Intro to Criminal Justice CH 8 through CH 14 – Flashcards
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Which amendment to the Constitution guarantees the defendant the right to a speedy trial? A. Fifth Amendment B. Fourth Amendment C. Fourteenth Amendment D. Sixth Amendment
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Sixth Amendment
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Courts of limited jurisdiction are A. not courts of record. B. courts that prepare for very long trials. C. court cases using jurors. D. courts that always provide paid legal counsel.
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not courts of record.
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Under what type of bond is release based on the defendant's promise to pay the court an amount similar to a cash bail bond if he fails to fulfill a promise to return for trial? A. signature bond B. unsecured bond C. cash bond D. release on recognizance
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release on recognizance
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Plea bargaining can be initiated by either prosecutor or defense counsel. True False
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True
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What percentage of court cases at the federal level are disposed of by plea bargaining? A. 65% B. 75% C. 97% D. 85%
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97%
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Trying someone twice for the same offense is called A. Constitutional jeopardy. B. double liability. C. double jeopardy. D. dual jurisdic
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double jeopardy
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Who is not part of the courtroom work group? A. defense attorney B. witness C. bailiff D. judge
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witness
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A signature bond is commonly used in minor traffic offenses. True False
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True P 176
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Who transcribes every word spoken during a trial? A. bailiff B. court clerk C. prosecutor D. court reporter
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court reporter
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A government employee who works directly with the trial judge and is responsible for court paper work and records before and during a trial is the A. court adjudicator. B. clerk of adjudication. C. court administrator. D. clerk of court.
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clerk of court p 181
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The calendar on which court cases are scheduled for trial is called A. the judicial timetable. B. the trial calendar. C. the court docket. D. none of the above.
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the court docket p 187
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A bail bondsman operates as a private sector business, and not an arm of the government. True False
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True
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In which venue are most felony trials held? A. municipal courts of limited jurisdiction B. federal magistrates courts C. state courts of general jurisdiction D. none of the above
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state courts of general jurisdiction p170
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A judge's order to participants and observers at a trial that the evidence or proceedings of the court may not be published, aired, or discussed publicly is a A. trial motion. B. violation of the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. C. standard condition of the court. D. gag order.
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gag order p182
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A bail bondsman's fee is usually what percentage of the set bail? A. 25% B. 5% C. 10% D. 15%
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10% P 176
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What is the approximate percentage of all felony defendants that cannot afford an attorney? A. 75% B. 50% C. 100% D. 25%
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50% p183
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The concept that defendants comprehend the charges against them and are able to assist their attorney in their defense is known as A. incompetent to stand trial. B. competent to stand trial. C. worthy to stand trial. D. mental competency.
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competent to stand trial p171
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The prosecution must offer every offender an opportunity to plea bargain. True False
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False
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Which amendment to the Constitution prohibits trying someone twice for the same crime? A. Eighth Amendment B. Fourth Amendment C. First Amendment D. Fifth Amendment
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Fifth Amendment p186
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What type of bond bases release on the defendant's signature with a promise to return for trial? A. release on recognizance B. property bond C. unsecured bond D. signature bond
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signature bond p187
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Plea bargaining may only be initiated by the prosecutor. True False
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False can be defense or prosecutor
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The opportunity to post bail is not a guarantee for every defendant. True False
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true
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How many jurors does the Constitution require for a criminal case? A. 6 B. There is no set number of jurors mandated by the Constitution. C. 12 D. 8
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There is no set number of jurors mandated by the Constitution p184
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Which of the crimes/violations listed would be tried in a court of limited jurisdiction? A. traffic violation B. arson C. robbery D. homicide
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traffic violation p 170
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Determinate sentencing is required in all states for felony cases. True False
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False only some states have adopted Verified correct
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Which state was first to adopt a new verdict known as "guilty but mentally ill"? A. Florida B. Texas C. Michigan D. Ohio
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Michigan in 1997 p 197 Verified correct
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The Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984 requires a defendant in federal court found not guilty by reason of insanity to undergo A. a civil commitment examination. B. an automatic appeal based on the insanity defense. C. a second trial to confirm the verdict. D. immediate placement in a mental health facility.
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a civil commitment examination within 40 days of the verdict P 197 Verified correct
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Tough sentencing laws designed to punish repeat offenders more harshly is called the A. determinate laws. B. presumptive sentencing laws. C. recidivism laws. D. habitual offender laws.
