question

How many chromosome pairs does a human have?

answer

23 (A)

question

Which cell could you not use to produce a karyotype?

answer

red blood cells (B)

question

In a karyotype the chromosomes are arranged in order from

answer

largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end (A)

question

From a karyotype you could tell all of the following about the cell except whether

answer

a particular gene contained a mutation. (E)

question

In a karyotype, each chromosome contains two sister chromatids.

answer

true (A)

question

Two sister chromatids are held together at the

answer

centromere. (A)

question

From Figure 18.1 it can be seen that a homologous pair of chromosomes contains how many chromatids?

answer

four (D)

question

When is chorionic villi sampling generally performed?

answer

8-12 weeks of pregnancy (D)

question

Which of the following is not a reason chorionic villi sampling is used to determine the fetal karyotype?

answer

There is no danger to the fetus in removing chorionic villi. (B)

question

Jessica and Nathan just found out they are pregnant. The doctor estimates it has been 6 weeks since her last menstruation. Can they have an amniocentesis done now?

answer

No (B)

question

What are the two parts of the cell cycle?

answer

interphase and cell division (E)

question

Which of the following is not a stage of interphase?

answer

cytokinesis (A)

question

How are G1 and G2 different?

answer

In G1, the cell prepares to synthesize its DNA and in G2 it synthesizes the proteins needed for cell division. (C)

question

The amount of time the cell takes for interphase is approximately 1 hour, plus or minus about 5 minutes.

answer

false (B)

question

When does a chromosome go from one chromatid to two sister chromatids?

answer

during S of interphase (B)

question

Which comes first: mitosis or cytokinesis?

answer

mitosis (A)

question

How are mitosis and cytokinesis alike?

answer

Both involve division (C)

question

What happens at the G2 checkpoint?

answer

The cell checks that the DNA has replicated (C)

question

At what 2 checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA?

answer

G1 and G2 (A)

question

External signals such as hormones and growth factors can stimulate a cell to go through the cell cycle.

answer

True (A)

question

How do proto-oncogenes affect the cell cycle?

answer

stimulate it (A)

question

During development from a zygote to a child, what cell division process occurs?

answer

mitosis (A)

question

When a child is born, mitosis ceases to function

answer

false (B)

question

Following mitosis, the daughter cells are identical to the parent cell.

answer

true (A)

question

If a cell has 4 pair of chromosomes, after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?

answer

8 (C)

question

Which of the following is part of the mitotic spindle?

answer

aster (D)

question

Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?

answer

interphase (A)

question

At which stage of mitosis do you first see the chromosomes appearing?

answer

prophase (A)

question

At what stage of mitosis do sister chromatids become chromosomes?

answer

anaphase (C)

question

At which stage of mitosis do the chromsomes look like the letter "V"?

answer

anaphase (C)

question

In which two phases of mitosis does the nuclear membrane appear/disappear?

answer

prophase and telophase (E)

question

Which aspect of the cytoskeleton is involved in the cleavage furrow?

answer

actin filaments (C)

question

There is no mechanism to ensure the exact partitioning of the cytoplasm as there is of the DNA

answer

True (A)

question

In meiosis there are how many divisions and how many daughter cells?

answer

2,4 (D)

question

If an organism does not undergo meiosis, then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction.

answer

True (A)

question

If an organism has 4 pairs of chromosomes, after meiosis it will contain how many chromosomes?

answer

4 (B)

question

In what stage of meiosis does synapsis occur?

answer

prophase I (A)

question

In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?

answer

anaphase I (C)

question

When do the centromeres divide in meiosis?

answer

anaphase II (D)

question

Sexual reproduction introduces more genetic variation than does asexual reproduction.

answer

True (A)

question

If there are 4 pairs of chromosomes, how many different combinations of chromosomes are possible?

answer

16 (D)

question

Independent alignment creates genetic variation. This is associated with which stage of meiosis?

answer

metaphase I (B)

question

Genetic variation is useful to evolution because environments change.

answer

true (A)

question

If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16, and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate, then you are looking at

answer

meiosis. (B)

question

If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, then the cell has undergone

answer

mitosis. (A)

question

Which division of meiosis is like mitosis?

answer

meiosis II (B)

question

In what way is spermatogenesis similar to oogenesis?

answer

Both result in cells with half the chromosome number (C)

question

In both spermatogenesis and oogenesis, one sperm/egg forms from one primary spermatocyte/oocyte

answer

false (B)

question

How long does it take to proceed from prophase I to metaphase I in oogenesis?

