KIN 1600 Midterm - Flashcards

question

In a recent survey by the National College Health Association, what was the greatest impediment to academic performance as reported by students? A) stress B) sleep difficulties C) anxiety D) work

answer

stress

question

What was the name of the model of health in which health status focused primarily on the individual and his or her tissues and organs? A) the ecological model B) the public health model C) the medical model D) the disease model

answer

medical model

question

The dimensions of health include which of the following? A) physical health, intellectual health, and economic health B) physical health, environmental health, and psychic health C) physical health, emotional health, and empathetic health D) physical health, intellectual health, and social health

answer

physical health, intellectual health and social health

question

Richard, John, George, and Paul all want to lose weight. Richard figures he can lose weight by exercising more. John has decided to eat less during meals and snacks. George has decided to join a walking group that meets every Wednesday and Sunday. Paul thinks he might just sleep in every morning and skip breakfast. Which of these four has set a true SMART goal for losing weight? A) Richard B) John C) George D) Paul

answer

George

question

The medical model would most likely focus on which of the following? A) controlling air and water pollution B) lifestyle interventions to prevent chronic diseases C) treating bacterial infections with antibiotics D) serving marginalized populations

answer

treating bacterial infections with antibotics

question

According to one report, nearly ________ of medical spending in the United States is due to obesity. A) 54 percent B) 43 percent C) 32 percent D) 21 percent

answer

21 percent

question

Which of the following best describes emotional health? A) the ability to be self-sufficient B) the ability to problem solve C) the ability to express or control feelings D) the ability to adapt to various social situations

answer

the ability to express or control feelings

question

Rashid is planning to volunteer to help pick up trash in his neighborhood. Which dimension of his health is he improving? A) mental health B) social health C) environmental health D) spiritual health

answer

environmental health

question

Emily has many friends, is respected by her co-workers, and maintains a great relationship with her boyfriend. Her ability to interact with others exemplifies which dimension of health? A) social B) intellectual C) emotional D) physical

answer

social

question

Jerome eats healthy foods, exercises, gets eight hours of sleep a night, and rarely gets ill. Jerome's ability to ward off illness is related to which dimension of health? A) social B) intellectual C) emotional D) physical

answer

physical

question

Which of the following are two of the four leading causes of chronic disease in the United States? A) lack of physical activity and excessive eating B) lack of physical activity and excessive consumption of alcohol C) excessive consumption of alcohol and excessive exercise D) tobacco use and excessive use of supplements

answer

lack of physical activity and excessive consumption of alcohol

question

Allison's right leg was amputated after a car accident. Allison may attain optimal level of well-being by doing all of the following except A) working to maintain emotional health. B) aiming to experience peace and contentment. C) enjoying interpersonal relationships. D) avoiding vigorous exercise.

answer

avoiding vigorous exercise

question

Examples of chronic disease include all of the following except A) heart disease. B) cancer. C) influenza. D) diabetes.

answer

influenza

question

According to Healthy People 2020, the measures of health-related quality of life and well- being include which of the following? A) physical and mental factors, but not social factors B) physical, mental, and social factors C) physical and social factors, but not mental factors D) social and mental factors, but not physical factors

answer

physical, mental, and social factors

question

The biological determinants of health include genetics, ethnicity, age, and A) behavior. B) gender. C) temperament. D) nutrition.

answer

gender

question

Determinants responsible for most of the illness related to chronic diseases include all of the following except A) accidents. B) physical inactivity. C) poor nutrition. D) tobacco use.

answer

accidents

question

All of the following factors can give rise to health disparities except A) sexual orientation. B) inadequate health insurance. C) race and ethnicity. D) access to social media.

answer

access to social media

question

Over which set of factors influencing health status do people have the most control? A) biology B) genetics C) individual behaviors D) social factors

answer

individual behavior

question

Which of the following is one of the stages in Prochaska and DiClemente's transtheoretical model of behavior change? A) inner cognition B) contemplation C) rejection D) replacement

answer

comtemplation

question

In which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change are relapses to previous behaviors most likely to occur? A) precontemplation B) preparation C) maintenance D) termination

answer

maintenance

question

According to the social cognitive model for behavior change, three factors interact in a reciprocal fashion to promote and motivate change. Which of the following is not one of those three factors? A) social environment B) cognition C) behavior D) contemplation

answer

contemplation

question

Robert has been smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for 45 years. Of his friends who also smoke, several have developed heart disease and lung problems. Robert's grandson, Bobby, has just taken up smoking. According to the health belief model (HBM) of behavior change, who is more likely to perceive tobacco as a threat to their health? A) Robert B) Bobby C) both Robert and Bobby, equally D) neither Robert nor Bobby, equally

answer

Robert

question

When you are contemplating changes to improve your health behaviors, which of the following are important strategies to employ? A) Skip doing research because it will only leave you confused. B) Cultivate an external locus of control. C) Focus exclusively on your target behavior. D) Examine your health habits and patterns, and identify a target behavior.

answer

examine your health habits and patterns, and identify a target behavior

question

People with an ________ locus of control feel that they have power over their own actions. They are more likely to state their opinions and to be true to their beliefs. A) ancillary B) external C) internal D) exaggerated

answer

internal

question

If your parents smoke, you're more likely to start smoking than a child of nonsmokers. This kind of determinant of a health behavior is called a(n) ________ factor. A) predisposing B) enabling C) reinforcing D) emotional

answer

predisposing

question

If your peers smoke, you're more likely to smoke. This kind of determinant of a health behavior is called a(n) ________ factor. A) predisposing B) enabling C) reinforcing D) emotional

answer

enabling

question

David has decided to reduce the amount of television he watches on Monday nights from three hours to two. Which aspect of the SMART system is David using? A) specific B) measurable C) action-oriented D) realistic

answer

measurable

question

Hallie needs to improve her study habits if she wants to get her degree in physics. She has thought long and hard about what she might do and has even come up with a specific plan of action. Which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change is this? A) contemplation B) preparation C) action D) maintenance

answer

preparation

question

Barbara wants to quit using smokeless tobacco and has been working hard to make this change a permanent part of her life. At the same time, she is aware of the potential for relapses, so she has developed strategies for dealing with them. Which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change is this? A) preparation B) action C) maintenance D) termination

answer

maintenance

question

Jon has always wanted to volunteer at his local zoo, but he's always squandered his free time doing unproductive things. After some serious thought and preparation, he's ready to begin to follow his action plan. Which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change is this? A) precontemplation B) contemplation C) preparation D) action

answer

action

question

Georgette tried to quit drinking once but gave up after only a few days; now she assures her friends that it's really not a problem. Which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change is this? A) precontemplation B) contemplation C) preparation D) action

answer

precontemplation

question

Eloise has been working vigilantly to increase her amount of physical exercise. She's now reached the point where it has become an essential part of her daily living. Which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change is this? A) preparation B) action C) maintenance D) termination

answer

termination

question

Pierre recognizes that his weight has become a problem and so he has begun to think about the need to change his eating and exercise habits. Which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavior change is this? A) precontemplation B) contemplation C) preparation D) action

answer

contemplation

question

When enlisting others as change agents, which of the following groups are probably best to choose? A) family members and professionals, but not friends B) friends and professionals, but not family members C) family members, friends, and professionals D) family members and friends, but not professionals

answer

family members, friends, and professionals

question

All of the following are obstacles to change that you can expect to face when you are preparing to change a behavior except A) self-defeating beliefs and attitudes. B) setting realistic goals. C) lack of support and guidance. D) failing to accurately assess your current state of wellness.

answer

setting realistic goals

question

Deanna, who enjoys running as a means of relieving stress and staying fit, has decided that she wants to run a five-kilometer race at the end of the semester. She doesn't know the first thing about training for a race, though, so she asks her roommate, a member of the track team, for advice. Her roommate invites Deanna to join the team on the track to see what a serious practice is like. Learning specific behaviors by watching others perform them is called A) shaping. B) motivation. C) situational inducement. D) modeling.

answer

modeling

question

Like many sophomores, Miguel initially struggled with organic chemistry when he tried to learn everything on his own. On the advice of a friend, he joined a study group that met three days a week to work on homework problems and study for exams together. It took a lot of effort, but Miguel never missed a study group, and all the hard work paid off when he got an A- in the class. To reward himself, Miguel went to a concert after the semester was over. This is an example of A) internal locus of control. B) external locus of control. C) positive reinforcement. D) self-efficacy.

answer

positive reinforcement

question

When it had been six weeks since Daniel's last cigarette, he rewarded himself with a new phone. Each of us is motivated by different positive reinforcers. Which of the following categories does Daniel's fall into? A) consumable reinforcers B) activity reinforcers C) manipulative reinforcers D) possessional reinforcers

answer

possessional reinforcers

question

Reneé isn't always comfortable in groups of people. She wants to change, though, so she volunteers in the office of a community organization that she greatly respects. The other people in the office really like Reneé and think she does terrific work. In fact, they go out of their way to express their appreciation and approval by praising her on a regular basis. What kind of positive reinforcer is Reneé experiencing? A) social reinforcer B) activity reinforcer C) manipulative reinforcer D) consumable reinforcer

answer

social reinforcer

question

Siegfried has many close friends and relatives. It seems like he's always going to somebody's wedding, christening, bar mitzvah, or quinceañera. Siegfried enjoys seeing his friends and relatives at these parties, but he tends to overindulge in the desserts that are available. There's a birthday party coming up for his cousin, so Siegfried has been trying to visualize some of the things he can do instead of gorging on sweets. What kind of strategy is he employing to change his behavior? A) countering B) imagined rehearsal C) shaping D) situational inducement

answer

imagined rehersal

question

Katerina is in the action stage of behavioral change. Which of the following strategies is recommended for her when she faces obstacles to her desired change? A) setting reasonable goals B) using shaping C) assessing her motivation and readiness D) changing her self-talk

answer

changing her self-talk

question

Which of the following best describes a person exhibiting self-efficacy? A) Sarah has been working hard in the pool and is confident that she can set a personal record in the 100-meter butterfly. B) Serena has been working hard in the pool, too, but she's worried that the illnesses she experienced early in the season will prevent her from setting a personal record in the 100- meter backstroke. C) Susan is positive that the personal record she set last season in the 100-meter breaststroke was a fluke, so she stands no chance of setting one this season, no matter how hard she works at practice. D) Suzanne works hard at practice, but she believes her ability to set a personal record in the 100-meter freestyle is out of her hands.

answer

Sarah has been working hard in the pool and is confident that she can set a personal record in the 100-meter butterfly.

question

Bob, Carol, Ted, and Alice were all aged 15-24 when they died. Bob was killed by a drunk driver, Carol died of cancer, Ted had heart disease, and Alice committed suicide. Of the four, which ones died from among the top four leading causes of death in the United States in 2010 for their age group? A) Bob, Carol, and Ted B) Carol, Ted, and Alice C) Bob, Carol, and Alice D) Bob, Ted, and Alice

answer

bob carol and alice

question

Jessica is sexually active. Her roommate, who works at the student health center, reminds Jessica of the potential health risks of having unprotected sex. According to the health belief model (HBM), which factor to support a belief has Jessica's roommate used? A) shaping B) cues to action C) consequences D) scare tactics

answer

cues to action

question

Shaping points for behavior change include A) keeping the steps of a program difficult and achievable. B) sticking firmly to a plan even if it proves uncomfortable. C) mastering one step before moving on to the next step. D) starting quickly.

answer

mastering one step before moving on to the next step

question

When setting realistic goals, which of the following would you ask yourself to gain insights into your behaviors? A) What is wrong with me? B) Why am I a failure? C) What do I want? D) What does everyone else do?

answer

what do i want?

