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First Aid, CPR, and AED – Flashcards

Kolby Cobb

7 July 2022

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The leading cause of death in children and young adults is:

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injuries

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Who Primarily benefits from first aid training?

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oneself

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First aid is intended to:

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provide temporary assistance until proper medical care, if needed, is obtained

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Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between: a. life and death b. rapid recovery and long hospitalization c. temporary disability and permanent injury d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is : a. responsive b. mentally competent c. an adult d. all of the above

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all of the above

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If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is know as:

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implied consent

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Which of the following is a true statement regarding obtaining consent to give first aid?

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consent should be obtained from every responsive, mentally competent adult

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In cases of psychiatric emergencies, who has authority to restrain and transport a person against the person's will?

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a police officer

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A first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person takes over.

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abandonment

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Deviating from accepted standards of care that result in further injury to the victim is known as:

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negligence

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Duty to act, breach of duty (substandard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in:

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negligence

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Which statement concerning duty to act is correct? a. duty to act occurs when employment requires it b. duty to act occurs when a preexisting relationship exists c. duty to act following guidelines for standards of care d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Which occupation has a job description designating the person to give first aid? a. law enforcement officer b. park ranger c. lifeguard d. all of the above

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all of the above

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A first aider who breaks his or her responsibility to a victim by failing to provide the type of care that another person with similar training would provide, commits:

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breach of duty

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Failure to do what a reasonably prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances is known as:

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an act of omission

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Good Samaritan laws granting immunity are generally applicable when the rescuer is? a. acting in good faith b. acting during an emergency c. not guilty of malicious conduct d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Doing something that a reasonably prudent person would not do under the same or similar circumstances is known as:

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Act of Commission

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Touching a person or providing first aid without consent is known as:

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battery

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An assumed consent given by an unconscious adult when emergency lifesaving treatment is required is known as:

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Implied Consent

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Immediate care given to an injured or suddenly ill person is known as:

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First Aid

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People who are designated as first aiders by their employers must give first aid to injured employees while on the job. T/F

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True

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First aiders who help injured victims are rarely sued. T/F

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True

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You are required to provide first aid to any injured or suddenly ill person you encounter. T/F

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False

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Who usually recognizes a situation as an emergency, and intervenes to help the victim?

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A Bystander

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Who is the most important link between the emergency medical service (EMS) and the victim?

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bystanders

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Why are bystanders less likely to offer help when an emergency occurs in a public place? a. lack of knowledge b. confusion about what is an emergency c. characteristics of the emergency d. all of the above

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all of the above

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A bystander who has seen the emergency happen is ____ to help than a bystander who arrives after the event.

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more likely

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What is the first action a bystander should take in an emergency?

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recognize the emergency

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Severity, physical distance, relationship, and time exposed are all factors that can help the bystander:

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recognize the emergency

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Refusing to acknowledge an emergency is a strategy that can interfere with which emergency action

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deciding to help

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When should a bystander decide whether to help at an emergency?

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before encountering an emergency

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Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency? a. fear of a lawsuit b. uncertainty of what to do for the victim c. other bystanders are at the scene d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Desensitization relates to

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overcoming anxieties caused by unpleasant sights and sound

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What should the rescuer look for during the scene size-up? a. hazards that could be dangerous to the rescuer, the victim(s), or bystanders b. the mechanism or cause of injury/illness c. the number of victims d. all of the above

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all of the above

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EMS personnel should definitely be summoned in which instance? a. uncontrolled bleeding b. breathing difficulty c. coughing or vomiting blood d. all of the above

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all of the above

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EMS personnel should definitely be called for:

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chest pain lasting longer than 2 minutes

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In a serious situation, who should you call first?

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EMS

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What information will you need to provide to the EMS dispatcher? a. the victims location b. the victim's condition' c. your name and phone number d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens? a. hepatitis B b. hepatitis C c. HIV d. all of the above

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all of the the above

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What is the best defense against hepatitis B?

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vaccination

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A vaccine is available for

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hepatitis B

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Bloodborn diseases are most commonly transmitted by: a. blood b. semen c. vaginal secretions d. all of the above

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all of the above

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The most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against bloodborne pathogens is:

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gloves

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The grieving process has ___ stages.

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The first stage of grieving is :

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denial

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The second stage of grieving is :

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anger

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The third stage of grieving is:

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bargaining

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The forth stage of grieving is:

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depression

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The fifth stage of grieving is :

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acceptance

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The _____ stage of grieving is characterized by denial.

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first

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The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by bargaining.

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third

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The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by sadness and despair.

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fourth

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The __ stage of grieving is characterized by acceptance.

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fifth

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The first aider should leave the confirmation of death to:

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a physician

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When a person is alert and can give consent verbally or with a nod of the head.

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expressed consent

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When a nonresponsive person has a life threatening condition and it is assumed that the unresponsive person would give consent. Also, if an alert person does not resist first aid.

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implied consent

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Leaving a person after starting to give help without first ensuring that the person will receive continued care at the same level or higher.

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abandonment

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Not following the accepted standards of care, resulting in further injury to the person.

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negligence

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List the 5 ACTIONS THAT A BYSTANDER MUST TAKE IF HE/she decides to intervene in an emergency.

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1. Recognize the emergency 2. decide to help 3. call 9-1-1 if EMS is needed 4.Check the injured or ill person 5. Give first aid

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When calling EMS, what 5 important pieces of information should a bystander communicate?

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1. The person's location 2. The phone number you're calling from and your name. 3. A description of what happened 4. The number of people needing help and any special conditions. 5. A description of the person's condition

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What all is included in a scene size up?

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Try to answer the following questions 1. Are hazards present that could be dangerous to you, the injured or suddenly ill person or people, or bystanders? 2. How many people are involved 3. What is wrong? 4. What happened? 5. Are bystanders available to help?

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If the oxygen supply of the body is cut off, death will occur in about _____ to _____ minutes.

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four to six

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The pharynx is also known as the

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throat

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Which organ functions as the passageway for both food and air?

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pharynx

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Which organ carries food to the stomach?

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esophagus

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Which organ is the passageway for air to travel into the lungs?

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trachea

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Food or liquid can enter the trachea by mistake when the _____ fails to close

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epiglottis

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The voice box is also known as the ________.

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larynx

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The average rate of breathing in an adult at rest is ____ to ___ respirations per minute.

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twelve to twenty

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The average rate of breathing in a child at rest is ___ to ____ respirations per minute.

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fifteen to thirty

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Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? a. an abnormal breathing rate b. pale or blue-gray skin c. cool and clammy skin d. all of the above

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all of the above

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The normal heart rate for children is ____ to ___ beats per minute.

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80 to 100

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The normal heart rate for adults is ___ to ___ beats per minute.

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60 to 100

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The normal heart rate for toddlers is ___ to ___ beats per minute.

