Management Ch's 9-12 - Flashcards

question

When starting a new job, it is best to avoid giving or getting feedback during the first 60 days so that everyone has an opportunity to get an accurate impression.

answer

FALSE

question

Google's treatment of its employees is indicative of its belief that its biggest competitive advantage lies in its human resources.

answer

TRUE

question

Personnel management consists of the activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop, and retain an effective workforce.

answer

FALSE

question

The purpose of the strategic human resource management process is to get optimal work performance to help realize the company's mission and goals.

answer

TRUE

question

Recruiting and selecting people is the first step in the strategic human resource process.

answer

FALSE

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Human capital is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions.

answer

TRUE

question

Collective capital is the economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and cooperative relationships.

answer

FALSE Social capital is the economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and cooperative relationships. Relationships do matter.

question

Understanding current employee needs and predicting future ones are the two parts of strategic human resources recruiting.

answer

TRUE

question

Interviews with people who currently hold a job is part of a job analysis for that position.

answer

TRUE

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A job description describes the minimum qualifications a person must have to perform the job successfully.

answer

FALSE

question

The process of writing job analyses, descriptions, and specifications often helps you to hire people who are overqualified.

answer

FALSE

question

A human resource inventory organizes information for assessing which of your current employees are promotable and what kind of training your organization might have to do.

answer

TRUE In looking at those inside, you need to consider which employees are motivated, trainable, and promotable and what kind of training your organization might have to do. A device for organizing this kind of information is a human resource inventory, a report listing your organization's employees by name, education, training, languages, and other important information.

question

Reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics are a good source of information to assess internal candidates for promotion.

answer

FALSE you need to consider the availability of talent in your industry's and geographical area's labor pool

question

Collective bargaining consists of negotiations between top management and shareholders about disputes over compensation and benefits.

answer

FALSE Collective bargaining consists of negotiations between management and employees about disputes over compensation, benefits, working conditions, and job security.

question

The Wagner Act allows the President of the United States to prevent or end a strike that threatens national security.

answer

FALSE A 1947 law (the Taft-Hartley Act) allows the President of the United States to prevent or end a strike that threatens national security.

question

Products from child labor were banned under the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938.

answer

TRUE The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 established minimum living standards for workers engaged in interstate commerce, including provision of a federal minimum wage (currently $7.25 an hour) and a maximum workweek (now 40 hours, after which overtime must be paid), along with banning products from child labor.

question

The 2010 health care reform legislation requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance.

answer

TRUE

question

The Family and Medical Leave Act requires employers to provide 12 weeks of paid leave for medical and family reasons like childbirth or adoption.

answer

FALSE The Family and Medical Leave Act requires employers to provide 12 weeks of unpaid (not paid) leave for medical and family reasons, including for childbirth, adoption, or family emergency. See Table 9.1

question

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 applies to all for-profit companies.

answer

FALSE

question

Antidiscrimination laws do not require employers to extend preferential treatment because of race, color, or religion.

answer

TRUE

question

Programs that attempt to make up for past discrimination in employment are known as affirmative action programs.

answer

TRUE Affirmative action focuses on achieving equality of opportunity within an organization. It tries to make up for past discrimination in employment by actively finding, hiring, and developing the talents of people from groups traditionally discriminated against.

question

One type of gender discrimination is known as quid pro quo.

answer

FALSE In the quid pro quo type of sexual harassment (rather than discrimination), the person to whom the unwanted sexual attention is directed is put in the position of jeopardizing being hired for a job or obtaining job benefits or opportunities unless he or she implicitly or explicitly acquiesces

question

Karen is a construction manager for the building of a large parking structure downtown. One day a group of steel workers whistled at her as she climbed a ladder. The men's actions created a hostile work environment.

answer

TRUE

question

External recruitment is the process of locating and attracting qualified applications for jobs open in the organization.

answer

FALSE Recruiting is the process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization. Recruiting is of two types: internal and external.

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Job posting is the primary method of recruiting internally.

answer

TRUE

question

LinkedIn, a business-oriented social network, is an effective way to do internal recruiting.

answer

FALSE

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In general, the most effective sources of good external candidates are employee referrals.

answer

TRUE In general, the most effective sources are employee referrals because, to protect their own reputations, employees are fairly careful about whom they recommend, and they know the qualifications of both the job and the prospective employee.

question

A job specification gives a candidate a picture of both positive and negative features of the job and the organization before he or she is hired.

answer

FALSE a realistic job preview

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There are fewer risks associated with external recruiting than with internal since the pool of potential candidates is much larger.

answer

FALSE

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The screening of job applicants in order to hire the best candidate is known as the preference process.

answer

FALSE

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References are an effective way to obtain reliable information about a prospective job candidate.

answer

FALSE Suing is a huge issue

question

The most commonly used employee-selection technique is interviewing.

answer

TRUE

question

Unstructured interviews are more accurate than structured interviews in assessing an applicant's job-related personality traits.

answer

TRUE

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The comparative interview involves asking each applicant the same questions and comparing their responses to a standardized set of answers.

answer

FALSE: Structured View

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In the situational interview a typical question might be "What is the best idea you ever sold to someone?"

answer

FALSE

question

In a behavioral-description interview, the interviewer explores what applicants have actually done in the past.

answer

TRUE

question

Application forms, interviews, and educational requirements are now legally considered employment tests.

answer

TRUE

question

An assessment center is typically used to assess physical capabilities of skilled labor candidates.

answer

FALSE Some companies have an assessment center, in which management candidates participate in activities for a few days while being assessed by evaluators

question

Managers should use personality tests in selecting new employees, because they are the most direct measure of how well the employee will perform in the job.

answer

FALSE use sparingly

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A test is reliable if it measures what it purports to measure and is free of bias.

answer

FALSE Reliability is the degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently and validity means the test measures what it purports to measure and is free of bias.

question

An orientation helps a newcomer fit smoothly into the job and the organization.

answer

TRUE

question

Defining the organization's mission and operations should be considered an integral part of employee orientation.

answer

TRUE

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The first step in the training process is setting objectives for what the training should achieve.

answer

FALSE The training process involves five steps, the first of which is an assessment of what training is needed, as shown in Figure 9.2.

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For HR professionals, employee training is synonymous with development.

answer

FALSE HR professionals distinguish between training and development; training is upgrading the skills of technical and operational employees and development is upgrading the skills of professionals and managers.

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Computer-assisted instruction is an example of on-the-job training.

answer

FALSE This is Off the job

question

When doing a performance appraisal the manager will provide the subordinate with feedback.

answer

TRUE

question

Performance management is a method used to improve profitability through a rapid downsizing.

answer

FALSE

question

A company that evaluates its truckers based on miles of freight hauled is using objective appraisals.

answer

TRUE

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Objective appraisals are harder to challenge legally than subjective appraisals.

answer

TRUE

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Trait appraisals are of questionable validity because an evaluator's personal biases can affect ratings.

answer

TRUE

question

A manager employing a BARS is using a trait appraisal.

answer

FALSE

question

The type of appraisal in which employees are evaluated not only by their managerial superiors but also by peers and subordinates is called the 180-degree assessment.

answer

FALSE 360!

question

The forced ranking performance review system may have negative effects on morale, productivity, and loyalty.

answer

TRUE

question

When it comes to performance appraisal feedback, the longer the appraisal document, the better.

answer

FALSE Proponents of forced ranking say it encourages managers to identify and remove poor performers and also structures a predetermined compensation curve, which enables them to reward top performers. If, however, the system is imposed on an organization overnight without preparation, by pitting employees against one another, it can produce shocks to morale, productivity, and loyalty.

question

Appraisals that are conducted on an unscheduled basis and consist of less rigorous indications of employee performance are known as unofficial appraisals.

answer

FALSE

question

The three parts of compensation are wages, incentives, and benefits.

answer

TRUE

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One of the factors that determines base pay is what competitors are paying.

answer

TRUE

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Stock options are considered a benefit, as part of a compensation package.

answer

FALSE Stock options are a type of incentive, rather than a benefit

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Benefits are additional nonmonetary forms of compensation designed to enrich the lives of all employees in the organization, which are paid all or in part by the organization.

answer

TRUE

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In the United States, benefits account for only about 10% of total employment compensation.

answer

FALSE

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If managers regularly communicate with employees about the incentive pay plan, the organization's plan is more likely to meet its goals.

answer

TRUE

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One of the keys to a successful incentive-pay plan is its uniformity.

answer

FALSE

question

A transfer can be used to retain an employee's interest and motivation by presenting a new challenge.

answer

TRUE

question

An employee cannot be dismissed permanently "for cause" for absenteeism.

answer

FALSE

question

The great majority of union workers are in the private sector; fewer than 20% of union workers have government jobs.

answer

FALSE

question

The "closed shop," in which an employer may hire for a job only workers who are already in the union, is illegal in the United States.

answer

TRUE

question

An arbitrator makes a decision that the parties have agreed will be binding on them.

answer

TRUE

question

Which of the following is not a recommended way to stand out in a new job? A. Come in early and stay late to observe others. B. Underpromise. C. Be aware of the power of first impressions. D. Make it easy for others to give you feedback. E. Overdeliver.

answer

B. Underpromise.

question

The activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop, and retain an effective workforce are called A. personnel development. B. contingency planning. C. human resource management. D. job analysis. E. performance appraisal.

answer

C. human resource management.

question

The strategic human resource management process includes which of these? A. Plan financial resources needed. B. Identify social capital. C. Orient, train, and develop. D. Investigate competitive job positions. E. Correct underperformance.

answer

C. Orient, train, and develop.

question

What is the final step in the strategic human resource management process? A. Plan future human resources needs. B. Perform appraisals of people. C. Assess success of recruitment process. D. Orient, train, and develop people. E. Recruit and select people.

answer

B. Perform appraisals of people.

question

The economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions is called A. human capital. B. labor capital. C. social capital. D. potential capital. E. productivity capital.

answer

A. human capital. Human capital is the economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions. A present or future employee with the right combination of knowledge, skills, and motivation to excel represents human capital with the potential to give the organization a competitive advantage.

question

Among aspects of ________ are goodwill, mutual respect, cooperation, and teamwork. A. relational capital B. social capital C. personal capital D. productivity capital E. human capital

answer

B. social capital

question

The purpose of the strategic human resource process is to A. maintain a stable workforce for the minimum expense. B. inform the grand strategy. C. formulate human resource-sensitive strategic plans. D. find the human resources needed in a timely fashion. E. get optimal work performance to help realize company's mission and vision.

answer

E. get optimal work performance to help realize company's mission and vision.

question

A specialist at UPS that rides with couriers to learn about delivery time measurements and potential service problems is conducting a job A. posting. B. specification. C. analysis. D. description. E. rotation.

answer

C. analysis.

question

Susan had been working as an executive assistant to the president for nearly 20 years, so when she retired no one had a good idea of all that her job entailed. Before she left, Ben sat with her for two weeks to observe her duties and ask her the details of all functions. Ben was performing a A. behavioral-description interview. B. performance appraisal. C. informal appraisal. D. job analysis. E. job rotation.

answer

D. job analysis.

question

A ______ summarizes what the holder of the job does and how and why he or she does it. A. job specification B. realistic job preview C. job description D. job analysis E. performance appraisal

answer

C. job description

question

In considering the staffing an organization might need in the future, human resource managers should A. focus efforts on replacing those who retire or resign. B. assume that the organization will not change much. C. assume that there will be radical changes in the supply of labor and the nature of the organization's jobs, so planning here must be deferred. D. understand the organization's vision and strategy and hire to support them. E. hire 10% more people than were needed last year to cover possible growth.

answer

D. understand the organization's vision and strategy and hire to support them.

question

A report listing your organization's employees by name, education, training, languages, and other important information is called a(n) A. human resource inventory. B. labor register. C. skills record. D. job analysis. E. employee database.

answer

A. human resource inventory.

question

Gwen, an HR manager, was using reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics and the U.S. Census Bureau for information about her industry's labor pool in her geographic area. Gwen is planning to A. perform a job analysis. B. recruit from inside the organization. C. analyze human capital. D. develop an affirmative action program. E. recruit from outside the organization.