answer

It varies, but on the order of years. (C)

question

If the secondary oocyte is not fertilized, it does not complete meiosis II.

answer

true (A)

question

All the products of oogenesis are the same size.

answer

false (B)

question

The product(s) of meiosis I in spermatogenesis is/are

answer

secondary spermatocytes. (B)

question

If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis I, how many of the final 4 products will be abnormal?

answer

4 (C)

question

Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal sperm. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?

answer

2,1 (D)

question

Which of the following is not a symptom of Down syndrome?

answer

indeterminate genitalia (E)

question

Which of the following is associated with mental retardation in Down syndrome?

answer

elevated levels of purines in the blood (A)

question

Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?

answer

Turner syndrome (A)

question

How are Jacobs and Klinefelter syndromes alike?

answer

Both have three sex chromosomes (C)

question

In a translocation, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece.

answer

true (A)

question

Which type of change in chromosome structure characterizes cri du chat syndrome?

answer

deletion (A)

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancer cells that distinguishes it from normal cells?

answer

Cancer cells utilize mitosis to divide. (C)

question

The ends of the chromosomes are "capped" with special repetitive DNA sequences called

answer

telomeres. (B)

question

Contact inhibition means that

answer

when cells come in contact with a neighbor, they stop dividing. (D)

question

Cancer is a single disease that affects one in three Americans

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following is not a stage in carcinogenesis?

answer

differentiation (D)

question

A benign tumor is not dangerous because it cannot metastasize.

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following characteristics is not associated with metastasis?

answer

The low oxygen content in the middle of a tumor may turn on genes for angiogenesis. (E)

question

Proto-oncogenes

answer

code for proteins that promote the cell cycle. (A)

question

Which of the following is not a type of proto-oncogene?

answer

the gene for p53 (E)

question

Tumor suppressor genes are often likened to the gas pedal of a car.

answer

false (B)

question

If a tumor suppressor gene becomes mutated, which of the following is not true?

answer

A "gain-of function" mutation has occurred (C)

question

How many Americans will deal with cancer in their lifetime?

answer

1 in 3 (C)

question

Cancers of epithelial tissues are called

answer

carcinomas. (C)

question

What is the most common cancer found in males?

answer

prostate (E)

question

What type of cancer causes the most deaths in males?

answer

lung and bronchus (B)

question

Hodgkin lymphomas develop from

answer

mutated B cells. (D)

question

Which is responsible for more cancer deaths in women: breast, colon and rectum, pancreas, or ovary?

answer

breast (A)

question

Which accounts for more cancer deaths in males: bladder, pancreas, esophagus, or prostate?

answer

prostate (D)

question

Both heredity and environmental risk factors come into play in the development of cancer

answer

true (A)

question

What was the name of the first gene associated with breast cancer?

answer

BRCA1 (E)

question

If you only inherit one mutated copy of BRCA1 and the other copy is normal, you will not develop breast cancer.

answer

false (B)

question

What do BRCA1 and RB have in common?

answer

Both are tumor suppressors. (D)

question

In the case of a proto-oncogene like RET, both copies of the gene must be mutated to increase a predisposition to cancer.

answer

False (B)

question

A carcinogen is not a mutagen.

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following is not a type of ionizing radiation?

answer

ultraviolet radiation (A)

question

Thus far no evidence has been found that nonionizing radiation, such as the energy given off by cell phones, causes cancer

answer

True (A)

question

Which of the following is not found in tobacco smoke?

answer

asbestos (C)

question

Which of the following is not a protective behavior that will help prevent cancer?

answer

Increase consumption of salt-cured, smoked, and nitrite-cured foods. (B)

question

Epstein-Barr virus is routinely isolated from cases of cervical cancers

answer

False (B)

question

Which of the following dietary changes will not reduce your risk of developing cancer?

answer

Decrease your consumption of high-fiber foods. (C)

question

Which of the following is not one of the seven warning signs?

answer

a cut that bleeds (A)

question

The earlier a cancer is detected, the more likely it can be effectively treated

answer

true (A)

question

Currently most cancers are diagnosed before metastasis

answer

false (B)

question

The American Cancer Society publicizes seven warning signals, which spell out the word CAUTION. The "C" in CAUTION stands for change in

answer

bowel or bladder habits. (B)

question

If you have one of the seven warning signals in CAUTION, this means that you have cancer.

answer

false (B)

question

Melanoma is the most serious form of skin cancer.

answer

true (A)

question

Which of the following is not one of the things to watch for in a mole?