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100 to 120

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The normal heart rate for Newborns is ___ to __ beats per minute.

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120 to 140

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Which blood vessels carry blood back to the heart.

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veins

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Which of the following is the major artery of the neck?

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carotid

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Which artery should be used to check the pulse of an unconscious victim?

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carotid

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Which of the following is the major artery of the upper arm?

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brachial

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Which of the following arteries should be used to check the pulse of an infant?

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brachial

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What transports food materials to the body cells and waste materials to organs for elimination?

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plasma

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Which portion of blood carries oxygen to the organs?

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red blood cells

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Which portion of blood defends against bacteria?

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white blood cells

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Hemorrhage is the term for:

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profuse bleeding

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Shock is the inadequate circulation of _____ through an organ or structure.

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blood

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The adult skeleton has ____ bones.

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206

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A person with a back or neck injury must be handled with extreme care to prevent injury to the:

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spinal cord

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The thorax is another name for the _____.

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rib cage

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The flat, narrow bone in the middle of the front wall of the chest is known as:

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the sternum

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The lowest part of the sternum is called the:

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xiphoid process

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The collar bone is known as the:

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clavicle

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The shoulder blade is also known as the:

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scapula

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The two bones of the forearm are the:

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radius and ulna

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A joint is where two or more ___ meet or join.

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bones

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What holds the bones of a joint in place?

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ligaments

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What is the purpose of the skin? a. to protect against bacteria invasion b. to help regulate body temperature c. to act as a sensory organ d. all of the above

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all of the above

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To find out what's wrong with the victim, use the logical, systematic format known as

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victim assessment

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Which of the following is the first step in victim assessment?

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primary check

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The goal of the victim assessment is to:

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quickly identify life threats

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If the primary check uncovers an obstructed airway or massive bleeding, the first aider should attend to those problems:

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immediately

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What is the purpose of the primary check?

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to find and take action to treat life-threatening conditions

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A victim's level of responsiveness or mental status can be described according to the ___ scale.

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AVPU

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The "A" in AVPU stands for

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alert

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The "U" in AVPU stands for:

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unresponsive to any stimulus

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Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim?

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heat-tilt/ chin-lift

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To check for breathing in an unresponsive victim, you should: a. look for the chest to rise and fall b. listen for normal or abnormal breath sounds c. feel for adequate air movement d. all of the above

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all of the above

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If an unresponsive victim is not breathing, the first aider should:

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begin CPR

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If the unresponsive victim is breathing, the best position for the victim is

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on the left side

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Which of the following should be checked when assessing the victim's skin condition? a. skin color b. skin temperature c. skin moisture d. all of the above

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all of the above

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When the skin's blood vessels constrict or the heart rate slows, the skin become:

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cool and pale

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To check the victim's skin temperature, put the back of your hand on the victim's

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forehead

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Squeezing the victim's fingers and toes is done when checking the victim for:

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spinal injury

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The secondary check on an adult should be started at the victim's

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head

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The mnemonic DOTS can help you remember:

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the signs and symptoms of injury

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The "D" in DOTS stands for:

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deformity

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The "O" in DOTS stands for:

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open wound

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Using the mnemonic _______ can help you collect the victim's history.

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SAMPLE

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Something that the first aider sees, hears, or feels is:

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a sign

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Which of the following is a sign?

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moist skin

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Something that the victim tells the first aider about is::

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symptom

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Which of the following is a symptom? a. rapid pulse b. dilated pupils c. nausea d. red face

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nausea

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The "S" in SAMPLE stands for:

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signs and symptoms

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The "P" in SAMPLE stands for:

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preexisting conditions

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The "L" in SAMPLE stands for

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last oral intake

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The "E" in SAMPLE stands for

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Events leading to injury or illness

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Medical identification tags can help the first aider identify: a. allergies b. medications c. medical history d. all of the above

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all of the above

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While waiting for an ambulance, the primary check should be repeated every __ minutes for an unresponsive victim.

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Why should an unresponsive victim be placed on the side?

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delays vomiting by placing the esophagus above the stomach

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What is the most prominent medical emergency in the u.s.?

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heart attack

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Besides heart attack victims, CPR can also save victims of: a. drowning b. drug overdose c. suffocation d. all of the above

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all of the above

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The first step in performing adult basic life support is to :

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check the victim's responsiveness

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What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive person?

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the tongue

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Place an unresponsive breathing victim

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on their left side (recovery position)

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if an unresponsive victim is not breathing, the first aider should:

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activate the EMS immediately

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Which of the following is a sign of sever airway obstruction a. breathing difficulty b. weak ineffective cough c. blue - gray skin d. all of the above

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all of the above

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If the victim's mouth is severely injured, the first aider should:

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give rescue breaths by the mouth-to-nose method

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CPR by a lay person is needed:

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when the victim is not breathing

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During CPR, the rescuer gives:

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chest compressions and rescue breathing

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The simplest method to check responsiveness of a victim is to:

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tap the shoulder and shout "Are you okay?"

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If alone with an unresponsive adult victim, the rescuer should:

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activate EMS immediately

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If alone with an unresponsive child or infant victim, the rescuer should:

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provide care for 2 minutes, then activate the EMS system or give 5 cycles of CPR, then activate the EMS system

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How would you turn an unresponsive victim over?

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as a unit, keeping the body from twisting

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______ occurs when heart muscle tissue dies because its blood supply is severely reduced or stopped.

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Heart attack

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Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim?

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head-tilt/chin-lift

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The links included in the cardiac chain of survival include: a. recognition and action b. CPR and defibrillation c. advanced care and post arrest care d. all of the above

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all of the above

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The proper sequence for CPR is:

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CAB Compression, Airway, Breath

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How many initial rescue breaths should the first aider give?

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When performing a rescue breath, the first aider should blow:

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slowly, until the chest rises or gently, but with enough force for the chest to rise.

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When giving rescue breaths to an adult, each breath should last approximately?

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1 second

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If the first rescue breath does not go in, the first aider should:

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reposition the victim's head and try a second breath

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When giving rescue breaths to a child, each breath should last approximately?

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1 second

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When performing chest compression on an adult victim, the hands are placed:

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over the notch at the bottom of the sternum center of the chest/lower sternum

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When performing adult CPR, how many compressions should be given?

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When performing chest compressions on an adult victim, the sternum should be depressed:

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2 inches (5cm)

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The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing adult CPR is:

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30 compressions and 2 breaths

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After starting CPR on an adult victim, perform ____ cycles and then stop and check the victim.

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At what point would you stop performing adult CPR and check for circulation?

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after you have completed 5 cycles

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When performing CPR on a child victim give _____ breaths after every 30 compression.

