First Aid, CPR, and AED – Flashcards

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The leading cause of death in children and young adults is:
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injuries
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Who Primarily benefits from first aid training?
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oneself
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First aid is intended to:
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provide temporary assistance until proper medical care, if needed, is obtained
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Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between: a. life and death b. rapid recovery and long hospitalization c. temporary disability and permanent injury d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is : a. responsive b. mentally competent c. an adult d. all of the above
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all of the above
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If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is know as:
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implied consent
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Which of the following is a true statement regarding obtaining consent to give first aid?
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consent should be obtained from every responsive, mentally competent adult
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In cases of psychiatric emergencies, who has authority to restrain and transport a person against the person's will?
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a police officer
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A first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person takes over.
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abandonment
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Deviating from accepted standards of care that result in further injury to the victim is known as:
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negligence
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Duty to act, breach of duty (substandard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in:
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negligence
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Which statement concerning duty to act is correct? a. duty to act occurs when employment requires it b. duty to act occurs when a preexisting relationship exists c. duty to act following guidelines for standards of care d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Which occupation has a job description designating the person to give first aid? a. law enforcement officer b. park ranger c. lifeguard d. all of the above
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all of the above
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A first aider who breaks his or her responsibility to a victim by failing to provide the type of care that another person with similar training would provide, commits:
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breach of duty
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Failure to do what a reasonably prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances is known as:
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an act of omission
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Good Samaritan laws granting immunity are generally applicable when the rescuer is? a. acting in good faith b. acting during an emergency c. not guilty of malicious conduct d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Doing something that a reasonably prudent person would not do under the same or similar circumstances is known as:
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Act of Commission
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Touching a person or providing first aid without consent is known as:
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battery
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An assumed consent given by an unconscious adult when emergency lifesaving treatment is required is known as:
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Implied Consent
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Immediate care given to an injured or suddenly ill person is known as:
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First Aid
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People who are designated as first aiders by their employers must give first aid to injured employees while on the job. T/F
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True
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First aiders who help injured victims are rarely sued. T/F
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True
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You are required to provide first aid to any injured or suddenly ill person you encounter. T/F
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False
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Who usually recognizes a situation as an emergency, and intervenes to help the victim?
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A Bystander
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Who is the most important link between the emergency medical service (EMS) and the victim?
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bystanders
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Why are bystanders less likely to offer help when an emergency occurs in a public place? a. lack of knowledge b. confusion about what is an emergency c. characteristics of the emergency d. all of the above
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all of the above
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A bystander who has seen the emergency happen is ____ to help than a bystander who arrives after the event.
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more likely
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What is the first action a bystander should take in an emergency?
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recognize the emergency
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Severity, physical distance, relationship, and time exposed are all factors that can help the bystander:
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recognize the emergency
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Refusing to acknowledge an emergency is a strategy that can interfere with which emergency action
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deciding to help
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When should a bystander decide whether to help at an emergency?
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before encountering an emergency
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Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency? a. fear of a lawsuit b. uncertainty of what to do for the victim c. other bystanders are at the scene d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Desensitization relates to
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overcoming anxieties caused by unpleasant sights and sound
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What should the rescuer look for during the scene size-up? a. hazards that could be dangerous to the rescuer, the victim(s), or bystanders b. the mechanism or cause of injury/illness c. the number of victims d. all of the above
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all of the above
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EMS personnel should definitely be summoned in which instance? a. uncontrolled bleeding b. breathing difficulty c. coughing or vomiting blood d. all of the above
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all of the above
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EMS personnel should definitely be called for:
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chest pain lasting longer than 2 minutes
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In a serious situation, who should you call first?
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EMS
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What information will you need to provide to the EMS dispatcher? a. the victims location b. the victim's condition' c. your name and phone number d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens? a. hepatitis B b. hepatitis C c. HIV d. all of the above
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all of the the above
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What is the best defense against hepatitis B?