answer

E. recruit from outside the organization.

question

Passed in 1935, the ______ Act resulted in the National Labor Relations Board. A. Wagner B. Social Security C. Taft-Hartley D. Occupational Safety and Health E. Civil Rights

answer

A. Wagner

question

Which piece of legislation first established the U.S. federal minimum wage? A. Wagner Act B. Social Security Act C. Fair Labor Standards Act D. Occupational Safety and Health Act E. Civil Rights Act

answer

C. Fair Labor Standards Act

question

The ______ Act established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. A. Equal Pay B. Wagner C. Social Security D. Occupational Safety and Health E. Civil Rights

answer

E. Civil Rights

question

Which of the following protects employees who raise accusations of fraud to a federal agency? A. Privacy Act B. Civil Rights Act C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act E. Polygraph Protection Act

answer

D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

question

The law that requires an extension of health insurance benefits after termination is the A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) B. Social Security Act C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) D. Occupational Safety and Health Act E. Civil Rights Act

answer

C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)

question

Which of the following requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance? A. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) B. Occupational Safety and Health Act C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) D. Social Security Act E. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

answer

E. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

question

A California software firm was growing rapidly and hiring frequently, but primarily focused on campus recruiting at Berkeley and Stanford. When one older candidate did not get an interview after a phone screening, he went to the company's website and noted all of the young people in charge. He filed a discrimination lawsuit based on which law? A. Civil Rights Act B. Age Discrimination in Employment Act C. Americans with Disabilities Act D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

answer

B. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

question

Oscar has a degenerative eye disease that is causing him to gradually lose his eyesight. When Oscar asked his employer to purchase a low vision computer for his use at work, he was instead let go. This violates provisions of the A. Civil Rights Act, Title VII. B. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. C. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA). D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). E. Privacy Act.

answer

D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA).

question

______ occurs when people are hired or promoted, or denied hiring or promotion, for reasons not relevant to the job. A. Affirmative action B. Discrimination C. A hiring quota D. Quid pro quo E. A hostile work environment

answer

B. Discrimination

question

After being referred by a friend, Hasina attended a job interview. She didn't feel it went well but was surprised when her friend told her the boss didn't like that she had worn her hijab, a traditional headscarf. The boss told a coworker after the interview, "Our customers prefer working with Christians." This is an example of A. affirmative action. B. quid pro quo. C. discrimination. D. hostile work environment. E. favoritism.

answer

C. discrimination.

question

Which type of workplace discrimination occurs when an organization uses an employment practice that results in unfavorable outcomes to a protected class? A. Adverse impact B. Reverse discrimination C. Harassment D. Unequal application E. Disparate treatment

answer

A. Adverse impact

question

If a firm gives all international assignments to people without disabilities, assuming they will therefore not require special accommodations, which type of workplace discrimination has occurred? A. Adverse impact B. Harassment C. Reverse discrimination D. Disparate treatment E. Inequality

answer

D. Disparate treatment There are two types of workplace discrimination: adverse impact and disparate treatment. Disparate treatment results when employees from protected groups (such as disabled individuals) are intentionally treated differently. An example would be making a decision to give all international assignments to people with no disabilities because of the assumption that they won't need any special accommodations related to travel.

question

Top managers at Kendrick Construction want to increase the percentages of minorities and women in its ranks. The company began an active recruitment program with a local university and a special career development program. Kendrick has started a(n) ______ plan. A. reverse discrimination B. equality C. civil rights D. preferential treatment E. affirmative action

answer

E. affirmative action

question

Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true? A. A hostile work environment is characterized by a tangible economic harm. B. The organization cannot be sued for sexual harassment as long as its managers did not know about the situation. C. A person who feels he or she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his or her job is facing a quid pro quo. D. Uninvited hugging or patting someone is not considered sexual harassment. E. Sexual harassment is defined as occurring between members of the opposite sex.

answer

C. A person who feels he or she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his or her job is facing a quid pro quo.

question

Melissa worked in a distribution warehouse for a power tool company. Throughout the building, there were posters and calendars of a sexually explicit nature, and they made Melissa very uncomfortable. This is A. a quid pro quo harassment. B. not of legal concern because none of the offensive materials are directed at Lauren. C. sexual discrimination. D. not of legal concern because Lauren is not suffering any economic injury. E. a hostile work environment.

answer

E. a hostile work environment.

question

The process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization is called A. enlisting. B. selection. C. hiring. D. recruiting. E. job posting.

answer

D. recruiting.

question

Placing information about job vacancies and qualifications in places where employees can see them such as on bulletin boards or the company's intranet is called A. job analysis. B. realistic job previewing. C. position advertising. D. recruiting. E. job posting.

answer

E. job posting.

question

Which of the following external recruiting methods works best? A. Private employment agencies B. Employee referrals C. Newspaper ads D. College recruiters E. Unions

answer

B. Employee referrals

question

Which of the following is true of external recruiting, compared to internal recruiting? A. It encourages greater employee loyalty. B. The process is cheaper. C. The pool of talent is more limited. D. It creates the need for multiple recruitments. E. The process takes longer.

answer

E. The process takes longer.

question

When Jake became one of three final candidates for a managerial position with a large medical supply company, the director of the department scheduled a special meeting with him. There, the two talked about the stressful deadlines and heavy travel required of the position, as well as the great compensation and multiple perks. Jake appreciated that the director took time to conduct a(n) A. behavioral-description interview. B. realistic job preview. C. unstructured interview. D. situational interview. E. performance appraisal.

answer

B. realistic job preview.

question

Which of the following statements about background information is false? A. Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees. B. The most prevalent distortion in a résumé is lying about education. C. Many employers don't give honest assessments of former employees. D. People sometimes attempt to cover gaps in employment history. E. People lie about their ages in their application information.

answer

A. Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees.

question

The type of interview that is most likely to cause managers problems because of its potential for bias and questionable legality is the A. realistic job preview. B. unstructured interview. C. performance interview. D. situational interview. E. behavioral description interview.

answer

B. unstructured interview.

question

In an interview Allison asked Jeff to tell her about a time when he was able to overcome some sort of adversity. Allison is conducting a(n) A. realistic job preview. B. performance interview. C. situational interview. D. behavioral description interview. E. unstructured interview.

answer

D. behavioral description interview.

question

Which of the following is a good suggestion for managers when conducting interviews? A. Ask about the candidate's family to show personal interest. B. The résumé should be used for selection of interview candidates only; ignore it thereafter. C. Do more than half of the talking to make sure you are sharing enough about the company and its culture. D. Ask questions spontaneously to get the most straightforward answers from the candidate. E. After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications.

answer

E. After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications.

question

Which of the following is not considered, legally, to be an employment test? A. Personality tests B. Interviews C. Job analyses D. Application forms E. Educational requirements

answer

C. Job analyses

question

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is considered a(n) ______ test. A. ability B. character C. performance D. personality E. reliability

answer

D. personality

question

When Cara interviewed for a position as an entry-level structural engineer, she was asked to solve several engineering problems by hand. This is an example of a(n) A. ability test. B. performance test. C. aptitude test. D. personality test. E. capability test.

answer

B. performance test.

question

The degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently is known as its A. legality. B. reliability. C. validity. D. significance. E. dependability.

answer

B. reliability.

question

______ refers to educating ______ employees in skills needed to do their jobs in the future. A. Training; technical and operational B. Development; technical and operational C. Training; managerial and professional D. Development; managerial and professional E. Orientation; seasoned

answer

D. Development; managerial and professional

question

Emilio, an HR manager, had a meeting with the director of operations to determine if the new training program appears to be effective in improving productivity on the shop floor. Tracy is performing which step of the training process? A. Assessment B. Objectives C. Selection D. Implementation E. Evaluation

answer

E. Evaluation

question

Which of the following training and development methods is most appropriate when people just need to learn facts such as work rules or legal matters? A. Videotapes B. Role-plays C. Practice work D. Discussion E. Coaching

answer

A. Videotapes

question

Keri, an HR manager, is designing a training class for those working on the new cross-functional teams within her company. This class that is aimed at improving group decision making. What method of delivery should she choose? A. Lectures B. Role-playing C. Workbooks D. Videotapes E. Computer-aided training

answer

B. Role-playing

question

Which of the following is an on-the-job training method? A. Role-playing B. Videotapes C. Job rotation D. Classroom programs E. Computer-assisted instruction

answer

C. Job rotation

question

Which of the following is a form of off-the-job training? A. Planned work activities B. Classroom instruction C. Training positions D. Job rotation E. Coaching

answer

B. Classroom instruction

question

Performance appraisal consists of A. managerial and peer feedback. B. setting standards and monitoring performance. C. assessing performance and providing feedback. D. motivating and counseling. E. motivating and monitoring performance.

answer

C. assessing performance and providing feedback.

question

MBO is consistent with a(n) ______ performance appraisal. A. subordinate B. trait C. BARS D. objective E. behavioral

answer

D. objective

question

Amy is a sales manager and she is conducting performance appraisals for her team members. To do so, she tracks each person's sales calls and revenues on a quarterly basis. Amy is using a(n) ______ system of appraisal. A. objective B. behavioral C. trait D. informal E. 360-degree

answer

A. objective

question

The type of appraisal that is most subject to validity problems due to evaluator bias is the ______ appraisal. A. behavioral B. 360-degree feedback C. objective D. results E. trait

answer

E. trait

question

The type of performance appraisal that consists of ratings of subjective attributes like attitude or leadership is a(n) ______ appraisal. A. objective B. trait C. behavioral D. self E. 360-degree

answer

B. trait

question

The type of performance appraisal that judges specific, observable aspects of performance like being on time for work is a(n) ______ appraisal A. results B. objective C. trait D. behavioral E. MBO

answer

D. behavioral

question

Lottie is conducting a performance appraisal for Matt, one of her subordinates. The company's performance appraisal form asks her to rate Matt's performance on various items like "Turns in reports on time with minimal errors" on a scale from 1 to 5. Lottie's company has a(n) ______ appraisal system. A. results B. objective C. trait D. BARS E. MBO

answer

D. BARS

question

A feedback technique in which an employee is appraised by her boss, peers, subordinates, and possibly clients is called a(n) A. MBO appraisal. B. reciprocal appraisal. C. BARS appraisal. D. 360-degree appraisal. E. results appraisal.

answer

D. 360-degree appraisal.

question

Using 360-degree feedback appraisals to trigger pay and personnel decisions puts ______ at risk. A. trust B. change C. feedback D. performance E. development

answer

A. trust

question

A performance review system in which all employees within a business unit are ranked against one another is known as a A. standard curve. B. normal distribution. C. performance positioning. D. forced ranking. E. unit grading.

answer

D. forced ranking.

question

Carmela was surprised to learn that at her company not everyone would receive a bonus this year. Instead, management planned to rank all of the employees in her division and award bonuses only to the top 20%. This is an example of a ______ performance review system. A. standard curve. B. normal distribution. C. functional positioning. D. forced ranking. E. unit grading.

answer

D. forced ranking.

question

The point of the performance appraisal is to A. provide a paper trail of manager-employee interactions. B. stimulate better job performance. C. demonstrate correct methods for work procedures. D. make sure that the subordinate's behavior is tightly controlled. E. avoid legal problems, especially discrimination complaints.

answer

B. stimulate better job performance.

question

In giving feedback to a subordinate, a manager should A. communicate her general impression of the subordinate. B. avoid giving negative feedback. C. deliver feedback through a one-way communication process. D. save giving feedback for annual or semi-annual formal appraisals. E. keep diaries about specific incidents of the subordinates' performance.

answer

E. keep diaries about specific incidents of the subordinates' performance.

question

Which of the following is the best statement of feedback? A. "You're always doing personal stuff at work." B. "That's the wrong way to sort those packages." C. "You are really unmotivated at work lately." D. "Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve." E. "You've got to figure out how to improve your relationship with Susie."

answer

D. "Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve."

question

Which of the following is not a type of compensation? A. Wages B. Promotions C. Incentives D. Benefits E. Salaries

answer

B. Promotions

question

Which of the following is an example of an employee benefit? A. Education reimbursements B. Commissions C. Profit-sharing plans D. Bonuses E. Stock options

answer

A. Education reimbursements

question

Executives often negotiate generous severance packages that they receive if the company is taken over by another. These are known as A. quid pro quo. B. golden parachutes. C. maquiladoras. D. BARS. E. 360-degree pay.

answer

B. golden parachutes.

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a successful incentive pay plan? A. Clear goals B. Regular communication with employees about the incentive plan C. Realistic goals D. Complex and comprehensive rules E. Consistency with the organization's existing goals

answer

D. Complex and comprehensive rules

question

In managing subordinates under an incentive pay plan, a manager should A. regularly communicate with subordinates about the plan. B. set goals with subordinates, but then leave them alone to pursue those goals. C. change the plan frequently to continue to motivate subordinates. D. set "stretch" goals that are very difficult (perhaps impossible) to achieve. E. design complex plans that cover all contingencies.

answer

A. regularly communicate with subordinates about the plan.

question

In considering a promotion for a subordinate, a manager must ensure fairness and A. openness. B. permanence. C. profitability. D. nondiscrimination. E. safety.

answer

D. nondiscrimination.

question

Which of the following is not a principal reason why an employee may be transferred? A. Employee's skills are needed in another part of the organization. B. To retain employee interest and motivation by presenting a new challenge. C. Employee is suspected of illegal behavior. D. Employee has a personal differences with present boss. E. To broaden employee experience.