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When performing chest compressions on a child, the sternum should be depressed:

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2 inches (5cm)

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When would you stop giving CPR? A. When the victim starts breathing on his or her own b. When trained help arrives and relieves you c. When you are completely exhausted d. all of the above

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all of the above

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If the coking victim is unable to speak, breathe, or cough, they are experiencing a:

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complete airway obstruction

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Infants are those who are:

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younger than 1 year of age

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A child's age ranges from:

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1 to puberty

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Adults include those who are:

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at puberty or older

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When should a blind finger sweep be performed by a lay person to remove an object on a choking victim?

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never perform a blind finger sweep

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What is the first step when assisting a victim with a suspected airway obstruction?

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ask, "Can you speak?"

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How many abdominal thrusts should be given to a responsive choking victim?

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as many as are needed to remove the obstruction or until the victim becomes unresponsive

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When giving abdominal thrusts to a choking victim, where should you position your hands?

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in the middle of the abdomen, just above the navel

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When giving abdominal thrusts, which part of the fist is placed against the victim's abdomen?

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thumb side

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Repeat abdominal thrusts until: a. victim coughs up object b. victim starts to breathe or cough forcefully c. victim becomes unresponsive d. all of the above

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all of the above

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If the 2 initial breaths do not go in to the victim:

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perform CPR

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If alone with an unresponsive child, the rescuer should:

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perform first aid for 2 minutes, then activate EMS or give 5 cycles of CPR , then activate EMS

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When giving a child rescue breaths, the breaths should last:

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1 second

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When performing child CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of:

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120 compressions per minute or at least 100-120 compressions per minute

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The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing one person child CPR is:

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30 compressions and 2 breaths

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When giving rescue breaths to an infant, you should:

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form an airtight seal around the infant's mouth and nose

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When giving an infant rescue breaths, the breaths should last:

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1 second

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When giving chest compressions to an infant, place two fingers:

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on the center of the chest, just below the nipple line or 2 fingers with one touching at and below the nipple line

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When performing infant CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of:

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at least 100 compressions per minute

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When performing chest compressions on an infant, the sternum should be depressed:

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1 1/2 inches (4cm)

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The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing one person infant CPR is :

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30 compressions and 2 breaths

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During infant CPR, at what point would you stop performing CPR and check breathing?

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after you have completed 5 cycles

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Responsive choking in infants is managed through a sequence of :

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back blows, chest thrusts

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How many back blows and chest thrusts should be given to a responsive choking infant?

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5 each

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AEDs can be used on: a. infants b. children c. adults d. all of the above

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all of the above

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A victim's chance of survival dramatically improves through: a. early CPR B. early defibrillation c. hands-only CPR d. both a and b

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both A and B

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Which is the most common abnormal heart rhythm in cases of sudden cardiac arrest in adults?

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Ventricular fibrillation

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During ventricular fibrillation, the heart:

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quivers and cannot pump blood

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When the heart stops beating,

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blood carrying oxygen becomes unavailable to the entire body.

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Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR):

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is the initial care for cardiac arrest until a defibrillator is available.

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An AED can: a. analyze the heart's rhythm b. deliver an electrical shock c. be used by trained lay persons d. all of the above

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all of the above

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How many adhesive pads (electrodes) are placed on the victim's chest?

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two

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What mnemonic best describes adult/ child CPR?

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RAB-CAB

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Which of the following statements about AED's is true? a. The AED pads need to be attached to a dry chest b. The electrode pads are placed on the left side of the victim's chest c. Do not use an AED on a person with an implanted pacemaker d. You need to turn the AED on daily as part of a routine inspection.

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The AED pads need to be attached to a dry chest

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Verify no one is in contact with the victim: a. during analysis b. during the shock c. both a and b d. it is okay to stay in contact with the victim while using the AED

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both A and B

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Before using an AED: A. Give CPR until the AED is ready to be used B. position it next to the victim c. turn the AED on d. all of the above

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All of the above

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Place the AED pads:

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where the diagram or illustration on the AED indicates or place one just below right collarbone/above right nipple and the other just below/left to the left nipple

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While the AED analyzes the victim's heart rhythm:

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do not touch the victim

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Which of the following statements about AEDs is true: a. remove patches containing medication (e.g., nitroglycerin, nicotine). b. Do not use an AED on children (aged 1 to 8 years ) c. put petroleum jelly on the skin where the electrodes are to be placed. d. all chest should be shaved before applying the electrodes.

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Remove patches containing medication (e.g., nitroglycerin, nicotine).

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What is shock?

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Shock (hypoperfusion) describes a state of collapse and failure of the cardiovascular system in which blood circulation decreases and eventually ceases.

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Non - cardovascular causes of shock are:

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respiratory insufficiency, psychogenic shock, and anaphylaxis

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Cardiovascular causes of shock are:

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poor pump function, blood or fluid loss from blood vessels, and poor vessel function.

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What are 3 types of dressing?

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a. gauze pads b. adhesive bandages c. trauma dressings

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Concussion

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a mild traumatic brain injury (MTBI) and occurs when a blow to the head alters the function of the brain.

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Shock refers to the failure of what system?

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circulatory

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Shock occurs when body parts do not receive adequate:

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oxygenated blood

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Without oxygen, the brain will start to be irreparably damaged in ___ to ___ minutes.

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4 to 6

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Hypovolemic shock results from:

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the loss of a significant amount of fluid.

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Neurogenic shock results from:

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damage to the nervous system

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Septic shock develops in some victims with:

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bacterial infection

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When a person experiences shock, their skin is usually:

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moist

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Victims of shock usually experience the following altered mental status:

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anxiety and restlessness

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Which of the following statements concerning shock is correct:

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a first aider can prevent shock from worsening

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A shock victim who is unresponsive should be placed

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on the side

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A shock victim in the advanced stages of pregnancy should be placed:

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on their left side

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Why is neither food nor drink given to a shock victim?

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it could cause vomiting

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Anaphylactic shock:

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is a massive allergic reaction

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Sensitive persons may experience anaphylaxis from exposure to: a. medications b. foods c. insect stings d. all of the above

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all of the above

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First aid for anaphylactic shock would include which of the following? a. emergency transport to a medical facility b. transporting the victim in a half-sitting position c. determining if the victim has an emergency epinephrine kit d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Rapid blood loss of ____ quart(s) or more in an adult can lead to shock and death.

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How much blood loss is extremely dangerous for a child?

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one pint or 1/2 quart

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_____ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound.

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arterial

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Blood from ____ flows steadily or gushes.

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veins

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Quite often, ____ bleeding will clot off by itself.

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capillary

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When arteries are completely severed:

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they are more likely to constrict and slow the bleeding

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Cotting time is _____ when the victim is taking aspirin or is anemic.

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longer

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The first method used to control external bleeding should be:

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direct pressure

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If a dressing become blood-soked, what should be done?

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apply another dressing on top of the old one.