question

If your mother developed diabetes in her forties, which determinant of health was probably responsible? A) biology and genetics B) health services C) social factors D) policymaking

answer

biology and genetics

question

Which of the following determinants of health causes people in lower socioeconomic brackets to have substantially shorter life expectancies and more illnesses? A) biology and genetics B) individual behavior C) social factors D) policymaking

answer

social factors

question

By quitting smoking in his fifties, which determinant of health is Minoosh's father demonstrating? A) biology and genetics B) individual behavior C) social factors D) policymaking

answer

individual behavior

question

In your first job after graduating, you don't work enough hours to qualify for group health insurance but your low income makes you eligible for a subsidy on an individual policy under the terms of the Affordable Care Act (ACA). Which determinant of health is this? A) individual behavior B) policymaking C) health disparities D) health services

answer

policymaking

question

By mandating that all passengers in your car must wear seatbelts, your state is demonstrating the ________ factor in the determinants of health. A) individual behavior B) health services C) health disparities D) policymaking

answer

policymaking

question

Which of the following best defines psychological health? A) the sum of how we think, feel, relate, and exist in our day-to-day lives B) the way we think about our day-to-day lives only C) the way we feel and relate in our day-to-day lives only D) the way we relate and exist in our day-to-day lives only

answer

the sum of how we think, feel, relate, and exist in our day-to-day lives

question

Maslow's hierarchy of needs includes all of the following except A) survival needs. B) security needs. C) emotional needs. D) social needs.

answer

emotional needs

question

Which of the following is not a basic element shared by psychologically healthy people? A) They feel good about themselves. B) They control tension and anxiety. C) They appreciate and respect nature. D) They curb guilt and empathy.

answer

the curb guilt and empathy

question

The four dimensions of psychological health are A) mental, physical, social, and environmental. B) mental, emotional, social, and spiritual. C) mental, emotional, physical, and environmental. D) mental, physical, environmental, and spiritual.

answer

mental, emotional, social and spiritual

question

Common descriptions of strong social support include all of the following except A) being cared for and loved. B) being esteemed and valued. C) having a sense of solitude. D) having access to guidance from others.

answer

having a sense of solitude

question

The intellectual ability to learn and use information effectively and strive for continued growth is often referred to as intellectual health, a subset of A) social health. B) emotional health. C) spiritual health. D) mental health.

answer

mental health

question

Emotions such as anxiety and joy can be described as the interplay of all of the following components except A) heredity. B) physiological arousal. C) feelings. D) cognitive (thought) processes.

answer

heredity

question

Which of the following is not an example of spiritual health? A) organized religion B) love of nature C) love of material possessions D) sense of connection to others

answer

love of material possessions

question

Sharon has been bouncing ideas off friends as she tries to decide whether she should major in chemistry or chemical engineering. Which of the multiple environmental factors that influence psychological health is Sharon utilizing? A) community B) support systems C) peer pressure D) family

answer

peer pressure

question

Martin Seligman's principle of learned ________ helps to counteract learned helplessness and foster more overall positive development through improved mental health practices. A) helpfulness B) pessimism C) optimism D) mindfulness

answer

optimism

question

Which of the following is not considered one of the five main personality traits? A) agreeableness B) introversion C) conscientiousness D) neuroticism

answer

introversion

question

Of the five main personality traits, extroversion is best described by which of the following? A) the ability to demonstrate curiosity, independence, and imagination B) the ability to be trusting and likable and to demonstrate friendly compliance and love C) the ability to demonstrate self-control and discipline D) the ability to adapt well to social situations and demonstrate assertiveness

answer

the ability to adapt well to social situations and demonstrate assertiveness

question

________ refers to one's sense of self-respect or self-worth, which is the result of the relationships formed throughout life with family, friends, peers, and significant others. A) Resiliency B) Self-esteem C) Self-centeredness D) Self-efficacy

answer

self esteem

question

Emotional intelligence is the ability to A) identify, use, understand, and manage one's emotions in positive ways. B) balance intellectual and emotional life in positive ways C) recognize how other people feel. D) influence how other people feel

answer

identify, use, understand, and manage one's emotions in positive ways

question

How the brain and behavior affect the body's immune system is the study of A) neuroimmunology (NI). B) psychoimmunology (PI). C)neuropsychoimmunology (NPI). D)psychoneuroimmunology (PNI).

answer

psychoneuroimmunology (PNI).

question

After a failed marriage, loss of a job, a chronic illness, and bankruptcy, Adrian has given up and no longer takes action to help himself, a pattern known as A) negative expressiveness. B) depressive helplessness. C) learned helplessness. D) hopeless pattern behavior.

answer

learned helplessness

question

Subjective well-being is defined by three components. Which of the following is not one of them? A) satisfaction with your present life B) the relative presence of positive emotions C) the relative absence of negative emotions D) an overall feeling of importance relative to others

answer

an overall feeling of importance relative to others

question

Martin Seligman lists five elements of well-being that help humans flourish. All of the following are included except A) positive emotion. B) relationships. C) engagement. D) success.

answer

success

question

Which of the following is not a recommended strategy that you can use to support and improve your psychological health? A) Develop a support system. B) Form realistic expectations. C) Try to get perfect grades or land the perfect job. D) Examine problems and seek help when necessary.

answer

try to get perfect grades or land the perfect job

question

Which of the following students is least likely to have subjective well-being? A) Joe's father works in the coal mines and his mom stays at home raising his three little sisters. Joe, a sophomore, lives at home and does odd jobs around town to help make ends meet. Joe is proud to be the first in his family to attend college. B) Jim's father is a partner in a prestigious law firm and his mother stays at home raising his three little sisters. Jim, a sophomore, lives in a nice off-campus apartment because those geeky freshmen in the residence halls really get on his nerves. C) John, the team's starting quarterback, is facing the toughest team in the conference but is excited because he is sure his team will play a great game. D) Jacob was the team's starting quarterback last year and is really disappointed about being moved to a back-up position. He still goes to every practice and game, giving his best effort, and is really excited about how well the team is doing this year.

answer

Jim's father is a partner in a prestigious law firm and his mother stays at home raising his three little sisters. Jim, a sophomore, lives in a nice off-campus apartment because those geeky freshmen in the residence halls really get on his nerves.

question

According to Professor Brian Luke Seaward, the core of human spirituality consists of which of the following three elements? A) relationships, values, and purpose in life B) relationships, values, and religion C) religion, relationships, and attaining inner harmony D) values, attaining inner harmony, and seeking beauty in life

answer

relationships, values, and purpose in life

question

Spirituality may or may not lead to participation in organized religion. Which of the following best defines religion? A) the combination of relationships, values, and purpose in life B) an individual's principles-the set of fundamental rules by which he or she conducts his or her life C) an individual's sense of purpose and meaning in life, beyond material values D) a system of beliefs, practices, rituals, and symbols designed to facilitate closeness to the sacred or transcendent

answer

a system of beliefs, practices, rituals, and symbols designed to facilitate closeness to the sacred or transcendent

question

According to the National Cancer Institute (NCI), spiritual or religious well-being may help restore a sick person's health and improve his or her quality of life by A) diverting attention from the symptoms of the illness. B) increasing feelings of hope and optimism. C) focusing attention on the disease. D) raising blood pressure.

answer

increasing feelings of hope and optimism

question

All of the following are strategies for cultivating spiritual health. Which would you categorize as "reaching out to others"? A) expanding your mind through psychological counseling B) practicing meditation C) volunteering to coach a youth soccer team D) practicing yoga

answer

volunteering to coach a youth soccer team

question

Based on the most recent National College Health Assessment survey, which of the following is the greatest mental health issue of American college students? A) felt overwhelmed by all they needed to do B) intentionally injured themselves C) felt things were hopeless D) seriously considered suicide

answer

felt overwhelmed by all they needed to do

question

Which of the following is probably not a risk factor for mental illness? A) childhood abuse or neglect B) surviving a life-threatening illness C) having biological relatives with mental illness D) experiencing combat

answer

surviving a life-threatening illness

question

Anxiety disorders affect more than ________ of all adults in the United States ages 18 to 64. A) 41 percent B) 31 percent C) 21 percent D) 11 percent

answer

21 percent

question

The symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) include A) the desire to relive and change the event outcome. B) retelling traumatic event details. C) intrusive recollections of the traumatic event, such as nightmares. D) a complete loss of memory about the event.

answer

intrusive recollections of traumatic event, such as nightmares

question

The students in Katherine's dorm are all pretty serious about their studies, but they're also very social, so they have parties several times every semester. Katherine has always avoided these parties for fear of being humiliated. Which of the following anxiety disorders does she suffer from? A) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) B) social phobia C) generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) D) panic attacks

answer

social phobia

question

Richard is afraid of spiders. Which of the following anxiety disorders does he suffer from? A) generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) B) panic attacks C) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) D) phobia

answer

phobia

question

When he was 11, David was sexually abused by someone in authority at his church. Ten years later, he still has nightmares about it. Which of the following anxiety disorders does he suffer from? A) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) B) social phobia C) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) D) panic attacks

answer

post traumatic stress disorder

question

For as long as she can remember, Althea has felt as if her hands were never clean enough. As a result, she washes them constantly throughout each day. Which of the following anxiety disorders does she suffer from? A) generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) B) social phobia C) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) D) panic attacks

answer

obsessive compulsive disorder OCD

question

Which of the following are chronic mood disorders? A) major depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and learned helplessness B) bipolar disorder, seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and major depression C) dysthymic disorder, bipolar disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) D) social phobia, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), and panic attacks

answer

bipolar disorder, seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and major depression

question

Growing up in Seattle, WA, where the winter days are relatively short and generally overcast, Elisabeth noticed that she was often irritable and sad and that she tended to sleep a lot. Now that she is attending college in San Diego, CA, where the winter days are longer and generally sunny, her symptoms have mostly resolved. Based on this limited information, which mood disorder does she likely suffer from? A) major depression B) bipolar disorder C) generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) D) seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

answer

seasonal affective disorder SAD

question

Mood disorders are caused by the interaction of many factors, which may include all of the following except A) inherited traits. B) hormones. C) trauma. D) viruses.

answer

viruses

question

Rasheed has an exaggerated sense of self-importance and self-absorption. Those who know him find him overly needy and demanding. Which of the following psychological disorders does Rasheed most likely suffer from? A) paranoid personality disorder B) borderline personality disorder (BPD) C) narcissistic personality disorder D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

answer

narcissistic personality disorder

question

Malik has met Maurice on just two occasions. In the first, he and some friends got a ride home from Maurice, who proceeded to run multiple stop signs and pass other cars at high speeds, barely avoiding oncoming traffic. In the second, he accidentally surprised Maurice in the bathroom, where he noticed that Maurice had been using a knife to cut himself. If Maurice suffers from a personality disorder, which of the following is most likely? A) borderline personality disorder (BPD) B) narcissistic personality disorder C) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) D) paranoid personality disorder

answer

borderline personality disorder (BPD)

question

Typical symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following except A) coherent speech. B) hallucinations. C) erratic movement. D) delusional behavior.

answer

coherent speech

question

Which of the following statements about suicide is true? A) Nearly four times as many women die by suicide than men. B) Suicide is the leading cause of death on college campuses. C) Women are almost twice as likely as men to use firearms. D) Men are almost three times as likely as women to use poisoning.

answer

Suicide is the leading cause of death on college campuses.

question

Which of the following is not a risk factor for suicide? A) suicide by a close friend or family member B) excessive substance use or abuse C) loss of a loved one D) multiple minor illnesses

answer

multiple minor illnesses

question

Which of the following actions is not recommended to prevent suicide? A) Take all threats seriously; don't just brush them off. B) Use the "tough love" approach when empathy is ineffective. C) Ask directly, "Are you thinking about hurting or killing yourself?" Let them know you care. D) Help think about alternatives; offer to go for help along with the person.

answer

Use the "tough love" approach when empathy is ineffective.

question

Approximately what percent of Americans has some kind of mental disorder? A) 10 percent B) 15 percent C) 20 percent D) 25 percent

answer

20 percent

question

If you think you have a psychological problem and need treatment, you should first see a health professional for an evaluation that would include all of the following except A) a drug test. B) a physical examination. C) a psychiatric history. D) a mental status examination.

