Kaplan Question Trainer 1 – Flashcards
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T or F. Hemophilia is a sex-linked disorder
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True. The mother transmits the gene to her son
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What assessment findings are typical findings for a 6 mo old?
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Sitting with support. Playing peek-a-boo. Rolling from back to abdomen.
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A pincer grasp occurs at what age?
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9 mo
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Tripling of birth weight should occur at what age?
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1 yr
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Posterior fontanelle closes at what age?
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2-3 mo
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Phobias involve which 2 behaviors?
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Projection and displacement
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What is VDRL?
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screening test for syphilis
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A nurse expects to see which characteristics with fetal ETOH syndrome?
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Small head circumference, low birth weight, and undeveloped cheekbones, usually small for gestational age, may have feeding difficulties and poor sucking ability.
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T or F. The renal threshold for glucose is decreased in the elderly.
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False. The renal threshold for glucose is elevated in the elderly. The level at which glucose starts to appear in the urine increases
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This test will evaluate the baby's lungs.
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(L/S) ratio by an amniocentesis
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What directions should be given with permethrin 1% cream rinse for head lice?
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Wash with detergent in very hot water and dry for 20 minutes in a dryer. Repeat the application of the cream rinse in 7 days if nits are still present. Hair should be combed daily with a nit comb.
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What position should a patient be in to receive an enema? Describe the position.
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left Sims' position. The patient is halfway between the lateral and the prone positions
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How far should you insert the tube for an enema?
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no more than 4 inches
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What are early symptoms of laryngotracheobronchitis (croup)?
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Inspiratory stridor and restlessness, increased RR
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Kussmaul respirations are associated with?
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diabetic ketoacidosis
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Newborns with respiratory distress often have what symptoms?
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Expiratory wheezing and substernal retractions
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Chlorpromazine is what kind of medication?
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antipsychotic
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Name 4 extrapyramidal adverse effects
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akathisia, dystonias, pseudoparkinsonism, and dyskinesia
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What are some examples of dystonias?
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protrusion of tongue, abnormal posturing
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What is akathisia?
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motor restlessness
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What are some examples of pseudoparkinsonism?
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tremors, rigidity
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What are some examples of dyskinesia?
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stiff neck, difficulty swallowing
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What are some s/s of decreased secretion of parathyroid hormone (hypoparathyroidism)?
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tetany, muscular irritability, carpopedal spasms, dysphagia, paresthesia, and laryngeal spasm
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Which type of foods does the nurse encourage for the client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism?
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foods high in calcium
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What are the 3 main symptoms seen with pre-eclampsia?
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Hypertension, facial swelling and proteinuria
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What are some symptoms of eclampsia?
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Blurred vision, oliguria, seizure
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Which complication of IV drug abuse is the nurse most likely to observe?
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cellulitis
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What can develop because of hepatitis B and cirrhosis?
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jaundice
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Which symptoms are early signs of lithium toxicity?
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Fine motor tremors, Nausea and vomiting, diarrhea
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Which symptom is a severe sign of lithium toxicity?
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seizures
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What type of solid food is first given to infants? At what age?
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Rice cereal is usually the first solid food and is started around 4 to 5 months.
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Which type of play is characteristic for a 4-yr old?
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Associative play.
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Which type of play is characteristic for an infant?
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Solitary play
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Which type of play is characteristic for a toddler?
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Parallel play.
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What is associative play?
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Play that involves other kid interaction w/o formal organization
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Which s/s suggests that the client has developed an Addisonian crisis?
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Restlessness and rapid, weak pulse.
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What are some s/s of Addisons disease?
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Muscular weakness and fatigue. Dark pigmentation of the skin. Gastrointestinal disturbances and anorexia.
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During the 4th stage of labor, the nurse palpates the client's fundus in which location?
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umbilicus
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What can increase the intraocular pressure and put pressure on the suture line after cataract surgery?
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sudden changes in position, constipation, vomiting, stooping, or bending over
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What is the most pertinent sign to the diagnosis of cholecystitis?
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pain in the upper-right abdominal quadrant
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What are some s/s of a client with ETOH withdrawal?
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Tremors. Elevated temperature. Nocturnal leg cramps.
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Night sweats are seen in patients with what kinds of infections?
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tuberculosis, leukemia
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Which clinical manifestation is the nurse most likely to observe in a person with pituitary dwarfism?
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Delicate features. Appear younger than chronological age
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T or F. People with pituitary dwarfism have abnormal body proportions.
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False. See small size but normal body proportions
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Mannitol is what type of medication?
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diuretic
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Which Erickson developmental stage best represent a 50-year-old client?
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Generativity versus stagnation.
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Which Erickson developmental stage best represent those who are 65 and older?
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Integrity versus despair and disgust
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Which Erickson developmental stage best represent young adults (19-35 yr olds)?
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Intimacy versus isolation
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Which Erickson developmental stage best represent the adolescent?
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Identity versus role diffusion
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Ceftriaxone is what type of medication?
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cephalosporin, antibacterial drug
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It is most important for the nurse to monitor for which changes when administering ceftriaxone?