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If direct pressure and elevation fail to control bleeding, the next step would be to :

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Apply direct pressure over the wound, and pressure at a pressure point.

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When direct pressure cannot be applied, such as in the case of a protruding bone, bleeding should be controlled by using:

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doughnut-shaped pads (indirect pressure)

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Tourniquets are rarely used because: a. they are rarely needed b. they can damage nerves and blood vessels c. they may cause the loss of an arm or leg d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding? a. bruises of the skin b. fractured ribs or bruises on the chest c. vomiting or coughing up blood d. all of the above

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all of the above

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What should be done when caring for a victim of severe internal bleeding? a. monitor breathing b. treat for shock c. seek immediate medical care d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Which wound results in skin cut with jagged, irregular edges?

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laceration

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Which wound is smooth-edged?

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incision

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Which wound is usually deep and narrow, with a high risk of infection?

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puncture

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Which wound involves the cutting or tearing off of a body part?

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amputation

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For a shallow wound, wash inside it with:

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soap and water

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The best way to irrigate a wound is by :

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letting water from a faucet rapidly pour into the wound

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How should animal bites, dirty wounds, and puncture wounds be cleaned?

answer

they should only be cleaned by emergency department personnel

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What can safely be put on shallow wounds?

answer

antibiotic ointments, such as Neosporin

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Which of the following should be used to irrigate a wound? a. isopropyl alcohol b. hydrogen peroxide c. a full-strength iodine preparation, such as Betadine d. none of the above

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none of the above

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Which first aid supply i s applied over a wound to control bleeding and prevent contamination?

answer

dressing

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What are the signs and symptoms of an infected wound? a. throbbing pain b. pus discharge c. fever d. all of the above

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all of the above

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Which of the following are appropriate home treatments for the early stages of infection?

answer

antibiotic ointment, elevation, soaking the wound

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Tetanus is caused by

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a toxin produced by a bacteria

question

Where is the tetanus bacteria commonly found? a. soil b. street dust c. pet feces d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A victim with a dirty wound who has not had a tetanus booster for over ____years should receive a booster?

answer

question

Tetanus shots must be given within ____hours of the injury to be effective.

answer

question

What percentage of amputated extremities cam be successfully replanted?

answer

80 to 90

question

What type of amputation occurs when the skin is peeled off?

answer

degloving

question

Which type of amputation is the most common?

answer

crushing

question

The first step in controlling bleeding from an amputation is:

answer

applying direct pressure

question

How should an amputated body part be cared for?

answer

do not clean the amputated part

question

The clean amputated part should be wrapped in:

answer

a dry, sterile dressing

question

The cleaned, wrapped amputated part should be:

answer

placed in a plastic bag

question

The bag/container with the wrapped amputated part should be:

answer

placed on a bed of ice

question

What tends to have smooth edges and resemble a surgical or paper cut?

answer

incision

question

After a blister forms, what should you try first?

answer

cover the blister with moleskin cut into the shape of a doughnut

question

What is the proper procedure for breaking a blister?

answer

drain the fluid by making a small hole at the blister's edge

question

Once a blister has been opened, a protective bandage should be worn for ___ to ___ days, or until new skin forms.

answer

10 to 14

question

The only time an impaled object can safely be removed is:

answer

when it is stuck in the cheek

question

If an object is impaled in the eye, the most important point for a first aider to remember is to:

answer

never apply pressure to the eye

question

Under what circumstances would you leave an embedded fishhook in place? a. if the victim is uncooperative b. if removing it would injure a nearby body part c. if removing it would injure an underlying structure d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A clot of blood under the skin is called a:

answer

hematoma

question

Control bleeding in a closed wound by:

answer

applying an ice pack

question

What steps should be taken to care for a closed wound? a. control bleeding b. apply an elastic bandage c. elevate an injured extremity if appropriate d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which closed wounds always require medical care? a. a large or deep puncture wound b. human or animal bite c. internal bleeding d. all of the above

answer

internal bleeding

question

Stitches should be made by a physician within ___ to ___ hours of the injury.

answer

6 to 8

question

Which of the following are advantages of stitching wounds? a. the wound heals faster b. it reduces infection c. it lessens scarring d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following wounds usually require stitches?

answer

if the cut is more than 1 inch long and is deep

question

When should you close a gaping wound with butterfly bandages?

answer

a gaping wound should not be closed

question

What does first aid for gunshot wounds involved? a. checking breathing b. controlling bleeding with direct pressure c. treating for shock d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following would be placed directly over an open wound?

answer

gauze pads

question

Which type of dressing is useful for small wounds? a. gauze pads b. adhesive strips c. trauma dressings d. A and B

answer

A and B

question

Which type of dressing is used for small cuts and abrasions, and are a combination of both a sterile dressing and a bandage?

answer

adhesive strips

question

What type of dressing is made of large, thick absorbent sterile materials?

answer

trauma dressings

question

What is the purpose of a dressing? a. to control bleeding b. to prevent infection c. to absorb blood d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following would be used as a dressing?

answer

gauze pads

question

An example of an improvised dressing would be: a. a handkerchief b. a towel c. a cloth d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

When applying a sterile dressing be sure not to: a. cough on the wound b. breathe on the wound c. talk over the wound d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

What is the purpose of a bandage

answer

to hold a dressing in place

question

What is the purpose of a bandage? a. to hold a dressing in place b. to apply direct pressure c. to reduce swellings d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A roller bandage should be started

answer

below the wound

question

Which of the following would be signs that a bandage is too tight? a. blue or pale skin color b. coldness of the extremity c. tingling of the extremity d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

The most appropriate bandage for sprains and contusions would be

answer

an elastic roller bandgage

question

Which bandage would be most appropriate for use as a sling?

answer

triangular bandage

question

Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to cover a wound of the leg?

answer

spiral method

question

Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to proved compression at or near a joint?

answer

figure-8 method

question

Deaths and complications increase dramatically for burn victims from which age group?

answer

older than 55 years

question

At what point does skin death and injury occur?

answer

about 113 degrees

question

An important fact related to chemical burns is:

answer

the burning process will continue until the chemical is removed

question

Burns that extend through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer would be considered:

answer

second-degree (partial - thickness)

question

Burns that penetrate all the skin layers into the underlying fat and muscle are considered:

answer

third - degree (full - thickness)

question

A second - degree burn is also described as

answer

partial - thickness

question

A third degree burn is also described as

answer

full thickness

question

Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of burn?

answer

second - degree (partial - thickness)

question

Which type of burn requires removal of dead tissue and a skin graft to heal properly

answer

third- degree (full - thickness)

question

The first step in helping a burn victim is to

answer

stop the burning

question

Hot, burned, or smoldering clothing should be removed:

answer

once the fire is dead

question

The quick method of assessing the extent of a burn is known as:

answer

rule of nines

question

According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage of an adult's body surface is involved if both legs are burned?