answer

C. Employee is suspected of illegal behavior.

question

If employees have been dismissed "for cause," this means that A. they have the right to get their position back in the future. B. they quit the job. C. the company is downsizing, and their jobs are permanently eliminated. D. they are being laid off. E. they are being fired for their job performance.

answer

E. they are being fired for their job performance.

question

The risk of "wrongful termination" lawsuits is reduced with careful A. coaching. B. discussion at the time of dismissal. C. documentation. D. employee training. E. goal setting.

answer

C. documentation.

question

______ means that anyone can be dismissed at any time for any reason at all, or for no reason. A. Employment at will B. Capricious dismissal C. Quid pro quo D. Nonrational dismissal E. Fair termination

answer

A. Employment at will

question

Hezekiah has an employee, Pamela, who has had frequent outbursts in the workplace when dealing with others. Despite repeated attempts to correct her behavior, she has not improved. Which of the following is a good suggestion for handling this case? A. Fire Pamela if her outbursts continue for another year. B. Fire Pamela effective immediately, and have her escorted off the premises. C. Use Pamela's dismissal as an example to others to increase their productivity. D. Dismiss Pamela, but offer her assistance in finding another job. E. Don't dismiss Pamela because she needs your sympathy.

answer

D. Dismiss Pamela, but offer her assistance in finding another job.

question

_______ are organizations of employees formed to protect and advance their members' interests by bargaining with management over job-related issues. A. Mediation firms B. Right-to-work groups C. COLA organizations D. Arbitration associations E. Labor unions

answer

E. Labor unions

question

The part of the labor-management agreement that states that employees who receive union benefits must join the union, or at least pay dues to it, is known as the A. union security clause. B. right-to-work clause. C. COLA clause. D. givebacks clause. E. agency clause.

answer

A. union security clause.

question

Bethany had a starring role in a film that was shot in her hometown of Baton Rouge, Louisiana. Though the Screen Actors Guild, an actors' union, exists in Louisiana, Bethany was not required to join it because of the state's ________ law. A. union security B. right-to-work C. givebacks D. COLA E. agency

answer

B. right-to-work

question

Typically the ________ in a union contract is tied to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics' consumer price index (CPI). A. union security clause B. right-to-work clause C. COLA clause D. givebacks clause E. agency clause

answer

C. COLA clause

question

In 2009, the United Auto Workers union negotiated with Ford Motor Company a variety of ________, such as a $1/hour pay decrease and changes to overtime structure, designed to prevent Ford from declaring bankruptcy. A. union security clauses B. right-to-work agreements C. COLAs D. givebacks E. arbitration agreements

answer

D. givebacks

question

If a grievance procedure is not sufficient to solve a labor-management dispute, a binding decision may be sought from A. a shop steward. B. the AFL-CIO. C. a mediator. D. the EEOC. E. an arbitrator.

answer

E. an arbitrator.

question

An important component of dealing with change is to allow grieving over the loss of old ways.

answer

TRUE

question

People are generally comfortable with and embrace change, even change in apparently major matters.

answer

FALSE

question

According to Jim Collins, researcher of enduring great companies, hubris and denial are among the stages of institutional decline.

answer

TRUE

question

The marketplace is becoming more homogeneous and moving toward more similar products.

answer

FALSE

question

Demassification refers to a trend of customer groups being segmented into smaller, specialized groups responding to narrowly targeted messages.

answer

TRUE

question

One of the strengths of Virgin Group Ltd. is its ability to enter new businesses quickly.

answer

TRUE

question

Successful large companies are more able than other firms to survive and prosper in an environment of radically innovative change.

answer

FALSE Clayton M. Christensen, a Harvard Business School professor, thinks it's very difficult for an existing successful company to take full advantage of a technological breakthrough such as digitalization, what he calls "disruptive innovation." Instead, he argues that such a company should set up an entirely separate organization that can operate much like a start-up.

question

China and India are changing the way American companies work, in part, through substantial labor savings.

answer

TRUE

question

Information is rapidly becoming the new competitive advantage.

answer

FALSE Information is rapidly becoming a profitless commodity, and knowledge is becoming the new competitive advantage

question

The two types of change are practical and theoretical.

answer

FALSE REACTIVE AND PROACTIVE

question

Reactive change is carefully thought out.

answer

FALSE

question

Proactive change involves making carefully thought-out changes in anticipation of possible or expected problems or opportunities.

answer

TRUE

question

BP handled the 2010 oil spill crisis in the Gulf of Mexico in a proactive manner.

answer

FALSE

question

Hasbro's move to create a version of its Monopoly game for iPad for technology-obsessed children is an example of proactive change.

answer

TRUE

question

Coleman Natural Foods began selling natural beef back when most shoppers were unaware of the term. This is an example of proactive change.

answer

TRUE

question

The need for change comes solely from outside the organization.

answer

FALSE

question

Employee problems are one type of outside force for change in the organization.

answer

FALSE The four outside forces include demographic characteristics, market changes, technological advancements, and social and political pressures

question

Managers' behavior is one type of inside force for change in the organization.

answer

TRUE

question

Secondhand shops suffering from a recession-induced decline in thrift store donations is an example of an outside force for organizational change.

answer

TRUE

question

While customers may act as a force for change, shareholders support stability.

answer

FALSE SH'S enjoy change

question

Job dissatisfaction within an organization can be an indicator that change is needed.

answer

TRUE

question

Putting an end to servant leadership is a change that is likely to improve manager-employee relationships.

answer

FALSE

question

The four areas in which change is most apt to be needed are people, technology, structure, and strategy.

answer

TRUE

question

People changes in an organization are not required until that organization reaches about 20 people in size, when the level of specialization reaches a critical point.

answer

FALSE

question

In the context of change, technology refers to computer technology used to gain a competitive advantage.

answer

FALSE

question

The recent structural trend is toward a taller organizational hierarchy.

answer

FALSE Flattening the Hierarchy

question

Sabotage can be a form of resistance to change in the workplace.

answer

TRUE

question

Mistrust between change agents and employees can cause failure of well-conceived changes.

answer

TRUE

question

Innovative change is the least threatening type of change and is therefore least likely to create resistance.

answer

FALSE

question

Adaptive change involves introducing a practice that is new to an industry.

answer

FALSE Adaptive change is reintroduction of a familiar practice, the implementation of a kind of change that has already been experienced within the same organization. Radically innovative change involves introducing a practice that is new to the industry.

question

Innovative change is the introduction of a practice that is new to the organization.

answer

TRUE

question

Changes in power structures that occur with administrative and technological changes are generally embraced by employees because of the new opportunities they present.

answer

FALSE

question

One of the reasons employees resist change is fear of the unknown.

answer

TRUE

question

According to Lewin, for unfreezing to take place, people need to become dissatisfied with the old way of doing things.

answer

TRUE

question

In the refreezing stage of change of Lewin's change model, employees need to be given new information, perspectives, and models for behavior.

answer

FALSE In the changing stage

question

Benchmarking is a technique that can be used in the refreezing stage of Lewin's change model.

answer

FALSE

question

During the refreezing stage of Lewin's change model, managers should model the change themselves, as well as coach employees and reinforce the desired behaviors.

answer

TRUE

question

Kotter's change step of anchoring new approaches in the culture corresponds to refreezing in Lewin's model.

answer

TRUE

question

Kotter's research reveals that management of organizational change is more essential than leadership throughout it.

answer

FALSE Kotter's research reveals that successful organizational change is 70%-90% leadership and only 10%-30% management. Senior managers are thus advised to focus on leading rather than on managing change.

question

OD focuses specifically on the technology aspects of change.

answer

FALSE OD focuses specifically on people in the change process

question

A change agent is a behavioral sciences consultant who helps organizations deal with old problems in new ways.

answer

TRUE

question

One of the primary situations in which OD is used is when adapting to mergers.

answer

TRUE

question

Even when it comes to technology-induced change, OD can be helped by opening communication and dealing with stress.

answer

TRUE

question

The three steps of the OD process are diagnosis, experimentation, and adaptation.

answer

FALSE

question

The first step of the OD process is evaluation, which uses employee surveys, interviews, and observation to ascertain attitudes and problem areas.

answer

FALSE Diagnosis, intervention, Evaluation, Feedback

question

In the OD process, feedback is used to refine the diagnosis.

answer

TRUE

question

Intervention is the treatment phase of OD in which problems are corrected.

answer

TRUE

question

Hard data about absenteeism, turnover, and profitability are used in the intervention stage of the OD process.

answer

FALSE An OD program needs objective evaluation (the last step) to see if it has done any good. Answers may lie in hard data about absenteeism, turnover, grievances, and profitability, which should be compared with earlier statistics.

question

Patagonia was satisfied with its OD intervention to become greener.

answer

FALSE

question

In OD, combined interventions have been found to work better than single interventions.

answer

TRUE

question

An OD intervention that worked in the United States is likely to work equally well around the world because the practices are very fundamental to human nature.

answer

FALSE

question

Innovation differs from creativity or invention in that it requires useful application.

answer

TRUE

question

Innovation most often happens in a "eureka" moment of epiphany.

answer

FALSE

question

Having employees that experiment may limit an organization's ability to learn from failure.

answer

FALSE

question

The self-serving bias can lessen an employee's ability to learn from failure.

answer

TRUE

question

According to Scott Berkun, the search for wealth is one of six seeds of innovation.

answer

TRUE

question

A product innovation is a change in the way a product or service is conceived, manufactured, or disseminated.

answer

FALSE A process innovation is a change in the way a product or service is conceived, manufactured, or disseminated.

question

Radical innovation is the creation of products, services, or technologies that replace existing ones.

answer

TRUE

question

In 1961, Procter & Gamble introduced the first affordable, readily-available disposable diaper called Pampers. At that time, Pampers were an example of a radical innovation.

answer

TRUE

question

Conventional electric vehicle batteries use a liquid electrolyte but an Orlando start-up is developing a solid-state lithium-ion battery with improved stability and lifetime. This is an example of incremental innovation.

answer

TRUE

question

Chicago Cutlery reinstituted a sales contest with the same rules as the one that it used five years ago. This is an example of a process innovation.

answer

FALSE

question

Entrepreneurs tend to be tolerant of ambiguity.

answer

TRUE

question

Most organizations experience innovation as a matter of course; it happens naturally as part of everyday business.

answer

FALSE

question

The three most important ways to encourage innovation are by providing the right organizational culture, a team-based structure, and creative talent.

answer

FALSE Innovation doesn't happen as a matter of course. Organizations have to develop ways to make it happen over and over. Three ways to do so are by providing (1) the right organizational culture, (2) the appropriate resources, and (3) the correct reward system.

question

An organizational culture that celebrates failure helps foster innovation.

answer

TRUE

question

Innovation can be fostered by withholding raises or promotions from those whose attempts to innovate are not successful.

answer

FALSE

question

One step for fostering innovation is gaining allies by communicating your vision.

answer

TRUE

question

The most effective way to handle rewards for innovation is to provide them at the end of a successful project.

answer

FALSE

question

Which of the following is an effective way to deal with change and innovation? A. Insist on success. B. Increase work rules and hierarchy. C. Copy others' successes. D. Have the courage to follow your ideas. E. Jump right into it.

answer

D. Have the courage to follow your ideas.

question

According to Jim Collins, undisciplined pursuit of more and grasping for salvation are stages of organizational A. innovation. B. change. C. intervention. D. resistance. E. decline.

answer

E. decline.

question

Which of the following is not a supertrend shaping the future of business? A. More niche products. B. Traditional companies struggling with radically innovative change. C. Information becoming a competitive advantage. D. Offshore suppliers affecting U.S. business. E. Faster speed-to-market.

answer

C. Information becoming a competitive advantage.

question

A change that is made in response to arising problems or opportunities is called A. reactive change. B. incremental change. C. proactive change. D. radical change. E. process change.

answer

A. reactive change.

question

Which of the following is an example of a proactive change? A. Ciara's staff is unhappy about the long hours they have been working and several of them quit before she knows there is a problem. B. Ciara cannot get permission to hire another person until her group misses several deadlines. C. Ciara's group sent a product that was nearing its launch date back to the drawing board based on a competitor's superior new offering. D. Ciara explores improvements in bonus structures with her staff and begins to implement them despite the fact that her employees are generally content. E. Ciara is constantly "putting out fires," responding to daily crises in her group.

answer

D. Ciara explores improvements in bonus structures with her staff and begins to implement them despite the fact that her employees are generally content.