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vaccination
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A vaccine is available for
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hepatitis B
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Bloodborn diseases are most commonly transmitted by: a. blood b. semen c. vaginal secretions d. all of the above
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all of the above
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The most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against bloodborne pathogens is:
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gloves
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The grieving process has ___ stages.
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5
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The first stage of grieving is :
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denial
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The second stage of grieving is :
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anger
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The third stage of grieving is:
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bargaining
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The forth stage of grieving is:
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depression
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The fifth stage of grieving is :
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acceptance
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The _____ stage of grieving is characterized by denial.
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first
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The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by bargaining.
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third
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The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by sadness and despair.
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fourth
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The __ stage of grieving is characterized by acceptance.
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fifth
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The first aider should leave the confirmation of death to:
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a physician
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When a person is alert and can give consent verbally or with a nod of the head.
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expressed consent
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When a nonresponsive person has a life threatening condition and it is assumed that the unresponsive person would give consent. Also, if an alert person does not resist first aid.
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implied consent
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Leaving a person after starting to give help without first ensuring that the person will receive continued care at the same level or higher.
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abandonment
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Not following the accepted standards of care, resulting in further injury to the person.
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negligence
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List the 5 ACTIONS THAT A BYSTANDER MUST TAKE IF HE/she decides to intervene in an emergency.
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1. Recognize the emergency 2. decide to help 3. call 9-1-1 if EMS is needed 4.Check the injured or ill person 5. Give first aid
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When calling EMS, what 5 important pieces of information should a bystander communicate?
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1. The person's location 2. The phone number you're calling from and your name. 3. A description of what happened 4. The number of people needing help and any special conditions. 5. A description of the person's condition
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What all is included in a scene size up?
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Try to answer the following questions 1. Are hazards present that could be dangerous to you, the injured or suddenly ill person or people, or bystanders? 2. How many people are involved 3. What is wrong? 4. What happened? 5. Are bystanders available to help?
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If the oxygen supply of the body is cut off, death will occur in about _____ to _____ minutes.
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four to six
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The pharynx is also known as the
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throat
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Which organ functions as the passageway for both food and air?
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pharynx
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Which organ carries food to the stomach?
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esophagus
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Which organ is the passageway for air to travel into the lungs?
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trachea
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Food or liquid can enter the trachea by mistake when the _____ fails to close
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epiglottis
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The voice box is also known as the ________.
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larynx
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The average rate of breathing in an adult at rest is ____ to ___ respirations per minute.
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twelve to twenty
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The average rate of breathing in a child at rest is ___ to ____ respirations per minute.
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fifteen to thirty
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Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? a. an abnormal breathing rate b. pale or blue-gray skin c. cool and clammy skin d. all of the above
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all of the above
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The normal heart rate for children is ____ to ___ beats per minute.
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80 to 100
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The normal heart rate for adults is ___ to ___ beats per minute.
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60 to 100
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The normal heart rate for toddlers is ___ to ___ beats per minute.
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100 to 120
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The normal heart rate for Newborns is ___ to __ beats per minute.
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120 to 140
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Which blood vessels carry blood back to the heart.
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veins
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Which of the following is the major artery of the neck?
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carotid
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Which artery should be used to check the pulse of an unconscious victim?
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carotid
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Which of the following is the major artery of the upper arm?
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brachial
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Which of the following arteries should be used to check the pulse of an infant?
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brachial
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What transports food materials to the body cells and waste materials to organs for elimination?
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plasma
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Which portion of blood carries oxygen to the organs?
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red blood cells
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Which portion of blood defends against bacteria?
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white blood cells
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Hemorrhage is the term for:
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profuse bleeding
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Shock is the inadequate circulation of _____ through an organ or structure.
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blood
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The adult skeleton has ____ bones.
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206
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A person with a back or neck injury must be handled with extreme care to prevent injury to the:
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spinal cord
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The thorax is another name for the _____.