answer

a solid color, usually brown (C)

question

A mole becomes suspicious when it is greater than 6 mm in diameter. How big is 6 mm approximately?

answer

about the size of a pencil eraser (C)

question

A Pap test looks for what type of cancer?

answer

cervical cancer (D)

question

Which of the following tests is not used to screen for colon cancer?

answer

blood test (A)

question

If you receive the new vaccine against HPV, then you do not need to get Pap tests anymore

answer

false (B)

question

How often should a woman do a shower self-examination of her breasts for lumps, knots, or changes?

answer

once a month (C)

question

Which type of test is particularly useful in analyzing tumors in tissues surrounded by bone?

answer

MRI (C)

question

Which two tests are done for prostate cancer?

answer

digital rectal examination, PSA (D)

question

When should screening for colorectal cancer begin?

answer

in 50s (D)

question

What type of test is a CEA test?

answer

a tumor marker test (D)

question

What type of screening test could be used to determine the likelihood that someone might develop cancer?

answer

genetic test (D)

question

If the gene for telomerase is turned off in a cell, this is an indication this is a cancer cell.

answer

False (B)

question

Which of the following is not a standard therapy for cancer treatment?

answer

immunotherapy (A)

question

Unfortunately, the cancer in Ted's body had spread to multiple sites. Which is the most viable treatment option to handle Ted's cancer?

answer

chemotherapy (C)

question

Ionizing radiation both causes cancer and can be used to treat cancer

answer

True (A)

question

Which treatment does not work for leukemia?

answer

surgery (A)

question

Which of the following is a side effect of radiation therapy that is not also a side effect of chemotherapy?

answer

dry, red, irritated skin and/or blisters (B)

question

Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapy?

answer

bone marrow transplants (D)

question

Taxol is used to treat what type of cancer?

answer

ovarian cancer (E)

question

What is the survival rate for children with childhood leukemia?

answer

80% (D)

question

Melacine, used against melanoma, is a type of cancer vaccine

answer

True (A)

question

Which of the following is not a type of immunotherapy?

answer

anti-p53 engineered adenovirus (B)

question

Antiangiogenic drugs cause cytotoxic T cells to attack tumor cells.

answer

False (B)

question

When the p53 gene is overexpressed in normal cells, the cells are killed.

answer

False (B)

question

Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual?

answer

genotype (A)

question

When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes, you are describing their genotype.

answer

False (B)

question

When describing someone as "lactose intolerant", you are describing their

answer

phenotype. (B)

question

Which of the following would not be a possible way to list someone's genotype?

answer

AB (C)

question

While a locus refers to a unit of heredity, a gene refers to a specific position on a chromosome.

answer

false (B)

question

An allele is to a gene, as a locus is to a

answer

chromosome. (C)

question

Which of the following individuals has a recessive phenotype?

answer

aabb (D)

question

Which of the following is a dominant allele?

answer

A (A)

question

There are two different alleles for the number of fingers on the hands: 5 finger allele and 6 finger allele. When both the 5 finger allele and the 6 finger allele are present in the same individual, the individual has 6 fingers on the hands. Which allele is dominant?

answer

6 fingers (B)

question

Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?

answer

Aa (A)

question

There is a single gene that controls the ability to taste PTC paper. The ability to taste is dominant to the inability to taste. If you can taste the paper, it is very bitter. Which of the following genotypes can taste the paper?

answer

both PP and Pp (B)

question

Clasp your hands together (without thinking about it). Which thumb is on top? The dominant phenotype is left thumb on top. If you have the genotype "tt", which thumb is on top?

answer

right (B)

question

Which of the following represents a gamete with a dominant allele?

answer

A (A)

question

If the mother's genotype is aa, all of her eggs will be identical for this trait.

answer

true (A)

question

Dad has a genotype of AaBb. How many different kinds of sperm can he produce?

answer

four (D)

question

Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross?

answer

AAbb x aaBB (D)

question

Which of the following represents a cross to determine if an individual is homozygous or heterozygous dominant?

answer

Aa x aa (A)

question

The square that is used to make all the possible combinations of gametes is called a Punnett square.

answer

true (A)

question

If you want to know the probability that tossing two coins will result in a particular outcome (two heads, for example), you use the

answer

product rule. (A)

question

Probability calculations in which the word "or" is used involve the product rule.

answer

False (B)

question

The probability of tossing a coin and having it be heads or tails is

answer

1 (C)

question

In a cross of Ff x Ff, the probability of having a dominant phenotype is

answer

3/4. (E)

question

In a cross of Ss x Ss, the probability of having a heterozygous genotype is

answer

1/2. (C)

question

In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype?