answer

question

Under what circumstances should medical attention be sought for the burn victim? a. for all moderate burns b. for all severe burns c. if the burn is accompanied by another injury d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A second-degree burn that covers from 15 to 30 percent of the body surface area in adults would be considered a ___ burn.

answer

moderate

question

A second - degree burn that covers more than 30 percent of the body surface area in adults would be considered a ____ burn.

answer

critical

question

Since widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ percent of an adult's body surface.

answer

question

Since widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ percent of a child's body surface.

answer

question

When should a dressing be applied to a first-degree burn?

answer

almost never

question

The pain and inflammation from a burn can be relieved by taking:

answer

ibuprofen or acetaminophen

question

Ointments, grease, butter, cream, or home remedies are not applied to a burn because: a. they may hold heat in b. they are unsterile c. they may lead to infection d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Generally, burn dressings are changed ___ a day

answer

once or twice

question

Scald burns are the result of contact with

answer

hot liquid

question

What is the first step in caring for dry chemicals spilled on the skin?

answer

brush off the substance then flush with water

question

When washing chemicals from the body, the area should be flushed for at least ____ minutes.

answer

twenty

question

In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should examine the wound for: a. exposed skull bone b. exposed brain c. indention of the skull d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?

answer

apply pressure around the edges of the wound

question

Clear or pink watery fluid dripping from the nose or ear is a sign of:

answer

skull fracture

question

First aid for a victim of an open skull fracture includes:

answer

stabilizing the neck against movement

question

Which type of brain injury is a bruising of brain tissue?

answer

contusion

question

Which type of brain injury causes a temporary loss of brain function, usually without permanent damage?

answer

concussion

question

Which is the most serious type of brain injury?

answer

hematoma

question

What is the most frequent type of eye injury?

answer

loose objects in the eye

question

How can blunt force trauma cause death?

answer

it can ultimately cause cessation of breathing

question

Which of the following signs of head injury can appear withing 48 hours and indicate a need for medical care? a. vision problems b. slurred speech c. trouble swallowing d. both A and B

answer

both A and B

question

A head - injury victim who fails short -term memory tests probably has:

answer

a concussion

question

A first aider should suspect that all unresponsive victims of head injury also have:

answer

spine injury

question

To stabilize the head and neck of a head-injury victim, the victim should first be placed in what position?

answer

in the position you found them

question

First aid for a victim of head injury includes:

answer

stabilizing the neck against movement

question

If the victim with head injury vomits, you should:

answer

roll the victim onto his or her side while stabilizing the neck

question

What mnemonic an be used to assess and describe a head - injury victim's metal status?

answer

AVPU

question

Following a head injury, should the victim be allowed to sleep?

answer

let the victim sleep, but wake him/her every 2 hours

question

You should seek medical attention if the head - injury victim develops which of the following signs and symptoms within 48 hours of the injury: a. slurred speech b. seizures c. "seeing double" d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

What first aid should be given to a victim with a penetrating eye injury? a. protect the injured eye to prevent deeper penetration b. stabilize an impaled object c. cover the undamaged eye d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

How should you care for cuts of the eye or lid?

answer

bandage both eyes lightly

question

For chemical burns of the eye, flush the eye continuously for at least:

answer

20 minutes

question

What can you do to remove a live insect from the ear canal? a. shine a light into the ear b. place several drops of mineral or vegetable oil into the ear c. both of the above d. do not attempt to remove an insect from the ear canal

answer

both of the above

question

A tooth often can be successfully reimplanted if ti has been put back into its socket within ___ minutes after an injury.

answer

question

About ___ to __ percent of head - injury victims also have a spine injury.

answer

15 to 20

question

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain around the ribs?

answer

upper back

question

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain to the arms?

answer

neck

question

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain down the legs?

answer

lower back

question

To check for spine injury in an unresponsive victim:

answer

pinch the victim's hands and feet

question

Proper first aid for a victim with spinal cord injury is: a. checking and monitoring breathing b. notifying the EMS c. stabilizing the victim against any movement d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

What are three types of dressings?

answer

gauze pads, adhesive bandages, trauma dressings

1 of

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers

question

The leading cause of death in children and young adults is:

answer

injuries

question

Who Primarily benefits from first aid training?

answer

oneself

question

First aid is intended to:

answer

provide temporary assistance until proper medical care, if needed, is obtained

question

Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between: a. life and death b. rapid recovery and long hospitalization c. temporary disability and permanent injury d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Consent to give first aid must be obtained from every victim who is : a. responsive b. mentally competent c. an adult d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is know as:

answer

implied consent

question

Which of the following is a true statement regarding obtaining consent to give first aid?

answer

consent should be obtained from every responsive, mentally competent adult

question

In cases of psychiatric emergencies, who has authority to restrain and transport a person against the person's will?

answer

a police officer

question

A first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person takes over.

answer

abandonment

question

Deviating from accepted standards of care that result in further injury to the victim is known as:

answer

negligence

question

Duty to act, breach of duty (substandard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all factors involved in:

answer

negligence

question

answer

all of the above

question

Which occupation has a job description designating the person to give first aid? a. law enforcement officer b. park ranger c. lifeguard d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A first aider who breaks his or her responsibility to a victim by failing to provide the type of care that another person with similar training would provide, commits:

answer

breach of duty

question

Failure to do what a reasonably prudent person with the same or similar training would do in the same or similar circumstances is known as:

answer

an act of omission

question

Good Samaritan laws granting immunity are generally applicable when the rescuer is? a. acting in good faith b. acting during an emergency c. not guilty of malicious conduct d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Doing something that a reasonably prudent person would not do under the same or similar circumstances is known as:

answer

Act of Commission

question

Touching a person or providing first aid without consent is known as:

answer

battery

question

An assumed consent given by an unconscious adult when emergency lifesaving treatment is required is known as:

answer

Implied Consent

question

Immediate care given to an injured or suddenly ill person is known as:

answer

First Aid

question

People who are designated as first aiders by their employers must give first aid to injured employees while on the job. T/F

answer

True

question

First aiders who help injured victims are rarely sued. T/F

answer

True

question

You are required to provide first aid to any injured or suddenly ill person you encounter. T/F

answer

False

question

Who usually recognizes a situation as an emergency, and intervenes to help the victim?

answer

A Bystander

question

Who is the most important link between the emergency medical service (EMS) and the victim?

answer

bystanders

question

answer

all of the above

question

A bystander who has seen the emergency happen is ____ to help than a bystander who arrives after the event.

answer

more likely

question

What is the first action a bystander should take in an emergency?

answer

recognize the emergency

question

Severity, physical distance, relationship, and time exposed are all factors that can help the bystander:

answer

recognize the emergency

question

Refusing to acknowledge an emergency is a strategy that can interfere with which emergency action

answer

deciding to help

question

When should a bystander decide whether to help at an emergency?