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rib cage
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The flat, narrow bone in the middle of the front wall of the chest is known as:
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the sternum
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The lowest part of the sternum is called the:
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xiphoid process
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The collar bone is known as the:
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clavicle
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The shoulder blade is also known as the:
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scapula
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The two bones of the forearm are the:
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radius and ulna
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A joint is where two or more ___ meet or join.
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bones
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What holds the bones of a joint in place?
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ligaments
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What is the purpose of the skin? a. to protect against bacteria invasion b. to help regulate body temperature c. to act as a sensory organ d. all of the above
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all of the above
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To find out what's wrong with the victim, use the logical, systematic format known as
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victim assessment
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Which of the following is the first step in victim assessment?
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primary check
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The goal of the victim assessment is to:
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quickly identify life threats
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If the primary check uncovers an obstructed airway or massive bleeding, the first aider should attend to those problems:
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immediately
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What is the purpose of the primary check?
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to find and take action to treat life-threatening conditions
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A victim's level of responsiveness or mental status can be described according to the ___ scale.
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AVPU
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The "A" in AVPU stands for
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alert
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The "U" in AVPU stands for:
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unresponsive to any stimulus
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Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim?
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heat-tilt/ chin-lift
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To check for breathing in an unresponsive victim, you should: a. look for the chest to rise and fall b. listen for normal or abnormal breath sounds c. feel for adequate air movement d. all of the above
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all of the above
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If an unresponsive victim is not breathing, the first aider should:
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begin CPR
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If the unresponsive victim is breathing, the best position for the victim is
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on the left side
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Which of the following should be checked when assessing the victim's skin condition? a. skin color b. skin temperature c. skin moisture d. all of the above
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all of the above
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When the skin's blood vessels constrict or the heart rate slows, the skin become:
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cool and pale
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To check the victim's skin temperature, put the back of your hand on the victim's
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forehead
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Squeezing the victim's fingers and toes is done when checking the victim for:
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spinal injury
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The secondary check on an adult should be started at the victim's
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head
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The mnemonic DOTS can help you remember:
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the signs and symptoms of injury
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The "D" in DOTS stands for:
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deformity
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The "O" in DOTS stands for:
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open wound
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Using the mnemonic _______ can help you collect the victim's history.
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SAMPLE
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Something that the first aider sees, hears, or feels is:
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a sign
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Which of the following is a sign?
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moist skin
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Something that the victim tells the first aider about is::
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symptom
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Which of the following is a symptom? a. rapid pulse b. dilated pupils c. nausea d. red face
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nausea
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The "S" in SAMPLE stands for:
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signs and symptoms
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The "P" in SAMPLE stands for:
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preexisting conditions
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The "L" in SAMPLE stands for
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last oral intake
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The "E" in SAMPLE stands for
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Events leading to injury or illness
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Medical identification tags can help the first aider identify: a. allergies b. medications c. medical history d. all of the above
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all of the above
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While waiting for an ambulance, the primary check should be repeated every __ minutes for an unresponsive victim.
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5
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Why should an unresponsive victim be placed on the side?
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delays vomiting by placing the esophagus above the stomach
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What is the most prominent medical emergency in the u.s.?
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heart attack
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Besides heart attack victims, CPR can also save victims of: a. drowning b. drug overdose c. suffocation d. all of the above
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all of the above
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The first step in performing adult basic life support is to :
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check the victim's responsiveness
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What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive person?
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the tongue
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Place an unresponsive breathing victim
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on their left side (recovery position)
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if an unresponsive victim is not breathing, the first aider should:
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activate the EMS immediately
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Which of the following is a sign of sever airway obstruction a. breathing difficulty b. weak ineffective cough c. blue - gray skin d. all of the above
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all of the above
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If the victim's mouth is severely injured, the first aider should:
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give rescue breaths by the mouth-to-nose method
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CPR by a lay person is needed:
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when the victim is not breathing
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During CPR, the rescuer gives:
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chest compressions and rescue breathing
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The simplest method to check responsiveness of a victim is to:
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tap the shoulder and shout "Are you okay?"
