macro economics – Flashcards

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question
In November 2010 the labor force in Siouxtown, was 14,800. There were 14,483 persons employed. The local unemployment rate was?
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2.1%
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The _______ argument points out that if an employer reacts to poor business conditions by reducing pay for all workers, then the best workers, with the best employment alternatives at other firms, are the most likely to leave and the least-attractive workers, with employment alternatives, are most likely to stay.
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adverse selection of wage cuts
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The unemployment rate may underestimate the true extent of unemployment if:
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many part-time employees would like to work fulltime, but are unable to get additional work. // many people become discouraged and cease looking for work.
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Freelife, New Hampshire has a labor of 78,567 persons and employment of 74,382. The unemployment rate is ______ and the participation rate is _____.
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8.3%; 60%
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The labor force consists of:
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all adults who are working actively seeking work
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The definition of market equilibrium states that at the _____, the quantity of labor demanded by employers will equal the quantity supplied.
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equilibrium wage
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Gomer loses his job as a road construction worker and cannot find another position with equivalent pay and benefits. As a result, he is still checking the want ads and reporting to the unemployment office on a weekly basis. He is considered to be:
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underemployed
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Cyclical unemployment arises when:
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business activity in the macroeconomy declines
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If the number of employed persons in a country equals 24 million, the number of million, and the number of persons over age 16 unemployed persons equals 40 million, the unemployment rate equals:
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25%
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Frictional unemployment is:
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unemployment that is due to normal turnover in the labor market
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Each month the Census Bureau carries out the Current Population Survey (CPS) (which has been carried out every month since 1940). A total of __________ households are contacted every month
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60,000
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The unemployment rate in a town in which 65,400 persons are employed and 11,000 are unemployed equals
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14.4%
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During the Great Depression of the 1930s, the unemployment rate reached more than _________ of the labor force.
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25%
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Which of the following statements is incorrect
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Employment insurance compensation increases the opportunity cost of being unemployed.
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During the deep recessions of the early 1980s and of 2007-2009, unemployment reaches roughly _____.
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10%
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The development of a nationwide computerized job bank listing of all job openings would be most likely to reduce"
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frictional unemployment
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Women composed __________ of the paid workforce in 1900 and 50% of the paid workforce in 2010
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18%
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The unemployment rate measures:
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unemployment workers as a percentage of the labor force.
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Two factors that complicate the calculation of the inflation rate are
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substitution and quality/new product bias
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Another term used to describe negative inflation is
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deflation
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The GDP deflator is a price index that includes the following components of GDP
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Consumption, Investment, Government plus exports minus imports
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Alex wants to measure the nominal 1998 GDP of $993 billion in 2008 dollars. From the data he gathered, he knows the deflator for 1998 is 30 and for 2008, it is 74, and that real interest in those years was 6.23% and 3.21% respectively. If he avoids making a misleading calculation, what will the value be?
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2449 billbion
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Inflation implies that all the level of all prices ______
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increase
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The basket of goods in the Consumer Price Index consists of about _________ products; that is, several hundred specific products in over __________ broad-item categories.
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80,000; 200
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In the 1970s and 1980s, labor unions commonly negotiated wage contracts that had _______________________ which guaranteed that their wages would keep up with inflation.
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cost of living adjustments
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Which of the following is the name used to describe the price index that consists of intermediate goods and finished goods?
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Producer Price Index
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What name is given to the index based on the prices of exported or imported merchandise?
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International Price Index
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The Producer Price Index is based on prices paid for supplies and inputs by:
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producers of goods and services
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When a price, wage, or interest rate is adjusted automatically with inflation, it is said to be _____
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indexed
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What distinguishes the real value of a statistic from the nominal value of a statistic?
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adjusting for inflation
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Which of the following is an example of one of the major categories in the overall CPI?
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recreation
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__________ implies that pressure for price increases reaches across _______________markets, not just one.
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inflation; most
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Nancy's union has negotiated a three-year wage contract that provides for a 2.4% increase indexed to inflation. The rates of inflation are forecast to be 1.62%, 1.93% and 2.21% respectively. How will Nancy's wage increase be expressed in the new contract?
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COLA plus 2.4%
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While one occasionally sees references to inflation over short time periods, the term typically implies a(n)_____________ in prices.
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ongoing raise
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Inflation can be calculated in terms of how the overall cost of ___________________ changes over time
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the basket of goods
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The situation where the buying power of money in terms of goods and services increases is called
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deflation
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The ____________________ is based on the prices of merchandise that are exported or imported
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International Product Index
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A payment is said to be ________________ if it is automatically adjusted for inflation
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indexed
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ndia has a GDP of 23,000 billion Indian rupees, and a population of 1.1 billion. The exchange rate is 50 rupees per U.S. dollar. Calculate the GDP per capita of India as measured in U.S. dollars
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$418
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Which of the following is not counted as a part of GDP?
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the purchase of 00 shares of AT&T stock by your grandfather
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Gross Domestic Product equals $1.2 trillion. If consumption equals $690 billion, investment equals $200 billion, and government spending equals $260 billion, then:
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imports exceed exports by $50 billion
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_________ are now the largest single component of the supply side of GDP, representing over half of GDP.
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Services
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The gap between exports and imports in a nation's economy is called the ___________.
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trade balance
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_______________, which can be approximated by the growth of gross domestic product, ultimately determines the prevailing standard of living in a country
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Economic growth
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Investment (I) includes:
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the amt spent on new factories and machinery
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On the demand side of GDP, consumption by _____________ is the largest component of GDP, accounting for about two-thirds of the GDP in any year.
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households
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In 1980 Denmark had a GDP of $70 billion (measured in U.S. dollars) and a population of 5.1 million. In 2000, Denmark had a GDP of $160 billion (measured in U.S. dollars) s and a population of 5.3 million. By what percentage did Denmark's GDP per capita rise between 1980 and 2000?
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120%
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On the supply side of the GDP, Structures account for around __________ of U.S. GDP.
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7%
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For most high-income countries of the world, GDP _________________ over time.
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has risen gradually
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Which of the following is true?
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The expansions and contractions of real world business cycles last varying lengths of time and often differ in magnitude.
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Which of the following statements is true?
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GDP includes spending on recreation and travel, but it does not cover leisure time.
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Durable goods and non-durable goods comprise approximately ________ of the supply side of the GDP
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45%
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GDP is:
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the value of all final goods and services produced domestically.
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The change in inventories, a component of aggregate supply, comprises roughly __________ of GDP
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0.5%
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Which of the following is not included in GDP?
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cash income paid to a day laborer that is not reported to the tax authorities
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The value of what businesses provide to other businesses is captured in the final products at the end of the __________ chain.
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production
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A business cycle reflects changes in economic activity, particularly real GDP. The stages of a business cycle are:
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expansion, peak, recession, trough
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If imports exceed exports, as in recent years, then __________ exists.
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a trade deficit
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Economists typically measure economic growth by tracking:
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real GDP per capita
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Increased investment alone will guarantee economic growth
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This a false statement, because economics growth hinges on the quality and type of investment as well as the human capital and improvements in technology
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During the last two centuries, the average rate of growth of GDP per capita in the leading industrialized countries has averaged about _________ per year.
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2%
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The value of what is produced per worker, or per hour worked, is called ____________.
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productivity
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To achieve a high standard of living, a nation should:
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promote economic growth
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A nation can achieve higher economic growth if:
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it devotes more resources to research and development
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In certain African countries like Niger, Tanzania, Nigeria, and Sudan, for example, GDP per capita at the start of the 2000s was still less than $___________.
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300
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In the long run, the most important source of increase in a nation's standard of living is a
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high rate of economic growth
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Country Able and Country Baker initially have the same real GDP per capita. Country Able experiences no economic growth, while Country Baker grows at a sustained rate of 7 percent. In 12 years, Country Baker's GDP will be approximately ___________ that of Country Able
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double
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Over the long run, ____________ per hour is the most important determinant of the average wage level in any economy
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productivity
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Which of the following is most likely to contribute to economic growth as measured by GDP per capita?
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increased capital formation
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Some recent economic research has suggested that African countries' economic growth may have been limited by __________________
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Geography and climate
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A country will roughly double its GDP in twenty years if its annual growth rate is:
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3.5 percent
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Country Alpha and Country Beta initially have the same real GDP per capita. Country Alpha experiences no economic growth, while Country Beta grows at a sustained rate of 5 percent. In 14 years, Country Alpha's GDP will be approximately _________ that of Country Beta.