question

Walmart's implementation of RFID, a type of technology that allows it to improve inventory tracking, is an example of a(n) ______ change. A. reactive B. incremental C. proactive D. responsive E. radical

answer

C. proactive

question

Which of the following is an example of a force for change originating outside the organization? A. Productivity issues B. Conflict management C. Structural reorganization D. Absenteeism E. Social pressures

answer

E. Social pressures

question

The increasing diversity of the American workforce is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. demographic B. market C. social and political D. political E. economic

answer

A. demographic

question

The invention of a machine to make plastic corks for wine bottles has severely affected companies that produce traditional cork. This is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. market B. social and political C. demographic D. technological E. economic

answer

D. technological

question

Arizona Pottery is having a difficult time finding inexpensive labor, which it attributes to an unfriendly climate toward Hispanics since passage of tough illegal immigration legislation in that state. This is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. market B. employee C. social or political D. technological E. economic

answer

C. social or political

question

Inside forces for change include which of the following? A. Domestic competition B. Low productivity C. Advancements in automation D. Immigration E. Recession

answer

B. Low productivity

question

During the recession and its accompanying high levels of unemployment, Giordano Construction has had its choice of employees to support its growth. This is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. market B. social or political C. arbitrary D. technological E. demographic

answer

A. market

question

Recently many older workers who had planned to retire soon decided to keep working longer. This is an example of a(n) ______ force for change. A. social or political B. arbitrary C. demographic D. financial E. structural

answer

A. social or political

question

Which of the following is not an inside force that indicates organizational change might be needed? A. High turnover B. Excessive conflict between managers and employees C. Job dissatisfaction D. High levels of stress among employees E. Increased competition

answer

E. Increased competition

question

Nonmanagerial employees at Kennedy Steel belong to a union. The union has come close to striking several times over the years, and labor negotiations have recently been very tense. Kennedy likely needs to focus on changing A. values among potential customers. B. the likelihood that an acquisitions might occur. C. manufacturing processes and procedures. D. population variables. E. forces originating inside the organization.

answer

E. forces originating inside the organization.

question

The Human Resources manager at the Apex Golf and Tennis Club has just calculated the employee absenteeism rate for 2012, and it is 25% higher than it was in 2010 and 2011. He should A. wait until the end of 2013 and see what the rate is then. B. begin a major restructuring effort. C. reduce employees' work hours. D. address job design and ways to deal with work overload. E. institute strict disciplinary procedures for employees who are absent.

answer

D. address job design and ways to deal with work overload.

question

Which of the following is not an area in which change is often needed? A. Strategy B. Information C. People D. Structure E. Technology

answer

B. Information

question

Employees might feel they are being underpaid for what they do, even if pay and benefits are superior to the competition. Here, managers must change A. the tone of the debate. B. attitudes. C. tendencies toward greed. D. perceptions. E. the facts.

answer

D. perceptions.

question

Maid to Clean is considering implementing a system that will pay its cleaning workers based on the number of completed residential jobs, coupled with satisfactory ratings on random inspections to ensure quality. Managers believe that this will reduce labor costs. Maid to Clean is focusing on changing employee A. performance. B. skills. C. attitudes. D. management. E. structure.

answer

A. performance.

question

Saitou Insurance is about to install a new computer system that will change the way claims adjusters settle claims. Adjusters will be able to do the adjustment and issue the check right at the scene of the accident. Saitou most likely needs to focus on changing employee A. performance. B. skills. C. attitudes. D. management. E. perceptions.

answer

B. skills.

question

Mattress Emporium has had several incidents lately in which its drivers became lost when attempting deliveries. The drivers have no GPS or other access to computerized information and rely on the customers themselves for directions. Mattress Emporium probably needs to change its A. structure. B. people. C. technology. D. culture. E. strategy.

answer

C. technology.

question

Managers at Lucky Peach magazine are in the process of cross training entry-level employees to be able to take phone orders or answer customer questions, and to process orders in overflow situations. The company is changing its A. people. B. skills. C. technology. D. attitudes. E. structure.

answer

B. skills.

question

Frisco Recreational Vehicles recently instituted cross-functional teams to develop new products. Team members are spread across the country, so it is expensive and time consuming for people to travel to headquarters to meet. The company would benefit most from a change in ______ involving A. technology; teams meeting "virtually" through electronic media. B. structure; disbanding the teams and relying on individuals to develop products. C. culture; sending team members to conflict management courses. D. people; hiring new people in the organization at the headquarters location. E. strategy; dropping the strategy of developing new products.

answer

A. technology; teams meeting "virtually" through electronic media.

question

The record industry has been forced into a ______ change because of the prevalence and ease of illegally downloading music. A. technology B. structure C. culture D. people E. strategy

answer

E. strategy

question

________ is an emotional/behavioral response to real or imagined threats to an established work routine. A. A change agent B. Resistance to change C. An OD intervention D. Radical innovation E. Benchmarking

answer

B. Resistance to change

question

Which of the following is not an interacting factor that affects the level of resistance to change? A. Longevity of the change agent. B. Employee perceptions of change. C. Individual differences of the change agent. D. Change agent-employee relationship. E. Change agent actions and inactions.

answer

A. Longevity of the change agent.

question

The reintroduction of a familiar practice within the same organization is called a(n) A. practical change. B. adaptive change. C. reactive change. D. innovative change. E. radically innovative change.

answer

B. adaptive change.

question

Employees are likely to see an adaptive change as A. highly threatening. B. moderately threatening. C. somewhat threatening. D. least threatening. E. totally unacceptable.

answer

D. least threatening.

question

At Hartford Toy Depot, employees know that during the month of December they are generally required to work different schedules, often with some overtime, to support the holiday shopping season. This is an example of a(n) ______ change. A. adaptive B. reactive C. innovative D. incremental E. radically innovative

answer

A. adaptive

question

Peter, the owner and lead accountant at a tax preparation firm, is changing the work schedule of his long-term employees for the months of March and April, the company's busiest time. He is requiring work on weekends for everyone, using the same basic schedule as last year. Peter should expect that his employees will be A. terribly upset and quit. B. terribly upset but not quit. C. moderately upset and complain. D. moderately upset but not complain. E. hardly upset or not upset at all.

answer

E. hardly upset or not upset at all.

question

A change that represents the introduction of a new practice to an organization but that is not new to the industry is called a(n) A. mimicry change. B. adaptive change. C. reactive change. D. innovative change. E. radically innovative change.

answer

D. innovative change.

question

An innovative change involves ______ complexity, cost, and uncertainty. A. no B. minimum C. moderate D. high E. extreme

answer

C. moderate

question

Great Plains Credit Union has decided that tellers must rotate through a new weekend shift on Saturday afternoons since several of its competitors in the area have recently begun to offer these hours to customers. This is a(n) ______ change. A. radically innovative B. innovative C. adaptive D. proactive E. reactive

answer

B. innovative

question

Introducing a practice that is new to the industry is called a(n) ______ change. A. revolutionary B. radically innovative C. adaptive D. reactive E. innovative

answer

B. radically innovative

question

Evanston Cable Television has decided to offer a one-hour appointment window for customers needing installation or repair of its service, which will require them to have several technicians on call. Evanston hopes this practice will give them an advantage over the competition, none of whom have adopted such a practice. It is introducing a(n) ______ change. A. reactive B. innovative C. activist D. adaptive E. radically innovative

answer

E. radically innovative

question

Which of the following is not a leading reason that employees resist change? A. Individual predisposition toward change B. Climate of mistrust C. Fear of failure D. Lack of personal ethics E. Nonreinforcing reward systems

answer

D. Lack of personal ethics

question

Lewin's change model consists of A. three types: adaptive, innovative, and radically innovative. B. three forces: employee characteristics, change agent characteristics, and change agent-employee relationships. C. four steps: recognize problems, gain allies, overcome resistance, and execute. D. three stages: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. E. three steps: diagnosis, intervention, and evaluation.

answer

D. three stages: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.

question

During Lewin's changing stage, managers should A. reduce the barriers to change. B. give employees new models for behavior. C. reinforce the desired change. D. make employees dissatisfied with the present situation. E. encourage employees to exhibit the new change.

answer

B. give employees new models for behavior.

question

During Lewin's refreezing stage, managers should A. make employees dissatisfied with the present way of doing things. B. give employees the tools for change. C. provide benchmarking results. D. reduce the barriers to change. E. reinforce the desired change in the employees.

answer

E. reinforce the desired change in the employees

question

The process by which a company compares its performance with that of high-performing organizations is called A. reference innovation. B. competitive change. C. benchmarking. D. continuous improvement. E. radical innovation.

answer

C. benchmarking.

question

Creighton Bicycles and Repair conducted a survey and discovered that among customers who had tried both bike shops, its successful cross-town competition was preferred about 80% of the time. The most frequently cited reason was customer service. This information would be most helpful to introduce to employees during which stage of Lewin's change model? A. Unfreezing B. Continuous improvement C. Benchmarking D. Empowerment E. Refreezing

answer

A. Unfreezing

question

Kotter proposed which of the following for organization change? A. A three stage model: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing. B. Three types of innovation: adaptive, innovative, and radically innovative. C. Eight steps for leading organizational change. D. A three-step model: diagnosis, intervention, and evaluation. E. Ten reasons employees resist change.

answer

C. Eight steps for leading organizational change.

question

The set of techniques used for implementing planned change to make people and organizations more effective is called A. corporate transformation. B. TQM. C. revitalization. D. organizational development. E. incremental innovation.

answer

D. organizational development.

question

Organizational development is often put into practice by a A. catalytic consultant. B. change agent. C. behavioral consultant. D. transformative consultant. E. behavioral agent.

answer

B. change agent.

question

Which of the following is not one of the primary uses of OD? A. Improving recruitment B. Adapting to a merger C. Managing conflict D. Revitalizing an organization E. Adapting to an acquisition

answer

A. Improving recruitment

question

In which of the following situations would OD techniques be the most helpful? A. Increasing efficiency among employees in a firm. B. Assisting employees in dealing with stressful situations. C. Helping employees from two similar organizations work better together in a strategic alliance. D. Facilitating discussion of ethical issues in preparing a company's code of ethics. E. Working with the CEO to determine how to increase profitability.

answer

B. Assisting employees in dealing with stressful situations.

question

Caleb, an OD consultant, is designing a survey of employee attitudes to be given to workers at Tandem Investments. Caleb is conducting the ______ stage of OD. A. unfreezing B. intervention C. diagnosis D. evaluation E. process consultation

answer

C. diagnosis

question

The question "What shall we do about the problem?" would most likely be asked during the ______ stage of OD. A. changing B. diagnosis C. adaptation D. evaluation E. intervention

answer

E. intervention

question

Tirzah, an OD consultant, is working with members of with a cross-functional team to help them build cohesiveness and practice skills to function better as a team. Tirzah is conducting the ______ stage of OD. A. intervention B. diagnosis C. evaluation D. changing E. adaptation

answer

A. intervention

question

Marc, an OD consultant, is visiting Cassidy Engineering a year after he assisted them in making changes to their employee incentive plan. Now he is comparing sales and turnover data from the last three years to the current year. Marc is in the ______ stage of OD. A. refreezing B. intervention C. diagnosis D. adaptation E. evaluation

answer

E. evaluation

question

Which of the following circumstances is likely to increase the success of OD? A. Applying each OD intervention uniformly in international locations. B. A single large intervention. C. Support of top managers. D. Implementing organization change for its own sake. E. Goals focused on the short term rather than the long term.

answer

C. Support of top managers.

question

When it comes to failure in the innovation process, Procter & Gamble CEO A. G. Lafley suggests that the key is to A. work within a competent team so that blame is spread around among strong players. B. look for innovation in small increments, so that failure risks are small. C. develop a tolerance for ambiguity so that failure does not personally upset you. D. fail early, fail cheaply, and don't make the same mistake twice. E. avoid it by almost any means necessary, since it will irreparably harm your reputation.

answer

D. fail early, fail cheaply, and don't make the same mistake twice.

question

Which of the following is the factor that most reduces an organization's ability to learn from failure? A. Employees that like to experiment with multiple solutions. B. Employees with a strong desire to acquire personal wealth. C. Employees that blame others for failure. D. Employees that embrace a learning culture. E. Employees with a high tolerance for ambiguity.

answer

C. Employees that blame others for failure.

question

Which of the following is not one of Scott Berkun's seeds of innovation for organizations? A. Hard work in a specific direction B. Curiosity C. Philanthropy D. Hard work with direction change E. Necessity

answer

C. Philanthropy

question

A technological innovation that improves the speed of a computer's microprocessor would be considered a(n) ______ innovation. A. adaptive B. product C. reactive D. process E. industrial

answer

B. product

question

A(n) ______ innovation is a change in the way a product or service is conceived, manufactured, or disseminated. A. procedural B. radical C. product D. process E. adaptive

answer

D. process

question

A managerial innovation that improves the efficiency of a company's cross-functional teams would be considered a(n) ______ innovation. A. product B. method C. process D. adaptive E. practical

answer

C. process

question

The management department at a local university began posting all assignments and other class materials to a course management website instead of creating a packet for students to purchase each term. This is a(n) ______ innovation. A. practice B. product C. process D. adaptive E. reactive

answer

C. process

question

The creation of products, services, or technologies that modify those that already exist is called ______ innovation. A. incremental B. product C. process D. radical E. adaptive

answer

A. incremental

question

Researchers working on hydrogen fuel cells hope that this could be a(n) ______ innovation, leading to a clean, renewable energy source, and reducing dependence on depleting fossil fuels with their adverse impact on the global environment. A. incremental B. product C. process D. radical E. disruptive

answer

D. radical

question

Hollywood Hair recently introduced a new acai berry moisture shampoo. Wenling, director of new product development, has just reviewed the dismal results. It appears that her team did adequate research on the product's acceptance by consumers prior to its introduction and is confused by the outcome. Wenling should A. step down as director. B. fire and replace the team lead as an example to others. C. reward her team for their effort. D. ignore the product failure. E. demote the team leader.