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habitual offender laws p 201Verified correct
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Since 1976, which method of execution has been used the most by states carrying out the death penalty? A. lethal injection B. electrocution C. gas chamber D. firing squad
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lethal injection Verified correct
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Corporal punishment would involve the administration of A. community service. B. bodily pain. C. a split sentence. D. a rehabilitation program.
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bodily pain definition P191 Verified correct
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Comments made by an injured party at an offender's sentencing hearing are known as the A. sentencing guidelines. B. victim impact statement. C. presentence investigation report. D. victim input statement.
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victim impact statement P 200 201 Verified correct
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Civil commitment is a medical development and not a legal process. True False
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False Verified correct
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A concept based on the premise that a person is best deterred from committing future crimes by the specific nature of the punishment is known as A. specific deterrence. B. general deterrence. C. criminal deterrence. D. actual deterrence.
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specific deterrence definition p217 Verified correct
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Indeterminate sentencing gives a judge greater discretion when sentencing an offender. True False
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True Verified correct
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Which of the following is not one of the contemporary philosophies regarding the purpose of punishment? A. rehabilitation B. revenge C. deterrence D. incapacitation
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revenge P216 Verified correct
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The debate over capital punishment can be traced back to the time of Greek philosopher Plato. True False
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True P206 Verified correct
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In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court require bifurcated trail structure for death penalty cases? A. Stanford v. Kentucky B. ACLU v. United States C. Furman v. Georgia D. Gregg v. Georgia
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Gregg v. Georgia P 210 Verified correct
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What is the cost to keep an average inmate locked up for life? A. $600,000 B. $750,000 C. $900,000 D. $1,000,000
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$1,000,000 p 203 Verified correct
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A structured sentencing model that attempts to balance sentencing guidelines with mandatory sentencing and at the same time provide discretion to the judge is called A. mandatory exemplary sentencing. B. presumptive sentencing. C. indeterminate sentencing. D. determinate sentencing.
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presumptive sentencing p204 Verified correct
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Which sentencing model gives judges nearly complete discretion in sentencing an offender? A. structured sentencing B. indeterminate sentencing C. determinate sentencing D. flexible sentencing
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indeterminate sentencing p217 Verified correct
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What eighteenth-century practice by Great Britain removed offenders from a society by literally sending them to Australia? A. immigration B. exile C. transportation D. banishment
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transportation p193 Verified correct
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A convicted offender's background, attitude, and circumstances surrounding the offense are summarized for the judge by a probation officer before sentencing. This report is called a A. presentence investigation B. determinate investigation.presentence investigation C. victim impact statement. D. sentencing report.
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presentence investigation p 260 Verified correct
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Mandatory sentencing that gives repeat offenders longer prison terms is known as the A. three-strikes laws. B. mandatory sentencing law. C. tough sentencing guideline. D. indeterminate sentencing.
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three-strikes laws p 217 Verified correct
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The principle that the only way to prevent a criminal from reoffending is to remove them from society is termed A. incapacitation. B. retribution. C. rehabilitation. D. banishment.
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incapacitation p 216 Verified correct
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The process for removing judges or elected officials from office is known as dismissal. True False
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False Impeachment p 392 Verified correct
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Which of the following principles of punishment serves to prevent people from committing crime? A. restorative justice B. incapacitation C. retribution D. deterrence
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deterrence Verified correct incapacitation (NO)
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Not guilty by reason of insanity does not mean the defendant is innocent. True False
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True Verified correct
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In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court effectively ban the use of the death penalty? A. Furman v. Georgia B. Gregg v. Georgia C. United States v. Fanfan D. Escobedo v. Illinois
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Furman v. Georgia Verified correct
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One of the historically oldest forms of punishment that removed an offender from society, with the understanding that if the offender returned he or she would be put to death, was called A. general deterrence. B. cast away. C. retribution. D. banishment.
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Banishment Verified correct
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Which correctional practice prohibited inmates from talking to other inmates? A. the workshop system B. the congregate work system C. the lash D. the silent system
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the silent system p221 Verified correct
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The decision concerning which facility an inmate will first be sent to and the inmate's security risk level is a process called A. prison consultation. B. prisoner diagnosis. C. prisoner post. D. initial placement.