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one-half
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In the long run, the most important source of increase in a nation's standard of living is a:
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high rate of economic growth
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Investment in human capital:
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is characterized by both b) and c)
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Since the late 1950s, economists have performed "growth accounting" studies in the United States. These have determined that ________________ is typically the most important contributor to U.S. economic growth.
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technology
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Some prominent members of the slow-economic growth country club include a high-income country like _________.
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Germany
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Which of the following is correct?
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Increased education adds to the stock of human capital, not unlike factories ads to the stock of physical capital.
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In macroeconomics, the connection from inputs to outputs for the entire economy is called _______________.
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an aggregate production function
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Assuming a country's economy maintains an 8% rate of growth, young adults starting at age 20 would see the average standard of living in their country more than double by the time they had reached age __________.
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30
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Which of the following is unlikely to affect the rate of economic growth?
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the level of government spending
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An economy's rate of productivity growth is closely linked to the growth rate of its ______________, although the two aren't identical
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GDP per capita
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Investment in human capital:
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can be acquired through on-the-job training // is an important source of economic growth
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Which of the following did not result in economic growth?
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many citizens emigrating from Zimbabwe when a politically repressive regime took office.
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Which of the following best describes the relationship between economic growth and literacy?
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Increased literacy stimulates economic growth by raising labor productivity, and as the economy grows, people consume more education.
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Which of the government policies below is most unlikely to encourage per capita economic growth?
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special subsidies for capital-intensive forms of production
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Which of the following factors contribute to economic growth?
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an increase in the proportion of the population that is college educated
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When discussing economic growth, it is often useful to focus on ____________, to avoid studying changes in the size of GDP that represent only having more people in the economy, and focus on those increases in GDP which represent an actual rise in the standard of living on a per person basis
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GDP per capita
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Increased investment alone will guarantee economic growth.
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This is a false statement, because economic growth hinges on the quality and type of investment as well as the human capital and improvements in technology
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_____________________ is a term which refers to the widespread use of power-driven machinery and the economic and social changes that resulted in the first half of the 1800s
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The Industrial Revolution
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To achieve a high standard of living, a nation should:
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promote economic growth
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Since the late 1950s, economists have performed "growth accounting" studies in the United States. These have determined that ________________ is typically the most important contributor to U.S. economic growth.
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technology
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On the demand side of GDP, consumption by _____________ is the largest component of GDP, accounting for about two-thirds of the GDP in any year.
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households
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India has a GDP of 23,000 billion Indian rupees, and a population of 1.1 billion. The exchange rate is 50 rupees per U.S. dollar. Calculate the GDP per capita of India as measured in U.S. dollars
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$418
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___________ is about two-thirds of the demand side of GDP, but it moves relatively little over time
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Consumption
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GDP does not directly include:
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the value intermediate goods sold during a period
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_________ is calculated by taking _________ and then subtracting the value of how much physical capital is worn out, or reduced in value because of aging, over the course of a year.
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NNP: GNP
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Which of the following are most likely classified by economists as consumer durable goods?
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automobiles, furniture
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Which of the following is included in GDP calculations?
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the university tuition paid to enroll in a course
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Which of the following is included in GDP?
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the fees charged for a stock broker's services
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Once every __________, the Census Bureau does a comprehensive survey of housing and residential finance.
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10 years
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Middle-income countries, which include much of Latin America, Eastern Europe, and some countries in East Asia, have per capita GDP in the range of ___________
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6,000 to 12,000
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___________ is a small category that refers to the goods produced by one business that have yet to be sold to consumers, and are either still sitting in warehouses and on store shelves
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Inventories
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_________ are now the largest single component of the supply side of GDP, representing over half of GDP
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Services
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For most high-income countries of the world, GDP _________________ over time
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has risen gradually
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Which of the following is included in the calculated Gross Domestic Product?
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A local ice cream stores sell $17,000 worth of cones and sundaes on July 1
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Final goods or services used to compute GDP refer to:
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goods and services purchased by the ultimate users
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The difference between nominal GDP and real GDP is:
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real GDP adjusts for inflation
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Consumption in the United States is about ____________ of GDP, and it moves relatively little over time.
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68%
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Country Able and Country Baker initially have the same real GDP per capita. Country Able experiences no economic growth, while Country Baker grows at a sustained rate of 7 percent. In 12 years, Country Baker's GDP will be approximately ___________ that of Country Able.
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double
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Over the long run, ____________ per hour is the most important determinant of the average wage level in any economy.
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productivity
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When discussing economic growth, it is often useful to focus on ____________, to avoid studying changes in the size of GDP that represent only having more people in the economy, and focus on those increases in GDP which represent an actual rise in the standard of living on a per person basis.
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GDP per capita
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_________ is output per hour in the business sector.
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productivity
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____________ is a term which refers to the widespread use of power-driven machinery and the economic and social changes that resulted in the first half of the 1800s.
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Industrial Revolution
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An economy's rate of productivity growth is closely linked to the growth rate of its ______________, although the two aren't identical.
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GDP per capita
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The unemployment rate may overestimate the true extent of unemployment if:
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- many people who claim to be unemployed actually work in the underground economy. - people falsely claim that they are actively seeking work in order to receive unemployment benefits
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Craigburg has a working age population of 20 million. Of those, 11 million are employed and 1 million are unemployed. The unemployment rate is ________ and the participation rate is __________.
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8.3%; 60%
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In November 2010 the labor force in Siouxtown, was 14,800. There were 14,483 persons employed. The local unemployment rate:
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2.1%
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The U.S. unemployment rate moves up and down as the economy moves in and out of recessions. But over time, the unemployment rate seems to return to a range of ____________.
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4%-6%
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Which of the following statements is incorrect?
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Employment insurance compensation increases the opportunity cost of being unemployed
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The development of a nationwide computerized job bank listing of all job openings would be most likely to reduce:
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frictional unemployment
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Gomer loses his job as a road construction worker and cannot find another position with equivalent pay and benefits. As a result, he is still checking the want ads and reporting to the unemployment office on a weekly basis. He is considered to be:
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underemployed
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A forestry worker who is out of work because of the temporarily low demand for wood products associated with a recession is defined as:
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cyclically unemployed
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The rise in unemployment that occurs because of a recession is known as cyclical unemployment, because it is closely tied to the ______________.
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business cycle
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Through good economic years and bad, many European economies had unemployment rates hovering near _________ since the 1970s.
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10%
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Frictional unemployment occurs when:
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a worker decides to quit one job to seek a different job
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The extent of _______________________ will depend on how easy it is for workers to learn about alternative jobs, which may reflect the ease of communications about job prospects in the economy.
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frictional unemployment
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The definition of market equilibrium states that at the _______________, the quantity of labor demanded by employers will equal the quantity supplied.
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equilibrium wage
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Insofar as government public policy is concerned, the best way to battle unemployment would be __________________.
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to minimize recessions
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The most significant real economic cost of high unemployment is:
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the potential goods and services that might have been produced but weren't.
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Women composed __________ of the paid workforce in 1900 and 50% of the paid workforce in 2010.
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18%
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The _________________ argument points out that if an employer reacts to poor business conditions by reducing pay for all workers, then the best workers, with the best employment alternatives at other firms, are the most likely to leave and the least-attractive workers, with fewer employment alternatives, are more likely to stay.
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adverse selection of wage cuts
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The unemployment rate may underestimate the true extent of unemployment if:
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many people become discouraged and cease looking for work.
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If the unemployment rate is 6 percent and the number of persons unemployed is 6 million, then the number of people employed is equal to:
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94 million
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During the deep recessions of the early 1980s and of 2007-2009, unemployment reached roughly __________.
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10%
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If a nation's labor force receives a significant influx of young workers:
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the natural rate of unemployment is likely to increase.
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If the unemployment rate is 8 percent, then this means:
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8 percent of the labor force is unemployed.
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Cyclical unemployment arises when:
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business activity in the macroeconomy declines.
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Suppose that everyone who has looked for a job for more than six months gave up in despair and stopped looking. What would happen to the unemployment rate?
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It would fall
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Karen chooses to go to university fulltime rather than to work. Karen:
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is not part of the labor force.
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The unemployment rate in a town in which 65,400 persons are employed and 11,000 are unemployed equals:
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14.4%
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If the number of employed persons in a country equals 24 million, the number of unemployed persons equals 8 million, and the number of persons over age 16 in the population equals 40 million, the unemployment rate equals:
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25%
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Freelife, New Hampshire has a labor force of 78,567 persons and employment of 74,382. The unemployment rate for the city is:
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5.3%
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Each month the Census Bureau carries out the Current Population Survey (CPS) (which has been carried out every month since 1940). A total of __________ households are contacted every month.