answer

C. reward her team for their effort.

question

Which of the following is not a way to encourage innovation? A. Creating a culture that celebrates failure. B. Supporting innovation with investments of time and money. C. Rewarding successful innovations. D. Withholding raises and promotions when innovation attempts don't work out. E. Hiring top scientists, despite expense.

answer

D. Withholding raises and promotions when innovation attempts don't work out.

question

Once you have been able to gain allies and overcome employee resistance, excellent ______ will be a key to fostering innovation. A. organization B. communication C. production D. execution E. recognition

answer

D. execution

question

Which of the following sequences best describes how a manager can foster innovation in an organization? A. Recognize problems, gain allies, overcome resistance, execute well B. Recognize problems, overcome resistance, gain allies, stabilize system C. Overcome resistance, empower employees, execute well, provide incentives D. Recognize problems, empower employees, devise solutions, execute well E. Devise solutions, reorganize, change culture, stabilize system

answer

A. Recognize problems, gain allies, overcome resistance, execute well

question

While different from Gen Xers that were born in the generation before them, the Millennials can be managed in much the same way the Boomers are.

answer

FALSE

question

Millennials should be provided with constant feedback and recognition in the workplace.

answer

TRUE

question

One of the things that Millennials are looking for is a job with regular working hours.

answer

FALSE

question

The opportunity to receive mentoring in the workplace is appealing to Millennials.

answer

TRUE

question

Individuality is defined as the stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes that give a person his or her identity.

answer

FALSE

question

One of the Big Five personality dimensions is emotional stability.

answer

TRUE

question

Conviviality is one of the Big Five personality traits and is a measure of how outgoing, talkative, sociable, and assertive a person is.

answer

FALSE

question

Steadiness is the Big Five personality trait that refers to how dependable, responsible, achievement-oriented, and persistent one is.

answer

FALSE

question

Across professions, extroversion is a stronger predictor of job performance than agreeableness.

answer

TRUE

question

The personality trait of conscientiousness has the strongest positive correlation with job performance.

answer

TRUE

question

Often personality tests can be used effectively as the sole basis for hiring.

answer

FALSE

question

Integrity tests are effective because dishonest people are unable to fake conscientiousness, even on a paper-and-pencil test.

answer

TRUE

question

The proactive personality has been associated with job satisfaction and commitment to one's employer.

answer

TRUE

question

A person with an external locus of control is likely to respond more productively to merit pay incentives than one with an internal locus.

answer

FALSE

question

If you have a personal belief that you have what it takes to succeed, you would be best described as having an internal locus of control.

answer

FALSE

question

Learned helplessness is the debilitating lack of faith in one's ability to control one's environment.

answer

TRUE

question

Employees with low self-efficacy need lots of constructive pointers and positive feedback.

answer

TRUE

question

People with high self-esteem take more risks and handle failure better than those with low self-esteem.

answer

TRUE

question

Self-awareness is the extent to which people are able to observe their own behavior and adapt it to external situations.

answer

FALSE

question

Low self-monitoring individuals tend to have greater career success than high self-monitors.

answer

FALSE

question

Self-awareness is the most essential trait of emotional intelligence.

answer

TRUE

question

As an emotional intelligence trait, social awareness refers to the ability to communicate clearly, disarm conflicts, and build strong personal bonds.

answer

FALSE

question

Organizational behavior is an interdisciplinary field dedicated to better understanding and management of people at work.

answer

TRUE

question

Lifelong behavior patterns are dictated by values that are fairly well set by the time people are in their early teens.

answer

TRUE

question

Status is a common value held in the workplace.

answer

TRUE

question

A value is a learned predisposition toward a specific object.

answer

FALSE

question

Attitudes are abstract ideals that are directed toward all objects, people, or events consistently over time and related situations.

answer

FALSE

question

The affective component of an attitude consists of the feelings or emotions one has about a situation.

answer

TRUE

question

The intentional component of an attitude is also known as the cognitive component.

answer

FALSE

question

"I don't like socializing with my coworkers outside of work" is an example of the behavioral component of an attitude.

answer

FALSE

question

Self-serving bias, according to Leon Festinger, describes the psychological discomfort a person experiences between his or her cognitive attitude and incompatible behavior.

answer

FALSE

question

Belittling the importance of one's inconsistent behavior is a way to reduce cognitive dissonance.

answer

TRUE

question

A smoker who claims that the habit is not as dangerous as antismoking messages suggest, saying "My grandmother smokes and she's in her 80s," is attempting to reduce cognitive dissonance.

answer

TRUE

question

Gina was pregnant with her first child, and she ordered a beer at lunch. She drank it despite reading the label that said consumption of alcohol during pregnancy has been linked to birth defects. Her actions are likely to cause cognitive dissonance in the other patrons in the restaurant.

answer

FALSE

question

Causal attribution is the process of interpreting and understanding one's environment.

answer

FALSE

question

The first step of the perception process is selective attention.

answer

TRUE

question

Stereotyping is a type of distortion in perception.

answer

TRUE

question

Stereotyping is holding negative notions about less privileged groups such as women or ethnic minorities.

answer

FALSE

question

In research, both men and women prefer male bosses.

answer

TRUE

question

As employees' age increases, so does their job involvement and satisfaction.

answer

TRUE

question

The halo effect occurs only with positive traits.

answer

FALSE

question

Leah has hired two new employees for her team, Jake and Margaret. Jake is outgoing and attractive, while Margaret is very bright but seems quiet and unsure of herself. Leah immediately expects Jake to outperform Margaret at the job. Jake is likely experiencing the halo effect.

answer

FALSE

question

The activity of inferring causes for observed behavior is called causal attribution.

answer

TRUE

question

In the fundamental attribution bias, people tend to take more personal responsibility for success than for failure.

answer

FALSE

question

A student who blames his failing test grade on unclear lectures and a poorly worded exam rather than his limited effort likely has a self-serving bias.

answer

TRUE

question

The self-fulfilling prophecy describes the phenomenon in which people's expectations of themselves or others lead them to behave in ways that make those expectations come true.

answer

TRUE

question

One of the ways to create a Pygmalion effect is to encourage employees to visualize the successful execution of tasks.

answer

TRUE

question

Job commitment is defined as an individual's involvement, satisfaction, and enthusiasm for work.

answer

FALSE

question

Job security and feelings of psychological safety propel engagement among employees.

answer

TRUE

question

Job satisfaction is correlated with lower absenteeism and turnover.

answer

TRUE

question

High job satisfaction is a fundamental predictor of high job performance.

answer

FALSE

question

Organizational commitment reflects the extent to which an employee identifies with an organization and is dedicated to its goals.

answer

TRUE

question

Studies show a surprising lack of correlation between organizational commitment and job satisfaction.

answer

FALSE

question

When an employee does not show up for work every day it is known as turnover.

answer

FALSE

question

Turnover is very costly for an organization in terms of recruitment and training.

answer

TRUE

question

At a working lunch with her boss and several people from other departments, Sanaa asked others about their projects and was genuinely interested in what they were trying to do. Here, Sanaa was exhibiting organizational citizenship.

answer

TRUE

question

Violence is considered a dysfunctional work behavior.

answer

FALSE

question

While it would be desirable, there is currently no way to screen employees at hiring to prevent counterproductive work behaviors.

answer

FALSE

question

Diversity is synonymous with differences.

answer

FALSE

question

One of the four layers of diversity on Gardenswartz and Rowe's diversity wheel is labeled as organizational dimensions.

answer

TRUE

question

Personality is at the center of Gardenswartz and Rowe's diversity wheel.

answer

TRUE

question

On Gardenswartz and Rowe's diversity wheel, internal dimensions of diversity include gender, age, and race.

answer

TRUE

question

On Gardenswartz and Rowe's diversity wheel, biographical dimensions of diversity consist of the personal characteristics that people acquire, discard, or modify throughout their lives.

answer

FALSE

question

Individuals have some ability to control their external dimensions of diversity.

answer

TRUE

question

In today's workplaces, the further up the pay scale and the higher the education level, the wider the earnings gap becomes between men and women.

answer

TRUE

question

The glass ceiling is a concept that applies to both minorities and women.

answer

TRUE

question

The Americans with Disabilities Act requires organizations to make all requested accommodations for an individual's disabilities.

answer

FALSE

question

Declining literacy is a problem in the American workforce.

answer

TRUE

question

Ethnocentrism is a strong self-identification with one's race or ethnicity, often to the exclusion of other personal characteristics.

answer

FALSE

question

Cognitive dissonance is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities and are uncertain about their ability to handle them effectively.

answer

FALSE

question

Very low levels of stress lead to the best workplace performance.

answer

FALSE

question

Stressors can be both positive and negative.

answer

TRUE

question

Type A behavior has been associated with decreased work performance.

answer

FALSE

question

Sets of behaviors that people expect of occupants of a position are known as roles.

answer

TRUE

question

Having to decide between working late at your boss's request or attending your child's birthday party is an example of role overload.

answer

FALSE

question

Boredom, irritability, and nervousness can be symptoms of stress.

answer

TRUE

question

Role overload is a state of emotional, mental, and physical exhaustion, expressed as listlessness, indifference, or frustration.

answer

FALSE

question

Extra staff at peak periods is an example of buffers managers can use to prevent employee burnout.

answer

TRUE

question

Employee assistance programs focus on self-responsibility, nutritional and environmental awareness, relaxation techniques, and physical fitness.

answer

FALSE

question

Millennials are more likely than older workers to A. be very independent. B. focus exclusively on financial rewards. C. appreciate a slower pace. D. want more hands-on guidance. E. be more patient in seeing the results of their work.

answer

A. be very independent.

question

The stable psychological traits and behavioral attributes that give a person her identity are known as her A. character. B. values. C. attitudes. D. attributions. E. personality.

answer

E. personality.

question

Which of the following is one of the Big 5 personality dimensions? A. Dependability B. Tolerance for ambiguity C. Openness to change D. Agreeableness E. Openness to extremes

answer

D. Agreeableness

question

______ is the personality dimension that describes how intellectual, imaginative, curious, and broad-minded a person is. A. Inquisitiveness B. Emotional stability C. Openness to experience D. Extroversion E. Inventiveness

answer

C. Openness to experience

question

______ is the personality dimension that describes how achievement-oriented and persistent a person is. A. Emotional stability B. Conscientiousness C. Extroversion D. Locus of control E. Self-efficacy

answer

B. Conscientiousness

question

Michael is frequently nervous, tense, and worried, both at work and at home. He likely scores low on which of the Big Five personality dimensions? A. Emotional stability B. Conscientiousness C. Extroversion D. Openness to experience E. Self-monitoring

answer

A. Emotional stability

question

Jenna really enjoys mingling at work functions, both to network for new contacts and simply to share stories with other interesting people. Jenna probably scores high in A. emotional stability. B. conscientiousness. C. extroversion. D. agreeableness. E. openness to experience.

answer

C. extroversion.

question

______ has been associated with success for managers and salespeople. A. Extroversion B. Agreeableness C. Openness to experience D. Emotional stability E. Conscientiousness

answer

A. Extroversion

question

How should a manager use personality tests? A. Use graphology tests to infer personality. B. Create personality profiles of the desirable employee for different jobs. C. Experiment with various personality tests that appear on the Internet. D. Assess testing for any possible adverse impact on hiring women and minorities. E. Avoid them, as they are illegal.

answer

D. Assess testing for any possible adverse impact on hiring women and minorities.

question

A person who is apt to take initiative and persevere to influence the environment is said to have a(n) ______ personality. A. emotionally stable B. proactive C. extroverted D. emotionally intelligent E. self-efficacious

answer

B. proactive

question

The extent to which people believe they control their own fate through their own efforts is called their A. tolerance for ambiguity. B. locus of control. C. emotional stability. D. self-efficacy. E. self-monitoring.