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initial placement p 233 Verified correct
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The city mayor is responsible for the operations of the local jail. True False
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False Sheffif dept major responsibility p229 Verified correct
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The U.S. jail population has doubled since the year 1983. True False
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True p 250 Verified correct
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Since 1983 the jail population in our nation has A. declined. B. remained constant. C. doubled. D. tripled.
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doubled Verified correct
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The movement of mentally ill offenders from hospitalization to community-based care is termed A. deinstitutionalization. B. inmate placement. C. prison coding. D. behavioral residency.
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deinstitutionalization definition P 252 Verified correct
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Which American criminologist suggested that prisoners should be placed on self-contained, self-governing reservations completely isolated from society? A. Cesare Lombroso B. William Penn C. Earnest Hooton D. Jeremy Bentham
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Earnest Hooton p226 Verified correct
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In order to align the healthcare facilities with the needs of the prison population, how many inmates in the California Correctional system have been ordered to be released by 2011? A. 5,000 B. 40,000 C. 90,000 D. 10,000
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40,000 p 269 Verified correct
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The Walnut Street Jail was built in which city? A. Philadelphia B. Pittsburgh C. Boston D. Atlanta
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Philadelphia p221 Verified correct
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The United States has the lowest incarceration rate of any country in the world. True False
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False Verified correct
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What is the name of the agency responsible for the administrative oversight of federal prisons and jails? A. Federal Bureau of Prisons B. Department of U.S. Prisons C. Federal Prison Administration D. American Prison Administration
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Federal Bureau of Prisons p251 Verified correct
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Privatized prisons are considered less expensive to operate than state-run prisons. True False
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True Verified correct
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While in the Eastern State Penitentiary, prisoners were kept in A. four-person cells. B. the hole. C. two-person cells. D. isolation.
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isolation p222 Verified correct
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The term "living environment" refers to whether an inmate will be housed in A. segregation. B. solitary confinement. C. the hole. D. a single cell or a multiple-inmate cell.
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a single cell or a multiple-inmate cell p233 Verified correct
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The primary reason behind the use of prison privatization is to A. improve prison living conditions. B. reduce costs. C. lease other properties. D. eliminate overcrowding.
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reduce costs Verified correct
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What is the annual cost on average to provide round-the-clock health care to an elderly and ill inmate? A. $42,000 B. $12,000 C. $65,000 D. $25,000
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$65,000 p244 Verified correct
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Which state has NOT authorized private prisons? A. Arizona B. Ohio C. Florida D. Massachusetts
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Massachusetts Verified correct AZ, FL OH Have p 240
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The average annual cost of housing an inmate in a state prison is approximately A. $29,000. B. $15,000. C. $21,000. D. $7,500.
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$29,000 p227 Verified correct
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The Prison Rape Elimination Act was passed in A. 1890. B. 2003. C. 1994. D. 1965.
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2003 p252
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Jails are usually operated by a county sheriff's department. True False
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true p229 Verified correct
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Which offender is typically housed in a state-operated prison? A. convicted felons B. terrorist suspects C. offenders awaiting trial D. those convicted of misdemeanors
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convicted felons p 251 Verified correct
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The Philadelphia Society to Alleviate the Miseries of Public Prisons was associated with which group? A. Southern Baptists B. Catholics C. Quakers D. Abolitionists
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Quakers p221 Verified correct
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What year was the Eastern State Penitentiary established? A. 1830 B. 1829 C. 1828 D. 1827
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1829 p 221, 250 Verified correct
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What is the percentage of female inmates who have dependent children? A. 50% B. 30% C. 65% D. 80%
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80% p236 Verified correct
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Who usually has the responsibility for operating the county jail? A. sheriff B. deputy C. judge D. city manager
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sheriff Verified correct
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Which of the following is not one of the five common organizational structures for state probation officers discussed in the text? A. under local courts B. within the state executive branch C. within U.S. District courts D. under the state judiciary
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within U.S. District courts pp259 Verified correct
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Who is responsible for deciding whether an inmate is to receive early release? A. sheriff B. judge C. prison warden D. parole board
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parole board p266 Verified correct
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Which of the following is a role of a parole officer? A. law enforcement officer B. social worker C. community resource broker D. all of the above
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all of the above p 270 Verified correct
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Who has the authority to grant a pardon or clemency? A. the U.S. Supreme Court B. a state senator C. the U.S. house and senate D. the president
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president out of this list Verified correct p257 but executive pardon can be done by gov or president
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Which of the following is not one of the five parts of the federal pretrial sentencing report? A. description of defendant's life style B. sentence to be imposed by the judge C. defendant's criminal history D. narrative of offense
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sentence to be imposed by the judge p 260 Verified correct
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In the consolidated model of parole the board operates under the authority of the state department of corrections. True False
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True p266 Verified correct
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Pardons are sometimes referred to as A. probation. B. parole C. clemency. D. illegal.