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60,000
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The ____________________ is based on the prices of merchandise that are exported or imported.
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International Product Index
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If the price index moves from 107 to 110, the rate of inflation is:
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2.8%
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An economics professor is discussing a measure of inflation over time based on a basket of goods comprised of all the components of GDP. Which measure is it?
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GDP Deflator
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With regard to the economy, the term negative inflation is synonymous with which of the following?
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deflation
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A payment is said to be ________________ if it is automatically adjusted for inflation.
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indexed
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One of the reasons that a rise in the price of a fixed basket of goods over time tends to overstate the rise in a consumer's true cost of living, is:
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substitution bias
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Two factors that complicate the calculation of the inflation rate are:
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substitution and quality/new product bias
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The effect of substitution bias is that the rise in the price of a fixed basket of goods over time tends to ___________________ the rise in a consumer's true cost of living, because it doesn't take into account that the person can substitute between goods according to changes in their relative prices.
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overstate
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In the early 1990's extremely high inflation rates of 2500% were common in Russia. During that time, we can say that as a result of those inflation rates, Russia was experiencing ___________________.
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hyperinflation
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When a price, wage, or interest rate is adjusted automatically with inflation, it is said to be __________.
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indexed
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Inflation implies that the level of all prices _____________________.
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the basket of goods
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The __________________ is the nominal interest rate minus the rate of inflation.
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real interest rate
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The situation where the buying power of money in terms of goods and services increases is called:
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deflation
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When we want to measure wage inflation in the labor market, we use the:
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Employment Cost Index
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When Anders took out his first two-year membership with Maxima Gym in 2004, the fee was $540.00. He renewed his membership three times; in 2006 for $580.00, in 2008, for $600.00, and again in 2010, for $630.00. What is the overall rate of inflation for Anders' gym membership?
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16.66%
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Another term used to describe negative inflation is:
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deflation
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The GDP deflator is a price index that includes the following components of GDP:
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Consumption, Investment, Government plus Exports minus Imports
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The percentage change in the price level from one time period to the next, whether the price level is measured in terms of money or as a price index, will be the _____________.
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inflation rate
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Inflation can be calculated in terms of how the overall cost of ___________________ changes over time.
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the basket of goods
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The effects of inflation are seen in:
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goods, services, wages and income levels
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The term _____________ describes circumstances where a country's exports exceed its imports
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trade surplus
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A period of strong economic growth tends to make a __________________.
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trade deficit larger
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One of the following must be used as a starting point in order to perform an analysis that will determine what the connections between imbalances of trade in goods and services and the flows of international financial capital are. Which one is it?
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define the balance of trade
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In the United States, which of the following government institutions would most likely provide economists with the basic data for merchandise trade?
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Census Bureau
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Which of the following would most likely be included in the negative side of the current account balance?
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money earned by Canadian firms in the U.S
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Which of the following represents a financial inflow into the U.S. economy?
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Canadian investors buying real estate in Arizona
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From a macroeconomic perspective, if GDP economic indicators show a decline of 10% or more in a single year, then which of the following outcomes is most likely to result?
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deep economic recession
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The extent to which a national economy is involved in global trade:
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is not very strongly related to either a or b above.
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Which of the following would most likely be included in the positive side of the U.S. current account balance?
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money earned by U.S. firms in Europe
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Which of the following will strongly influence a nation's level of trade?
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size of its economy, its geographic location, and its history of trade
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Economists typically rely on a broader measure of international trade known as the ___________________, which includes _____________________________.
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current account balance; goods, services, international income flows, and foreign aid.
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A country's current national savings and investment identity is expressed in algebraic terms as (M - X) = I - S - (T - G). In this instance:
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domestic investment is higher than domestic savings
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In the U.S., all companies involved in international flows of capital must file reports, which are ultimately compiled by the:
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Department of the Treasury
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During the past year a country's government ran a budget surplus. How will this be represented as a component of in the country's national savings and investment identity?
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(T - G); saving side
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Only one of the following statements about trade surplus and capital flow is correct. Which one is it?
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a trade surplus means that there is a net outflow of capital
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A country finds itself in the following situation: a government budget deficit of $800; total domestic savings of $1800, and total domestic physical capital investment of $1300. According to the national saving and investment identity, what is the current account balance?
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deficit of $300
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If a country's economy records a surplus, how will the X and M components be represented in its national savings and investment identity?
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(X - M); left side
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Which of the following represents a financial outflow from the U.S. economy?
answer
U.S. investors buying foreign assets in Germany
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With respect to the national saving and investment identity for any country, the quantity of _______________ at any given time by savings must ________________ for purposes of making investments.
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financial capital supplied; equal the quantity of capital financial demanded
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Which of the following represents the national savings and investment identity - Supply of financial capital = Demand for financial capital - expressed in algebraic terms?
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S + (M - X) = I + (G - T)
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The term _____________ describes circumstances where a country's exports exceed its imports.
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trade surplus
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Which of the following represents a financial inflow to the U.S. economy?
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returns paid on U.S. financial investments in Switzerland
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From a macroeconomic perspective, an economic transaction in the form of a financial investment is synonymous with which of the following?
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trade in the financial capital market
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A country's current national savings and investment identity is expressed in algebraic terms as I - S - (T - G) = (M - X). Assume that the level of domestic savings rises, while the level of domestic investment and private saving remains unchanged. In this instance
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-less foreign financial capital is required to meet investment needs. -government policy will involve increasing private savings -the country's trade deficit will decline
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If imports ______________, then the economy is said to have a trade deficit.
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exceed exports
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A country's current national savings and investment identity is expressed in algebraic terms as I - S - (T - G) = (M - X). Assume that the level of domestic investment in a country rises, while the level of private and public saving remains unchanged. In this instance, the rise in domestic: investment will mean
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a higher trade deficit.
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The term __________ is used to describe what those in one country buy from those in other countries.
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imports
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In 2010, the country of Vesey exported goods worth $312 billion and services worth $198 billion. It imported goods worth $525 billion and services worth $255 billion. It sent $1.2 billion in famine relief to Africa, and received $3 billion to support its first democratic election efforts. What was the merchandise trade deficit in Vesey in 2010?
answer
$213 billion
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In 2009, because U.S. imports were $2,535 billion while exports were $2,116 billion:
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imports exceeded exports by a sizeable $419 billion.
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In most high-income economies, including the United States, goods currently make up ___________, while services currently compose ____________.
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less than half of total production; more than half of total production
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In 2010, the country of Vesey exported goods worth $312 billion and services worth $198 billion. It imported goods worth $525 billion and services worth $255 billion. It sent $1.2 billion in famine relief to Africa, and received $3 billion to support its first democratic election efforts. What was the current account balance in Vesey for 2010?
answer
$271.8 billion
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The surge in international trade related to services to be performed in one country and sold in another that began in the 1990s has been powered by which of the following?
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technological advances
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A country's current national savings and investment identity is expressed in algebraic terms as (M - X) = I - S - (T - G). In this instance
answer
domestic investment is higher than domestic savings.
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If exports and imports:
answer
are equal, then trade is balanced.
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The national saving and investment identity teaches that the rest of the economy can absorb an inflow of foreign financial capital by:
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leaving domestic saving and investment unchanged using any of the above.
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A country's current national savings and investment identity is expressed in algebraic terms as X - M = S + (G - T) - I. In this instance:
answer
private and public domestic savings are higher than domestic investment.