answer

before encountering an emergency

question

Why might someone hesitate to get involved during an emergency? a. fear of a lawsuit b. uncertainty of what to do for the victim c. other bystanders are at the scene d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Desensitization relates to

answer

overcoming anxieties caused by unpleasant sights and sound

question

answer

all of the above

question

EMS personnel should definitely be summoned in which instance? a. uncontrolled bleeding b. breathing difficulty c. coughing or vomiting blood d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

EMS personnel should definitely be called for:

answer

chest pain lasting longer than 2 minutes

question

In a serious situation, who should you call first?

answer

EMS

question

What information will you need to provide to the EMS dispatcher? a. the victims location b. the victim's condition' c. your name and phone number d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following are bloodborne pathogens? a. hepatitis B b. hepatitis C c. HIV d. all of the above

answer

all of the the above

question

What is the best defense against hepatitis B?

answer

vaccination

question

A vaccine is available for

answer

hepatitis B

question

Bloodborn diseases are most commonly transmitted by: a. blood b. semen c. vaginal secretions d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

The most common type of personal protective equipment available for first aiders to protect against bloodborne pathogens is:

answer

gloves

question

The grieving process has ___ stages.

answer

question

The first stage of grieving is :

answer

denial

question

The second stage of grieving is :

answer

anger

question

The third stage of grieving is:

answer

bargaining

question

The forth stage of grieving is:

answer

depression

question

The fifth stage of grieving is :

answer

acceptance

question

The _____ stage of grieving is characterized by denial.

answer

first

question

The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by bargaining.

answer

third

question

The ____ stage of grieving is characterized by sadness and despair.

answer

fourth

question

The __ stage of grieving is characterized by acceptance.

answer

fifth

question

The first aider should leave the confirmation of death to:

answer

a physician

question

When a person is alert and can give consent verbally or with a nod of the head.

answer

expressed consent

question

When a nonresponsive person has a life threatening condition and it is assumed that the unresponsive person would give consent. Also, if an alert person does not resist first aid.

answer

implied consent

question

Leaving a person after starting to give help without first ensuring that the person will receive continued care at the same level or higher.

answer

abandonment

question

Not following the accepted standards of care, resulting in further injury to the person.

answer

negligence

question

List the 5 ACTIONS THAT A BYSTANDER MUST TAKE IF HE/she decides to intervene in an emergency.

answer

1. Recognize the emergency 2. decide to help 3. call 9-1-1 if EMS is needed 4.Check the injured or ill person 5. Give first aid

question

When calling EMS, what 5 important pieces of information should a bystander communicate?

answer

question

What all is included in a scene size up?

answer

question

If the oxygen supply of the body is cut off, death will occur in about _____ to _____ minutes.

answer

four to six

question

The pharynx is also known as the

answer

throat

question

Which organ functions as the passageway for both food and air?

answer

pharynx

question

Which organ carries food to the stomach?

answer

esophagus

question

Which organ is the passageway for air to travel into the lungs?

answer

trachea

question

Food or liquid can enter the trachea by mistake when the _____ fails to close

answer

epiglottis

question

The voice box is also known as the ________.

answer

larynx

question

The average rate of breathing in an adult at rest is ____ to ___ respirations per minute.

answer

twelve to twenty

question

The average rate of breathing in a child at rest is ___ to ____ respirations per minute.

answer

fifteen to thirty

question

Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? a. an abnormal breathing rate b. pale or blue-gray skin c. cool and clammy skin d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

The normal heart rate for children is ____ to ___ beats per minute.

answer

80 to 100

question

The normal heart rate for adults is ___ to ___ beats per minute.

answer

60 to 100

question

The normal heart rate for toddlers is ___ to ___ beats per minute.

answer

100 to 120

question

The normal heart rate for Newborns is ___ to __ beats per minute.

answer

120 to 140

question

Which blood vessels carry blood back to the heart.

answer

veins

question

Which of the following is the major artery of the neck?

answer

carotid

question

Which artery should be used to check the pulse of an unconscious victim?

answer

carotid

question

Which of the following is the major artery of the upper arm?

answer

brachial

question

Which of the following arteries should be used to check the pulse of an infant?

answer

brachial

question

What transports food materials to the body cells and waste materials to organs for elimination?

answer

plasma

question

Which portion of blood carries oxygen to the organs?

answer

red blood cells

question

Which portion of blood defends against bacteria?

answer

white blood cells

question

Hemorrhage is the term for:

answer

profuse bleeding

question

Shock is the inadequate circulation of _____ through an organ or structure.

answer

blood

question

The adult skeleton has ____ bones.

answer

206

question

A person with a back or neck injury must be handled with extreme care to prevent injury to the:

answer

spinal cord

question

The thorax is another name for the _____.

answer

rib cage

question

The flat, narrow bone in the middle of the front wall of the chest is known as:

answer

the sternum

question

The lowest part of the sternum is called the:

answer

xiphoid process

question

The collar bone is known as the:

answer

clavicle

question

The shoulder blade is also known as the:

answer

scapula

question

The two bones of the forearm are the:

answer

radius and ulna

question

A joint is where two or more ___ meet or join.

answer

bones

question

What holds the bones of a joint in place?

answer

ligaments

question

What is the purpose of the skin? a. to protect against bacteria invasion b. to help regulate body temperature c. to act as a sensory organ d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

To find out what's wrong with the victim, use the logical, systematic format known as

answer

victim assessment

question

Which of the following is the first step in victim assessment?

answer

primary check

question

The goal of the victim assessment is to:

answer

quickly identify life threats

question

If the primary check uncovers an obstructed airway or massive bleeding, the first aider should attend to those problems:

answer

immediately

question

What is the purpose of the primary check?

answer

to find and take action to treat life-threatening conditions

question

A victim's level of responsiveness or mental status can be described according to the ___ scale.

answer

AVPU

question

The "A" in AVPU stands for

answer

alert

question

The "U" in AVPU stands for:

answer

unresponsive to any stimulus

question

Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim?

answer

heat-tilt/ chin-lift

question

answer

all of the above

question

If an unresponsive victim is not breathing, the first aider should:

answer

begin CPR

question

If the unresponsive victim is breathing, the best position for the victim is

answer

on the left side

question

Which of the following should be checked when assessing the victim's skin condition? a. skin color b. skin temperature c. skin moisture d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

When the skin's blood vessels constrict or the heart rate slows, the skin become:

answer

cool and pale

question

To check the victim's skin temperature, put the back of your hand on the victim's

answer

forehead

question

Squeezing the victim's fingers and toes is done when checking the victim for:

answer

spinal injury

question

The secondary check on an adult should be started at the victim's

answer

head

question

The mnemonic DOTS can help you remember:

answer

the signs and symptoms of injury

question

The "D" in DOTS stands for:

answer

deformity

question

The "O" in DOTS stands for:

answer

open wound

question

Using the mnemonic _______ can help you collect the victim's history.