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clemency p257 Verified correct
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The conditional release of a convicted offender before he or she serves any prison time is called A. clemency. B. pardon. C. probation. D. parole.
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probation p273 Verified correct
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Some probation and parole officers are authorized to carry a concealed weapon. True False
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True Verified correct
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Probation and parole officers are case workers with law enforcement powers who supervise convicted offenders in the community. True False
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true Verified correct
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Another term used to denote probation is A. diversion. B. mandatory release. C. parole. D. suspended sentence.
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suspended sentence p273 Verified correct
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Pardon and commutation of sentence can be performed by Congress. True False
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False Verified correct
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Who initiated a process in Boston's municipal courtroom, which later become known as probation? A. Benjamin Rush B. John Augustus C. John Howard D. Ben Franklin
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John Augustus p 273 Verified correct
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Who is responsible for the mark system, a forerunner of the parole system? A. Alexander Maconochie B. President George Washington C. Sir Walter Crofton D. John Augustus
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Alexander Maconochie p 263 Verified correct
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The origin of parole based on the concept of releasing prisoners on their honor after serving a portion of their sentence, but before the maximum term, is called A. probation. B. parole d'honneur. C. mark system. D. ticket of leave.
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parole d'honneur. p 262 Verified correct
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Which state passed the first probation statute? A. New York B. Maine C. Massachusetts D. South Carolina
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Massachusetts p258 Verified correct
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The experiences of Augustus, Maconochie, and Crofton were very similar to the success rates of modern probation and parole programs. True False
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FALSE Verified correct True (NO) p 262, 263
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Federal probation and parole officers are required to have a bachelor's degree. True False
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TRUE Verified correct False (no) p 255 Federal need masters Parole need bachelors
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How many pardons can a governor grant? A. none in the first year in office B. ten C. two D. There are no limitations on pardons that a governor may grant.
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There are no limitations on pardons that a governor may grant. Verified correct
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What year did John Augustus ask a judge if he could take a drunkard home and put him to work? A. 1841 B. 1778 C. 1629 D. 1930
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1841 P258 Verified correct
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What is the percentage of parolees who do not successfully complete parole and are returned to prison? A. 10% B. 40% C. 34% D. 22%
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22% Verified correct 40% (NO) P 279
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How much good-time credit can a federal prisoner earn annually after completion of the first year of his or her sentence? A. 100 days B. 25 days C. 60 days D. 54 days
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54 days p257 Verified correct
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When a defendant is offered an alternative to criminal trial and a possible prison sentence, it is called a A. mandatory release. B. diversion. C. good-time credit. D. suspended sentence.
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diversion p256 Verified correct
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Reduction in the severity or length of an inmate's sentence is called a(n) A. parole. B. clemency. C. commutation of sentence. D. executive pardon.
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commutation of sentence p 257 Verified correct
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Approximately how much does it cost to keep someone on probation for a year? A. $800 B. $1,300 C. $13,000 D. $1,000
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$1,000 Verified correct
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Which of the following is a community-based intermediate sanction? A. publicly apologizing to the victim B. home confinement and electronic monitoring C. reporting to a parole officer on a weekly basis D. serving less than one year in jail
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home confinement and electronic monitoring Verified correct
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The Drug Use Forecasting (DUF) data indicated that a majority of people at the time of arrest were A. committing vandalism of public property. B. under the influence of prescription medication. C. committing a homicide or sexual assault. D. under the influence of one or more illicit drugs.
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under the influence of one or more illicit drugs. Verified correct
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Traditional incarceration, probation, and parole are A. failing to stem the tide of prisoners returning to jail after release. B. the focus of expanded plans for the correctional field. C. still being studied as to their effectiveness. D. proving to be highly effective.
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failing to stem the tide of prisoners returning to jail after release. Verified correct
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There are no savings by sending offenders to drug court programs rather than prison. True False
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False Verified correct
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Home confinement is A. a parole board decision. B. granted by the governor. C. a prosecutor's recommendation. D. a court-imposed sentence.