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Monitor for changes on the tongue and oral cavity b/c ceftriaxone sodium can cause overgrowth of organisms
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Clients with hypothyroidism are very sensitive to what types of medications?
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narcotics, barbiturates, and anesthetics
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How is the Rinne hearing test performed?
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The stem of a vibrating tuning fork is held against the mastoid bone until the client indicates sound can no longer be heard.
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How is the Weber hearing test performed?
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The stem of a vibrating tuning fork is held in the middle of the forehead, and the client's hearing is assessed in both ears.
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Clomiphene is what type of medication?
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Estrogen modulator
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How does clomiphene treat infertility?
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Induces ovulation by changing hormonal effects on the ovary. It alters estrogen and stimulates follicular growth to produce a mature ovum.
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Visitors of patients who have undergone organ transplants should take what precaution(s) before seeing the patient?
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Good hand washing to prevent infection (masks and gowns NOT required)
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Naproxen is what type of medication?
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NSAID
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What are adverse effects of NSAIDs?
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headache, fluid retention, dizziness, gastrointestinal distress, pruritus, and rash
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T or F. Being NPO inhibits normal blood glucose control.
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True.
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Cortisol is responsible for which action?
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Converting proteins and fat into glucose; also an anti-inflammatory agent
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Epinephrine is responsible for which action?
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"flight or fight."
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Parathyroid hormone parathormone is responsible for which action?
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Regulating the calcium metabolism.
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Norepinephrine is responsible for which action?
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Enhancing musculoskeletal activity.
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What are "delusions of reference"?
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a false belief that public events or people are directly related to the individual
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What is a delusion?
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a strongly held belief that is not validated by reality
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What are hallucinations?
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sensory perceptions that take place without external stimul (ie hearing voices)
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Verapamil is what type of medication?
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antihypertensive drug (calcium channel blocker)
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Which assessment does the nurse make before administering verapamil?
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HR
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Which mood-altering drug is most often associated with an increased risk for HIV infection related to IV drug use?
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narcotics
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Benzodiazepine is what type of medication?
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anxiolytic, hypnotic, sedative, and anticonvulsant drug
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Barbituate is what type of medication?
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central nervous system depressant
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How many extra calories a day does the nurse advise the clients to consume to support breastfeeding?
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500
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Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates?
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air leak
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T or F. There should be gentle bubbling in the suction-control chamber of a water-seal drainage system?
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True. Normal finding.
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In a patient with a water-seal drainage system, it can be determined that their lung has re-expanded if which observation is made?
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The fluid in the water-seal chamber does not fluctuate with respirations.
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How long should an infant be NPO for, before a barium swallow?
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3 hrs prior
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Allergic reaction is characterized by?
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Respiratory wheezing, urticaria (hives), facial flushing, and epiglottal edema
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what are some s/s of hemolytic transfusion reaction?
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Chills, lower back discomfort, hypotension, fever
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The primary purpose of a pacemaker is to?
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Regulate cardiac rhythm and increase cardiac output
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The action of antiarrhythmics such as quinidine is to?
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Prevent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
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The action of cardiac glycosides such as digoxin is to?
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Increase the force of myocardial contraction.
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Which instruction does the nurse give to the client undergoing plasma cholesterol screening?
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Only take sips of water for 12 hours before the test.
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Which fluid is best for the nurse to offer to the toddler with lead poisoning?
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Milk; calcium binds to lead and inhibits its absorption
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What are the stages of normal adjustment to a terminal illness?
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Stage 1 - denial Stage 2 - anger Stage 3 - bargaining Stage 4 - depression Stage 5 - acceptance
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What does an intravenous pyelogram involve?
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Examination of the urinary tract by xray to evaluate kidney function
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Which support group should the nurse recommend for parents who have lost a newborn or have experienced a miscarriage?
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SHARE
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Which support group should the nurse recommend for parents who have had an infant die from sudden infant death syndrome?
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SIDS
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Which support group should the nurse recommend for infertile clients?
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RESOLVE
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Which support group should the nurse recommend for families who have lost a child to cancer?
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CANDLELIGHTERS
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What dietary change is recommended for patients in the early stages of nephrotic syndrome?
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Adequate protein, low sodium intake
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How far should the catheter be inserted for colostomy irrigation?
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No more than 4 inches
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What is apraxia?
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loss of purposeful movement in the absence of motor or sensory impairment
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What is perseveration?
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repetition of a particular response (such as a word, phrase, or gesture)
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What is aphasia?
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loss of ability to understand or express speech
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Which allergy(ies) must be reported immediately prior to a patient receiving cardiac catheterization?
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allergies to iodine and/or seafood
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What is ataxia?
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the loss of full control of bodily movements.
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Which observation of the leg validates the diagnosis of fractured hip?
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The leg appears to be shortened and is adducted and externally rotated
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Which observation validates the diagnosis of foot drop?
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plantar flexion
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Which observation validates the diagnosis of injury to the lumbar disc area?
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There is evidence of paresis with decreased sensation and limited mobility
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What is paresis?
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a condition of muscular weakness caused by nerve damage or disease; partial paralysis.