answer

SAMPLE

question

Something that the first aider sees, hears, or feels is:

answer

a sign

question

Which of the following is a sign?

answer

moist skin

question

Something that the victim tells the first aider about is::

answer

symptom

question

Which of the following is a symptom? a. rapid pulse b. dilated pupils c. nausea d. red face

answer

nausea

question

The "S" in SAMPLE stands for:

answer

signs and symptoms

question

The "P" in SAMPLE stands for:

answer

preexisting conditions

question

The "L" in SAMPLE stands for

answer

last oral intake

question

The "E" in SAMPLE stands for

answer

Events leading to injury or illness

question

Medical identification tags can help the first aider identify: a. allergies b. medications c. medical history d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

While waiting for an ambulance, the primary check should be repeated every __ minutes for an unresponsive victim.

answer

question

Why should an unresponsive victim be placed on the side?

answer

delays vomiting by placing the esophagus above the stomach

question

What is the most prominent medical emergency in the u.s.?

answer

heart attack

question

Besides heart attack victims, CPR can also save victims of: a. drowning b. drug overdose c. suffocation d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

The first step in performing adult basic life support is to :

answer

check the victim's responsiveness

question

What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive person?

answer

the tongue

question

Place an unresponsive breathing victim

answer

on their left side (recovery position)

question

if an unresponsive victim is not breathing, the first aider should:

answer

activate the EMS immediately

question

Which of the following is a sign of sever airway obstruction a. breathing difficulty b. weak ineffective cough c. blue - gray skin d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

If the victim's mouth is severely injured, the first aider should:

answer

give rescue breaths by the mouth-to-nose method

question

CPR by a lay person is needed:

answer

when the victim is not breathing

question

During CPR, the rescuer gives:

answer

chest compressions and rescue breathing

question

The simplest method to check responsiveness of a victim is to:

answer

tap the shoulder and shout "Are you okay?"

question

If alone with an unresponsive adult victim, the rescuer should:

answer

activate EMS immediately

question

If alone with an unresponsive child or infant victim, the rescuer should:

answer

provide care for 2 minutes, then activate the EMS system or give 5 cycles of CPR, then activate the EMS system

question

How would you turn an unresponsive victim over?

answer

as a unit, keeping the body from twisting

question

______ occurs when heart muscle tissue dies because its blood supply is severely reduced or stopped.

answer

Heart attack

question

Which method should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive victim?

answer

head-tilt/chin-lift

question

The links included in the cardiac chain of survival include: a. recognition and action b. CPR and defibrillation c. advanced care and post arrest care d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

The proper sequence for CPR is:

answer

CAB Compression, Airway, Breath

question

How many initial rescue breaths should the first aider give?

answer

question

When performing a rescue breath, the first aider should blow:

answer

slowly, until the chest rises or gently, but with enough force for the chest to rise.

question

When giving rescue breaths to an adult, each breath should last approximately?

answer

1 second

question

If the first rescue breath does not go in, the first aider should:

answer

reposition the victim's head and try a second breath

question

When giving rescue breaths to a child, each breath should last approximately?

answer

1 second

question

When performing chest compression on an adult victim, the hands are placed:

answer

over the notch at the bottom of the sternum center of the chest/lower sternum

question

When performing adult CPR, how many compressions should be given?

answer

question

When performing chest compressions on an adult victim, the sternum should be depressed:

answer

2 inches (5cm)

question

The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing adult CPR is:

answer

30 compressions and 2 breaths

question

After starting CPR on an adult victim, perform ____ cycles and then stop and check the victim.

answer

question

At what point would you stop performing adult CPR and check for circulation?

answer

after you have completed 5 cycles

question

When performing CPR on a child victim give _____ breaths after every 30 compression.

answer

question

When performing chest compressions on a child, the sternum should be depressed:

answer

2 inches (5cm)

question

When would you stop giving CPR? A. When the victim starts breathing on his or her own b. When trained help arrives and relieves you c. When you are completely exhausted d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

If the coking victim is unable to speak, breathe, or cough, they are experiencing a:

answer

complete airway obstruction

question

Infants are those who are:

answer

younger than 1 year of age

question

A child's age ranges from:

answer

1 to puberty

question

Adults include those who are:

answer

at puberty or older

question

When should a blind finger sweep be performed by a lay person to remove an object on a choking victim?

answer

never perform a blind finger sweep

question

What is the first step when assisting a victim with a suspected airway obstruction?

answer

ask, "Can you speak?"

question

How many abdominal thrusts should be given to a responsive choking victim?

answer

as many as are needed to remove the obstruction or until the victim becomes unresponsive

question

When giving abdominal thrusts to a choking victim, where should you position your hands?

answer

in the middle of the abdomen, just above the navel

question

When giving abdominal thrusts, which part of the fist is placed against the victim's abdomen?

answer

thumb side

question

Repeat abdominal thrusts until: a. victim coughs up object b. victim starts to breathe or cough forcefully c. victim becomes unresponsive d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

If the 2 initial breaths do not go in to the victim:

answer

perform CPR

question

If alone with an unresponsive child, the rescuer should:

answer

perform first aid for 2 minutes, then activate EMS or give 5 cycles of CPR , then activate EMS

question

When giving a child rescue breaths, the breaths should last:

answer

1 second

question

When performing child CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of:

answer

120 compressions per minute or at least 100-120 compressions per minute

question

The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing one person child CPR is:

answer

30 compressions and 2 breaths

question

When giving rescue breaths to an infant, you should:

answer

form an airtight seal around the infant's mouth and nose

question

When giving an infant rescue breaths, the breaths should last:

answer

1 second

question

When giving chest compressions to an infant, place two fingers:

answer

on the center of the chest, just below the nipple line or 2 fingers with one touching at and below the nipple line

question

When performing infant CPR, give chest compressions at the rate of:

answer

at least 100 compressions per minute

question

When performing chest compressions on an infant, the sternum should be depressed:

answer

1 1/2 inches (4cm)

question

The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing one person infant CPR is :

answer

30 compressions and 2 breaths

question

During infant CPR, at what point would you stop performing CPR and check breathing?

answer

after you have completed 5 cycles

question

Responsive choking in infants is managed through a sequence of :

answer

back blows, chest thrusts

question

How many back blows and chest thrusts should be given to a responsive choking infant?

answer

5 each

question

AEDs can be used on: a. infants b. children c. adults d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A victim's chance of survival dramatically improves through: a. early CPR B. early defibrillation c. hands-only CPR d. both a and b

answer

both A and B

question

Which is the most common abnormal heart rhythm in cases of sudden cardiac arrest in adults?