answer

a drug test

question

Roberta is afraid of being in enclosed spaces. This is an example of which of the following anxiety disorders? A) social anxiety disorder B) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) C) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) D) phobic disorder

answer

phobic disorder

question

Beth has flashbacks to the evening a drunk driver crashed into her car. This is an example of which of the following anxiety disorders? A) generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) B) social anxiety disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) D) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

answer

PTSD

question

Denise has an unnatural concern about order and exactness. This is an example of which of the following anxiety disorders? A) phobic disorder B) social anxiety disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) D) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

answer

OCD

question

Christian has been irritable, feeling on edge, and easily fatigued for more days than not during a six-month period. This is an example of which of the following anxiety disorders? A) generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) B) social anxiety disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) D) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

answer

GAD

question

Arturo avoids playing intramural sports because he is afraid of embarrassing himself. This is an example of which of the following anxiety disorders? A) generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) B) social anxiety disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) D) post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

answer

social anxiety disorder

question

A prolonged state of physiological stress is known as A) eustress. B) chronic stress. C) traumatic stress. D) acute stress.

answer

chronic stress

question

A school examination that presents a mental or physical challenge is an example of a A) stress. B) stressor. C) strain. D) strainer.

answer

stressor

question

What percentage of college students reported experiencing "tremendous stress" over the past 12 months? A) around 10 percent B) around 15 percent C) around 20 percent D) around 25 percent

answer

around 10 percent

question

Derek's football team is playing the number one team in their division. Derek's team has to win this game to qualify for the regional championship. He is stressed because of this all- important game. The kind of stress Derek is experiencing is called A) chronic stress. B) traumatic stress. C) episodic acute stress. D) acute stress.

answer

acute stress

question

An example of an event most likely to be associated with eustress is A) bouncing several checks. B) getting sick right before finals week. C) getting the highest score on a difficult exam. D) forgetting to do an assignment.

answer

getting the highest score on a difficult exam.

question

Which of the following events is most likely to cause distress? A) getting married B) getting a promotion at work C) getting a new puppy D) losing your home to foreclosure

answer

losing your home to foreclosure

question

Which of the following is not a stage in the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)? A) exhaustion B) relaxation C) alarm D) resistance

answer

relaxation

question

When stress levels are low, the body is often in a state of A) distress. B) eustress. C) homeostasis. D) adaptive response.

answer

homeostasis

question

The function of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is to A) restore homeostatic balance. B) cause stress. C) increase the body's awareness of the stress response. D) change the body's response to stress.

answer

restore homeostatic balance.

question

The term describing what happens to our bodies when we perceive danger is called A) homeostasis. B) fight-or-flight response. C) adaptation response. D) the resistance phase.

answer

fight or flight response

question

The autonomic nervous system (ANS) has two branches: A) sympathetic and metasympathetic. B) sympathetic and orthosympathetic. C) sympathetic and parasympathetic. D) metasympathetic and parasympathetic.

answer

sympathetic and parasympathetic.

question

The control center of the sympathetic nervous system is the A) pituitary gland. B) hypothalamus. C) liver. D) adrenal gland.

answer

hypothalamus.

question

Dirk has been doing some undergraduate research in Professor Anderson's chemistry lab. While riding his bike home late one evening recently, a raccoon suddenly jumped into his path from behind some garbage cans. Which of the following hormones was probably the first one released into Dirk's system as he successfully swerved to avoid the careless critter? A) estrogen B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) C) cortisol D) epinephrine

answer

epinephrine

question

Wendy has been doing some undergraduate research in Professor Thomas's biology lab. While riding her bike home late one evening recently, she was startled by a careless driver who ran a stop sign just as she was proceeding through the intersection. One of the hormones released into her system was cortisol. Which of the following is true regarding the function of cortisol during the stress response? A) It increases the heart rate. B) It decreases the appetite. C) It mobilizes nutrients to be used for energy. D) It relieves pain.

answer

C) It mobilizes nutrients to be used for energy.

question

The final exam in Teri's anthropology class involved an oral presentation to her professor followed by an extensive question-and-answer period. It was very stressful. The prolonged effort to adapt to the stress led to an exhaustive wear and tear on her body. This is called A) allostatic load. B) allosteric load. C) allopathic load. D) allotrophic load.

answer

A) allostatic load.

question

Which of the following would be a likely physical symptom of stress? A) excess saliva in the mouth B) regular heartbeat C) clear skin D) migraine

answer

migraine

question

Which of the following is not a health consequence associated with chronic stress? A) hair loss B) strengthened immune system C) cardiovascular disease D) weight gain

answer

strengthened immune system

question

Stress-related weight gain may be facilitated by which of the following hormones? A) testosterone B) epinephrine C) estrogen D) cortisol

answer

cortisol

question

In the past year, what proportion of those ages 18-33 reported that their stress levels kept them awake at night? A) about one-fifth B) about one-fourth C) about one-third D) about half

answer

about half

question

After you realize the strange noise you heard late at night was your cat and not a burglar, the system stimulated by the stress response will be slowed down by the ________ nervous system. A) central B) voluntary C) sympathetic D) parasympathetic

answer

parasympathetic

question

After a heavy course load, maintaining an unfulfilling but demanding part-time job, and continuous roommate conflicts, Jennifer became so mentally and physically drained that she ended up in the hospital. What phase of the general adaptation syndrome is this? A) alarm B) resistance C) reaction D) exhaustion

answer

exhaustion

question

Which of the following are common physical symptoms of stress? A) skin blemishes and warm hands B) dry mouth and steady hands C) tension headaches and gassiness D) hyperventilation and warm hands

answer

tension headaches and gassiness

question

Which of the following statements is true regarding long-term stress and its physiological effects? A) Long-term stress causes 80 percent of all deaths in the United States. B) Long-term stress may cause low back pain, diabetes, and cancer. C) Long-term stress increases the size of the hippocampus. D) Long-term stress only has psychological effects.

answer

Long-term stress may cause low back pain, diabetes, and cancer.

question

Which physical effect of stress may be related to release of the stress hormone corticoptropin-releasing factor (CRF)? A) alcohol dependence B) weight gain C) hair loss D) diabetes

answer

alcohol dependence

question

Robbie, who is 24, sometimes has headaches that produce a stabbing pain on one side of his head or behind his eyes. What type of headache is this? A) chronic tension B) tension-type C) migraine D) cluster

answer

cluster

question

Which of the following statements is probably true about tension-type headaches? A) Exercise makes most tension headaches worse. B) Over-the-counter medications may relieve these headaches. C) Stress is never a trigger for these kinds of headaches. D) They are usually preceded by a warning sign called an aura.

answer

Over-the-counter medications may relieve these headaches.

question

Which of the following strategies will probably hinder your ability to get a good night's sleep? A) Go to bed and get up at the same time each day. B) Drink large amounts of liquid before bed. C) Don't watch television in bed. D) Don't nap in the late afternoon or evening.

answer

Drink large amounts of liquid before bed.

question

Oscar and Emily have been staying up late and getting up early to finish a project for their architecture class. By working these kinds of long hours, they are contributing to which of the following? A) their oxygen deficits B) their energy reserves C) their sleep debts D) their fatigue balance

answer

their sleep debts

question

According to the Stress in America 2013 survey, the issue or event that caused stress for the most Americans was A) money. B) health problems. C) housing costs. D) relationships.

answer

money

question

Stress created by a dependence on technology and the constant state of connection is referred to as A) technodistress. B) technoeustress. C) technostressors. D) technostress.

answer

technostress.

question

Little stressors, frustrations, and petty annoyances are known collectively as A) overload. B) technostress. C) hassles. D) background distressors.

answer

hassles

question

Michael never seems to be off his phone. He's either taking calls, making calls, sending or receiving text messages and e-mails, or looking up something on the Web. Which of the following is a way for Michael to reduce technostress? A) He needs to update his electronic devices. B) He needs to minimize face-to-face interactions with family and friends. C) He needs to respond to every call, text, or e-mail immediately. D) He needs to turn off his electronic devices when he is out with other people.

answer

He needs to turn off his electronic devices when he is out with other people.

question

Gretchen is a full-time student and the president of her sorority. She also has a job to help pay for school, in addition to taking care of her aging parents. Gretchen's situation would best be described as A) hassles. B) anxiety. C) overload. D) conflict.

answer

overload

question

Which of the following is not a psychosocial cause of stress? A) sleep debt B) academic and financial pressure C) adjustments to change D) bias and discrimination

answer

sleep debt

question

Darlene runs cross-country in the fall and track in the spring. She carries a full load of classes in electrical engineering, and she volunteers two days a week at the local Humane Society. Darlene, a senior, has been enduring this unrelenting overload for almost four years now and it has led to a state of physical and mental exhaustion known as A) flameout. B) burnout. C) stress inoculation. D) acute stress.

answer

burnout

question

How you feel about yourself is known as A) self-efficacy. B) self-consciousness. C) self-hatred. D) self-esteem.

answer

self esteem

question

Your belief or confidence in your skills and ability to perform is known as A) self-efficacy. B) self-consciousness. C) self-hatred. D) self-esteem.

answer

self efficacy

question

Which of the following is generally a characteristic of Type A personalities? A) They are easygoing. B) They are time-driven perfectionists. C) They tend to trust others. D) They are noncompetitive.

answer

they are time driven perfectionists

question

Which of the following is generally a characteristic of type C personalities? A) They are generally optimistic and hopeful. B) They tend to acknowledge their feelings. C) They are stoic and tend to conform to others' wishes. D) They tend to be assertive.

answer

They are stoic and tend to conform to others' wishes.

question

Beauford is described by his friends as relaxed, noncompetitive, and tolerant. He's a nice guy. Without knowing anything more about him, how would you categorize his personality? A) type A B) type B C) type C D) type D

answer

type b

question

Dominick's close friends, if he had any, would describe him as irritable, gloomy, and socially inhibited. He tends to worry excessively about negative things. Without knowing anything more about him, how would you categorize his personality? A) type A B) type B C) type C D) type D

answer

type d

question

Dean and Dale are identical twins, but their personalities are decidedly different. Dean is an optimist (the glass is half full, maybe even more), whereas Dale is a pessimist (the glass is half empty, if it's got anything in it at all). Dean has been reading his textbook, though, and he's convinced that changing Dale's patterns of thinking will help reduce the amount of stress in Dale's life and that he might then enjoy life more. Which of the following strategies should Dean not suggest to Dale? A) Reframe distressing events from a positive perspective. B) Criticize others' mistakes so that they will change their ways. C) Focus on the things that are going right, rather than on what might go wrong. D) Learn to accept that change is a natural part of living and growing.

answer

Criticize others' mistakes so that they will change their ways.

question

According to Hans Selye, the internal fight to restore homeostasis in the face of a stressor is known as the A) general autonomic system (GAS). B) general aptitude syndrome (GAS). C) general adaptation to stress (GAS). D) general adaptation syndrome (GAS).

answer

general adaptation syndrome (GAS)

question

Brad regularly gets headaches. Although lack of sleep is one of his triggers, the main trigger is the stress that comes with his job. Which of the following is the best advice you could offer Brad? A) You must learn how to work through the stress. B) Stay busy and try to ignore the headaches. C) Manage your stress by learning how to meditate. D) Drink more water.

answer

Manage your stress by learning how to meditate

question

Moe is studying stress management techniques. He should probably know, then, that interrupting negative self-talk and replacing it with positive thoughts is a process called cognitive A) restructuring. B) resurfacing. C) replacement. D) reinforcement.

answer

restructuring

question

Sam is looking for a physical approach to stress management. Which of the following is probably not the best advice to give Sam? A) Decrease your daily consumption of caffeine. B) Get adequate sleep at night. C) Get 30-45 minutes of exercise every day. D) Incorporate more saturated fat in your diet.

answer

Incorporate more saturated fat in your diet.

question

Peter is worried about an upcoming class presentation because he typically gets very nervous speaking in public. What would be the best way for Peter to use the technique of stress inoculation to ease his anxiety? A) He should try not to think about the presentation. B) He should get plenty of rest and exercise the day before. C) He should go out and have fun with friends to relax the night before. D) He should practice his presentation in front of friends or a video camera.

answer

D) He should practice his presentation in front of friends or a video camera.

question

Tara is learning how to manage her emotional responses to stress. Which of the following is most likely to help her? A) showing her anger more often B) venting about her problems to close friendsv C) raising her expectations for the behavior of others D) criticizing those who annoy her by pointing out their faults

answer

venting about her problems to close friends

question

Karl is a night person, so he's studying for his economics final by working at night, when he's at his best. What are other strategies for effective time management? A) multitasking B) prioritizing tasks C) working hard and not taking breaks D) finding a busy, public place to work

answer

prioritizing tasks

question

Robin has a full class schedule and he plays on the varsity badminton team. Despite all of his commitments, his undergraduate research advisor is pressuring him to take on yet another project. Which of the following time-management strategies would best for Robin to use in this case? A) Explain that he's too busy and can't take on even one more project right now. B) Give in to his advisor's request because it may help him get a good recommendation later on. C) Say that he wants to think about it, even though he plans to say no eventually. D) Agree to take on the project but not do it and give excuses later.