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To a macroeconomist, a trade deficit is synonymous with which of the following?
answer
inflow of financial capital
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The statement that GDP = C + I + G + X - M is an identity, because ________________________________.
answer
it is true according to the definition of GDP
question
A series of macroeconomic events has led an economy into a deep recession. Which of the following factors is most likely to have initiated this series of events?
answer
unbalanced trade
question
A country's current account balance refers to a broad measure of the balance of trade that includes:
answer
goods and services, international flows of income, and foreign aid.
question
Goods and services produced in one country that are then sold in other countries are called ____________.
answer
exports
question
The final category of the current account balance is ____________________, which can be thought of as payments made by individuals in which money is sent abroad _________________________.
answer
unilateral transfers; without any direct good or service being received
question
In what way are the factors used to calculate the current account balance similar to each other?
answer
each involves a flow of financial payments between countries
question
Economic production has fallen to less than full potential due to inadequate incentives for firms to produce. The duration of this economic condition will likely be
answer
short-term
question
The graph below refers to a significant increase in individual income taxes, taking them to their highest level in 50 years. Which of the following is likely to result?
answer
- unemployment is likely to rise. - the economy will experience lower economic growth
question
_______________________ are economists who generally emphasize the importance of aggregate supply in determining the size of the macroeconomy over the _____________.
answer
Neoclassical economists; long run
question
The term "full employment GDP" is synonymous with which of the following?
answer
potential GDP
question
The ____________ describes a situation where sufficient credit is available, but the economy experiences a reduction in consumption and investment.
answer
interest rate effect
question
In an AD/AS diagram, __________________________ could explain a rise in cyclical unemployment?
answer
a shift to the left in either AS or AD
question
Why is productivity growth considered to be the most important factor in the AD/AS model?
answer
it shifts the AS curve in the long-term
question
As the aggregate price level in an economy rises, ____________________.
answer
interest rates increase
question
The _____________ holds that a rise in price level will make domestic goods relatively more expensive, ____________ exports and _______________ imports.
answer
foreign price effect; discouraging; encouraging
question
Whether the economy is in a recession is illustrated in the AD/AS model by how close the _____________________ is to the potential GDP line.
answer
equilibrium
question
If Keynes' law applies during economic contractions and Say's law applies during economic expansion, how will the three goals of macroeconomics be affected?
answer
trade-offs and connections may differ in the short run and the long run
question
The _________________ means that a higher price level leads to lower real wealth.
answer
wealth effect
question
_________________ results when an economy experiences high unemployment and high inflation at the same time.
answer
Stagflation
question
Aggregate supply curves are ________________________ for low levels of output, and ____________________________ for high levels of output.
answer
relatively flat; relatively steep
question
Potential GDP in the U.S. will be unaffected by ____________________.
answer
the unemployment rate
question
Aggregate supply (AS) denotes the relationship between the __________________ that firms choose to produce and sell and the _________________, holding the price of inputs fixed.
answer
total quantity; price level for output
question
Which of the following will have the greatest influence on the slope of the demand curve in a single market model?
answer
substitute goods
question
When prices of outputs in an economy become sufficiently high causing production to exceed potential GDP, the resulting:
answer
hyper-intense production will be unsustainable in the long run.
question
Changes in the price level of the different components of aggregate demand are reflected in the AD/AS macroeconomic model by a ________________________.
answer
downward sloping AD curve
question
In an AD/AS diagram, an increase in structural unemployment will:
answer
have no effect on AS or AD.
question
The ____________ describes a situation where sufficient credit is available, but the economy experiences a reduction in consumption and investment.
answer
interest rate effect
question
The __________________ in an AD/AS diagram is most relevant to Keynes's Law.
answer
flat portion of the AS curve
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following is a true statement?
answer
There is insufficient aggregate demand to reach full employment.
question
In an AD/AS model:
answer
real GDP is shown on the horizontal axis.
question
_______________________ happens when the economy is producing at its potential and unemployment is at the natural rate of unemployment.
answer
Full employment GDP
question
Say's Law argues that a given ____________________ must create an equivalent ________________________ somewhere else in the economy.
answer
value of supply; value of demand
question
If the price level of what firms produce is rising across an economy, but the costs of production are constant, then:
answer
higher profits will induce expanded production.
question
When prices of outputs in an economy become sufficiently high causing production to exceed potential GDP, the resulting:
answer
hyper-intense production will be unsustainable in the long run.
question
Which of the following will have the greatest influence on the slope of the demand curve in a single market model?
answer
substitute goods
question
In an AD/AS model, the point where the economy has excess capacity is called the:
answer
Keynesian zone of the AS curve
question
What term is used to describe the maximum quantity that an economy can produce, in the context of its existing inputs, market and legal institutions?
answer
potential GDP
question
The graph below refers to a significant increase in oil prices. Which of the following is likely to result?
answer
a rise in inflation from 2.0% to 3.0%
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following is a true statement?
answer
There is insufficient aggregate demand to reach full employment.
question
Potential GDP in the U.S. will be unaffected by ____________________.
answer
the unemployment rate
question
If the price level of what firms produce is rising across an economy, but the costs of production are constant, then:
answer
higher profits will induce expanded production.
question
In macroeconomics, _____________________ denotes the relationship between the total quantity of goods and services and the price level for output.
answer
aggregate demand (AD)
question
As the aggregate price level in an economy decreases,
answer
imports decrease.
question
When the economy of a country is operating close to its full capacity:
answer
cyclical unemployment is close to zero.
question
Which of the following must be present in order for the aggregate supply curve to form an upward slope?
answer
fixed cost of inputs combined with rising prices for outputs
question
Economic production has fallen to less than full potential due to inadequate incentives for firms to produce. The duration of this economic condition will likely be:
answer
short-term
question
When the aggregate demand curves slope downwards because the price of a good increases, people will
answer
substitute and buy other goods instead.
question
Which of the following will cause the multiplier to be smaller and cause changes in investor confidence to have a smaller effect in an economy?
answer
bigger leakages
question
In a Keynesian cross diagram, what name is given to the distance between an output level that is below potential GDP and the level of potential GDP?
answer
recessionary gap
question
According to the Keynesian framework, ____________________________ will not help reduce inflation, but may help a country get out of a recession.
answer
increased spending by the government on health care
question
The onset of a trade deficit is most likely supported by a country's:
answer
strong economic growth.
question
The equilibrium quantity of labor decreases and the equilibrium wage increases when:
answer
labor supply shifts to the left, if wages are flexible.
question
When an economy is experiencing higher real interest rates, business firms will most likely be discouraged from investing in:
answer
tangible and/or intangible capital.
question
When the consumption function ordinates MPT 0.2, MPS 0.3, MPI 0.5, and MPC 0.7 are plotted on a graph, what will their values reflect?
answer
steeper consumption function due to high marginal propensity to consume
question
____________________ will not cause a shift of the AS curve in a Keynesian framework.
answer
Changes in output prices
question
Refer to the graph shown below. At point B:
answer
economic growth is low or even negative.
question
If a Phillips curve shows that unemployment is high and inflation is low in the economy, then that economy:
answer
is producing at a point where output is less than potential GDP.
question
The equilibrium quantity of labor and the equilibrium wage increase when:
answer
labor demand shifts to the right, if wages are flexible.
question
Which of the following data would be analyzed to determine whether any shift in the MPI has occurred over the course of the past 5 year period?
answer
exchange rates
question
The equilibrium quantity of labor and the equilibrium wage level decrease when:
answer
labor demand shifts to the left, if wages are flexible.
question
When the economy is in a recession, the government will want to increase output. If the multiplier equals 2.5 and the government increases spending by 200, how much will output increase by?
answer
500
question
Aggregate demand is more likely to _________________ than aggregate supply in the short run.
answer
shift substantially
question
In macroeconomics, a _________________ is used to show the relationship between output and the input price level.
answer
Phillips curve
question
The chart below gives the data necessary to make a Keynesian cross diagram. Assume that the tax rate is 0.4 of national income, the MPC out of after-tax income is 0.9, investment is 58, government spending is 60, exports are 40, and imports are 0.1 of after-tax income.
answer
-374 - Y=400
question
According to the Keynesian framework, ________________ in __________________ may cause inflation, but not a recession.
answer
an increase; domestic investment
question
Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a Keynesian cross diagram?
answer
45-degree line
question
Suppose that out of the original 100 increase in government spending, 60 will be recycled back into purchases of domestically produced goods and services. Following this multiplier effect, what value will be recycled in the next round in the cycle?
answer
36
question
The sum of all the income received for contributing resources to GDP is called ___________________.
answer
national income (Y)
question
According to the _____________________ argument, a market-oriented economy has no obvious way to implement a plan of systematic wage reductions.
answer
coordination
question
The equilibrium quantity of labor increases and the equilibrium wage decreases when:
answer
labor supply shifts to the right, if wages are flexible,
question
The equilibrium quantity of labor and the equilibrium wage level decrease when:
answer
labor demand shifts to the left, if wages are flexible.
question
The economy is in a recession and the government wants to increase output. If the multiplier equals 3 and the government increases spending by 250, how much will output increase by?
answer
750
question
Consumption, investment, government spending, exports, and imports are:
answer
all components of aggregate demand.
question
Suppose that out of the original 100 of government spending, 33 will be recycled back into purchases of domestically produced goods and services in the second round and 10.89 is spent in the third round. Following this multiplier effect, what will the value of the total aggregate expenditures be after the fourth round in the cycle is completed?