answer

B. locus of control.

question

People with ______ exhibit less anxiety, greater motivation, and stronger expectations that effort leads to performance. A. high self-efficacy B. high self-monitoring C. internal locus of control D. high tolerance for ambiguity E. high self-esteem

answer

C. internal locus of control

question

Employees with a(n) ______ locus of control will probably resist close managerial supervision. A. high B. internal C. external D. absent E. low

answer

B. internal

question

Cara's manager notices that she exhibits an internal locus of control when she speaks about her work. Her manager should A. give Cara a lot of positive feedback. B. ensure that Cara has a highly structured job. C. give Cara a job with much social contact with coworkers and customers. D. closely supervise Cara's work. E. provide an incentive structure to pay Cara.

answer

E. provide an incentive structure to pay Cara.

question

Belief in one's personal ability to do a task is called A. self-esteem. B. openness to experience. C. self-efficacy. D. locus of control. E. self-monitoring.

answer

C. self-efficacy.

question

Complex, challenging, and autonomous jobs tend to enhance people's perceptions of their A. self-efficacy. B. increased anxiety. C. tolerance for pain. D. learned helplessness. E. self-esteem.

answer

A. self-efficacy.

question

Wei is a manager of several subordinates who seem to be low in self-efficacy. In an effort to improve this, she should A. let them learn new tasks independently. B. give them simplistic jobs. C. immediately create very challenging goals for them. D. provide guided experiences and mentoring. E. avoid giving positive feedback.

answer

D. provide guided experiences and mentoring.

question

The extent to which people like or dislike themselves is called their A. emotional stability. B. self-esteem. C. locus of control. D. self-efficacy. E. self-monitoring.

answer

B. self-esteem.

question

People with low self-esteem ______ than those who with higher self-esteem. A. handle failure better B. choose more unconventional jobs C. focus more on their strengths D. are more dependent on others E. exhibit more aggressive behavior

answer

D. are more dependent on others

question

If a manager knows one of her subordinates has low self-esteem and wishes to enhance it, she should A. provide frequent reminders about improving weaknesses. B. avoid delegating work to this subordinate. C. redesign the work so that it is routine and structured. D. avoid giving feedback. E. express confidence in the employee's abilities to complete given tasks.

answer

E. express confidence in the employee's abilities to complete given tasks.

question

People with high ______ are responsive to social and interpersonal cues of others. A. self-esteem B. self-monitoring C. locus of control D. self-efficacy E. agreeableness

answer

B. self-monitoring

question

Low self-monitors are often criticized for being ______ to others. A. insincere B. boastful C. aggressive D. unfair E. insensitive

answer

E. insensitive

question

The ability to cope, empathize with others, and be self-motivated is called A. emotional intelligence. B. self-awareness. C. social awareness. D. self-efficacy. E. self-monitoring.

answer

A. emotional intelligence.

question

Which of the following is a trait of emotional intelligence? A. situational awareness B. self-sufficiency C. self-monitoring D. social awareness E. self-efficacy

answer

D. social awareness

question

The ability to control your emotions and act with honesty and integrity in reliable and adaptable ways is known as A. self-awareness. B. self-management. C. social awareness. D. situational awareness. E. relationship management.

answer

B. self-management.

question

Organizational ______ tries to explain and predict workplace behavior to help managers better lead and motivate others. A. behavior B. development C. culture D. strategy E. science

answer

A. behavior

question

The abstract ideals that guide a person's thinking and behavior across all situations are called A. ethics. B. culture. C. values. D. attitudes. E. perceptions.

answer

C. values.

question

Surveys show that employees are more interested in ______ rather than just earning a paycheck. A. advancement opportunity B. recognition C. benefits D. work-life balance E. status

answer

D. work-life balance

question

The three components of ______ are affective, cognitive, and behavioral. A. value assessment B. attitude C. job satisfaction D. personality E. stress

answer

B. attitude

question

The ______ component of an attitude consists of the beliefs and knowledge one has about a situation. A. behavioral B. decisional C. cognitive D. affective E. factual

answer

C. cognitive

question

The statement, "I really don't like that Samuel got so angry in that meeting," reflects the ______ component of an attitude. A. behavioral B. emotion C. cognitive D. affective E. value

answer

D. affective

question

The statement, "I won't give Kim such a tight deadline again," reflects the ______ component of an attitude. A. behavioral B. decisional C. cognitive D. affective E. value

answer

A. behavioral

question

The statement, "Spencer is slow to return phone calls," reflects the ______ component of an attitude. A. behavioral B. decisional C. cognitive D. affective E. value

answer

C. cognitive

question

Because people are uncomfortable with inconsistency between their attitudes and behaviors, they will seek to reduce A. a self-fulfilling prophecy. B. fundamental attribution. C. a self-serving bias. D. causal attribution. E. cognitive dissonance.

answer

E. cognitive dissonance.

question

Under which of the following circumstances would the desire to reduce cognitive dissonance be greatest? A. When large amounts of money are on the line. B. When the individual has little control. C. When the elements seem like an inconsequential ambiguity. D. When there is little emotional investment in the situation. E. When the components of attitude have no inconsistency.

answer

A. When large amounts of money are on the line.

question

Which of the following is not one of the main ways to reduce cognitive dissonance? A. Change your attitude. B. Change your behavior. C. Eliminate the self-serving bias. D. Find consonant elements that outweigh the dissonant ones. E. Belittle the importance of the inconsistent behavior.

answer

C. Eliminate the self-serving bias.

question

According to Festinger, which of the following factors is most relevant as people deal with the discomfort of cognitive dissonance? A. Personal ethics B. Judgment of others C. Personality differences D. Control over the situation E. Experience with decision-making

answer

D. Control over the situation

question

The process of interpreting and understanding one's environment is called A. self-awareness. B. perception. C. cognition. D. self-monitoring. E. openness to experience.

answer

B. perception.

question

Which of the following is not a step in the perceptual process? A. Selective attention. B. Retrieving from memory to make judgments and decisions. C. Causal attribution. D. Interpretation and evaluation. E. Storing in memory.

answer

C. Causal attribution.

question

Which of the following is not a distortion in perception? A. Cognitive dissonance B. Stereotyping C. Halo effect D. The recency effect E. Causal attribution

answer

A. Cognitive dissonance

question

The tendency to attribute to an individual the characteristics one believes are typical of the group to which that individual belongs is called A. generalization. B. selective perception. C. a fundamental attribution error. D. stereotyping. E. the halo effect.

answer

D. stereotyping.

question

As an employee's age increases, his or her A. job involvement decreases. B. absenteeism increases. C. job satisfaction increases. D. work motivation decreases. E. organizational commitment decreases.

answer

C. job satisfaction increases.

question

Brad was hiring a new financial analyst, and he had several good candidates. He was leaning towards hiring Kai, a Japanese American woman, since he thinks Asians are better at math. Brad is exhibiting which distortion in perception? A. Racism B. The recency effect C. A fundamental attribution error D. Stereotyping E. The halo effect

answer

D. Stereotyping

question

The ______ occurs when we form an impression of an individual based on a single trait. A. halo effect B. self-fulfilling prophecy C. fundamental attribution error D. self-serving bias effect E. selective perception error

answer

A. halo effect

question

The tendency to remember recent information better than earlier information is called A. the recency effect. B. a self-serving bias. C. the fundamental attribution bias. D. selective perception. E. stereotyping.

answer

A. the recency effect.

question

The tendency to attribute another person's behavior to his or her personal characteristics rather than to the situation the person is in is called A. the halo effect. B. a self-serving bias. C. the fundamental attribution bias. D. selective perception. E. stereotyping.

answer

C. the fundamental attribution bias.

question

Tori has been telling everyone in the sales department of her incredible skill as a salesperson, since she beat her goal this year by nearly 30%. But last year when she didn't even reach her goal, she said it was simply the economy. This is an example of the A. halo effect. B. self-fulfilling prophecy. C. fundamental attribution bias. D. self-serving bias. E. selective perception error.

answer

D. self-serving bias.

question

A waiter expects a group of poorly dressed customers to be stingy tippers and gives them poor service, so he gets the result that he expects, a very small tip. This is an example of the A. halo effect. B. self-fulfilling prophecy. C. fundamental attribution bias. D. self-serving bias. E. selective perception error.

answer

B. self-fulfilling prophecy.

question

The extent to which employees have positive or negative feelings about various aspects of their work refers to their A. job involvement. B. job performance. C. organizational commitment. D. job enrichment. E. job satisfaction.

answer

E. job satisfaction.

question

Julia really doesn't like her new boss and is not happy with the new tasks she's been assigned and the long hours she's been working. Still, she truly believes in what the company is trying to accomplish. Julia has A. poor job performance. B. low job involvement. C. low organizational commitment. D. poor job enrichment. E. low job satisfaction.

answer

E. low job satisfaction.

question

Which of the following factors is most relevant to a person's overall satisfaction with his or her job? A. Life outside of work B. Coworkers C. Locus of control D. Industry E. Self-efficacy

answer

B. Coworkers

question

Job satisfaction results in stronger ______ and lower levels of ______ A. job involvement; work-life balance. B. motivation; life satisfaction. C. organizational commitment; perceived stress. D. perceived stress; life satisfaction. E. perceived stress; absenteeism.

answer

C. organizational commitment; perceived stress.

question

The extent to which an employee identifies with an organization and is committed to its goals is called A. job involvement. B. job performance. C. organizational commitment. D. job satisfaction. E. job enrichment.

answer

C. organizational commitment.

question

________ programs help employees to integrate and transition to a new job. A. Organizational citizenship B. Employee assistance C. Onboarding D. Self-efficacy E. Proactive

answer

C. Onboarding

question

Employee behaviors that exceed the work-role requirements for the job are known as A. organizational citizenship behaviors. B. the halo effect. C. counterproductive work behaviors. D. self-efficacy behaviors. E. proactive behaviors.

answer

A. organizational citizenship behaviors.

question

Miles impressed his boss by making lots of suggestions for department improvements and by putting in many weekend hours to do extra tasks to develop the new procedures. Miles is exhibiting A. self-efficacy. B. onboarding traits. C. organizational citizenship behaviors. D. the halo effect. E. counterproductive work behaviors.

answer

C. organizational citizenship behaviors.

question

Absenteeism, drug and alcohol abuse, and disciplinary problems are examples of A. organizational citizenship behaviors. B. self-efficacy. C. causal attribution. D. counterproductive work behaviors. E. self-serving bias.

answer

D. counterproductive work behaviors.

question

______ represent(s) all the ways people are unlike and alike. A. Lifestyle B. Dimensions C. Background D. Conditions E. Diversity

answer

E. Diversity

question

Which of the following is one of the four layers of the diversity wheel? A. Gender B. External dimensions C. Llfestyle D. Management status E. Physical ability

answer

B. External dimensions

question

______ is at the center of the diversity wheel. A. Philosophy B. Personality C. Psychometrics D. Philanthropy E. Psychology

answer

B. Personality

question

Which of the following would be considered a primary dimension of diversity? A. Physical ability B. Religion C. Lifestyle D. Appearance E. Educational background

answer

A. Physical ability

question

Which of the following dimensions is an example of a secondary dimension on the diversity wheel? A. Income B. Race C. Sexual orientation D. Physical abilities E. Age

answer

A. Income

question

Which of the following dimensions is an example of an organizational dimension on the diversity wheel? A. Income B. Work experience C. Union affiliation D. Educational background E. Physical abilities

answer

C. Union affiliation

question

Which of the following diversity issues is true in the U.S. workforce? A. Unemployment among the disabled has dropped sharply since the introduction of the Americans with Disabilities Act. B. Literacy has ceased to be an issue among American workers. C. The median age of the American worker is increasing. D. White households continue to have higher median incomes than Asian ones. E. Among the top 500 U.S. companies, most currently do not yet offer domestic partner benefits for same-sex couples.

answer

C. The median age of the American worker is increasing.

question

Which of the following is a reason that some women face a glass ceiling? A. Poor goal-setting B. Inability to motivate others C. Poor financial performance D. Lack of mentors E. Inability to produce high-quality work

answer

D. Lack of mentors

question

The Americans with Disabilities Act requires employers to A. hire all qualified disabled persons who apply. B. reasonably accommodate an individual's disability. C. hire quotas of qualified disabled persons. D. actively solicit job applications from disabled persons. E. hire disabled persons to qualify for tax breaks.

answer

B. reasonably accommodate an individual's disability.

question

Melanie has a master's degree in psychology, but she is working at a sunglasses cart in the mall. She is currently A. experiencing reverse discrimination. B. underemployed. C. lacking a support system. D. demotivated. E. recession-resistant.

answer

B. underemployed.

question

______ is the belief that one's native country, culture, language, abilities, or behavior is superior to those of another culture. A. Reverse discrimination B. Stereotyping C. An ethical dilemma D. Diversity E. Ethnocentrism

answer

E. Ethnocentrism

question

Chris believes that he was not promoted to professor at State University because of the university's desire to promote minorities and women to achieve greater diversity at higher ranks. Chris thinks he is experiencing A. reverse discrimination. B. ethnocentrism. C. an ethical dilemma. D. diversity. E. stereotyping.