answer

Explain that he's too busy and can't take on even one more project right now.

question

What portion of college students report that their finances have been very difficult to handle during the past year? A) over one-fifth B) over one-quarter C) over one-third D) over half

answer

over one third

question

After many years in the rat race of modern life, Ginger and Mary Ann have decided to downshift to life on a tropical island. Which of the following is something they should consider before downshifting? A) Accept that planning is pointless and figure things out as they go along. B) Budget for health insurance and basic preventive health services. C) Use their credit cards to provide the money they'll need to have a good time. D) Get jobs to pay their bills, whether or not the work is interesting or enjoyable.

answer

Budget for health insurance and basic preventive health services.

question

Stephanie and Charles have decided to try to manage their stress using relaxation techniques. Which of the following is not one of those techniques? A) yoga B) biofeedback C) hypnosis D) hyperventilating

answer

D) hyperventilating

question

Which of the following are characteristics that define intimate relationships? A) behavioral interdependence and need fulfillment B) behavioral interdependence and emotional detachment C) need fulfillment and emotional vulnerability D) emotional detachment and emotional vulnerability

answer

behavioral interdependence and need fulfillment

question

We initially learn about feelings, problem solving, love, intimacy, and gender roles from our family of origin. Which of the following best describes family of origin? A) your biological parents B) your grandparents C) those in your household during your first years D) those in your household after you marry

answer

those in your household during your first years

question

According to Sternberg's triangular theory of love, the three elements that form different types of love are A) intimacy, compassion, and commitment. B) intimacy, passion, and commitment. C) compassion, exclusiveness, and commitment. D) fascination, exclusiveness, and sexual desire.

answer

intimacy, passion, and commitment.

question

Lynn and Carrie share adjacent cubicles at work. They both started work on the same day and, after six months on the job, they have become romantic partners. Without knowing anything more about them or their relationship, which of the following most likely influenced their choice of partners? A) chemical processes B) proximity C) competitiveness D) availability

answer

promximity

question

Dawn and Darrel are in love. They seem to have a healthy relationship, too, in part because they both feel certain about their partner's intentions and behavior. What element of trust does this exemplify? A) predictability B) dependability C) jealousy D) faith

answer

faith

question

Tomas has always been very self-critical, so he never expected to be in any relationship with someone as terrific as Wendy, much less a long-term relationship. Tomas feels very jealous when Wendy spends too much time with other people, especially men. Which of the following is most likely the cause of Tomas' jealousy? A) fear of losing control B) overdependence C) low self-esteem D) HIGH value on sexual exclusivity

answer

low self esteem

question

Dwayne gave up his ambition to own his own restaurant when he married and started having children. He and his wife, Brenda, both decided that they needed the income that comes with a much more steady and reliable job. Dwayne, however, has started to resent the choice he feels he was forced to make and it's beginning to hurt his relationship with Brenda. Which of the following obstacles is threatening Dwayne and Brenda's relationship? A) unmet expectations B) jealousy C) changing gender roles D) sharing power

answer

unmet expectations

question

Sharing personal information with others is called A) self-discussion. B) self-indulgence. C) self-sacrifice. D) self-disclosure.

answer

self disclosure

question

If Rob and Laura communicate in ways that are typical of their genders, then which of the following is most likely true? A) Rob is less likely to interrupt than Laura is. B) Laura uses more forceful gestures, whereas Rob is gentler when touching others. C) Rob is more inclined to be analytical, whereas Laura is more emotional. D) Laura tends to take rejection less personally than Rob does.

answer

Rob is more inclined to be analytical, whereas Laura is more emotional.

question

If George and Millie communicate in ways that are typical of their genders, then which of the following is most likely true? A) George tends to take up less space, whereas Millie tends to occupy more space. B) Millie maintains better eye contact, whereas George often avoids eye contact. C) George makes more tentative statements, whereas Millie makes more direct statements. D) Millie gossips less, whereas George gossips more.

answer

Millie maintains better eye contact, whereas George often avoids eye contact.

question

Doug and Marie were driving down Interstate 5 when a car driven by a man (who happened to be talking on the phone at the time) swerved in front of them, cutting them off. Doug and Marie were okay, but rather shaken up. Marie said a few choice things about the other driver's mother, while Doug shook his fist at him. As nonverbal communication goes, what Doug did would be considered which of the following? A) tone of voice B) facial expressions C) touch D) gestures

answer

gestures

question

Which of the following is a potential drawback of using social media to establish or maintain a relationship? A) It cannot bring people closer together. B) It can be used to hurt or embarrass people. C) It unavoidably reveals too much private information. D) It is only useful if the people involved live in different cities.

answer

It can be used to hurt or embarrass people.

question

Some conflict is inevitable, and not all conflict is bad, because A) conflict is a normal and unavoidable part of life. B) airing feelings and resolving differences can strengthen relationships. C) it's good to know if your partner is argumentative. D) it's important to emphasize differences in a relationship.

answer

airing feelings and resolving differences can strengthen relationships.

question

What percentage of Americans list love as the most important reason to marry? A) 58 percent B) 68 percent C) 78 percent D) 88 percent

answer

88 percent

question

Paul and Christine have agreed that each may be sexually involved with others outside their relationship. Paul and Christine believe in A) monogamy. B) selective monogamy. C) open relationships. D) serial monogamy.

answer

open relationships

question

A relationship in which two unmarried people with an intimate connection live together is called A) serial monogamy. B) self-disclosure. C) cohabitation. D) a "rebound" relationship.

answer

cohabitation

question

Kathy has just broken up with Justin after almost two years together. Which of the following tips is most likely to help Kathy cope with her failed relationship? A) She should move on and try to ignore any feelings of sadness or anger. B) She should enter into a new relationship as quickly as possible. C) She should spend time on her own and avoid talking to her friends about the breakup. D) She should let go of negative thought patterns and engage in activities she enjoys.

answer

She should let go of negative thought patterns and engage in activities she enjoys.

question

You can protect your privacy online and minimize damaging consequences from the misuse of social media by A) tightening your privacy settings and untagging yourself in photos and videos. B) being completely open in what you post about yourself and others online. C) posting comments on social networking sites anonymously to keep your identity secret. D) protecting your passwords so that no potential employer can find you online.

answer

tightening your privacy settings and untagging yourself in photos and videos.

question

Which of the following statements about genetics is true? A) All eggs (ova) carry a Y chromosome. B) The male gonads (reproductive organs) are the ovaries. C) The primary male sex hormone is testosterone. D) The XY combination of chromosomes produces a female.

answer

The primary male sex hormone is testosterone.

question

Sometimes chromosomes are added, lost, or rearranged at conception, and the sex of the offspring is unclear, resulting in a condition known as A) androgyny. B) intersex. C) sexual identity. D) gender identity.

answer

intersex

question

The sense or awareness we have of being male or female is called A) androgyny. B) intersex. C) sexual identity. D) gender identity.

answer

gender identity

question

Robert is emotionally, romantically, and sexually attracted to both sexes. Without knowing anything more about him, what is Robert's likely sexual orientation? A) homosexual B) heterosexual C) bisexual D) transsexual

answer

bisexual

question

What percentage of eggs that a woman will ever have are present in her ovaries at birth? A) 25 percent B) 50 percent C) 75 percent D) 100 percent

answer

100 percent

question

The onset of a woman's first menstrual period is called A) menopause. B) ovulation. C) corpus luteum. D) menarche.

answer

menarche

question

The average menstrual cycle consists of what phases? A) proliferative, secretory, and menstrual B) prohibitive, secretory, and menstrual C) proliferative, secondary, and menarche D) prohibitive, secondary, and menstrual

answer

proliferative, secretory, and menstrual

question

About once a month, usually 7 to 14 days before her menstrual period, Agnes experiences tender breasts, fatigue, irritability, and depression. Without knowing anything more about Agnes's condition, which of the following is your best diagnosis? A) toxic shock syndrome (TSS) B) menopause C) premenstrual syndrome (PMS) D) dysmenorrhea

answer

premenstrual syndrome

question

The permanent cessation of menstruation is called A) menopause. B) ovulation. C) corpus luteum. D) menarche.

answer

menopause

question

Julie experiences pain in her lower abdomen just before menstruation. Sometimes she experiences nausea, sweating, and dizziness, too. What is the medical term for her condition? A) dystopia B) dysmenorrhea C) dyspepsia D) dysplasia

answer

dysmenorrhea

question

What is the purpose of the scrotum? A) It manufactures sperm and testosterone. B) It provides the sperm with nutrients and other fluids that compose semen. C) It secretes a fluid that lubricates the urethra and neutralizes any acid that may remain in the urethra after urination. D) It protects the testes and helps control their internal temperature.

answer

It protects the testes and helps control their internal temperature.

question

30) What is the purpose of the Cowper's glands? A) They manufacture sperm and testosterone. B) They provide the sperm with nutrients and other fluids that compose semen. C) They secrete a fluid that lubricates the urethra and neutralizes any acid that may remain in the urethra after urination. D) They protect the testes and help control their internal temperature.

answer

They secrete a fluid that lubricates the urethra and neutralizes any acid that may remain in the urethra after urination.

question

What is the purpose of the seminal vesicles? A) They manufacture sperm and testosterone. B) They provide the sperm with nutrients and other fluids that compose semen. C) They secrete a fluid that lubricates the urethra and neutralizes any acid that may remain in the urethra after urination. D) They protect the testes and help control their internal temperature.

answer

They provide the sperm with nutrients and other fluids that compose semen.

question

Oral stimulation of a woman's genitals is called A) fellatio. B) coitus. C) variant sexual behavior. D) cunnilingus.

answer

cunnilingus

question

Which of the following is generally not considered to be variant sexual behavior? A) anal intercourse B) exhibitionism C) fetishism D) autoerotic asphyxiation

answer

anal intercourse

question

Which of the following is not a stage in the human sexual response? A) arousal B) plateau C) resolution D) vasocongestion

answer

vasocongestion

question

Which of the following best describes what happens during the resolution phase of the human sexual response? A) The vagina begins to lubricate and the penis becomes partially erect. B) The woman's nipples and the man's penis become erect. C) Muscle tension and congested blood subside as the genitals return to prearousal states. D) Vasocongestion and muscle tension reach their peak, and rhythmic contractions occur through the genitals.

answer

Muscle tension and congested blood subside as the genitals return to prearousal states.

question

Betsy and Trey are having intercourse. Betsy's nipples have just become erect and contractions within Trey's prostate gland have begun propelling semen through his urethra. Which stage or stages of the human sexual response are Betsy and Trey probably in? A) excitement/arousal for both Betsy and Trey B) plateau for Betsy; orgasm for Trey C) orgasm for Betsy; plateau for Trey D) resolution for both Betsy and Trey

answer

plateau for Betsy; orgasm for Trey

question

For the time being, Todd is abstaining from sexual activities with others. Which of the following best describes what Todd is doing? A) variant sexual behavior B) masturbation C) fellatio D) celibacy

answer

celibacy

question

What percentage of men experience erectile dysfunction (ED) at some time in their lives? A) 25 percent B) 50 percent C) 75 percent D) 100 percent

answer

100 percent

question

Which of the following best describes the sexual dysfunction disorder in which a woman is unable to achieve orgasm? A) vaginismus B) dyspareunia C) female orgasmic disorder D) sexual performance anxiety

answer

female orgasmic disorder

question

What percentage of college men who drank alcohol in the last year reported having unprotected sex as a consequence of their drinking? A) 8 percent B) 18 percent C) 28 percent D) 38 percent

answer

18 percent

question

Which of the following is not a potential "date rape" drug? A) Rohypnol B) gamma hydroxybutyrate (GBH) C) methamphetamine D) ketamine

answer

methamphetamine

question

Denise has involuntary contraction of her vaginal muscles, making penile insertion painful or impossible. Which of the following best describes Denise's sexual dysfunction disorder? A) vaginismus B) dyspareunia C) female orgasmic disorder D) sexual performance anxiety

answer

vaginismus

question

Lovers are often preoccupied by the other and want to think about, talk to, or be with the other. This is known as A) fascination. B) being an advocate. C) sexual desire. D) giving the utmost.