answer
147.48
question
If markets throughout the global economy all have flexible and continually adjusting prices, then:
answer
each economy will always head for its natural rate of unemployment.
question
In macroeconomics, what name is given to the costs of changing prices that businesses must consider?
answer
menu costs
question
The Keynesian economic framework is based on an assumption that:
answer
prices and wages are sticky and do not adjust rapidly.
question
According to the _____________________ argument, a market-oriented economy has no obvious way to implement a plan of systematic wage reductions
answer
coordination
question
The neoclassical perspective on macroeconomics emphasizes that in the long run, the economy seems to rebound back to its _____________ and its ____________________.
answer
potential GDP; natural rate of unemployment
question
A typical Keynesian aggregate supply (AS) curve _______________ and a typical Keynesian Phillips curve _____________.
answer
slopes upward; slopes downward
question
From a neoclassical viewpoint, government should focus less on:
answer
cyclical unemployment.
question
The shape of the ______________ involves a tradeoff between unemployment and inflation.
answer
Phillips curve
question
Referring to a Keynesian Phillips curve, a reduction in inflation is likely to cause:
answer
at least a slight increase in unemployment.
question
From a neoclassical view, which of the following is less important?
answer
fighting unemployment
question
Referring to the diagram below, complete the following sentence: Any increase in aggregate demand in the short-run will lead to:
answer
an increase in output (Q1 to Q2), but it will also lead to prices increasing.
question
Using a neoclassical model, what will the level of cyclical unemployment be when an economy is producing at potential GDP?
answer
zero
question
Over the long run, a surge in aggregate demand from a neoclassical perspective will most likely result in:
answer
an increase in price level.
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following is a true statement?
answer
Higher cost levels of increased output will force an increase in price for the product.
question
In the neoclassical model, the AS curve shifts to the right over time as_______________________ and potential GDP expands
answer
productivity increases
question
In the neoclassical version of the AD/AS model, which of the following should you use to represent the AS curve?
answer
a vertical line drawn at the level of potential GDP
question
Which of the following represents a Keynesian point of view of macroeconomics?
answer
creating increases in aggregate demand to reduce unemployment
question
Suppose that a rise in business confidence has led to more investment in the economy and higher levels of output. In the short-run Keynesian analysis, the rise in aggregate demand will:
answer
lower unemployment.
question
Which of the following is a building block of neoclassical economics?
answer
wages and prices will adjust in a flexible manner
question
If aggregate supply is vertical, then which of the following statements must be true?
answer
Aggregate demand does not affect the quantity of output.
question
________________ economists place an emphasis on __________ run economic performance.
answer
Neoclassical; long
question
From a neoclassical view, which of the following is a true statement?
answer
The economy cannot sustain production above its potential GDP in the long run.
question
In the neoclassical view, changes in ____________________ can only have a short-run impact on output and on unemployment.
answer
aggregate demand
question
Which of the following is most strongly supported by the Keynesian perspective of macroeconomics?
answer
inflation is a price that might have to be paid to achieve lower unemployment
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following is a true statement?
answer
The increase in output (Q1 to Q2) may come about because of lower levels of taxation.
question
A vertical aggregate supply curve, where the quantity of output is consistent with many different price levels, also implies:
answer
a vertical Phillips curve.
question
If the neoclassical argument that the economy always moves back to potential GDP is accepted, then which of the following will be more important?
answer
encouraging long-term growth
question
Suppose that productivity growth in an economy over a two-year period has fallen to less than 2% per year, causing a severe recession. From the neoclassical view, which of the following will be more important in these circumstances?
answer
the growth rate of long-term productivity
question
If a neoclassical model shows increasing wages in the economy over the long run, what else will likely occur?
answer
inflationary increase in price level
question
In the neoclassical model, the AS curve shifts to the right over time as_______________________ and potential GDP expands.
answer
productivity increases
question
In the long-run neoclassical view, when wages and prices are flexible, ________________________ determine the size of real GDP.
answer
potential GDP and aggregate supply
question
At a macroeconomic level, the theory of rational expectations points out that if the ______________________ is vertical over time, then people should rationally expect this pattern.
answer
aggregate supply curve
question
When a shift in ________________ occurs, rational expectations hold that its impact on output and employment will only be temporary.
answer
aggregate demand
question
The shape of the ______________ involves a tradeoff between unemployment and inflation
answer
Phillips curve
question
Why do neoclassical economists tend to put relatively more emphasis on long-term growth than on fighting recession?
answer
standard of living is ultimately determined by long-term growth
question
Which of the following is a valid criticism of the rational expectations theory?
answer
the assumption seems too strong
question
The neoclassical view holds that long-term expansion of potential GDP due to _______________________ will determine ____________________.
answer
economic growth; the size of the economy
question
In the neoclassical view, the economy has a ___________________________ to move back to potential GDP.
answer
self-correcting tendency
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following is a true statement?
answer
Higher cost levels of increased output will force an increase in price for the product.
question
From a neoclassical perspective, which of the following would most likely be viewed as an element that underpins long-run productivity growth in the economy?
answer
investments in human capital
question
In the neoclassic model, economic growth over time shifts potential GDP and the ______________ gradually to the right.
answer
vertical AS curve
question
A typical neoclassical aggregate supply (AS) curve ______________ and a typical neoclassical Phillips curve __________________.
answer
is vertical; is vertical
question
The Keynesian view of economics assumes that:
answer
wages are sticky.
question
If aggregate supply is vertical, then aggregate demand does not affect:
answer
the quantity of output.
question
If an economy experiences a decrease in aggregate demand due to a decline in consumer confidence and output falls below potential GDP, which of the following is likely to occur?
answer
a rise in unemployment
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following is a true statement?
answer
The increase in output (Q1 to Q2) may come about because of lower levels of taxation.
question
In order to shift the vertical supply curve to the left, which of the following would have to occur?
answer
breakdown of key market institutions
question
What is the name given to the macroeconomic equation MV = PQ?
answer
basic quantity equation of money
question
In good economic times, a surge in lending exaggerates the episode of economic growth. Which of the following adaptations of monetary policy can moderate these exaggerated effects?
answer
monitoring asset prices and leverage
question
If the economy is at equilibrium as shown in the diagram below, then an expansionary monetary policy will:
answer
reduce unemployment, but have little effect on inflation.
question
Which of the following is described as an innovative and nontraditional method used by the Federal Reserve to expand the quantity of money and credit during the recent U.S. recession?
answer
quantitative easing
question
The diagram below refers to a private closed economy. In this instance, the equilibrium GDP is:
answer
$180 billion.
question
When a Central Bank makes a decision that will cause an increase in both the money supply and aggregate demand, it is:
answer
following a loose monetary policy.
question
A central bank that wants to increase the quantity of money in the economy will:
answer
buy bonds in open market operations.
question
Central bank policy requires all banks to hold 10% of deposits as reserves. Pacific Bank policy prevents it from holding excess reserves. Suppose banks cannot trade any of the bonds they already have. If the central bank decides to lower the reserve requirement to 9%, which of the following will result?
answer
increase of $1 million in Pacific's loan assets
question
If you were to survey central bankers from around the world and ask them what they believe the primary task of monetary policy should be, what would the most popular answer likely be?
answer
fighting inflation
question
The ___________________ is the institution designed to control the quantity of money in the economy and also to oversee the:
answer
Central Bank; safety and stability of the banking system.
question
Which of the following institutions determines the quantity of money in the economy as its most important task?
answer
Central Bank
question
The central bank uses a ____________________ monetary policy to offset business related economic contractions and expansions?
answer
countercyclical
question
If a Central Bank decides it needs to decrease both the aggregate demand and the money supply, then it will:
answer
follow tight monetary policy.
question
When the Federal Reserve announces that it is implementing a new interest rate policy, the ____________________ will be affected?
answer
federal funds rate
question
Which of the following is considered to be a relatively weak tool of monetary policy?
answer
altering the discount rate
question
If GDP is 3600 and the money supply is 300, what is the velocity?
answer
12
question
Atlantic Bank is required to hold 10% of deposits as reserves. If the central bank increases the discount rate, how would Atlantic Bank respond?
answer
by increasing its reserves
question
What term is used to describe the interest rate charged by the central bank when it makes loans to commercial banks?
answer
discount rate
question
When banks hold excess reserves because they don't see good lending opportunities:
answer
it negatively affects expansionary monetary policy.
question
The Central Bank has raised its reserve requirements from 10% to 12%. If Southern Bank finds that it is not holding enough in reserves to meet the higher requirements, then it will likely:
answer
borrow for the short term from the central bank.
