
B. gainsharing
question
The marketing department at State College was nearly $8,000 under budget last year due to a variety of cost-cutting measures. This year 50% of the savings were returned to the department to spend as desired, as a form of A. pay for performance. B. pay for knowledge. C. bonus. D. profit sharing. E. gainsharing.
answer
E. gainsharing.
question
Erica teaches fourth grade at a local elementary school. She significantly increased her salary by earning a master's degree in education. This is an example of A. pay for performance. B. pay for knowledge. C. a bonus. D. profit sharing. E. gainsharing.
answer
B. pay for knowledge.
question
Which of the following is not a practice used to create a flexible workplace? A. Job sharing B. Telecommuting C. Gainsharing D. Part-time work E. Compressed workweeks
answer
C. Gainsharing
Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New