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If alone with an unresponsive adult victim, the rescuer should:
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activate EMS immediately
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If alone with an unresponsive child or infant victim, the rescuer should:
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provide care for 2 minutes, then activate the EMS system or give 5 cycles of CPR, then activate the EMS system
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How would you turn an unresponsive victim over?
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as a unit, keeping the body from twisting
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______ occurs when heart muscle tissue dies because its blood supply is severely reduced or stopped.
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Heart attack
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Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim?
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head-tilt/chin-lift
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The links included in the cardiac chain of survival include: a. recognition and action b. CPR and defibrillation c. advanced care and post arrest care d. all of the above
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all of the above
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The proper sequence for CPR is:
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CAB Compression, Airway, Breath
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How many initial rescue breaths should the first aider give?
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2
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When performing a rescue breath, the first aider should blow:
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slowly, until the chest rises or gently, but with enough force for the chest to rise.
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When giving rescue breaths to an adult, each breath should last approximately?
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1 second
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If the first rescue breath does not go in, the first aider should:
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reposition the victim's head and try a second breath
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When giving rescue breaths to a child, each breath should last approximately?
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1 second
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When performing chest compression on an adult victim, the hands are placed:
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over the notch at the bottom of the sternum center of the chest/lower sternum
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When performing adult CPR, how many compressions should be given?
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30
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When performing chest compressions on an adult victim, the sternum should be depressed:
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2 inches (5cm)
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The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing adult CPR is:
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30 compressions and 2 breaths
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After starting CPR on an adult victim, perform ____ cycles and then stop and check the victim.
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5
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At what point would you stop performing adult CPR and check for circulation?
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after you have completed 5 cycles
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When performing CPR on a child victim give _____ breaths after every 30 compression.
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2
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When performing chest compressions on a child, the sternum should be depressed:
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2 inches (5cm)
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When would you stop giving CPR? A. When the victim starts breathing on his or her own b. When trained help arrives and relieves you c. When you are completely exhausted d. all of the above
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all of the above
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If the coking victim is unable to speak, breathe, or cough, they are experiencing a:
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complete airway obstruction
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Infants are those who are:
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younger than 1 year of age
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A child's age ranges from:
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1 to puberty
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Adults include those who are:
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at puberty or older
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When should a blind finger sweep be performed by a lay person to remove an object on a choking victim?
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never perform a blind finger sweep
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What is the first step when assisting a victim with a suspected airway obstruction?
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ask, "Can you speak?"
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How many abdominal thrusts should be given to a responsive choking victim?
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as many as are needed to remove the obstruction or until the victim becomes unresponsive
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When giving abdominal thrusts to a choking victim, where should you position your hands?
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in the middle of the abdomen, just above the navel
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When giving abdominal thrusts, which part of the fist is placed against the victim's abdomen?
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thumb side
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Repeat abdominal thrusts until: a. victim coughs up object b. victim starts to breathe or cough forcefully c. victim becomes unresponsive d. all of the above
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all of the above
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If the 2 initial breaths do not go in to the victim:
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perform CPR
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If alone with an unresponsive child, the rescuer should:
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perform first aid for 2 minutes, then activate EMS or give 5 cycles of CPR , then activate EMS
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When giving a child rescue breaths, the breaths should last:
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1 second
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When performing child CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of:
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120 compressions per minute or at least 100-120 compressions per minute
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The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing one person child CPR is:
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30 compressions and 2 breaths
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When giving rescue breaths to an infant, you should:
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form an airtight seal around the infant's mouth and nose
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When giving an infant rescue breaths, the breaths should last:
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1 second
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When giving chest compressions to an infant, place two fingers:
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on the center of the chest, just below the nipple line or 2 fingers with one touching at and below the nipple line
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When performing infant CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of:
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at least 100 compressions per minute
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When performing chest compressions on an infant, the sternum should be depressed:
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1 1/2 inches (4cm)
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The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing one person infant CPR is :
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30 compressions and 2 breaths
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During infant CPR, at what point would you stop performing CPR and check breathing?