question
Which of the following events would cause interest rates to increase?
answer
a higher discount rate
question
If the economy is at equilibrium as shown in the diagram below, then a contractionary monetary policy will
answer
increase unemployment, but have little effect on inflation.
question
According to the basic quantity equation of money, if price and output fall while velocity increases, then:
answer
the quantity of money will fall.
question
When the central bank decides it will sell bonds using open market operations:
answer
the money supply decreases.
question
Which of the following is considered to be a relatively weak tool of monetary policy?
answer
altering the discount rate
question
If GDP is 1800 and the money supply is 300, then what is the velocity?
answer
6
question
A central bank that wants to increase the quantity of money in the economy will:
answer
buy bonds in open market operations.
question
When the central bank lowers the reserve requirement on deposits:
answer
the money supply increases and interest rates decrease.
question
Which of the following terms is used to describe the proportion of deposits that banks are legally required to deposit with the central bank?
answer
reserve requirements
question
If GDP is 2400 and the money supply is 600, then what is the velocity?
answer
4
question
How are the specific interest rates for the lending and borrowing markets determined?
answer
by the forces of supply and demand
question
If the original level of aggregate demand is AD0, then an expansionary monetary policy that shifts aggregate demand to AD1 will only:
answer
create an inflationary increase in price level.
question
If nominal GDP is 1800 and the money supply is 450, then what is velocity?
answer
4
question
The ___________________ is the institution designed to control the quantity of money in the economy and also to oversee the
answer
Central Bank; safety and stability of the banking system.
question
A central bank that desires to reduce the quantity of money in the economy can:
answer
raise the reserve requirement.
question
Which of the following is a traditional tool used by the Fed during recessions?
answer
open market operations
question
Atlantic Bank is required to hold 10% of deposits as reserves. If the central bank increases the discount rate, how would Atlantic Bank respond?
answer
by increasing its reserves
question
When a Central Bank takes action to decrease the money supply and increase the interest rate, it is following:
answer
a contractionary monetary policy.
question
The central bank requires Southern to hold 10% of deposits as reserves. Southern Bank's policy prohibits it from holding excess reserves. If the central bank sells $25 million in bonds to Southern Bank which of the following will result?
answer
the money supply in the economy decreases
question
Central Bank policy requires Northern Bank to hold 10% of its deposits as reserves. Northern Bank policy prevents it from holding excess reserves. If the central bank purchases $30 million in bonds from Northern Bank what will be the result?
answer
Northern's loan assets increase by $30 million
question
If nominal GDP is 2700 and the money supply is 900, what is velocity?
answer
3
question
____________________________ will often cause monetary policy to be considered counterproductive because it makes it hard for the central bank to know when the policy will take effect?
answer
Long and variable time lags
question
If the original level of aggregate demand is AD0, then an expansionary monetary policy that shifts aggregate demand to AD1 will only:
answer
create an inflationary increase in price level.
question
Which of the following institutions oversees the safety and stability of the U.S. banking system?
answer
The Federal Reserve
question
Exchange rates are an effective way to analyze the price of one currency in terms of another currency with _________________________.
answer
the tools of demand and supply
question
In 2010, 100 Japanese yen purchased .88 U.S. dollars and in 2013, it purchased .93 U.S. dollars. How much was 1 U.S. dollar worth in Japanese yen, in 2010 and 2013?
answer
2010: 113.6 yen, 2013: 107.5 yen
question
If 1000 Mexican pesos could buy $1.00 U.S. dollar in 2006 and 87 U.S. dollars in 2010, then:
answer
the dollar strengthened against the peso.
question
Why would an expansionary monetary policy no longer be available to combat recession for a country that has pegged its exchange rate?
answer
it would depreciate the country's exchange rate and break its hard peg
question
A __________________________ policy in which the government almost never acts to intervene in the exchange rate market will look a great deal like a floating exchange rate.
answer
soft peg exchange rate
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following statements is true?
answer
This expansionary monetary policy shift also includes the effect of exchange rates on exports and imports.
question
Short run speculation in currencies can create ________________________, at least for a time, where an expected appreciation leads to a stronger currency and vice versa.
answer
a self-fulfilling prophecy
question
If the Canadian dollar is strengthening, then:
answer
it has appreciated in terms of other currencies
question
Expansionary monetary policy lowers ______________, and increases demand for investment and consumer borrowing, which shifts aggregate demand to the ________________.
answer
interest rates; right
question
The _____________________________ is the largest market in the world economy.
answer
foreign exchange market
question
A depreciating U.S. dollar is ________________ because it is worth ___________ in terms of other currencies.
answer
weakening; less
question
A stronger British pound is beneficial for:
answer
exchange students with a British scholarship studying in Canada.
question
One of the following groups is not participating in the foreign exchange markets. Which one?
answer
an Iowa travel firm that arranges vacation tours for local seniors to Hawaii
question
n 2009, 1 U.S. dollar purchased 1400 Korean won and in 2013 it purchased 900 Korean won. How much did 1000 Korean won cost in U.S. dollars in 2009 and 2013?
answer
2009: .71 dollars, 2013: 1.11 dollars
question
If $1.00 U.S. bought $1.40 Canadian dollars in 2006 and in 2010 it bought $1.00 Canadian dollar, then;
answer
the Canadian dollar appreciated against the U.S. dollar.
question
The _____________ is an example of a large-scale common currency
answer
euro
question
In 2010, 1 Swiss franc cost .56 British pounds and in 2012 it cost .51 British pounds. How much would 1 British pound purchase in Swiss francs in 2010 and 2012?
answer
2010: 1.79 francs, 2012: 1.96 francs
question
If a government uses monetary policy to alter the exchange rate, then it cannot at the same time use monetary policy to address issues of
answer
inflation or recession
question
For firms engaged in international lending and borrowing, ____________________ can have an enormous effect on profits.
answer
swings in exchange rates
question
In 2010, 1 Canadian dollar cost .56 British pounds and in 2012 it cost .63 British pounds. How much would 1 British pound purchase in Canadian dollars in 2010 and 2012?
answer
In 2010, 1 Canadian dollar cost .56 British pounds and in 2012 it cost .63 British pounds. How much would 1 British pound purchase in Canadian dollars in 2010 and 2012?
question
In 2010, 1 Swiss franc cost .56 British pounds and in 2012 it cost .51 British pounds. How much would 1 British pound purchase in Swiss francs in 2010 and 2012?
answer
2010: 1.79 francs, 2012: 1.96 francs
question
Which of the following is no longer one of the most commonly traded currencies in foreign exchange markets?
answer
French franc
question
If a nation merges its currency with another nation to create a single currency, what must it give up?
answer
the ability to determine its own nationally-oriented monetary policy
question
Expansionary monetary policy lowers ______________, and increases demand for investment and consumer borrowing, which shifts aggregate demand to the ________________.
answer
interest rates; right
question
In 2010, 1 Canadian dollar cost .56 British pounds and in 2012 it cost .63 British pounds. How much would 1 British pound purchase in Canadian dollars in 2010 and 2012?
answer
2010: 1.79 dollars, 2012: 1.59 dollars
question
The most commonly traded currency in foreign exchange markets is the:
answer
U.S. dollar.
question
From a macroeconomic point of view, increases in ____________ are an addition to aggregate demand, while increases in ___________ are a subtraction from aggregate demand.
answer
exports; imports
question
Governments that attempt to intervene in exchange rate markets through soft pegs or hard pegs:
answer
risk causing even greater fluctuations in foreign exchange markets.
question
In 2010, $1.00 U.S. bought 8.24 Chinese yuan and in 2012 it bought 6.64 Chinese yuan. How many U.S. dollars could 1 Chinese yuan purchase in 2010 and 2012?
answer
2010: .12 U.S. dollars; 2012: .15 U.S. dollars
question
Movements in exchange rates can have a powerful effect on incentives to export and import, and thus on ________________ in the economy as a whole.
answer
aggregate demand
question
________________________ equalizes the prices of internationally traded goods across countries.
answer
Purchasing power parity
question
Which of the following is an example of a pegged currency?
answer
Chinese yuan
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following statements is true?
answer
This expansionary monetary policy shift also includes the effect of exchange rates on exports and imports.
question
If the U.S. government uses an expansionary monetary policy to reduce interest rates, then it will:
answer
cause the exchange rate for U.S. currency to depreciate.
question
Which of the following denotes a common misunderstanding about exchange rates?