answer

A. reverse discrimination.

question

______ is the tension people feel when they are facing or enduring extraordinary demands, constraints, or opportunities and are uncertain about their ability to handle them effectively. A. Apprehension B. Role conflict C. Role overload D. Stress E. Anxiety

answer

D. Stress

question

Which of the following best describes the graph of stress (x-axis) versus performance (y-axis)? A. Line with a positive slope B. Line with a negative slope C. A horizontal line D. U-shaped curve E. Inverted u-shaped curve

answer

E. Inverted u-shaped curve

question

When others' expectations exceed one's ability, ______ has occurred. A. Burnout B. Role overload C. Learned helplessness D. Role conflict E. Role ambiguity

answer

B. Role overload

question

You have important clients in town who want to have dinner with you, but your mother has a plumbing leak and has asked you to come over and shut off the water until she can get it fixed tomorrow. You are experiencing A. role ambiguity. B. burnout. C. learned helplessness. D. role overload. E. role conflict.

answer

E. role conflict.

question

Which of the following is not a symptom of stress? A. Slurred speech B. Insomnia C. Hostility D. Alcohol abuse E. Heart attack

answer

A. Slurred speech

question

______ is a state of emotional, mental, and even physical exhaustion, expressed as listlessness, indifference, or frustration. A. Eustress B. Distress C. Role overload D. Burnout E. Breakdown

answer

D. Burnout

question

Which of the following is the most common drug of abuse? A. Marijuana B. Tranquilizers C. Prescription pain medication D. Methamphetamine E. Alcohol

answer

E. Alcohol

question

A(n) ______ program includes plans to help employees cope with stress, burnout, substance abuse, health problems, and family issues that influence job performance. A. holistic wellness B. employee engagement C. counterproductive behavior D. employee assistance E. self-monitoring

answer

D. employee assistance

question

Which of the following is not a suggested strategy for reducing unhealthy stressors in organizations? A. Rollout employee assistance programs. B. Recommend a holistic wellness approach. C. Develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision. D. Make jobs interesting. E. Make career counseling available.

answer

C. Develop a more formal structure with authoritative supervision.

question

In managing for motivation, you should think about employees as capital assets.

answer

FALSE

question

Having a best friend at work is one factor that is characteristic of the best workplaces.

answer

TRUE

question

Motivation can be directly observed in another's behavior.

answer

FALSE

question

Unfulfilled needs are a part of the simple motivation model.

answer

TRUE

question

Feedback in the simple motivation model serves to tell you if you have demanded appropriate benefits.

answer

FALSE

question

An intrinsic reward is the payoff a person receives from others for performing a particular task.

answer

FALSE

question

When GE paid employee smokers up to $750 to quit and stay off cigarettes, it was an extrinsic reward.

answer

TRUE

question

Managers use motivation to get talented people to come work for them.

answer

TRUE

question

Content perspectives of motivation emphasize the emotions that employees feel in the workplace.

answer

FALSE

question

Alderfer's ERG theory is a need-based perspective on motivation.

answer

TRUE

question

According to Maslow, a person who is deprived in both physiological and love needs will attempt to satisfy his or her love needs first.

answer

FALSE

question

According to Maslow's theory, friendship and affection are esteem needs.

answer

FALSE

question

According to Maslow's theory, safety needs are the most basic, at the lowest level in the hierarchy of needs.

answer

FALSE

question

Though research does not clearly support Maslow's theory, it reminds managers that employees have needs beyond earning a paycheck.

answer

TRUE

question

Employers need only focus on fulfilling the bottom two levels of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

answer

FALSE

question

ERG theory assumes that three basic needs influence behavior: esteem, relatedness, and growth.

answer

FALSE

question

One difference between it and Maslow's theory is that ERG theory suggests that more than one level of needs may be activated at one time.

answer

TRUE

question

According to Alderfer's ERG theory, when one's higher-level needs are frustrated, he or she will seek more intensely to fulfill lower-level needs in what is called the frustration-regression component.

answer

TRUE

question

According to McClelland's theory, people are born with their needs for power, achievement, and affiliation.

answer

FALSE

question

In McClelland's acquired needs theory, the desire to excel at challenging tasks is part of the need for power.

answer

FALSE

question

McClelland identifies the need for personal power as positive and involving problem solving to further mutual goals.

answer

FALSE

question

If you are happy with accomplishment of a task being its own reward, you may have a high need for achievement.

answer

TRUE

question

Those with a high need for affiliation may not be the most efficient managers because they resist making decisions that make others resent them.

answer

TRUE

question

In Herzberg's theory, the lower-level needs are known as security factors, and the higher-level needs are called motivating factors.

answer

FALSE

question

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, a worker's salary is not a possible source of job satisfaction.

answer

TRUE

question

According to Herzberg, motivating factors are the only factors associated with job satisfaction.

answer

TRUE

question

In two-factor theory, hygiene factors include achievement, recognition, and responsibility.

answer

FALSE

question

Expectancy theory is considered a reinforcement perspective on motivation.

answer

FALSE

question

Process perspectives try to explain why employees have different needs and what behaviors they select to satisfy them.

answer

TRUE

question

Equity theory focuses on how fairly employees think they are being treated compared to others.

answer

TRUE

question

Inputs, outputs, and comparisons are the essential elements in goal-setting theory.

answer

FALSE

question

In equity theory, employees are most motivated to make a change under circumstances in which they perceive all parties to have the same ratios.

answer

FALSE

question

According to equity theory, increasing their inputs is one way that employees deal with perceptions of inequity.

answer

FALSE

question

Janice has been difficult for some of her teammates to work with. According to equity theory, if she were to receive a raise so as to be compensated similarly to her peers, she would be more likely to cooperate in a group setting.

answer

TRUE

question

Management's assessment of fairness is most important under equity theory.

answer

FALSE

question

Expectancy theory suggests that people are motivated by how much they want something and how likely they think they are to get it.

answer

TRUE

question

In expectancy theory, a person's expectancy is her belief that a particular level of effort will lead to a particular level of performance.

answer

TRUE

question

Emilio's sales manager just told his group about this year's contest, the winner of which will take a lavish trip to France. Emilio does not like to travel to places where he can't speak the language, so he is not very enthusiastic. Here, Emilio's instrumentality is low.

answer

FALSE

question

According to expectancy theory, for a person's motivation to be high, he or she must be high on all three elements: instrumentality, expectancy, and valence.

answer

TRUE

question

Specificity of goals can often be improved by making them quantitative.

answer

TRUE

question

To be most motivating, goals should be set to be very difficult, just out of the reach of workers, so that they never stop pushing themselves.

answer

FALSE

question

Job design involves the division of an organization's work among its employees and the application of motivational theories to jobs to increase satisfaction and performance.

answer

TRUE

question

Job simplification increases job satisfaction by allowing workers to become expert at a fewer number of tasks.

answer

FALSE

question

Job design that fits jobs to people is based on the assumption that people are underutilized at work and that they want more variety and responsibility.

answer

TRUE

question

Job enrichment consists of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase variety and motivation.

answer

FALSE

question

Job enlargement by itself does not have a significant and lasting positive effect on job performance.

answer

TRUE

question

Job enrichment requires some vertical loading rather than just horizontal loading.

answer

TRUE

question

According to the job characteristics model, job characteristics directly affect the work outcomes.

answer

FALSE

question

The extent to which a job allows an employee to make choices about scheduling different tasks and deciding how to do them is known as task identity.

answer

FALSE

question

Task significance describes the extent to which a job affects the lives of other people, whether inside or outside the organization.

answer

TRUE

question

In the job characteristics model, feedback is one of the five core job characteristics.

answer

TRUE

question

According to reinforcement theory, workers will be more motivated and perform better when they experience their work as meaningful, feel responsible for results, and know how well they are doing.

answer

FALSE

question

Job design works even when the affected employees have no desire for personal growth.

answer

FALSE

question

A job diagnostic survey can be used to identify problems with a job's motivational characteristics and help determine if a job redesign is appropriate.

answer

TRUE

question

Reinforcement theory suggests behavior tends to be repeated if it has positive consequences and tends not to be if it has negative consequences.

answer

TRUE

question

The use of reinforcement theory to change human behavior is called behavior alteration.

answer

FALSE

question

Something that inhibits a given behavior can be called reinforcement.

answer

TRUE

question

Negative reinforcement is the process of weakening behavior by presenting something negative.

answer

FALSE

question

In reinforcement theory, both extinction and punishment reduce the likelihood that a given behavior will be repeated.

answer

TRUE

question

A manager should reward only desirable behavior, and should do so as soon as possible after the behavior appears.

answer

TRUE

question

A manager should administer punishment in public because the embarrassment amplifies the punishment and therefore its effectiveness.

answer

FALSE

question

Pay for performance compensation plans base employee pay on the number of job-relevant skills or academic degrees they earn.

answer

FALSE

question

Stock options allow certain employees to buy stock at a future date for a discounted price.

answer

TRUE

question

Research shows that the cubicle is a motivational environment for most employees.

answer

FALSE

question

______ is defined as the psychological processes that arouse and direct goal-directed behavior. A. Stimulus B. Productivity C. Enticement D. Motivation E. Incented action

answer

D. Motivation

question

A simple model of motivation does not include which of the following? A. Unfulfilled need B. Behaviors C. Reactions D. Motivation E. Rewards

answer

C. Reactions

question

Craig's sales manager has just told the group that all sales in the month of September will earn an extra 5% commission. The team gets right to work, being motivated by a(n) A. intrinsic reward. B. physiological need. C. high need for power. D. extrinsic reward. E. hygiene factor.

answer

D. extrinsic reward.

question

Arianna's management professor just told her class that the final exam is optional for students like her who currently have an A. She decides to take the exam anyway, since she likes the subject and wants to master the material. Here, Arianna is motivated to take the exam by a(n) A. intrinsic reward. B. physiological need. C. high need for power. D. extrinsic reward. E. hygiene factor.

answer

A. intrinsic reward.

question

Which of the following is a need-based perspective on motivation? A. Expectancy theory B. Herzberg's two-factor theory C. Job characteristics model D. Goal-setting theory E. Equity theory

answer

B. Herzberg's two-factor theory

question

Maslow's levels of needs, in order from lowest (most basic) to highest level, are A. self-actualization, esteem, love, safety, and physiological. B. safety, love, esteem, self-actualization, and physiological. C. physiological, safety, self-actualization, esteem, and love. D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization. E. safety, physiological, esteem, love, and self-actualization.

answer

D. physiological, safety, love, esteem, and self-actualization.

question

The need for status, reputation, and recognition are part of A. self-actualization. B. esteem. C. love. D. safety. E. physiological.

answer

B. esteem.

question

After a series of bus accidents, one of which resulted in a critical injury to a driver, Inland Shuttle drivers received additional training and buses were retrofitted with new braking systems. This helps to satisfy which of Maslow's needs? A. Self-actualization B. Esteem C. Love D. Safety E. Physiological

answer

D. Safety

question

An accounting firm provides employees with educational reimbursements if they complete job-related coursework with a B or better, which helps them meet which of Maslow's levels of needs? A. Self-actualization B. Esteem C. Love D. Safety E. Physiological

answer

A. Self-actualization

question

For managers, the importance of Maslow's contribution is that he showed that workers A. are only interested in compensation that helps them fulfill physiological needs. B. are as complex as their organization. C. have needs that cannot be understood by their employer. D. expect an employer to fulfill every level of their hierarchy of needs. E. have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.

answer

E. have needs beyond that of just earning a paycheck.

question

Which of the following is a need in Alderfer's ERG theory? A. Esteem B. Existence C. Realization D. Rating E. Generalization

answer

B. Existence

question

______ assumes that three basic needs influence behavior and that they may be activated concurrently. A. Maslow's theory B. Expectancy theory C. Alderfer's ERG theory D. Hertzberg's theory E. Equity theory

answer

C. Alderfer's ERG theory

question

According to the acquired needs theory, the desire to influence others is part of the need for A. affiliation. B. power. C. self-actualization. D. relatedness. E. achievement.

answer

B. power.

question

Anne has excelled as a consultant for a large financial institution. She loves building mutually beneficial relationships and is extremely well liked by her clients. Anne likely has a A. low need for affiliation. B. low need for power. C. low need for achievement. D. high need for affiliation. E. high need for achievement.

answer

D. high need for affiliation.

question

Even when he started his first job, Galen was not content to be just one of the employees. His boss noticed that he often coached his coworkers about ways to improve their work, even when it wasn't his job. Galen probably has a A. high need for achievement. B. high need for affiliation. C. high need for power. D. low need for achievement. E. high need for leadership.