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after you have completed 5 cycles
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Responsive choking in infants is managed through a sequence of :
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back blows, chest thrusts
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How many back blows and chest thrusts should be given to a responsive choking infant?
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5 each
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AEDs can be used on: a. infants b. children c. adults d. all of the above
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all of the above
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A victim's chance of survival dramatically improves through: a. early CPR B. early defibrillation c. hands-only CPR d. both a and b
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both A and B
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Which is the most common abnormal heart rhythm in cases of sudden cardiac arrest in adults?
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Ventricular fibrillation
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During ventricular fibrillation, the heart:
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quivers and cannot pump blood
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When the heart stops beating,
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blood carrying oxygen becomes unavailable to the entire body.
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Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR):
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is the initial care for cardiac arrest until a defibrillator is available.
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An AED can: a. analyze the heart's rhythm b. deliver an electrical shock c. be used by trained lay persons d. all of the above
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all of the above
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How many adhesive pads (electrodes) are placed on the victim's chest?
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two
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What mnemonic best describes adult/ child CPR?
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RAB-CAB
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Which of the following statements about AED's is true? a. The AED pads need to be attached to a dry chest b. The electrode pads are placed on the left side of the victim's chest c. Do not use an AED on a person with an implanted pacemaker d. You need to turn the AED on daily as part of a routine inspection.
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The AED pads need to be attached to a dry chest
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Verify no one is in contact with the victim: a. during analysis b. during the shock c. both a and b d. it is okay to stay in contact with the victim while using the AED
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both A and B
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Before using an AED: A. Give CPR until the AED is ready to be used B. position it next to the victim c. turn the AED on d. all of the above
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All of the above
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Place the AED pads:
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where the diagram or illustration on the AED indicates or place one just below right collarbone/above right nipple and the other just below/left to the left nipple
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While the AED analyzes the victim's heart rhythm:
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do not touch the victim
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Which of the following statements about AEDs is true: a. remove patches containing medication (e.g., nitroglycerin, nicotine). b. Do not use an AED on children (aged 1 to 8 years ) c. put petroleum jelly on the skin where the electrodes are to be placed. d. all chest should be shaved before applying the electrodes.
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Remove patches containing medication (e.g., nitroglycerin, nicotine).
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What is shock?
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Shock (hypoperfusion) describes a state of collapse and failure of the cardiovascular system in which blood circulation decreases and eventually ceases.
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Non - cardovascular causes of shock are:
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respiratory insufficiency, psychogenic shock, and anaphylaxis
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Cardiovascular causes of shock are:
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poor pump function, blood or fluid loss from blood vessels, and poor vessel function.
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What are 3 types of dressing?
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a. gauze pads b. adhesive bandages c. trauma dressings
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Concussion
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a mild traumatic brain injury (MTBI) and occurs when a blow to the head alters the function of the brain.
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Shock refers to the failure of what system?
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circulatory
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Shock occurs when body parts do not receive adequate:
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oxygenated blood
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Without oxygen, the brain will start to be irreparably damaged in ___ to ___ minutes.
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4 to 6
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Hypovolemic shock results from:
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the loss of a significant amount of fluid.
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Neurogenic shock results from:
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damage to the nervous system
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Septic shock develops in some victims with:
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bacterial infection
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When a person experiences shock, their skin is usually:
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moist
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Victims of shock usually experience the following altered mental status:
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anxiety and restlessness
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Which of the following statements concerning shock is correct:
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a first aider can prevent shock from worsening
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A shock victim who is unresponsive should be placed
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on the side
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A shock victim in the advanced stages of pregnancy should be placed:
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on their left side
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Why is neither food nor drink given to a shock victim?
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it could cause vomiting
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Anaphylactic shock:
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is a massive allergic reaction
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Sensitive persons may experience anaphylaxis from exposure to: a. medications b. foods c. insect stings d. all of the above
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all of the above
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First aid for anaphylactic shock would include which of the following? a. emergency transport to a medical facility b. transporting the victim in a half-sitting position c. determining if the victim has an emergency epinephrine kit d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Rapid blood loss of ____ quart(s) or more in an adult can lead to shock and death.