answer

fascination

question

Lovers actively champion each other's interests and attempt to ensure that the other succeeds. This is known as A) exclusiveness. B) sexual desire. C) giving the utmost. D) being an advocate.

answer

being an advocate

question

Lovers desire physical intimacy and want to touch, hold, and engage in sexual activities with the other. The term that this describes is A) fascination. B) exclusiveness. C) sexual desire. D) giving the utmost.

answer

sexual desire

question

When a love relationship often takes priority over all others, the partners are experiencing A) fascination. B) exclusiveness. C) sexual desire. D) giving the utmost.

answer

exclusiveness

question

Which of the following is the term for when lovers care enough to do what it takes to help when the other is in need? A) fascination B) being an advocate C) sexual desire D) giving the utmost

answer

giving the utmost

question

When asked if she wanted a soda, Toni gave an enthusiastic thumbs-up. Which of the following forms of nonverbal communication does this demonstrate? A) touch B) gestures C) interpersonal space D) facial expressions

answer

gestures

question

It was too noisy to overhear their conversation, but Jenny noticed Forrest frown, smile, and grimace when he talked to Dan. Which of the following forms of nonverbal communication does this demonstrate? A) touch B) gestures C) interpersonal space D) facial expressions

answer

facial expressions

question

After Julie spiked the ball for a point, everyone on her volleyball team gave her a high- five. Which of the following forms of nonverbal communication does this demonstrate? A) touch B) gestures C) interpersonal space D) facial expressions

answer

touch

question

Reynaldo stands really close when he talks to you. Which of the following forms of nonverbal communication does this demonstrate? A) tone of voice B) facial expressions C) interpersonal space D) gestures

answer

interpersonal space

question

While she was being cross-examined by the district attorney, Lisé (the defendant) alternately folded her arms and crossed and uncrossed her legs. Which of the following forms of nonverbal communication does this demonstrate? A) interpersonal space B) facial expressions C) body language D) touch

answer

body language

question

When Professor Taylor lectures his class, his voice is high-pitched and really loud, and he speaks faster than you might think is humanly possible. Which of the following forms of nonverbal communication does this demonstrate? A) interpersonal space B) facial expressions C) body language D) tone of voice

answer

tone of voice

question

Someone with whom we can share our feelings freely provides us with which of the following need fulfillment characteristics of intimate relationships? A) nurturance B) social integration C) affirmation D) intimacy

answer

intimacy

question

Someone with whom we can share worries and concerns provides us with which of the following need fulfillment characteristics of intimate relationships? A) assistance B) nurturance C) intimacy D) social integration

answer

social integration

question

Someone we can take care of and who will take care of us provides us with which of the following need fulfillment characteristics of intimate relationships? A) affirmation B) intimacy C) nurturance D) social integration

answer

nurturance

question

Someone to help us in times of need provides us with which of the following need fulfillment characteristics of intimate relationships? A) social integration B) nurturance C) intimacy D) assistance

answer

assistance

question

Someone who will reassure us of our own worth and tell us that we matter provides us with which of the following need fulfillment characteristics of intimate relationships? A) affirmation B) intimacy C) nurturance D) social integration

answer

affirmation

question

What percentage of college students report having used contraception the last time they had sexual intercourse? A) 74 percent of women and 69 percent of men B) 64 percent of women and 59 percent of men C) 54 percent of women and 49 percent of men D) 44 percent of women and 39 percent of men

answer

54% of women and 49% of men

question

Typical use effectiveness of male condoms in preventing pregnancy is around A) 92 percent. B) 82 percent. C) 72 percent. D) 62 percent.

answer

82%

question

Which condom, male or female, can prevent the spread of STIs that can be transmitted by external genital contact? A) the male condom only B) the female condom only C) both the male and female condoms D) neither the male nor the female condoms

answer

female condom only

question

Used consistently and correctly, female condoms can be up to ________ effective in preventing pregnancy. A) 98 percent B) 95 percent C) 88 percent D) 85 percent

answer

95 percent

question

Jennie and Forrest have decided they want to use the contraceptive sponge to prevent pregnancy when they have sexual intercourse together. Which of the following is one advantage of this barrier method? A) It is convenient to use; it requires no doctor's fitting. B) Additional spermicide must be applied for each subsequent act of intercourse. C) If offers comprehensive protection from all STIs and HIV. D) Allergic reactions, such as vaginal irritation, are less common with the sponge than with other barrier methods.

answer

It is convenient to use; it requires no doctor's fitting.

question

Which of the following is one disadvantage of using a diaphragm? A) It can decrease sensation, especially for the male partner. B) It is generally more effective for women who have given birth before. C) If used correctly, it is only 57 percent effective in preventing pregnancy. D) It may slip out of place, especially if it is inserted incorrectly.

answer

It may slip out of place, especially if it is inserted incorrectly.

question

Which of the barrier methods of contraception, if used consistently and correctly, can be 94 percent in preventing pregnancy? A) the sponge B) the diaphragm C) spermicides D) the cervical cap

answer

the diaphragm

question

Which of the following barrier methods of contraception must be left in place for 6-8 hours after intercourse? A) the male condom B) the female condom C) spermicides D) the cervical cap

answer

the cervical cap

question

Which of the following barrier methods of contraception may require refitting after the woman gives birth? A) the female condom B) the sponge C) the diaphragm D) spermicides

answer

the diaphragm

question

Your friend Sarah is 37 years old and sexually active. She knows that you have been taking this class, so she asks you to recommend a form of hormonal contraception that would work well for her. Without knowing anything more about Sarah's situation, which of the following is your best advice? A) Combination pills are the best choice. B) Progestin-only pills are a better choice for women over 35. C) Combination pills and progestin-only pills are equally good choices. D) Neither combination pills nor progestin-only pills are good choices.

answer

Progestin-only pills are a better choice for women over 35.

question

Most oral contraceptives work through the combined effects of A) synthetic estrogen and testosterone. B) progesterone and androsterone. C) synthetic estrogen and progesterone. D) androsterone and testosterone.

answer

syntheitc estrogen and progesterone

question

Which of the following is a contraceptive skin patch that is 99.7 percent effective at preventing pregnancy with perfect use? A) Ortho Evra B) NuvaRing C) Depo-Provera D) Nexplanon

answer

Ortho Evra

question

Which of the following is a hormonal method of contraception that is a soft plastic capsule inserted just beneath the skin on the inner side of a woman's upper underarm and which releases a low, steady dose of progestin for up to three years? A) Ortho Evra B) NuvaRing C) Depo-Provera D) Nexplanon

answer

Nexplanon

question

Which of the following is an advantage of the NuvaRing vaginal contraceptive ring? A) It protects against STIs. B) It must be fitted by a clinician. C) It can be used with a diaphragm. D) It protects against pregnancy for one month.

answer

it protects against pregnancy for one month

question

Assuming perfect use, which of the following hormonal contraceptive methods is most effective at preventing pregnancy? A) NuvaRing (a vaginal contraceptive ring) B) Nexplanon (a contraceptive implant) C) Depo-Provera (a contraceptive injection) D) Ortho Evra (a contraceptive patch)

answer

Nexplanon (a contraceptive implant)

question

Which of the following is a disadvantage of an intrauterine device (IUD)? A) It cannot be used by breastfeeding women. B) Side effects may include acne, breast tenderness, and uterine cramps. C) After removal, it usually takes up to six months to return to fertility. D) Upon initial insertion, it usually takes up to one week to work, so an alternative method of contraception is needed during that time.

answer

Side effects may include acne, breast tenderness, and uterine cramps.

question

Which of the following is true about the three IUDs discussed in the text: ParaGard, Mirena, and Skyla? A) Mirena and Skyla release small amounts of progestin, whereas ParaGard does not. B) Skyla is effective for ten years, whereas Mirena and ParaGard are not. C) Mirena helps prevent STIs, whereas ParaGard and Skyla do not. D) ParaGard can be used by breastfeeding women, whereas Mirena and Skyla cannot.

answer

Mirena and Skyla release small amounts of progestin, whereas ParaGard does not

question

Emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) prevent pregnancy by all of the following means except A) aborting the fetus. B) inhibiting fertilization. C) delaying or inhibiting ovulation. D) blocking implantation of a fertilized egg.

answer

aborting the fetus

question

The only method of avoiding pregnancy that is 100 percent effective is A) withdrawal. B) fertility awareness. C) the female condom. D) abstinence.

answer

abstinence

question

Jed and Eloise have decided that their relationship should become sexual, but they want to avoid pregnancy right now. Their survey of different birth control methods included fertility awareness methods (FAMs). Jed was surprised to learn that sperm can live for how long in the vagina? A) 5 minutes B) 5 hours C) 5 days D) 5 weeks

answer

5 days

question

Which of the following is not a fertility awareness method of birth control? A) the cervical mucus method B) the scientific method C) the body temperature method D) the calendar method

answer

the scientific method

question

The main advantage of tubal ligation is that it is highly effective and permanent. What is one of its main disadvantages? A) Ovarian and uterine function can be adversely affected. B) It requires an extended hospital stay. C) It can adversely affect the woman's sex drive. D) It offers no protection against STIs.

answer

it offers no protection against STIs

question

During their survey of different birth control methods (including surgical methods), Barbara and Evan learned that vasectomies are highly effective and permanent, but they are not immediately effective. Barbara was surprised to learn that couples must use alternative birth control for at least how long after the operation? A) 1 day B) 1 week C) 1 month D) 1 year

answer

1 month

question

The landmark U.S. Supreme Court decision that made it legal for a woman to terminate her pregnancy during the first trimester without legal restrictions was A) Roe v. Wayne. B) Roe v. Wade. C) Row v. Wade. D) Row v. Wayne.

answer

roe v wade

question

Which of the following is a form of medical abortion? A) Mifepristone/Mifeprex/RU-486 B) hysterotomy C) intact dilation and extraction (D&X) D) suction curettage

answer

Mifepristone/Mifeprex/RU-486

question

An embryo becomes a fetus A) during the second trimester of pregnancy. B) during the third trimester of pregnancy. C) when all organ systems are in place. D) upon conception.

answer

when all organ systems are in place.

question

The purpose of the placenta is to A) help the mother's pelvic bones widen and become more flexible for childbirth. B) ready the mother's body for breastfeeding once her baby is born. C) increase the mother's total blood volume. D) carry nutrients and oxygen to the fetus.

answer

carry nutrients and oxygen to the fetus

question

Most miscarriages occur during which trimester of pregnancy? A) first B) second C) third D) the first and second equally

answer

first

question

Which of the following are symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)? A) unusually low birth weight B) mental retardation and small head size C) unusually high birth weight D) spina bifida

answer

mental retardation and small head size

question

Women who smoke during pregnancy A) have babies who have developmental disabilities and small heads. B) have a greater chance of premature births. C) can cause their babies to be blind or have hearing disorders. D) are more likely to have babies with spina bifida.

answer

have a greater chance of premature births.

question

Amniocentesis is a common prenatal test recommended for women over age A) 28. B) 30. C) 33. D) 35.