answer

C. high need for power.

question

Janet is very aggressive at her job, and her coworkers complain that she often manipulates them and her boss in order to get ahead. She attempts to direct everything and everyone, regardless of the consequences to others or even the organization itself. Janet is expressing what type of need for power? A. Personal B. Destructive C. Legitimate D. Organizational E. Compensatory

answer

A. Personal

question

McClelland's need for achievement corresponds most closely to A. Herzberg's hygiene factors. B. Maslow's esteem needs. C. extrinsic rewards. D. Alderfer's relatedness needs. E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.

answer

E. Maslow's self-actualization needs.

question

According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a motivating factor? A. Pay B. The work itself C. Working conditions D. Company policy E. Supervisors

answer

B. The work itself

question

According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a hygiene factor? A. Responsibility B. Advancement C. The work itself D. Relationships E. Recognition

answer

D. Relationships

question

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, in the zone between the motivating factors and the hygiene factors, employees are A. dissatisfied. B. satisfied. C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied. D. unmotivated. E. stagnant.

answer

C. neither satisfied nor dissatisfied.

question

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, only ______ factors can make employees satisfied with their jobs. A. motivating B. self-actualization C. growth D. hygiene E. achievement

answer

A. motivating

question

Which of the following is a higher-level need based on the four content theory perspectives? A. Esteem B. Existence C. Hygiene D. Physiological E. Safety

answer

A. Esteem

question

Anders is manager for a large freight company. He has noticed low morale lately, perhaps because of the cramped quarters and lack of raises this year among workers on his shift. According to Herzberg, Anders should first concentrate on A. needs for achievement. B. hygiene factors. C. esteem needs. D. motivating factors. E. growth needs.

answer

B. hygiene factors.

question

According to Herzberg's theory, the first thing managers of employees who dislike their jobs should do is to A. provide opportunities for achievement. B. publicly recognize good performance. C. make sure pay levels, policies, and working conditions are reasonable. D. create opportunities for personal growth and advancement. E. increase employees' responsibility and opportunity for leadership.

answer

C. make sure pay levels, policies, and working conditions are reasonable.

question

Theories that try to understand the thought processes by which people decide how to act are called A. needs-based perspectives. B. reinforcement perspectives. C. job design perspectives. D. cognitive perspectives. E. process perspectives.

answer

E. process perspectives.

question

Which of the following is a process perspective on motivation? A. Goal-setting theory B. Job characteristics model C. Two-factor theory D. ERG theory E. Acquired needs theory

answer

A. Goal-setting theory

question

In equity theory, employees are motivated to A. work harder when they have more freedom. B. resolve feelings of injustice. C. correct themselves when they aren't working hard enough. D. blame others when they miss work or fail at tasks. E. work just hard enough to get what they want.

answer

B. resolve feelings of injustice.

question

When workers perceive they are being treated fairly on the job, they are most likely to A. pass up promotional opportunities. B. show improved safety practices. C. be a whistleblower. D. support organizational change. E. seek additional education.

answer

D. support organizational change.

question

Brady went to his boss Lynn to complain that he got the same bonus this quarter as everyone else, despite the longer hours he's been putting in and his higher level of experience and efficiency. If Lynn can't change the bonuses, she should A. tell Brady "That's just the way bonuses are given." B. suggest that Brady take this up with her boss. C. expect that Brady will reduce his hours. D. start documenting Brady's complaints for future disciplinary action. E. expect that Brady's performance will improve.

answer

C. expect that Brady will reduce his hours.

question

The theory under which people make the choice that promises them the greatest reward if they think they can get it is A. goal-setting theory. B. expectancy theory. C. reinforcement theory. D. equity theory. E. two-factor theory.

answer

B. expectancy theory.

question

After struggling with the training, Sachin is unsure whether he can complete the end-of-year financial reporting with minimal errors in the time allotted at his new job. In this case, Sachin is low on the ______ element of expectancy theory. A. valence B. expectancy C. outcomes D. instrumentality E. performance

answer

B. expectancy

question

______ is the expectation that successful performance of the task will lead to the desired outcome. A. Expectancy B. Reinforcement C. Valence D. Instrumentality E. Effort

answer

D. Instrumentality

question

At his review last year, Ryan was promised a big raise if he met his production goals. Raises were included in today's paychecks, and despite that Ryan has met all of his goals, he only received a cost-of-living raise. In the future, Ryan's ______ will probably be A. instrumentality; low. B. valence; low. C. expectancy; low. D. instrumentality; high. E. expectancy; high.

answer

A. instrumentality; low.

question

Chad was interviewing for jobs, and the HR manager at one firm told him that the company pays the total health insurance costs for a family of four. As a single man, this benefit did not seem especially important to him right now. Here, Chad is low on the ______ element of the expectancy theory. A. valence B. instrumentality C. outcomes D. expectancy E. significance

answer

A. valence

question

When using goal-setting theory to motivate employees, managers should A. set targets that are just out of employees' reach. B. help workers understand and accept the goals. C. set general goals that are emotionally appealing. D. hold employees responsible for getting their own feedback. E. set goals that are easily achievable.

answer

B. help workers understand and accept the goals.

question

A goal that states "Attend work at least 80% of the time this quarter" has which of the following problems? A. It is not specific enough. B. It is not measurable. C. It does not have a target date. D. It is not challenging enough. E. It is not achievable.

answer

D. It is not challenging enough.

question

According to goal-setting theory, which of the following is necessary for goals to create high motivation and performance? A. Setting general goals that will work for multiple employees. B. Predetermining acceptable rewards for meeting goals. C. Setting goals that fulfill self-actualization needs. D. Reinforcing of desired behaviors. E. Setting goals linked to an action plan.

answer

E. Setting goals linked to an action plan.

question

Which of the following is the best statement of a goal? A. Give your very best effort. B. Get through most of those reports by 9/1. C. Reduce production errors by 10 percent by the end of the quarter. D. Increase customer retention. E. Be late to work less often.

answer

C. Reduce production errors by 10 percent by the end of the quarter.

question

______ involves division of an organization's work and applies motivational theories to jobs to increase satisfaction and performance. A. Job enlargement B. Job design C. Job simplification D. Job development E. Job enrichment

answer

B. Job design

question

The process of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase variety and motivation is called A. job enlargement. B. job design. C. job development. D. job rotation. E. job enrichment.

answer

A. job enlargement.

question

Research shows that simplified jobs lead to A. job satisfaction. B. poor mental health. C. a sense of accomplishment. D. a sense of personal growth. E. decreased worker productivity.

answer

B. poor mental health.

question

Job ______ is the opposite of job A. rotation; enrichment. B. rotation; enlargement. C. loading; enrichment. D. simplification; enrichment. E. simplification; enlargement.

answer

E. simplification; enlargement.

question

The process of building into a job such motivating factors as recognition and achievement is called A. MBO. B. job design. C. job enrichment. D. job enlargement. E. horizontal loading.

answer

C. job enrichment.

question

Gwen's job as an accounting assistant was recently modified to include reconciling of bank accounts and delivering checks to the bank, two tasks previously done by the accounting manager. This increase in responsibility would best be described as A. job development. B. job enlargement. C. job satisficing. D. job design. E. vertical loading.

answer

E. vertical loading.

question

Of the following, which is a core job characteristic? A. Meaningfulness B. Skill specificity C. Task significance D. Teamwork E. Task variety

answer

C. Task significance

question

According to the job characteristics model, the core job characteristics of skill variety, task identity, and task significance combine to affect A. knowledge of results. B. meaningfulness of work. C. autonomy of work. D. responsibility for results. E. feedback from others.

answer

B. meaningfulness of work.

question

The extent to which a job allows an employee to make decisions about scheduling different tasks and deciding how to perform them is called A. horizontal loading. B. skill variety. C. task identity. D. task significance. E. autonomy.

answer

E. autonomy.

question

Vanessa runs a flower shop. She recently made some changes so that one employee answers phones and does paperwork, while another creates arrangements, and a third packages and delivers the arrangements. Previously, each employee was responsible for the order from the phone call through the delivery. Vanessa's job redesign has A. increased task identity. B. decreased task identity. C. increased task significance. D. decreased task significance. E. decreased autonomy.

answer

B. decreased task identity.

question

As a maintenance person for the Air Force, Craig services aircraft engines, which protects the lives and safety of military personnel and their ability to conduct missions. Craig's job has a high level of A. autonomy. B. task identity. C. skill variety. D. task significance. E. context satisfactions.

answer

D. task significance.

question

Which of the following is a contingency factor in the job characteristics model? A. Autonomy B. Knowledge of actual results C. High work satisfaction D. Desire for personal growth E. Feedback

answer

D. Desire for personal growth

question

The motivating potential score is calculated as part of using A. reinforcement theory. B. McClelland's acquired needs theory. C. the job characteristics model. D. goal-setting theory. E. equity theory.

answer

C. the job characteristics model.

question

The theory that attempts to explain behavior change by suggesting that behavior with positive consequences tends to be repeated while behavior with negative consequences tends not to be repeated, is called A. reinforcement theory. B. equity theory. C. expectancy theory. D. acquired needs theory. E. two-factor theory.

answer

A. reinforcement theory.

question

The use of desirable consequences to strengthen a particular behavior is called A. constructive feedback. B. extinction. C. intrinsic motivation. D. positive reinforcement. E. valence.

answer

D. positive reinforcement.

question

The process of strengthening a behavior by withdrawing something negative is called A. positive reinforcement. B. negative reinforcement. C. extinction. D. intrinsic motivation. E. punishment.

answer

B. negative reinforcement.

question

Estefan tells one of his staff that he is taking her off of probation since she has corrected her tardiness problem. Estefan is using A. instrumentality. B. negative reinforcement. C. punishment. D. intrinsic motivation. E. positive reinforcement.

answer

B. negative reinforcement.

question

The weakening of behavior by ignoring it or making sure it is not reinforced is called A. extinction. B. intrinsic motivation. C. punishment. D. instrumentality. E. negative reinforcement.

answer

A. extinction.

question

It has been seven quarters since any employee has received a bonus at R & G Mills, so now the possibility of getting one does not seem to be motivating the workers any longer. In this case, management has inadvertently applied A. expectancy. B. negative reinforcement. C. extinction. D. intrinsic motivation. E. punishment.

answer

C. extinction.

question

Your boss requires you to give up your company car since you have missed your sales goals for three consecutive quarters. She is using A. positive reinforcement. B. negative reinforcement. C. extinction. D. intrinsic motivation. E. punishment.

answer

E. punishment.

question

In using reinforcement, a manager should A. avoid using punishment. B. reward both desired and undesired behavior. C. give all subordinates the same rewards to ensure fairness. D. save rewards for weekly or monthly celebrations. E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.

answer

E. clearly communicate the desired behavior.

question

When using punishment, a manager should A. ignore undesirable behaviors. B. save reprimands until the end of the workday, or preferably before a weekend. C. do it in conjunction with positive reinforcement. D. make sure that other employees witness the punishment. E. punish even minor infractions, to appear consistent.

answer

C. do it in conjunction with positive reinforcement.

question

Which of the following is not an advisable criterion for an effective incentive plan? A. The rewards are believable. B. The rewards are linked to performance. C. The rewards satisfy individual needs. D. The rewards require rarely attainable performance. E. The rewards are agreed on by the manager and employees.

answer

D. The rewards require rarely attainable performance.

question

A sales commission is an example of a ______ compensation plan. A. pay-for-knowledge B. profit-sharing C. pay-for-performance D. gainsharing E. Scanlon

answer

C. pay-for-performance

question

Gabe has a summer job hand-dying shirts that will be sold on the boardwalk. He is paid $3.50 per shirt. This is an example of a ______ compensation plan. A. pay-for-performance B. pay-for-knowledge C. bonus D. profit-sharing E. gainsharing

answer

A. pay-for-performance

question

Mark's employer passes out checks at the end of each quarter, representing an equitable portion of 5% of the company's pretax profits for the previous period. This is known as A. pay for performance. B. pay for knowledge. C. a bonus. D. profit sharing. E. gainsharing.

answer

D. profit sharing.

question

A Scanlon plan is a type of ______ compensation plan. A. pay-for-knowledge B. gainsharing C. benchmarking D. pay-for-performance E. profit-sharing

answer

B. gainsharing

question

The marketing department at State College was nearly $8,000 under budget last year due to a variety of cost-cutting measures. This year 50% of the savings were returned to the department to spend as desired, as a form of A. pay for performance. B. pay for knowledge. C. bonus. D. profit sharing. E. gainsharing.

answer

E. gainsharing.

question

Erica teaches fourth grade at a local elementary school. She significantly increased her salary by earning a master's degree in education. This is an example of A. pay for performance. B. pay for knowledge. C. a bonus. D. profit sharing. E. gainsharing.

answer

B. pay for knowledge.

question

Which of the following is not a practice used to create a flexible workplace? A. Job sharing B. Telecommuting C. Gainsharing D. Part-time work E. Compressed workweeks

answer

C. Gainsharing

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