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1
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How much blood loss is extremely dangerous for a child?
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one pint or 1/2 quart
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_____ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound.
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arterial
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Blood from ____ flows steadily or gushes.
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veins
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Quite often, ____ bleeding will clot off by itself.
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capillary
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When arteries are completely severed:
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they are more likely to constrict and slow the bleeding
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Cotting time is _____ when the victim is taking aspirin or is anemic.
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longer
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The first method used to control external bleeding should be:
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direct pressure
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If a dressing become blood-soked, what should be done?
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apply another dressing on top of the old one.
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If direct pressure and elevation fail to control bleeding, the next step would be to :
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Apply direct pressure over the wound, and pressure at a pressure point.
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When direct pressure cannot be applied, such as in the case of a protruding bone, bleeding should be controlled by using:
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doughnut-shaped pads (indirect pressure)
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Tourniquets are rarely used because: a. they are rarely needed b. they can damage nerves and blood vessels c. they may cause the loss of an arm or leg d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding? a. bruises of the skin b. fractured ribs or bruises on the chest c. vomiting or coughing up blood d. all of the above
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all of the above
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What should be done when caring for a victim of severe internal bleeding? a. monitor breathing b. treat for shock c. seek immediate medical care d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Which wound results in skin cut with jagged, irregular edges?
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laceration
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Which wound is smooth-edged?
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incision
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Which wound is usually deep and narrow, with a high risk of infection?
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puncture
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Which wound involves the cutting or tearing off of a body part?
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amputation
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For a shallow wound, wash inside it with:
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soap and water
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The best way to irrigate a wound is by :
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letting water from a faucet rapidly pour into the wound
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How should animal bites, dirty wounds, and puncture wounds be cleaned?
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they should only be cleaned by emergency department personnel
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What can safely be put on shallow wounds?
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antibiotic ointments, such as Neosporin
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Which of the following should be used to irrigate a wound? a. isopropyl alcohol b. hydrogen peroxide c. a full-strength iodine preparation, such as Betadine d. none of the above
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none of the above
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Which first aid supply i s applied over a wound to control bleeding and prevent contamination?
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dressing
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What are the signs and symptoms of an infected wound? a. throbbing pain b. pus discharge c. fever d. all of the above
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all of the above
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Which of the following are appropriate home treatments for the early stages of infection?
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antibiotic ointment, elevation, soaking the wound
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Tetanus is caused by
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a toxin produced by a bacteria
question
Where is the tetanus bacteria commonly found? a. soil b. street dust c. pet feces d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
A victim with a dirty wound who has not had a tetanus booster for over ____years should receive a booster?
answer
5
question
Tetanus shots must be given within ____hours of the injury to be effective.
answer
72
question
What percentage of amputated extremities cam be successfully replanted?
answer
80 to 90
question
What type of amputation occurs when the skin is peeled off?
answer
degloving
question
Which type of amputation is the most common?
answer
crushing
question
The first step in controlling bleeding from an amputation is:
answer
applying direct pressure
question
How should an amputated body part be cared for?
answer
do not clean the amputated part
question
The clean amputated part should be wrapped in:
answer
a dry, sterile dressing
question
The cleaned, wrapped amputated part should be:
answer
placed in a plastic bag
question
The bag/container with the wrapped amputated part should be:
answer
placed on a bed of ice
question
What tends to have smooth edges and resemble a surgical or paper cut?
answer
incision
question
After a blister forms, what should you try first?
answer
cover the blister with moleskin cut into the shape of a doughnut
question
What is the proper procedure for breaking a blister?
answer
drain the fluid by making a small hole at the blister's edge
question
Once a blister has been opened, a protective bandage should be worn for ___ to ___ days, or until new skin forms.