answer

0. (A)

question

In a dihybrid cross, what is the probability that the offspring will exhibit both of the dominant phenotypes?

answer

9/16. (D)

question

In a dihybrid cross, if the resulting ratios are 1:1:1:1, what are the genotypes of the parents?

answer

GgRr x ggrr (A)

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal recessive disorder pedigree?

answer

Heterozygotes have an affected phenotype. (A)

question

In a pedigree, an affected male would be designated by

answer

a shaded square ( D)

question

If two parents who are unaffected have a child that is affected, then the parents are both considered bearers.

answer

false (B)

question

Can two parents that have a genetic disorder ever have a normal child?

answer

yes (A)

question

Julie has a genetic disorder. Julie and her husband, Shane, have three children, none of which have the genetic disorder. How is this disorder most likely inherited?

answer

autosomal recessive (B)

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree?

answer

Affected children will usually have unaffected parents (A)

question

Which of the following is not an autosomal recessive disorder?

answer

Marfan syndrome (A)

question

Which of the following genetic disorders is due to a lack of the lysosome enzyme hex A?

answer

Tay-Sachs disease (B)

question

It is estimated that there are fewer than 100 genetic diseases caused by single gene mutations in humans

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following disorders is caused by a defect in the production of an elastic connective tissue protein called fibrillin?

answer

Marfan syndrome (C)

question

Even though sickle-cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder, the heterozygote can express some variation of the recessive phenotype

answer

true (A)

question

Which of the following disorders is a trinucleotide repeat disorder?

answer

Huntington disease (E)

question

Which of the following traits/disorders is controlled by multiple genes?

answer

skin color (A)

question

In the inheritance of skin color example in the book, which genotype would have the same phenotype as AaBb?

answer

AAbb (D)

question

The definition of a multifactorial trait is one in which more than one set of alleles is involved

answer

false (B)

question

How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited?

answer

incompletely dominant (C)

question

There is a trait with two alleles. One allele codes for blue while the other allele codes for yellow. If this trait is inherited in a codominant manner, what color will the offspring be?

answer

blue and yellow striped (D)

question

Which of the following traits would not be considered multifactorial?

answer

ABO blood type (E)

question

Most polygenic traits show discrete phenotypes when plotted on a graph.

answer

false (B)

question

Of the three possible alleles for the ABO blood type, each individual can have how many?

answer

two (B)

question

If an individual has the A phenotype, how many different genotypes can they possess?

answer

two (B)

question

If a person with type B blood marries a person with type A blood, what phenotypes can their children be?

answer

all 4 types (E)

question

What is the genotype of a person with type O blood?

answer

ii (E)

question

Can a man with type O blood be the father of a child with type A blood?

answer

Yes (A)

question

Which of the following designations indicates a sex-linked trait?

answer

XB (C)

question

Which of the following represents the genotype of a male who is color-blind?

answer

XbY (D)

question

Most of the sex-linked traits are found only on the X chromosome.

answer

True (A)

question

A male receives his X linked alleles from his

answer

mother (A)

question

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an X-linked recessive disorder pedigree?

answer

More females than males are affected. (D)

question

Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons?

answer

no (B)

question

Which of the following X-linked recessive disorders is characterized by a degeneration of the muscles?

answer

Duchenne's (B)

question

How are Fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease similar?

answer

Both are trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders. (B)

question

If a mother is color-blind and her husband is not, which of the following children are not possible?

answer

normal son (B)

question

In an X-linked dominant trait, affected males pass the trait only to daughters.

answer

True (A)

question

Which of the following is not a requirement for the genetic material of the cell?

answer

It must be able to change conformations. (D)

question

Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA?

answer

phosphate, nitrogen base (A)

question

Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA?

answer

nucleotides (C)

question

The bases in DNA are complementary. A always binds with

answer

T. (D)

question

Which of the following is not true about the structure of DNA?

answer

The two strands are considered parallel. (C)

question

Mitochondria also contain DNA.

answer

true (A)

question

DNA replication is considered

answer

semiconservative. (B)

question

What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication?

answer

It seals any breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbone. (B)

question

What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new strand?

answer

DNA polymerase (A)

question

In what way are DNA and RNA similar?

answer

Both contain C, A, and G. (A)

question

The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose while the sugar in RNA is ribose.

answer

true (A)

question

Both DNA and RNA are

answer

found in the nucleus (D)

question

Which of the following is a coding RNA?