answer

35

question

Which of the following is a prenatal test often recommended for couples at high risk of having a baby with Down syndrome or a debilitating hereditary disease? A) triple marker screen (TMS) B) ultrasonography C) chorionic villus sampling (CVS) D) toxoplasmosis

answer

chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

question

Which of the following best describes an ectopic pregnancy? A) the death of a fetus after the twentieth week of pregnancy but before delivery B) the removal of the baby via an incision across the mother's abdomen and through her uterus C) a condition characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine D) the implantation of a fertilized egg in the fallopian tube or pelvic cavity

answer

the implantation of a fertilized egg in the fallopian tube or pelvic cavity

question

Which of the following is a known risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? A) placing infants to sleep on their stomachs B) placing infants to sleep on their backs C) placing infants on firm bedding D) leaving infants uncovered

answer

placing infants to sleep on their stomach

question

What percentage of infertility cases are due to a cause involving only the male partner? A) 20 percent B) 30 percent C) 40 percent D) 50 percent

answer

20 percent

question

The most commonly used method of first-trimester abortion involves dilating the cervix, inserting a tube into the uterus through the cervix, and then using gentle suction to remove fetal tissue from the uterine walls. What is the name of this procedure? A) hysterotomy B) dilation and evacuation (D&E) C) suction curettage D) intact dilation and extraction (D&X)

answer

suction curettage

question

Hannah, who is sexually active, missed her last period. When she took a home pregnancy test, it came back positive. A positive test is based on the secretion of what compound found in Hannah's urine? A) human growth hormone (HGH) B) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) C) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GRH) D) corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

answer

human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

question

From the mid-1960s to 2012, the rate of cesarean section deliveries in the United States A) increased from 5 percent to 33 percent. B) decreased from 32 percent to 25 percent. C) decreased from 32 percent to 5 percent. D) increased from 5 percent to 15 percent.

answer

increased from 5 percent to 33 percent.

question

What is the name of the yellow fluid secreted by a new mother's breasts, before her milk begins to flow? (It contains vital antibodies that can help the newborn fight infection.) A) colostygia B) colostomy C) colostethus D) colostrum

answer

colostrum

question

The most common type of assisted reproductive technology involves combining eggs and sperm in a laboratory dish to fertilize, and then the fertilized eggs are transferred to the uterus. What is the name of this technique? A) embryo transfer B) in vivo fertilization C) in vitro fertilization D) nonsurgical embryo transfer

answer

in vitro fertilization

question

Toxoplasmosis is caused by organisms found in which of the following items? A) pressure treated soil B) undercooked meat C) cat feces D) mold

answer

cat feces

question

he death of a fetus after the twentieth week of pregnancy but before delivery is known as A) sudden fetal death syndrome. B) stillbirth. C) fatal infant syndrome. D) miscarriage.

answer

stillbirth

question

Which of the following is also referred to as spontaneous abortion? A) sudden fetal death syndrome B) stillbirth C) fatal infant syndrome D) miscarriage

answer

miscarriage

question

The birth-defect-causing effects of drugs, environmental chemicals, and diseases are known as A) teratogenic effects. B) toxoplasmosis. C) fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). D) negative environment effects.

answer

teratogenic effects.

question

Ellen is in the third trimester of her pregnancy and is wondering what kind of exercise program she can follow. What helpful and accurate information could you give her? A) Avoid all exercise at this point. B) Do any exercise that feels comfortable. C) Don't do any exercise that involves lying on your back. D) Avoid all vigorous exercise except skiing or horseback riding.

answer

Don't do any exercise that involves lying on your back.

question

What percentage of Americans report using illicit drugs in the past month? A) 0.9 percent B) 9 percent C) 19 percent D) 29 percent

answer

9 percent

question

Which of the following would be considered a substance addiction? A) sex B) eating C) shopping D) alcoholism

answer

alcoholism

question

Which of the following would be considered a process addiction? A) gambling B) drug abuse C) smoking D) alcoholism

answer

gambling

question

Dean plays various war games on his computer all the time, even when he has other things (e.g., work and studying) that need to be done. When Dean is unable to perceive his behavior as self-destructive, which symptom of addiction is Dean demonstrating? A) denial B) loss of control C) negative consequences D) inability to abstain

answer

denial

question

What is the average amount of debt that a compulsive shopper owes? A) $250 B) $2,500 C) $25,000 D) $250,000

answer

25,000

question

Which of the following is a warning sign of exercise addiction? A) exercising every day B) trying to lose weight through exercise C) working out beyond the point of pain D) making regular arrangements to exercise with others

answer

working out beyond the point of pain

question

Which of the following is considered an over-the-counter drug? A) St. John's wort B) Chanel No. 5 (perfume) C) Prozac (fluoxetine) D) Tylenol (acetaminophen)

answer

tylenol

question

Which of the following is considered a recreational drug? A) mint tea B) aspirin C) beer D) heroin

answer

beer

question

At one time, the antihistamine Claritin (loratadine) required a prescription. It no longer does, so it is now a(n) A) recreational drug. B) over-the-counter drug. C) illicit drug. D) commercial preparation.

answer

over the counter drug

question

On a recent evening, Bob took his normal prescription medications and had two glasses of red wine. The interaction of one of the drugs with the alcohol multiplied the effects of the drug to the point that Bob began to lose consciousness. Fortunately, his partner, Zach, acted quickly and got Bob to the emergency room in time. The kind of drug interaction Bob experienced is called A) synergism. B) antagonism. C) inhibition. D) cross-tolerance.

answer

synergism

question

Which of the following is an over-the-counter drug that is subject to misuse and abuse? A) paint B) white wine C) diet pills D) marijuana

answer

diet pills

question

Garry, Harry, Chaz, and Zane all attend the same college. Garry's parents are alcoholics, Harry plays on the varsity water polo team, Chaz belongs to a fraternity, and Zane has been diagnosed with depression. Without knowing anything more about these four friends, which is least likely to use illicit drugs? A) Garry B) Harry C) Chaz D) Zane

answer

harry

question

In 2013, how many American college students reported using one or more prescription drugs illegally? A) about 5 percent B) about 20 percent C) about 15 percent D) about 12 percent

answer

about 12 percent

question

Which of the following is the most popular and widely consumed drug in the United States? A) aspirin B) alcohol C) tobacco D) caffeine

answer

caffeine

question

Mickey has been abusing a particular stimulant for a long time. The effects he has experienced include severe weight loss, cardiovascular damage, extensive tooth decay and tooth loss, paranoia, and psychotic behavior. Which of the following stimulants has Mickey most likely been abusing? A) cocaine alkaloid (freebase) B) crack cocaine C) methamphetamine D) caffeine

answer

methamphetamine

question

Kasey has been abusing a particular stimulant for a long time. The effects she has experienced include wakefulness, insomnia, irregular heartbeat, dizziness, nausea, and indigestion. Which of the following stimulants has Kasey most likely been abusing? A) cocaine alkaloid (freebase) B) crack cocaine C) methamphetamine D) caffeine

answer

caffeine

question

What percentage of Americans over the age of 12 have tried marijuana at least once? A) 22 percent B) 32 percent C) 42 percent D) 52 percent

answer

42 percent

question

Which of the following statements about marijuana is true? A) Marijuana increases a driver's ability to react and make quick decisions. B) Marijuana users are more likely to suffer from depression than nonusers. C) The psychoactive substance in marijuana is trihydrocannabinol. D) Inhaling marijuana smoke increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

answer

Marijuana users are more likely to suffer from depression than nonusers.

question

John knew his mother was dying from the cancer that was taking over her body, but he didn't realize just how close to death she was until the hospice worker said, "Now is not the time to hold back on the morphine." Which of the following is the most likely reason John's mother was prescribed morphine? A) Morphine depresses neuromuscular activity, so it relieves pain. B) Morphine stimulates neuromuscular activity, so it relieves pain. C) Morphine can make a patient feel better via a placebo effect. D) Morphine is known to have anti-cancer properties.

answer

Morphine depresses neuromuscular activity, so it relieves pain.

question

For heroin addicts, which of the following is the most common way of administering the drug? A) snorting the powder B) transdermally C) mainlining the powder mixed in a solution D) inhaling the vapors obtained by heating the powder

answer

mainlining the powder mixed in a solution

question

Ronald has been abusing a central nervous system depressant that has euphoric, sedative, and anabolic (bodybuilding) effects. Which of the following depressants has he most likely been abusing? A) heroin B) barbiturates, such as Seconal C) gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB) D) benzodiazepines, such as Valium

answer

gamma-hydroxybutyrate (GHB)

question

At a recent party, there was a student who kept trying to spend time with Nancy, offering her drinks and asking her to dance. Eventually she accepted one of the drinks, which unbeknownst to her contained Rohypnol. Nancy experienced the sedative effect, amnesia, muscle relaxation, and slowed psychomotor responses typical of this "date rape" drug. Rohypnol is categorized as a(n) A) opioid. B) benzodiazepine. C) barbiturate. D) endorphin.

answer

benzodiazepine.

question

Which of the following is not a symptom of withdrawal from heroin addiction? A) intense desire for the drug B) muscle tremors C) sleep disturbance D) increased sex drive

answer

increased sex drive

question

Ginny swallowed 10-12 peyote buttons at the most recent party at her sorority. Which of the following hallucinogens was she ingesting? A) PCP B) mescaline C) LSD D) ketamine

answer

mescaline

question

During rush week, Dwayne was offered gelatin squares called windowpane by a member of the fraternity that he wanted to join. Which of the following hallucinogens was Dwayne being offered? A) PCP B) mescaline C) LSD D) ketamine

answer

LSD

question

Denise wanted to enhance her experience at a dance party, so she took a hallucinogen offered to her by a friend. Denise's evening deteriorated after that, however, because she experienced jaw clenching, short-term memory loss, confusion, increased body temperature due to dehydration, and an increased heart rate. It's a good thing Denise didn't combine this drug with alcohol. Which of the following hallucinogens did Denise most likely take? A) ecstasy B) PCP C) ketamine D) psilocybin

answer

ecstasy

question

Which of the following statements is true about PCP? A) PCP is obtained from the peyote cactus. B) PCP was originally developed as a dissociative anesthetic. C) PCP can be obtained in tiny tablets called microdots. D) Long-term use of PCP damages brain cells that produce serotonin.

answer

PCP was originally developed as a dissociative anesthetic.

question

The effects of inhalants resemble those of A) marijuana. B) stimulants. C) depressants. D) hallucinogens.

answer

hallucinogens

question

Which of the following statements is true about inhalants? A) Inhalants generally appeal to older people because inhalants tend to be expensive. B) Nitrous oxide is often prescribed to alleviate chest pain in heart patients. C) The volatile chemicals in inhalants reach the bloodstream and then the brain within seconds. D) Only repeat users of inhalants can die from sudden sniffing death (SSD) syndrome

answer

) The volatile chemicals in inhalants reach the bloodstream and then the brain within seconds.

question

Judy just had her wisdom teeth removed. Which of the following inhalants was she most likely to have been given as an adjunct to dental anesthesia? A) amyl nitrite B) model glue C) paint thinner D) nitrous oxide

answer

nitrous oxide

question

Anthony has secretly been taking anabolic steroids to improve his athletic performance. Which of the following is a side effect that might tip off his friends and teammates that he has been abusing steroids? A) He is more passive and soft-spoken than usual. B) His acne has cleared up. C) His breasts have grown. D) His blood pressure is low.

answer

His breasts have grown

question

Margaret has secretly been taking anabolic steroids to improve her athletic performance. Which of the following is a side effect that might tip off her friends and teammates that she has been abusing steroids? A) Her voice has gotten higher. B) Her facial and body hair have increased. C) Her breasts have grown. D) Her acne has cleared up

answer

Her facial and body hair have increased

question

Sarah and Todd have been sexually intimate for over a year and have been a couple for even longer. Lately, Sarah has noticed that Todd's testicles have shrunk. Without knowing anything else about Sarah or Todd, which of the following substances does Sarah suspect Todd is abusing? A) alcohol B) barbiturates C) inhalants D) anabolic steroids

answer

D) anabolic steroids

question

Katherine has entered treatment for her addiction to cocaine. She is at the point in her treatment where she is adjusting physically and cognitively to being free from the influences of the addiction. This stage of treatment is called A) intervention. B) abstinence. C) detoxification. D) relapse.

answer

detoxification

question

Illegal drug use in the United States costs about how much per year? A) $93 billion B) $193 billion C) $293 billion D) $393 billion

answer

193 billion

question

As part of his treatment for heroin addiction, Mark takes a synthetic narcotic that blocks the effects of heroin withdrawal. Which of the following is the drug Mark is most likely taking to help him battle his addiction to heroin? A) Rohypnol B) Valium C) PCP D) methadone

answer

methadone

question

Which of the following strategies for fighting drug abuse would fall within the approach known as harm reduction? A) stricter border controls to reduce drug trafficking B) longer prison sentences for drug dealers C) increased drug treatment programs for users D) stronger enforcement of antidrug laws

answer

increased drug treatment programs for users

question

Combining inhalants with alcohol produces A) a synergistic effect. B) an antagonistic effect. C) inhibition. D) cross-tolerance.