answer
10 to 14
question
The only time an impaled object can safely be removed is:
answer
when it is stuck in the cheek
question
If an object is impaled in the eye, the most important point for a first aider to remember is to:
answer
never apply pressure to the eye
question
Under what circumstances would you leave an embedded fishhook in place? a. if the victim is uncooperative b. if removing it would injure a nearby body part c. if removing it would injure an underlying structure d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
A clot of blood under the skin is called a:
answer
hematoma
question
Control bleeding in a closed wound by:
answer
applying an ice pack
question
What steps should be taken to care for a closed wound? a. control bleeding b. apply an elastic bandage c. elevate an injured extremity if appropriate d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
Which closed wounds always require medical care? a. a large or deep puncture wound b. human or animal bite c. internal bleeding d. all of the above
answer
internal bleeding
question
Stitches should be made by a physician within ___ to ___ hours of the injury.
answer
6 to 8
question
Which of the following are advantages of stitching wounds? a. the wound heals faster b. it reduces infection c. it lessens scarring d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
Which of the following wounds usually require stitches?
answer
if the cut is more than 1 inch long and is deep
question
When should you close a gaping wound with butterfly bandages?
answer
a gaping wound should not be closed
question
What does first aid for gunshot wounds involved? a. checking breathing b. controlling bleeding with direct pressure c. treating for shock d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
Which of the following would be placed directly over an open wound?
answer
gauze pads
question
Which type of dressing is useful for small wounds? a. gauze pads b. adhesive strips c. trauma dressings d. A and B
answer
A and B
question
Which type of dressing is used for small cuts and abrasions, and are a combination of both a sterile dressing and a bandage?
answer
adhesive strips
question
What type of dressing is made of large, thick absorbent sterile materials?
answer
trauma dressings
question
What is the purpose of a dressing? a. to control bleeding b. to prevent infection c. to absorb blood d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
Which of the following would be used as a dressing?
answer
gauze pads
question
An example of an improvised dressing would be: a. a handkerchief b. a towel c. a cloth d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
When applying a sterile dressing be sure not to: a. cough on the wound b. breathe on the wound c. talk over the wound d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
What is the purpose of a bandage
answer
to hold a dressing in place
question
What is the purpose of a bandage? a. to hold a dressing in place b. to apply direct pressure c. to reduce swellings d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
A roller bandage should be started
answer
below the wound
question
Which of the following would be signs that a bandage is too tight? a. blue or pale skin color b. coldness of the extremity c. tingling of the extremity d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
The most appropriate bandage for sprains and contusions would be
answer
an elastic roller bandgage
question
Which bandage would be most appropriate for use as a sling?
answer
triangular bandage
question
Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to cover a wound of the leg?
answer
spiral method
question
Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to proved compression at or near a joint?
answer
figure-8 method
question
Deaths and complications increase dramatically for burn victims from which age group?
answer
older than 55 years
question
At what point does skin death and injury occur?
answer
about 113 degrees
question
An important fact related to chemical burns is:
answer
the burning process will continue until the chemical is removed
question
Burns that extend through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer would be considered:
answer
second-degree (partial - thickness)
question
Burns that penetrate all the skin layers into the underlying fat and muscle are considered:
answer
third - degree (full - thickness)
question
A second - degree burn is also described as
answer
partial - thickness
question
A third degree burn is also described as
answer
full thickness
question
Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of burn?
answer
second - degree (partial - thickness)
question
Which type of burn requires removal of dead tissue and a skin graft to heal properly
answer
third- degree (full - thickness)
question
The first step in helping a burn victim is to
answer
stop the burning
question
Hot, burned, or smoldering clothing should be removed:
answer
once the fire is dead
question
The quick method of assessing the extent of a burn is known as:
answer
rule of nines
question
According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage of an adult's body surface is involved if both legs are burned?
answer
36
question
Under what circumstances should medical attention be sought for the burn victim? a. for all moderate burns b. for all severe burns c. if the burn is accompanied by another injury d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
A second-degree burn that covers from 15 to 30 percent of the body surface area in adults would be considered a ___ burn.