answer
an appreciating currency must be better than a depreciating currency
question
The Canadian dollar will most likely strengthen against the U.S. dollar if:
answer
the Canadian inflation rate becomes extremely low
question
If the Canadian dollar is strengthening, then:
answer
it has appreciated in terms of other currencies.
question
A soft peg exchange rate may create additional _______________ as exchange rate markets try to anticipate when and how the government will intervene
answer
volatility
question
A soft peg policy typically allows the exchange rate to move up and down by relatively small amounts in _________________, but seeks to avoid extreme short-term fluctuations.
answer
the short run
question
A depreciating U.S. dollar is ________________ because it is worth ___________ in terms of other currencies.
answer
weakening; less
question
When a government uses a ______________ exchange rate policy, it usually allows the exchange rate to be set by the market.
answer
soft peg
question
If a government uses monetary policy to alter the exchange rate, then it cannot at the same time use monetary policy to address issues of ______________________.
answer
inflation or recession
question
If government policy allows a country's currency to be determined in the exchange rate market, then that currency will be subject to:
answer
a floating exchange rate.
question
If 1000 Mexican pesos could buy $1.00 U.S. dollar in 2006 and 87 U.S. dollars in 2010, then:
answer
the dollar strengthened against the peso.
question
In 2010, $1.00 U.S. bought 8.24 Chinese yuan and in 2012 it bought 6.64 Chinese yuan. How many U.S. dollars could 1 Chinese yuan purchase in 2010 and 2012?
answer
2010: .12 U.S. dollars; 2012: .15 U.S. dollars
question
Which of the following is an example of a pegged currency?
answer
Chinese yuan
question
In 2009, 1 U.S. dollar purchased 1400 Korean won and in 2013 it purchased 900 Korean won. How much did 1000 Korean won cost in U.S. dollars in 2009 and 2013?
answer
2009: .71 dollars, 2013: 1.11 dollars
question
Which of the following is no longer one of the most commonly traded currencies in foreign exchange markets?
answer
French franc
question
The Canadian dollar will most likely strengthen against the U.S. dollar if:
answer
the Canadian inflation rate becomes extremely low
question
A ______________________ monetary policy can be used to decrease aggregate demand because it _____________ exports and _________________ imports .
answer
tight; stimulates; reduces
question
One of the following groups is not participating in the foreign exchange markets. Which one?
answer
an Iowa travel firm that arranges vacation tours for local seniors to Hawaii
question
If a nation merges its currency with another nation to create a single currency, what must it give up?
answer
the ability to determine its own nationally-oriented monetary policy
question
If the U.S. government uses an expansionary monetary policy to reduce interest rates, then it will:
answer
cause the exchange rate for U.S. currency to depreciate.
question
The _____________ is an example of a large-scale common currency.
answer
euro
question
Referring to the diagram below, which of the following statements is true?
answer
This expansionary monetary policy shift also includes the effect of exchange rates on exports and imports.
question
If $1.00 U.S. bought $1.40 Canadian dollars in 2006 and in 2010 it bought $1.00 Canadian dollar, then;
answer
the Canadian dollar appreciated against the U.S. dollar.
question
In 2010, 1 Canadian dollar cost .56 British pounds and in 2012 it cost .63 British pounds. How much would 1 British pound purchase in Canadian dollars in 2010 and 2012?
answer
2010: 1.79 dollars, 2012: 1.59 dollars
question
If the U.S. dollar weakens, which of the following parties will benefit?
answer
U.S firms selling in Europe
question
If Australia's exchange rate is stronger than the PPP rate for several years, which of the following will likely result?
answer
its imports will increase
question
A central bank must be concerned about whether a large and unexpected ___________________________ will drive most of the country's existing banks into bankruptcy.
answer
exchange rate depreciation
question
Which of the following is a valid criticism of the use of money as a store of value in modern economies?
answer
annual inflationary loss of buying powe
question
The people in an economy have $10 million in money. There is only one bank that all the people deposit their money in and it holds 5% of the deposits as reserves. What is the money multiplier in this economy?
answer
20
question
Stealth bank holds deposits of $600 million. It holds reserves of $30 million and government bonds worth $80 million. The current market value of the bank's loans is $400 million. What is the value of the bank's total liabilities?
answer
$600 million
question
Which of the following is omitted in a barter transaction?
answer
money
question
________________ serves society in three functions: medium of exchange, unit of account, and store of value.
answer
Money
question
_____________ are a form of financial instrument through which corporations and governments borrow money from financial investors and promise to repay with interest.
answer
Bonds
question
In macroeconomics, _____________________________ describes a situation where a bank's liabilities can be withdrawn in the short-term while its assets are being repaid in the long-term.
answer
an asset-liability time mismatch
question
___________are funds that the bank keeps on hand that are not loaned out or invested in bonds.
answer
Reserves
question
The money multiplier is equal to the _______________ in the economy divided by the original _________________.
answer
total money; quantity of money
question
The process of banks making loans in financial capital markets is intimately tied to the:
answer
creation of money.
question
If Sarah uses her smart card to purchase movies over the internet, then the money to pay the retailer will come from:
answer
Sarah's M1 funds
question
Stealth bank holds deposits of $200 million. It holds reserves of $15 million. It has purchased government bonds worth $75 million. The current value of its loans, if sold at market value, is $130 million. What is the value of the Stealth bank's liabilities?
answer
$200 million
question
If Bill performs plumbing upgrades for Alice in exchange for her incorporating his business, then their _________________________ will be satisfied.
answer
double coincidence of wants
question
With respect to measuring the money supply, which of the following terms describes a checking account?
answer
demand deposits
question
_______________________ that require the depositor to commit to leaving their funds in the bank for a certain period of time, in exchange for a higher rate of interest are also called ________________.
answer
Certificates of deposit; time deposits
question
The market where loans are made to borrowers is called the:
answer
primary loan market.
question
In macroeconomics, a _______________ describes the common way in which market values are measured in an economy.
answer
unit of account
question
If mollusk shells were accepted as a method of payment in modern-day markets, what economic role would they play in the financial system?
answer
medium of exchange
question
Stealth bank has deposits of $700 million. It holds reserves of $20 million and has purchased government bonds worth $350 million. The bank's loans, if sold at current market value, would be worth $600 million. What does Stealth bank's net worth equal?
answer
$270 million
question
In an economy with _______________, money loses some buying power each year, but it remains money.
answer
inflation
question
___________are funds that the bank keeps on hand that are not loaned out or invested in bonds
answer
Reserves
question
The people in an economy have $10 million in money. There is only one bank that all the people deposit their money in and it holds 5% of the deposits as reserves. What is the money multiplier in this economy?
answer
20
question
_________________________ are included in the aggregate amount of MI money currently in circulation.
answer
Traveler's checks
question
In macroeconomics, ___________________________ describes a situation in which two people each want to exchange some good or service that the other can provide.
answer
a double coincidence of wants
question
Which of the following would function as a store of value, and also provide a medium of exchange, and unit of account?
answer
an estate
question
With respect to measuring the money supply, which of the following terms describes a checking account?
answer
demand deposits
question
Stealth bank has deposits of $600 million. It holds reserves of $30 million and government bonds worth $80 million. If the bank sells its loans at market value of $400 million, what will its total assets equal?
answer
$510 million
question
_______________________ that require the depositor to commit to leaving their funds in the bank for a certain period of time, in exchange for a higher rate of interest are also called ________________
answer
Certificates of deposit; time deposits
question
Which of the following is a valid criticism of the use of money as a store of value in modern economies?
answer
annual inflationary loss of buying power
question
_______________________ that require the depositor to commit to leaving their funds in the bank for a certain period of time, in exchange for a higher rate of interest are also called ________________.
answer
Certificates of deposit; time deposits
question
Which of the following is a valid criticism of the use of money as a store of value in modern economies?
answer
annual inflationary loss of buying power
question
________________ serves society in three functions: medium of exchange, unit of account, and store of value.
answer
Money
question
The market in which loans are bought and sold is called the:
answer
secondary loan market.
question
The people in an economy have $10 million in money. There is only one bank that all the people deposit their money in and it holds 10% of the deposits as reserves. What is the money multiplier in this economy?
answer
10
question
The money multiplier is equal to the _______________ in the economy divided by the original _________________.
answer
total money; quantity of money
question
Lance paid $175,000 for his house in 2003 and sold it for $325,000 in 2006. What function did the house serve during the time Lance owned it?
answer
store of value
question
__________________ pool the deposits of many investors together and invest them in a safe way like short-term government bonds.