answer

a synergistic effect.

question

According to most drug education researchers, what is the best antidrug strategy for reducing substance abuse among students? A) making moral arguments against drug use B) using scare tactics to highlight the dangers of drug use C) teaching the difference between drug use, misuse, and abuse D) emphasizing that prohibition and abstinence are the only effective solutions

answer

teaching the difference between drug use, misuse, and abuse

question

A white crystalline powder derived from the leaves of the South American coca shrub is a powerful, naturally occurring stimulant. What is it called? A) ecstasy B) PCP C) heroin D) cocaine

answer

cocain

question

Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) belongs to which of the following types of drugs? A) stimulant B) depressant C) hallucinogen D) inhalant

answer

hallucinogen

question

Ritalin (used to treat ADHD) belongs to which of the following types of drugs? A) stimulant B) depressant C) hallucinogen D) inhalant

answer

stimulant

question

Seconal (a barbiturate) belongs to which of the following types of drugs? A) stimulant B) depressant C) hallucinogen D) inhalant

answer

depressant

question

"Poppers" belong to which of the following types of drugs? A) stimulant B) depressant C) hallucinogen D) inhalant

answer

inhalant

question

Heroin belongs to which of the following types of drugs? A) stimulant B) depressant C) hallucinogen D) inhalant

answer

depressant

question

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) belongs to which of the following types of drugs? A) stimulant B) depressant C) hallucinogen D) inhalant

answer

hallucinogen

question

Methamphetamine use destroys dopamine receptors in the brain, causing users to be at increased risk for what chronic disease later in life? A) Parkinson's B) cancer C) diabetes D) Alzheimer's

answer

Parkinson's

question

How many Americans die of tobacco-related diseases each year? A) 280,000 B) 380,000 C) 480,000 D) 580,000

answer

480,000

question

Which of the following was the most prevalent negative consequence of drinking among college students in the past year? A) forgot where they were or what they did B) accidentally injured themselves C) did something they later regretted D) had unprotected sex

answer

did something they later regretted

question

Which of the following statements is true regarding alcohol use among college students in the United States? A) Male students drink far more than female students. B) Around 25 percent of students engage in binge drinking. C) Very few students report practicing protective behaviors when consuming alcohol. D) Alcohol consumption is the top cause of preventable death among undergraduates.

answer

Alcohol consumption is the top cause of preventable death among undergraduates

question

Based on the alcohol use patterns of college students in the past 30 days, which of the following represents the largest percentage of males? A) those who have never used alcohol B) those who have used alcohol, but not in the past 30 days C) those who used alcohol all 30 days D) those who used alcohol 1-9 days

answer

those who used alcohol 1-9 days

question

Which of the following is not a factor that puts students at greater risk for heavy drinking in college? A) parents who disapprove of drinking B) participation in intramural sports C) a tendency to feel depressed D) high stress levels

answer

parents who disapprove of drinking

question

Michael is a binge drinker. By definition, this means that he consumes how many drinks within two hours? A) two B) three C) four D) five or more

answer

5 or more

question

Which of the following corresponds to a standard drink of alcohol? A) 12 ounces of beer B) 12 ounces of wine C) 5 ounces of vodka D) 5 ounces of brandy

answer

12 ounces of beer

question

Which contains more alcohol, 80 proof whiskey or the same volume of vodka that is 35 percent alcohol by volume? A) the vodka B) the whiskey C) They both contain the same amount of alcohol. D) Not enough information is provided to answer this question.

answer

the whiskey

question

Which of the following best describes where in the body alcohol is absorbed? A) 100 percent diffuses through the stomach lining into the bloodstream. B) 20 percent diffuses through the stomach lining into the bloodstream; 80 percent is absorbed through the lining of the upper third of the small intestine. C) 80 percent diffuses through the stomach lining into the bloodstream; 20 percent is absorbed through the lining of the upper third of the small intestine. D) 100 percent is absorbed through the lining of the upper third of the small intestine.

answer

20 percent diffuses through the stomach lining into the bloodstream; 80 percent is absorbed through the lining of the upper third of the small intestine.

question

As a general rule, does your body absorb beer, wine, or distilled beverages more quickly? A) beer B) wine C) distilled beverages D) All three are absorbed at the same rate.

answer

distilled beverages

question

Paul, Sean, and Mike have each consumed four beers in the last two hours. Paul weighs 220 pounds, Sean weighs 165 pounds, and Mike weighs 197 pounds. Who has the highest blood alcohol concentration (BAC)? A) Paul B) Sean C) Mike D) Paul, Sean, and Mike have the same BAC.

answer

Sean

question

David, Brian, and Barbara have each consumed two margaritas during the last two hours. If David weighs 176 pounds and both Brian and Barbara weigh 138 pounds, then who is probably the most intoxicated? A) David B) Brian C) Barbara D) David, Brian, and Barbara are equally intoxicated.

answer

barbara

question

f Chuck goes on a drinking binge and passes out, which of the following should his sober friend, Nancy, do? A) Nancy should roll Chuck onto his back so he can breathe more easily. B) Nancy should leave Chuck by himself so he can sleep it off. C) Nancy should try to wake Chuck up and give him black coffee. D) If Nancy suspects alcohol poisoning, she should call 9-1-1 immediately.

answer

If Nancy suspects alcohol poisoning, she should call 9-1-1 immediately.

question

Rory is planning to go to a club (and drink alcohol) with a group of friends. Which of the following is most likely going to help them minimize any potential hangover tomorrow morning? A) Rory and his friends should pre-game as much as possible. B) Rory and his friends should drink to excess at the club. C) Rory and his friends should drink nonalcoholic beverages between alcoholic drinks. D) Rory and his friends should drink as quickly as possible.

answer

Rory and his friends should drink nonalcoholic beverages between alcoholic drinks

question

Recovery from a hangover usually takes A) 2 hours. B) 12 hours. C) 24 hours. D) 36 hours.

answer

12 hours

question

Professor Buchannan has been a heavy drinker for most of his life. At first, his liver stored fat, but then the fat-filled cells stopped functioning. Professor Buchannan continued to drink, however, which led to the development of fibrous scar tissue in his liver. Because Professor Buchannan kept drinking, his liver cells have begun to die, making the damage to his liver permanent. What is the name of the liver disease Professor Buchannan suffers from? A) cirrhosis B) fetal alcohol syndrome C) alcoholic hepatitis D) osteoporosis

answer

cirrhosis

question

Which of the following statements about fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is true? A) FAS is the most common birth defect in the United States. B) FAS is associated with alcohol consumption immediately after birth. C) Symptoms of FAS include mental retardation and an unusually large head. D) Symptoms of FAS include mental retardation and a small head.

answer

Symptoms of FAS include mental retardation and a small head.

question

Which of the following is not a long-term health effect of alcohol consumption? A) high blood pressure B) improved resistance to disease C) cirrhosis of the liver D) cancer of the esophagus

answer

improved resistance to disease

question

About ________ of all traffic fatalities in the United States in 2009 involved at least one alcohol-impaired driver. A) one-fifth B) one-fourth C) one-third D) one-half

answer

one third

question

What portion of the American population will be involved in an alcohol-related traffic accident at some time in their lives? A) 1 in 10 B) 2 in 10 C) 3 in 10 D) 4 in 10

answer

3 in 10

question

Amy grew up in a family with an alcohol problem. In order to cope, Amy often tried to disrupt tense family situations by making jokes or trying to do something amusing. Which of the following roles did Amy assume? A) family hero B) scapegoat C) lost child D) mascot

answer

mascot

question

Brandy coped with her family's alcohol problem by misbehaving at home and by committing crimes, such as petty theft and vandalism (tagging, mostly). Which of the following roles did Brandy assume? A) family hero B) scapegoat C) lost child D) mascot

answer

scapegoat

question

Donny has begun to drink a lot more than he ever used to, and it's beginning to adversely affect his work and his social and family relationships. Is this alcohol abuse, alcoholism, alcohol dependency, or something else entirely? A) alcohol abuse B) alcoholism C) alcohol dependency D) something else entirely

answer

alcohol abuse

question

Brian's father was an alcoholic. Susan just broke up with her boyfriend of five years and has started drinking a glass or two of wine every night to help her relax before bed. Allan grew up in a family where moderate alcohol consumption was a regular part of the evening meal. Christie, who has a very low-paying job and a sizable college debt, has begun hanging out with people at work who are similarly discouraged and who drink to dull the emotional pain of their station in life. Based on this information alone, which of these four is least likely to abuse alcohol or become an alcoholic? A) Brian B) Susan C) Allan D) Christie

answer

Allan

question

Harold has decided to try to reduce the amount of alcohol he consumes. Which of the following is a step he can take to improve his chances of success? A) Harold should limit himself to one or two drinks a day during the week and only drink more than that on weekends. B) Harold should keep secret his ambition to drink less. Asking family and friends for support may result in unhelpful advice. C) Harold should not go out and do things but instead stay home alone so that he won't be tempted to drink. D) Harold should drink slowly when he does drink. He should drink a nonalcoholic beverage between every alcoholic beverage he consumes.

answer

Harold should drink slowly when he does drink. He should drink a nonalcoholic beverage between every alcoholic beverage he consumes

question

Which of the following is not a common symptom of alcohol withdrawal for most alcoholics? A) delirium tremens B) sleep disorders C) depression D) tremors

answer

delirium tremens

question

Hillary has a good job but often drinks to excess after work. Family and friends are constantly telling Hillary that she needs to seek treatment for her drinking problem. To Hillary, though, there's no problem; she just likes the smoky burn of good Scotch. Based on what you know, which of the following factors best describes why Hillary does not deal with this issue? A) She's afraid of the social stigma of being labeled an alcoholic. B) She doesn't have the money to pay for treatment. C) Her medical providers have failed to diagnose her symptoms. D) She is unable or unwilling to admit she has a drinking problem.

answer

She is unable or unwilling to admit she has a drinking problem.

question

After an intervention that included family, friends, and a professional counselor, Bill has started attending Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) meetings, where he talks with other alcoholics about his drinking problem. Which of the following treatment options best categorizes AA? A) private treatment facility B) group support treatment C) pharmacological treatment D) therapy

answer

group support treatment

question

In addition to joining a support group, Olivia has been prescribed a drug to treat her alcoholism. If she drinks alcohol, the drug she takes causes acetaldehyde to build up in her liver, causing nausea, vomiting, headache, bad breath, and drowsiness. Which of the following drugs is Olivia most likely taking? A) acamprosate (Campral) B) naltrexone C) disulfiram (Antabuse) D) lysergic acid diethylamide

answer

disulfiram (Antabuse)

question

When people ask Sandra why she smokes, she tells them that it's just too difficult to stop. This suggests that Sandra A) is addicted to nicotine. B) is afraid she will gain weight if she stops. C) is particularly susceptible to advertising from the tobacco industry. D) smokes because all of her friends smoke.

answer

is addicted to nicotine.

question

Which of the following is a tactic used by the tobacco industry to target children and teens? A) lowering the cost of cigarettes B) selling cigarettes and smokeless tobacco at schools C) creating products with candy, fruit, and alcohol flavorings D) marketing tobacco as the key to financial success and independence

answer

creating products with candy, fruit, and alcohol flavorings

question

What is the poisonous gas found in cigarette smoke that reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells by binding with the receptor sites for oxygen? A) carbon dioxide B) hydrogen cyanide C) carbon tetrachloride D) carbon monoxide

answer

carbon monoxide

question

Which of the following probably contains the least amount of nicotine? A) one conventional tobacco cigarette B) a pinch of smokeless tobacco C) one cigar D) one clove cigarette

answer

one conventional tobacco cigarette

question

What is not one of the evident dangers of electronic cigarettes? A) They can explode in your mouth. B) They may contain traces of toxic chemicals. C) They can result in liquid nicotine poisoning. D) They offer young people an easy gateway to addiction.