answer

mRNA (D)

question

Which of the following is not a type of small RNA?

answer

tRNA (B)

question

The "r" in "rRNA" stands for reticulum RNA because this type of RNA is associated with the endoplasmic reticulum.

answer

False (B)

question

All of the RNAs

answer

are transcribed from DNA. (C)

question

How many different amino acids are commonly found in proteins?

answer

20 (C)

question

Which of the following is not a potential function of proteins?

answer

storage form for genetic information (D)

question

Which of the following is not an amino acid?

answer

uracil (E)

question

To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA

answer

false (B)

question

The 3-base sequence in a mRNA molecule is called a/an

answer

codon. (A)

question

The start codon for translation is a

answer

AUG. (D)

question

In the RNA sequence CAAUGACCAG, what will be the first amino acid incorporated?

answer

methionine (C)

question

What enzyme is responsible for transcribing RNA?

answer

RNA polymerase (C)

question

As the RNA is being made, it is exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for translation.

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following is not a type of mRNA processing?

answer

cleaving off the methionine (B)

question

Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus

answer

False (B)

question

Which of the following is not true regarding ribosomes?

answer

They function within the nucleus. (E)

question

Which structure contains the anticodon?

answer

the tRNA (D)

question

If the codon is CCA, what is the anticodon and what amino acid will be inserted?

answer

GGU, proline (B)

question

Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?

answer

The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits. (B)

question

How many stop codons are there for translation?

answer

three (C)

question

How many codons are there for leucine?

answer

six (E)

question

When the sequence CGCAAUGCAAGGA is translated, the corresponding protein will be arginine-asparagine-alanine-arginine

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following nucleotide sequences could give rise to the amino acid sequence alanine-asparatate-glycine? Assume that translation initiation has already occurred.

answer

GCCGACGGC (B)

question

Which of the following is not a level of regulation for gene expression?

answer

Pretranslational (D)

question

Which of the following would be an example of pretranscriptional control?

answer

The chromosomes must decondense. (A)

question

Which of the following is not true about transcription factors?

answer

Transcription factors are considered external cell regulators. (B)

question

How does modern day sequencing detect dyes on the nucleotides?

answer

laser (D)

question

It only takes a matter of several hours to sequence 1000 base-pair sections of DNA.

answer

true (A)

question

Which of the following statements about PCR is not true?

answer

PCR stands for "polymerizing copies of RNA". (A)

question

One of the disadvantages of PCR is that it requires large amounts of starting material

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following is not an application of PCR?

answer

treat cancer (D)

question

Place the following steps in order for the cloning of a gene. 1. DNA ligase seals foreign DNA into a plasmid. 2.A restriction enzyme is used to cleave DNA. 3. The bacterium makes a product. 4. Some of the bacterial cells take up a recombinant plasmid. 5. The plasmid replicates on its own

answer

2,1,4,5,3 (A)

question

Which of the following is not involved in gene cloning?

answer

dyes attached to nucleotides (D)

question

Organisms that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are called analytical products

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following is not a desirable trait for a genetically engineered plant?

answer

salt sensitive (B)

question

Which of the following is a product made from bacteria via recombinant DNA technology that promotes the health of plants?

answer

frost-minus substances (E)

question

How is the recombinant product procured from transgenic bacteria? Transgenic goats?

answer

from growth media, drink milk (B)

question

Mouse models for human diseases, such as cystic fibrosis, have been created by recombinant DNA technology.

answer

true (A)

question

Mouse models for human diseases, such as cystic fibrosis, have been created by recombinant DNA technology

answer

2003 (C)

question

How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class?

answer

99.9% (E)

question

How many genes did researchers think the human genome contained? How many did it contain?

answer

80,000; 20,500 (D)

question

More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins.

answer

false (B)

question

What is the goal of functional genomics?

answer

to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being (C)

question

Researchers found 3 genes on chromosome 22 in chimpanzees that, when compared to our human genes, have given us insight into our evolution. What were those three genes?

answer

genes for speech development, hearing, and smell (A)

question

How similar are our genomes to those of a mouse?

answer

85% (D)

question

Which of the following is not studied in the field of proteomics?

answer

which genes give rise to which proteins (C)

question

In ex vivo gene therapy, therapeutic DNA is injected into body cells with the use of a vector or carrier molecule.

answer

false (B)

question

Which of the following is the primary goal of bioinformatics?

answer

to find significant patterns in the information gained from DNA sequencing and proteomics (A)

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