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a court-imposed sentence Verified correct
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Drug courts seek to A. be stricter about minor violations. B. impose harsher sentences. C. stop the revolving door syndrome. D. be more punitive by nature.
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stop the revolving door syndrome Verified correct
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An advancement in home confinement that ensures compliance through electronic means is known as A. electronic monitoring. B. semiconductor monitoring. C. electronic eavesdropping. D. technology trap.
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electronic monitoring Verified correct
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Drug court programs are showing some success in reducing recidivism. True False
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True Verified correct
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Religious groups that provide vocational training combined with religious instruction to inmates are known as A. spiritual programs. B. community-based programs. C. faith-based programs. D. citizen-based programs.
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faith-based programs Verified correct
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In contrast to the traditional adjudication process, drug court programs are A. successfully reducing recidivism. B. highly ineffective. C. under question as to their effectiveness. D. more expensive than straight incarceration.
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successfully reducing recidivism Verified correct
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Treatment programs designed to support the transition of offenders from prison back into the community are known as A. retributive correction. B. parole services. C. determinate sentencing. D. community-based corrections.
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community-based corrections Verified correct
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A majority of inmates reentering prison admitted to using either drugs or alcohol while on release. True False
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True Verified correct
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What would be the greatest advantage for an inmate using a Day Reporting Center? A. having a flexible daily schedule B. being able to maintain employment C. being able to visit family members D. being able to attend church
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being able to maintain employment Verified correct
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Upon release from prison most inmates are not ready to reenter the community. True False
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True Verified correct
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What percentage of prisoners serving time will eventually be released back into society? A. 5% B. 95% C. 25% D. 50%
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95% Verified correct
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Halfway houses typically face A. community support for training programs. B. local support for their construction. C. charitable contributions from many community members. D. significant community opposition.
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significant community opposition Verified correct
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Prisoners who fail to reenter a community as law-abiding citizens impact the community's A. quality of life. B. charity groups. C. federal grant money. D. sales tax rate.
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quality of life Verified correct
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A sentence involving a brief period of imprisonment before serving probation is called A. shock incarceration. B. split sentencing. C. house arrest. D. shock probation
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shock probation Verified correct split sentencing (NO)
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Which of the following sanctions would place a person in jail for a short time and then have him or her brought back to court to consider a probationary period? A. community service B. split sentencing C. reintegrative shamming D. intensive probation
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split sentencing Verified correct
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Which of the following would be considered the most difficult issue facing an ex-offender upon his or her return to society? A. finding gainful employment B. earning a high school equivalency C. obtaining a driver's license D. finding a literacy program
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finding gainful employment Verified correct
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Halfway houses are considered A. a home confinement program. B. a court-ordered sanction. C. a transition program moving from prison back to the community in steps. D. solely a parole board decision.
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a transition program moving from prison back to the community in steps. Verified correct
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What percentage of employers said they would not knowingly hire an ex-offender? A. 25% B. 10% C. 65% D. 99%
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65% Verified correct
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Drug court programs have proven to be ineffective in regards to rehabilitation. True False
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False Verified correct
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Intensive probation supervision focuses on smaller case loads and A. less frequent home contacts. B. more forgiving about technical violations. C. fewer meetings with the probation officer. D. more emphasis on offender compliance.
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more emphasis on offender compliance Verified correct
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In 2010, how many people were on probation? A. 2,000,000 B. 1,000,000 C. 3,000,000 D. 4,000,000
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4,000,000 Verified correct
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Many female youth gang members have been A. sexually abused at home. B. gainfully employed. C. former honor roll students. D. convicted of homicide.
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sexually abused at home Verified correct
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Colonial American courts said children under age 7 do not have the "ability to form guilty intent," or mens rea. True False
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True Verified correct p 302
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Which of the following sanctions cannot be given by a juvenile court? A. detention B. death penalty C. probation D. prison
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death penalty Verified correct
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of hybrid gangs? A. They are more violent than in the past. B. The members are younger than in the past. C. The majority of the members are Caucasian. D. There are more female members than in the past.
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They are more violent than in the past. Verified correct
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A strict liability crime does not require the prosecutor to prove mens rea, or criminal intent, by the perpetrator. True False
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True Verified correct P332
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The first juvenile court was established in 1899 in the state of A. California. B. Illinois. C. Wisconsin. D. Texas.