answer

they can explode in your mouth

question

Which of the following is a long-term health effect of smoking on the body and health? A) suppressed appetite B) constricted blood vessels C) irritated throat and airways D) increased risk of impotence and infertility

answer

increased risk of impotence and infertility

question

Which of the following is a short-term health effect of smoking on the body and health? A) increased susceptibility to colds and flu B) increased risk of stroke C) dulled senses of smell and taste D) addiction and nicotine craving

answer

dulled senses of smell and taste

question

Environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) can be divided into two categories. Smoke exhaled by a smoker is called ________ smoke. A) slipstream B) mainstream C) sidestream D) mainstay

answer

mainstream

question

Which of the following is not part of the Family Smoking Prevention and Tobacco Control Act of 2009? A) The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) can forbid advertising geared toward children. B) The FDA can lower the amount of nicotine in tobacco products. C) The FDA can prohibit labels such as "light" and "low tar" on tobacco products. D) Smokeless tobacco ads must now contain a warning that fills 50 percent of the advertising space.

answer

Smokeless tobacco ads must now contain a warning that fills 50 percent of the advertising space.

question

Although 70 percent of adult smokers in the United States want to quit smoking, and up to 44 percent make a serious attempt to quit each year, how many actually succeed? A) 1-3 percent B) 4-7 percent C) 8-11 percent D) 12-15 percent

answer

4-7 percent

question

If you're a cigarette smoker and you're ready to quit, which of the following tips should you try? A) Keep your cigarettes somewhere inconvenient, such as a friend's house. B) Avoid "mouth toys" like hard candy, since they will remind you of smoking. C) Take up smoking cigars, because you don't have to inhale them. D) Stay away from friends and family who smoke, since they are a bad example.

answer

Keep your cigarettes somewhere inconvenient, such as a friend's house

question

Blurred vision and difficulty standing and walking are effects of alcohol consumption that occur at which of the following blood alcohol concentrations (BACs)? A) 0.05-0.07 percent B) 0.08-0.14 percent C) 0.15-0.24 percent D) 0.25-0.34 percent

answer

0.15-0.24 percent

question

Increased sociability and talkativeness are effects of alcohol consumption that occur at which of the following blood alcohol concentrations (BACs)? A) less than 0.01 percent B) 0.01-0.04 percent C) 0.05-0.07 percent D) 0.08-0.14 percent

answer

0.01-0.04 percent

question

Coma or probable death are effects of alcohol consumption that occur at which of the following blood alcohol concentrations (BACs)? A) 0.08-0.14 percent B) 0.15-0.24 percent C) 0.25-0.34 percent D) 0.35 percent and up

answer

0.35 percent and up

question

Poor muscle coordination and short-term memory loss are effects of alcohol consumption that occur at which of the following blood alcohol concentrations (BACs)? A) 0.05-0.07 percent B) 0.08-0.14 percent C) 0.15-0.24 percent D) 0.25-0.34 percent

answer

0.08-0.14 percent

question

At what point after quitting tobacco does the carbon monoxide level in the blood drop to normal? A) 8 hours B) 48 hours C) 1-9 months D) 5 years

answer

8 hours

question

At what point after quitting tobacco does the lung cancer death rate for an average former smoker (1 pack per day) decrease by almost half? A) 8 hours B) 48 hours C) 1-9 months D) 5 years

answer

5 years

question

At what point after quitting tobacco is the ability to smell and taste enhanced? A) 8 hours B) 48 hours C) 1-9 months D) 5 years

answer

48 hours

question

The entire digestive process takes approximately A) 4 hours. B) 14 hours. C) 24 hours. D) 48 hours.

answer

24 hours

question

Rex, who leads fitness classes at a gym on campus, burns a lot of calories at work each day. Which of the following provides the calories Rex needs to succeed at work? A) vitamins B) carbohydrates C) water D) minerals

answer

carbohydrates

question

If person X needs about 2,800 calories per day, person X is probably a(n) A) sedentary woman, ages 19 to 30. B) active woman, age 51+. C) sedentary man, ages 19 to 30. D) active man, age 51+.

answer

active man, age 51+

question

Which of the following contains the highest percentage of water? A) meats B) bread C) cheese D) fruits

answer

fruits

question

If dehydration is the abnormal depletion of body fluids, then what is the name of the condition that results from an excess of water in your body fluids? A) hydration B) hypoglycemia C) hyponatremia D) hypoplasia

answer

hyponatremia

question

Which of the following plant sources of protein would be categorized as a legume? A) wheat B) corn C) almonds D) peanuts

answer

peanuts

question

Which of the following plant sources of protein would be categorized as a grain? A) corn B) peanuts C) tofu (a soy product) D) sunflower seeds

answer

corn

question

Which of the following is a function of protein in the body? A) removes metabolic wastes B) repairs muscle cells C) helps move foods through the digestive system D) insulates body organs against shock

answer

repairs muscle cells

question

Darlene is looking for a complete protein amongst the choices in her dining hall. Which of the following is probably her best option? A) spinach B) black beans C) grilled chicken breast D) corn on the cob

answer

grilled chicken breasts

question

The recommended daily protein intake for adults is 0.8 grams (g) per kilogram (kg) of body weight, where 1 kg = 2.2 pounds. If Brad weighs 220 pounds, what is his recommended daily protein intake? A) 8 grams B) 38 grams C) 60 grams D) 80 grams

answer

80 grams

question

Which of the following is a simple carbohydrate? A) starch B) glucose C) fiber D) glycogen

answer

glucose

question

Starch, which can be obtained from bread, rice, and potatoes, is a A) complex carbohydrate. B) protein. C) simple carbohydrate. D) disaccharide.

answer

a complex carbohydrate

question

Kathleen has a 50-kilometer (31-mile) cross-country ski race this morning. Which of the following is probably her best choice of fuel for such a long race? A) fats B) proteins C) carbohydrates D) water

answer

carbohydrates

question

Which of the following is a common function of fats in the body? A) repairs bone cells B) helps maintain healthy skin and hair C) helps move foods through the digestive system D) stored as glycogen for energy uses later

answer

helps maintain healthy skin and hair

question

Which of the following vegetable oils is highest in monounsaturated fats? A) coconut oil B) safflower oil C) corn oil D) olive oil

answer

olive oil

question

Which of the following vegetable oils is highest in saturated fats? A) coconut oil B) safflower oil C) corn oil D) olive oil

answer

coconut oil

question

Which of the following vitamins are carried to cells by fats? A) vitamin C B) vitamin B6 C) vitamin A D) vitamin B12

answer

vitamin A

question

Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? A) vitamin A B) vitamin E C) vitamin B12 D) vitamin K

answer

vitamin b12

question

Which of the following is a common function of vitamins in the body? A) help move foods through the digestive system B) heal wounds C) repair muscle cells D) stored as glycogen for energy uses later

answer

heal wounds

question

A deficiency in vitamin D leads to A) night blindness. B) impaired blood clotting. C) hypercalcemia. D) rickets in children.

answer

rickets in children

question

A deficiency in folic acid leads to A) neural tube defects in a developing fetus. B) depression. C) beriberi. D) night blindness.

answer

neural tube defects in a developing fetus.

question

Which of the following is a reliable food source for biotin? A) citrus fruits B) shellfish C) egg yolk D) chickpeas

answer

egg yolk

question

What causes scurvy? A) an excess of vitamin A B) a deficiency of vitamin A C) an excess of vitamin C D) a deficiency of vitamin C

answer

deficiency of vitamin C

question

he recommended daily allowance (RDA) of vitamin C is 90 mg for men and 75 mg for women, but is different for smokers. If David smokes one pack of cigarettes a day, what is his RDA for vitamin C? A) 55 mg B) 75 mg C) 100 mg D) 125 mg

answer

125 mg

question

Which of the following is one possible symptom of having a deficiency of the trace mineral fluoride? A) brittle hair and nails B) dental caries C) muscle cramps D) osteoporosis

answer

dental caries

question

Tanya's diet recently has included lots of kale. Which of the following major minerals has Tanya been getting plenty of? A) magnesium B) phosphorus C) calcium D) sodium

answer

magnesium

question

Which of the following trace minerals is needed for the proper functioning of more than 100 enzymes in the body? A) selenium B) chromium C) iron D) zinc

answer

zinc

question

The food label on the can of baked beans says that there are three servings per container and that each serving has 140 calories. If Mark eats the entire can, how many calories will he consume? A) 140 calories B) 280 calories C) 420 calories D) 560 calories

answer

420 calories

question

The food label on a bag of potato chips says that each serving contains 600 mg of sodium. If the Reference Daily Intake (RDI) of sodium is less than 2,400 mg, then how many servings of potato chips must Rhonda consume in order to exceed her RDI of sodium? A) one B) two C) three D) four

answer

four

question

One of the key points of the MyPlate plan is to understand serving sizes. A man's fist is the size of about A) 1 cup of vegetables. B) 2 cups of pasta. C) 3 cups of rice. D) 4 cups of cooked chicken.

answer

2 cups of pasta

question

A bottle of a popular lemon-lime soda is full of calories with little or no nutritional value. Which of the following statements best describes the soda? A) The soda is a nutrient-dense food. B) The soda contains fiber, which is important nutritionally. C) The soda contains "empty calories." D) The soda falls into the fruits category in the MyPlate plan.

answer

The soda contains "empty calories."

question

Antioxidants can help combat the formation of free radicals by all of the following means except A) flushing free radicals from the body. B) donating electrons to stabilize free radicals. C) reducing or repairing the damage caused by free radicals. D) activating enzymes that convert free radicals to less damaging substances.

answer

flushing free radicals from the body.

question

Diane wants Mexican food for lunch. Which of the following items is her best choice for a healthy meal? A) chile relleno B) chicken fajitas C) cheese quesadilla D) beef chimichanga

answer

chicken fajitas

question

Which of the following foods is considered a superfood? A) orange juice B) veggie burger C) salmon steak D) pork roast

answer

salmon steak

question

Robert has decided to change from a high-fat meat-based diet to a vegetarian diet. Which of the following might be one of the typical and justifiable reasons for his decision? A) a desire to gain weight B) a desire to help the environment C) a desire to add more protein to his diet D) a desire to eat more seafood and chicken

answer

a desire to help the enviorment

question

According to the USDA's National Organic Rule, a product that is certified and labeled "Organic" must A) contain at least 50 percent organic ingredients. B) contain at least 70 percent organic ingredients. C) contain at least 95 percent organic ingredients. D) be 100 percent in compliance with organic criteria.

answer

contain at least 95 percent organic ingredients.

question

According to the USDA's National Organic Rule, a product that is certified and labeled "Made with Organic Ingredients" must A) contain at least 50 percent organic ingredients. B) contain at least 70 percent organic ingredients. C) contain at least 95 percent organic ingredients. D) be 100 percent in compliance with organic criteria.

answer

contain at least 70 percent organic ingredients

question

Marjorie does not produce lactase, an enzyme in the lining of the gut that degrades lactose, a sugar in dairy products. If she consumes a product containing lactose she becomes bloated with gas and she experiences abdominal pain and diarrhea. Based on this information alone, which of the following statements is probably true about Marjorie's condition? A) Marjorie has celiac disease. B) Marjorie has a food allergy. C) Marjorie is a locavore. D) Marjorie has a food intolerance.

answer

Marjorie has a food intolerance.

question

After eating a brownie with nuts at a dorm party, Gino's tongue began to swell and he began to have difficulty breathing. Based on this information alone, which of the following statements is probably true about Gino's condition? A) Gino has celiac disease. B) Gino has a food allergy. C) Gino is a locavore. D) Gino has a food intolerance.

answer

B) Gino has a food allergy.

question

Food service workers are required by law to wash their hands with soap after using the bathroom. Which of the following is a disease-causing agent commonly found in human stool that is most likely transmitted via improper hand washing? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Campylobacter C) Norovirus D) Salmonella

answer

C) Norovirus

question

Which of the following parts of the digestive system is where enzymes in saliva begin to break down some carbohydrates? A) mouth B) esophagus C) stomach D) small intestine

answer

mouth

question

Which of the following parts of the digestive system is where nutrients are absorbed? A) stomach B) small intestine C) large intestine D) rectum and anus

answer

small intestine

question

Which category of the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) is defined as "daily nutrient intake levels meeting the nutritional needs of 97 to 98 percent of healthy individuals"? A) Adequate Intakes (AIs) B) Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (ULs) C) Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) D) Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDRs)

answer

Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs)

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