answer
moderate
question
A second - degree burn that covers more than 30 percent of the body surface area in adults would be considered a ____ burn.
answer
critical
question
Since widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ percent of an adult's body surface.
answer
20
question
Since widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ percent of a child's body surface.
answer
10
question
When should a dressing be applied to a first-degree burn?
answer
almost never
question
The pain and inflammation from a burn can be relieved by taking:
answer
ibuprofen or acetaminophen
question
Ointments, grease, butter, cream, or home remedies are not applied to a burn because: a. they may hold heat in b. they are unsterile c. they may lead to infection d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
Generally, burn dressings are changed ___ a day
answer
once or twice
question
Scald burns are the result of contact with
answer
hot liquid
question
What is the first step in caring for dry chemicals spilled on the skin?
answer
brush off the substance then flush with water
question
When washing chemicals from the body, the area should be flushed for at least ____ minutes.
answer
twenty
question
In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should examine the wound for: a. exposed skull bone b. exposed brain c. indention of the skull d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?
answer
apply pressure around the edges of the wound
question
Clear or pink watery fluid dripping from the nose or ear is a sign of:
answer
skull fracture
question
First aid for a victim of an open skull fracture includes:
answer
stabilizing the neck against movement
question
Which type of brain injury is a bruising of brain tissue?
answer
contusion
question
Which type of brain injury causes a temporary loss of brain function, usually without permanent damage?
answer
concussion
question
Which is the most serious type of brain injury?
answer
hematoma
question
What is the most frequent type of eye injury?
answer
loose objects in the eye
question
How can blunt force trauma cause death?
answer
it can ultimately cause cessation of breathing
question
Which of the following signs of head injury can appear withing 48 hours and indicate a need for medical care? a. vision problems b. slurred speech c. trouble swallowing d. both A and B
answer
both A and B
question
A head - injury victim who fails short -term memory tests probably has:
answer
a concussion
question
A first aider should suspect that all unresponsive victims of head injury also have:
answer
spine injury
question
To stabilize the head and neck of a head-injury victim, the victim should first be placed in what position?
answer
in the position you found them
question
First aid for a victim of head injury includes:
answer
stabilizing the neck against movement
question
If the victim with head injury vomits, you should:
answer
roll the victim onto his or her side while stabilizing the neck
question
What mnemonic an be used to assess and describe a head - injury victim's metal status?
answer
AVPU
question
Following a head injury, should the victim be allowed to sleep?
answer
let the victim sleep, but wake him/her every 2 hours
question
You should seek medical attention if the head - injury victim develops which of the following signs and symptoms within 48 hours of the injury: a. slurred speech b. seizures c. "seeing double" d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
What first aid should be given to a victim with a penetrating eye injury? a. protect the injured eye to prevent deeper penetration b. stabilize an impaled object c. cover the undamaged eye d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
How should you care for cuts of the eye or lid?
answer
bandage both eyes lightly
question
For chemical burns of the eye, flush the eye continuously for at least:
answer
20 minutes
question
What can you do to remove a live insect from the ear canal? a. shine a light into the ear b. place several drops of mineral or vegetable oil into the ear c. both of the above d. do not attempt to remove an insect from the ear canal
answer
both of the above
question
A tooth often can be successfully reimplanted if ti has been put back into its socket within ___ minutes after an injury.
answer
30
question
About ___ to __ percent of head - injury victims also have a spine injury.
answer
15 to 20
question
Which type of spinal injury radiates pain around the ribs?
answer
upper back
question
Which type of spinal injury radiates pain to the arms?
answer
neck
question
Which type of spinal injury radiates pain down the legs?
answer
lower back
question
To check for spine injury in an unresponsive victim:
answer
pinch the victim's hands and feet
question
Proper first aid for a victim with spinal cord injury is: a. checking and monitoring breathing b. notifying the EMS c. stabilizing the victim against any movement d. all of the above
answer
all of the above
question
What are three types of dressings?
answer
gauze pads, adhesive bandages, trauma dressings
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