answer
Money market funds
question
In modern economies, credit cards are a _________________ because of their wide acceptance as a method of payment for both goods and services.
answer
medium of exchange
question
If the central bank increases the amount of reserves banks are required to hold to 20%, then
answer
both the money multiplier and supply of money in the economy will decrease.
question
If loans become far less available, then sectors of the economy that ______________ like business investment, home construction, and car manufacturing can be dealt a crushing blow.
answer
depend on borrowed money
question
Why do banks use a T-account?
answer
the T-account separates assets on the left from liabilities on the right
question
Stealth bank has deposits of $700 million. It holds reserves of $20 million and has purchased government bonds worth $350 million. The banks loans, if sold at current market value, would be worth $600 million. What is the total value of Stealth bank's assets?
answer
$970 million
question
__________________ pool the deposits of many investors together and invest them in a safe way like short-term government bonds
answer
Money market funds
question
If Evelyn uses her debit card to buy an iPod, then the money to pay the retailer will come from:
answer
her M1 funds.
question
In macroeconomics, ___________________________ describes a situation in which two people each want to exchange some good or service that the other can provide.
answer
a double coincidence of wants
question
Which of the following is a valid criticism of the use of money as a store of value in modern economies?
answer
annual inflationary loss of buying power
question
The market where loans are made to borrowers is called the:
answer
primary loan market.
question
Stealth bank has deposits of $700 million. It holds reserves of $20 million and has purchased government bonds worth $350 million. The banks loans, if sold at current market value, would be worth $600 million. What is the total value of Stealth bank's assets?
answer
$970 million
question
If the central bank decreases the amount of reserves banks are required to hold from 20% to 10%, then:
answer
both the money multiplier and the supply of money in the economy will increase.
question
Banks typically come under financial stress because of:
answer
a widespread decline in the value of their assets
question
Which category of the money supply would you be contributing to if you invest in money market funds?
answer
M2
question
With respect to measuring the money supply, which of the following terms describes a checking account?
answer
demand deposits
question
The process of banks making loans in financial capital markets is intimately tied to the
answer
creation of money.
question
If the central bank increases the amount of reserves banks are required to hold to 20%, then:
answer
both the money multiplier and supply of money in the economy will decrease.
question
Antonio tries to limit his risk of overexposure to debt by using a ________________ to store a certain amount of value that he then uses to make purchases.
answer
smart card
question
If Sarah uses her smart card to purchase movies over the internet, then the money to pay the retailer will come from:
answer
Sarah's M1 funds.
question
Stealth bank has deposits of $300 million. It holds reserves of $20 million and has purchased government bonds worth $300 million. The bank's loans, if sold at current market value, would be worth $600 million. What does Stealth bank's net worth equal?
answer
$620 million
question
Which of the following would be classified in the M1 category of the money supply?
answer
demand deposits
question
The money multiplier is equal to the _______________ in the economy divided by the original _________________.
answer
total money; quantity of money
question
In macroeconomics, a _______________ describes the common way in which market values are measured in an economy.
answer
unit of account
question
Which of the following terms is considered to be a narrow definition of the money supply that includes, among other things, currency?
answer
M1
question
_______________________________ can set the stage for international financial investors first to send their funds to a country and cause an appreciation of its exchange rate and then to pull their funds out and cause a depreciation of the exchange rate and a financial crisis as well.
answer
trade balance
question
When a business firm makes an investment in physical capital, what is that investment subject to?
answer
the discipline of the market
question
If the government initiates an expansionary monetary policy at the same time that its budget deficit increases, then the interest rate will __________________.
answer
either increase or decrease
question
If a country's economic data shows that private savings equal $350 million, government spending equals $375 million, taxes equal $300, and the trade surplus equals $125 million, then what does investment equal?
answer
$150 million
question
If a government's budget deficits are increasing aggregate demand when the economy is already producing near potential GDP, causing a threat of an inflationary increase in price levels, then the central bank may react with:
answer
a contractionary monetary policy.
question
In most developed countries, the government plays a large role in society's investment in human capital through _________________________.
answer
the education system
question
An increase in government borrowing can:
answer
crowd out private investment in physical capital.
question
If an economy has a budget surplus of 1,500, private savings of 3,000, and investment of 5,000, what will the balance of trade in this economy equal?
answer
surplus of 500
question
If the quantity of financial capital supplied is equal to the quantity of financial capital demanded then, the national savings and investment identity is written as:
answer
S + (M - X) = I + (G - T)
question
When governments are borrowers in financial capital markets, which of the following is least likely to be a possible source of the funds from a macroeconomic point of view?
answer
central bank prints more money
question
A country's economic data indicates that there has been a substantial reduction in the financial capital available to private sector firms. Which of the following most likely had the greatest influence on this economy?
answer
especially large and sustained government borrowing
question
Which of the following is not a consequence of an increase in the government's budget deficit?
answer
exports increase while imports and all other variables are held constant
question
A ___________________________________ can lead to disruptive economic patterns and heavy strains on a country's banking and financial system.
answer
sustained pattern of large budget deficits
question
When government policy moves from a budget deficit to a budget surplus and the trade deficit remains constant:
answer
investment will increase if savings remain constant.
question
A government deficit has increased from 30 to 50. The country's trade deficit is 100 and private savings equal 65 and investment equal 90. If Ricardian neutrality holds true, after this change in the government's budget, private savings will equal:
answer
85
question
The U.S. economy has two main sources for financial capital; _______________________ and ____________________________.
answer
private savings from U.S. households and firms; inflows of foreign financial investment.
question
If an economy has a budget deficit of 600, private savings of 2,000, and investment of 800. What is the balance of trade in this economy?
answer
surplus of 600
question
A ____________________________ is one economic mechanism by which government borrowing can crowd out private investment.
answer
higher interest rate
question
Which of the following is least likely to be the result of economic disruptive patterns caused by a prolonged period of government budget deficits?
answer
increasing exchange rates
question
In the U.S. economy, the offsetting effects of private saving compared to government borrowing are typically noted as being represented by which of the following ratios?
answer
much less than one-to-one
question
:If the U.S. government's budget deficits are increasing aggregate demand, and the economy is producing at a level that is substantially less than potential GDP, then:
answer
the central bank might react with an expansionary monetary policy.
question
When a government records a budget surplus, the national savings and investment identity is written as:
answer
S + (M - X) + (T - G) = I
question
If a government experiences an increase in its budget surplus, which of the following possible outcomes will likely result?
answer
private savings decrease while everything else holds constant
question
If a country's economic data shows private savings of $500 million, government spending of $300 million, tax revenue of $400 million, and a trade surplus of $100 million, then what does investment equal?
answer
$500 million
question
A prolonged period of budget deficits may lead to ___________________.
answer
lower economic growth
question
If the government initiates an expansionary monetary policy at the same time that its budget deficit decreases, then the interest rate will ______________________.
answer
decrease
question
An additional investment in human capital, especially for the low-income nations of the world, will likely directly increase which of the following?
answer
productivity and economic growth
question
Ricardian equivalence means that:
answer
changes in private savings offset any changes in the government deficit.
question
Suppose you are analyzing data for an economy in which Ricardian neutrality holds true. If the budget surplus increases by 100, then:
answer
private savings will decrease by 100.
question
An increase in the government's budget surplus will cause the interest rate to:
answer
decrease.
question
When government policy moves from a budget surplus to a budget deficit and the trade deficit remains constant:
answer
investment will decrease if savings also remains constant.
question
A government will likely ____________________________ to encourage investment in technology R;D by private firms?
answer
implement fiscal policy establishing tax incentives
question
From a macroeconomic point of view, which of the following is a source of demand for financial capital?
answer
government borrowing
question
A reduction in government borrowing can:
answer
give private investment an opportunity to expand.
question
Because of the difference between the discipline imposed by market competition and the discipline imposed by political decisions, which of the following is most likely?
answer
difficulty managing public investment so it's done in a cost effective way
question
A moderate increase in a budget deficit that leads to a _____________________ is not necessarily a cause for concern.
answer
moderate increase in a trade deficit and a moderate appreciation of the exchange rate
question
A decrease in the government's budget surplus will cause the interest rate to:
answer
increase
question
In a market-oriented economy, private firms will undertake most of the _____________________________, and ________________ should seek to avoid a long series of large budget deficits that might crowd out such investment.
answer
investment in physical capital; fiscal policy
question
In the national savings and investment identity framework, an inflow of savings from abroad is, by definition, equal to:
answer
the trade deficit.
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