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Illinois Verified correct P 335
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Prior to the Columbine High School shooting, law enforcement officers were trained to respond to school shootings in a strategy known as contain-and-wait response. True False
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True Verified correct
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Which of the following has not been a response to recent violence on school property? A. creating laws making schools "gun free" zones B. Teaching strategies for responding to shooters C. screening for weapons at school D. all of the above
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all of the above Verified correct
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Bullying has been identified as a common factor associated with A. poor grades. B. school shooters. C. juvenile delinquents. D. poor parenting.
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school shooters. Verified correct p328
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There has been a 300% increase the past 10 years in school-based incidents being referred to A. teen court. B. district court. C. juvenile courts. D. circuit court.
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juvenile courts Verified correct p330
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A status offender and a delinquent are accused of the same type of crime. True False
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False Verified correct
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Which case established criteria for transferring juvenile offenders into adult court? A. Kent v. United States B. Breed v. Jones C. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania D. Schall v. Martin
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Kent v. United States Verified correct
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In colonial America, the age at which one could be found able to form mens rea was age A. 9. B. 7. C. 5. D. 11.
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7 Verified correct
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Which case established that juveniles do not have a constitutional right to a jury trial? A. Kent v. United States B. Schall v. Martin C. Breed v. Jones D. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania
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McKeiver v. Pennsylvania Verified correct p306
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In the 2011 The Monitoring the Future (MTF) survey by the National Institute on Drug Abuse, for the first time, high school seniors reported the use of which synthetic drug? A. LSD B. cocaine C. marijuana D. PCP
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marijuana Verified correct p325
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A new type of youth gang that are school based and less organized in criminal activity are known as A. comparative gangs. B. foster gangs. C. relative gangs. D. hybrid gangs.
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hybrid gangs Verified correct
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Which of the following is not an example of a status offense? A. curfew B. burglary C. running away from home D. truancy
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burglary Verified correct
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Which case determined that juveniles cannot be tried in both juvenile and adult courts for the same offense? A. Kent v. United States B. Breed v. Jones C. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania D. Schall v. Martin
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Breed v. Jones Verified correct
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The age in which a juvenile can be transferred to criminal court varies by state. True False
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True Verified correct
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In colonial America, a juvenile was considered to be an adult in court at what age? A. 14 B. 7 C. 12 D. 9
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14 Verified correct
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Which of the following is not supported by research on the DARE program? A. School funding for the program has been cut. B. There may be decreased drug-use while youth are in the program. C. It has been very effective at preventing drug use in teens. D. It may be a cause of rising drug use by juveniles.
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It has been very effective at preventing drug use in teens. Verified correct
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Which case brought forth to the Supreme Court the issue of preventive detention for juveniles? A. Kent v. United States B. Breed v. Jones C. McKeiver v. Pennsylvania D. Schall v. Martin
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Schall v. Martin Verified correct
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Which of the following is not considered a model of juvenile justice classifying? A. decentralized states B. centralized states C. e-combination states D. combination states
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e-combination states Verified correct
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The DARE program targeted youth in what grades? A. first and second B. third and fourth C. tenth and eleventh D. kindergarten through 12th grade
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kindergarten through 12th grade Verified correct
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Which of the following is NOT a situation in which the juvenile court would assume authority over a juvenile? A. The juvenile was a status offender. B.The juvenile was a delinquent. C.The juvenile's welfare was threatened. D. The juvenile was mentally ill.
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The juvenile was mentally ill. Verified correct
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Our author states that the fear of terrorism is transforming our nation's cities into A. stressful metro centers. B. urban fortresses. C. more diplomatic settings. D. high solution environments.
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urban fortresses Verified correct p 356
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The mission of Terrorist Threat Integration Center (TTIC) is to A. expose and capture terrorist sleeper cells. B. merge and analyze terrorist-related information. C. interrogate suspected terrorists to gather intelligence. D. coordinate military strikes on Al-Qaeda.
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merge and analyze terrorist-related information Verified correct p 351
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The illegal transportation of a person to a foreign country for the purpose of having officials of that country interrogate the person using torture or practices not permitted in the United States is known as A. extradition B. kidnapping C. rendition D. none of the above
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rendition Verified correct
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The cornerstone legislation of Former President Bush's "War on Terror" was known as the A. shift of reliance on local government. B. creation of the Federal Emergency Management Agency. C. Geneva Convention Prisoner of War Act. D. Enemy Combatant executive order.
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Enemy Combatant executive order Verified correct
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Prevention of catastrophic terrorism is most dependent on a unity of efforts between the federal government and A. the American Red Cross. B. local and state level agencies. C. the U.S. Armed Forces. D. private security services.
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local and state level agencies Verified correct
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The DHS has assumed responsibility for the A. DEA. B. CIA. C. Transportation Security Administration. D. federal court system.
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Transportation Security Administration Verified correct p346
question
To counter the threat of terrorist attacks some larger police departments have turned to A. a joint local-federal counterterrorism task force. B. private security services. C. multijurisdictional task forces. D. special ops units.
answer
a joint local-federal counterterrorism task force. Verified correct
question
Which federal agency is part of the Department of Homeland Security? A. Department of Energy B. Department of Agriculture C. U.S. Department of Treasury D. all of the above
answer
all of the above Verified correct
question
The federal government and first responders have taken action to A. reduce time spent on training seminars. B. remove mutual aid agreements. C. limit the role of first responders. D. improve capacity, communication, and cooperation.
answer
improve capacity, communication, and cooperation Verified correct
question
Domestic terrorism does not include extremist right wing groups. True False
answer
False Verified correct p 344
question
Terrorist tactics generally include A. economic embargos on trade. B. high-level negotiations. C. random acts of violence on noncombatants. D. direct military confrontation.
answer
random acts of violence on noncombatants Verified correct
question
Critics of President Bush's Enemy Combatant order claim that it is A. unconstitutional. B. in need of broader powers. C. too vague. D. underutilized.
answer
unconstitutional Verified correct
question
How many federal agencies were consolidated into the DHS? A. 5 B. 11 C. 22 D. 48
answer
22 Verified correct
question
Homeland security is best defined as A.protecting American trade and other economic assets. B. a grass-roots local government effort to combat terrorists. C. a peace-negotiating political party. D. a national effort to prevent terrorist attacks.
answer
a national effort to prevent terrorist attacks Verified correct
question
The additional amount spent on security per day in New York City following the 2005 London subway bombings was $800,000. True False
answer
True Verified correct p357
question
The USA Patriot Act has restricted the government's search powers. True False
answer
False Verified correct P 355
question
The Real ID Act requires states to share driver license information True False
answer
True Verified correct
question
This is a secret list maintained by DHS that prohibits certain people from flying a commercial airplane: A. no-fly list B. no travel list C. possible terrorist list D. flight risk list
answer
no-fly list Verified correct
question
Which of the following is not a type of domestic terrorism? A. ecoterrorism B. militias C. Al-Qaeda D. single-issue extremist groups
answer
Al-Qaeda Verified correct
question
Countries such as Iran, Sudan, Libya, and North Korea are all considered to be A. state-sponsored terrorism. B. loosely affiliated extremists. C. militias. D. formal terrorists.
answer
state-sponsored terrorism Verified correct
question
The CONPLAN establishes what are known as A. federal strike forces. B. no-fly database. C. enemy combatant courts. D. lead federal agencies.
answer
lead federal agencies Verified correct
question
Fusion centers are usually run by A. the federal government. B. volunteer groups. C. state or local authorities. D. college interns.
answer
state or local authorities Verified correct
question
The USA Patriot Act allows domestic law enforcement agencies to conduct A. water-boarding. B. strikes on foreign soil. C. searches without delay notification. D. coercive interrogations of terrorist suspects.
answer
searches without delay notification Verified correct
question
Who reported that the DHS had not reached the results it promised in the creation of this new agency? A. the U.S. Supreme Court B. Government Accountability Office C. the FBI D. the CIA
answer
Government Accountability Office Verified correct
question
Before September 11, 2001 the FBI and CIA did not A. share intelligence. B. brief the president of the United States. C. work with local level law enforcement. D. share federal court rooms.
answer
share intelligence Verified correct
question
Under what type of bond is release based on the defendant's promise to pay the court an amount similar to a cash bail bond if he fails to fulfill a promise to return for trial? A. signature bond B. cash bond C. unsecured bond This is the correct answer. D. release on recognizance
answer
unsecured bond This is the correct answer.