answer

Ventricular fibrillation

question

During ventricular fibrillation, the heart:

answer

quivers and cannot pump blood

question

When the heart stops beating,

answer

blood carrying oxygen becomes unavailable to the entire body.

question

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR):

answer

is the initial care for cardiac arrest until a defibrillator is available.

question

An AED can: a. analyze the heart's rhythm b. deliver an electrical shock c. be used by trained lay persons d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

How many adhesive pads (electrodes) are placed on the victim's chest?

answer

two

question

What mnemonic best describes adult/ child CPR?

answer

RAB-CAB

question

answer

The AED pads need to be attached to a dry chest

question

Verify no one is in contact with the victim: a. during analysis b. during the shock c. both a and b d. it is okay to stay in contact with the victim while using the AED

answer

both A and B

question

Before using an AED: A. Give CPR until the AED is ready to be used B. position it next to the victim c. turn the AED on d. all of the above

answer

All of the above

question

Place the AED pads:

answer

where the diagram or illustration on the AED indicates or place one just below right collarbone/above right nipple and the other just below/left to the left nipple

question

While the AED analyzes the victim's heart rhythm:

answer

do not touch the victim

question

answer

Remove patches containing medication (e.g., nitroglycerin, nicotine).

question

What is shock?

answer

Shock (hypoperfusion) describes a state of collapse and failure of the cardiovascular system in which blood circulation decreases and eventually ceases.

question

Non - cardovascular causes of shock are:

answer

respiratory insufficiency, psychogenic shock, and anaphylaxis

question

Cardiovascular causes of shock are:

answer

poor pump function, blood or fluid loss from blood vessels, and poor vessel function.

question

What are 3 types of dressing?

answer

a. gauze pads b. adhesive bandages c. trauma dressings

question

Concussion

answer

a mild traumatic brain injury (MTBI) and occurs when a blow to the head alters the function of the brain.

question

Shock refers to the failure of what system?

answer

circulatory

question

Shock occurs when body parts do not receive adequate:

answer

oxygenated blood

question

Without oxygen, the brain will start to be irreparably damaged in ___ to ___ minutes.

answer

4 to 6

question

Hypovolemic shock results from:

answer

the loss of a significant amount of fluid.

question

Neurogenic shock results from:

answer

damage to the nervous system

question

Septic shock develops in some victims with:

answer

bacterial infection

question

When a person experiences shock, their skin is usually:

answer

moist

question

Victims of shock usually experience the following altered mental status:

answer

anxiety and restlessness

question

Which of the following statements concerning shock is correct:

answer

a first aider can prevent shock from worsening

question

A shock victim who is unresponsive should be placed

answer

on the side

question

A shock victim in the advanced stages of pregnancy should be placed:

answer

on their left side

question

Why is neither food nor drink given to a shock victim?

answer

it could cause vomiting

question

Anaphylactic shock:

answer

is a massive allergic reaction

question

Sensitive persons may experience anaphylaxis from exposure to: a. medications b. foods c. insect stings d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

answer

all of the above

question

Rapid blood loss of ____ quart(s) or more in an adult can lead to shock and death.

answer

question

How much blood loss is extremely dangerous for a child?

answer

one pint or 1/2 quart

question

_____ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound.

answer

arterial

question

Blood from ____ flows steadily or gushes.

answer

veins

question

Quite often, ____ bleeding will clot off by itself.

answer

capillary

question

When arteries are completely severed:

answer

they are more likely to constrict and slow the bleeding

question

Cotting time is _____ when the victim is taking aspirin or is anemic.

answer

longer

question

The first method used to control external bleeding should be:

answer

direct pressure

question

If a dressing become blood-soked, what should be done?

answer

apply another dressing on top of the old one.

question

If direct pressure and elevation fail to control bleeding, the next step would be to :

answer

Apply direct pressure over the wound, and pressure at a pressure point.

question

When direct pressure cannot be applied, such as in the case of a protruding bone, bleeding should be controlled by using:

answer

doughnut-shaped pads (indirect pressure)

question

Tourniquets are rarely used because: a. they are rarely needed b. they can damage nerves and blood vessels c. they may cause the loss of an arm or leg d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding? a. bruises of the skin b. fractured ribs or bruises on the chest c. vomiting or coughing up blood d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

What should be done when caring for a victim of severe internal bleeding? a. monitor breathing b. treat for shock c. seek immediate medical care d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which wound results in skin cut with jagged, irregular edges?

answer

laceration

question

Which wound is smooth-edged?

answer

incision

question

Which wound is usually deep and narrow, with a high risk of infection?

answer

puncture

question

Which wound involves the cutting or tearing off of a body part?

answer

amputation

question

For a shallow wound, wash inside it with:

answer

soap and water

question

The best way to irrigate a wound is by :

answer

letting water from a faucet rapidly pour into the wound

question

How should animal bites, dirty wounds, and puncture wounds be cleaned?

answer

they should only be cleaned by emergency department personnel

question

What can safely be put on shallow wounds?

answer

antibiotic ointments, such as Neosporin

question

Which of the following should be used to irrigate a wound? a. isopropyl alcohol b. hydrogen peroxide c. a full-strength iodine preparation, such as Betadine d. none of the above

answer

none of the above

question

Which first aid supply i s applied over a wound to control bleeding and prevent contamination?

answer

dressing

question

What are the signs and symptoms of an infected wound? a. throbbing pain b. pus discharge c. fever d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following are appropriate home treatments for the early stages of infection?

answer

antibiotic ointment, elevation, soaking the wound

question

Tetanus is caused by

answer

a toxin produced by a bacteria

question

Where is the tetanus bacteria commonly found? a. soil b. street dust c. pet feces d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A victim with a dirty wound who has not had a tetanus booster for over ____years should receive a booster?

answer

question

Tetanus shots must be given within ____hours of the injury to be effective.

answer

question

What percentage of amputated extremities cam be successfully replanted?

answer

80 to 90

question

What type of amputation occurs when the skin is peeled off?

answer

degloving

question

Which type of amputation is the most common?

answer

crushing

question

The first step in controlling bleeding from an amputation is:

answer

applying direct pressure

question

How should an amputated body part be cared for?

answer

do not clean the amputated part

question

The clean amputated part should be wrapped in:

answer

a dry, sterile dressing

question

The cleaned, wrapped amputated part should be:

answer

placed in a plastic bag

question

The bag/container with the wrapped amputated part should be:

answer

placed on a bed of ice

question

What tends to have smooth edges and resemble a surgical or paper cut?

answer

incision

question

After a blister forms, what should you try first?

answer

cover the blister with moleskin cut into the shape of a doughnut

question

What is the proper procedure for breaking a blister?

answer

drain the fluid by making a small hole at the blister's edge

question

Once a blister has been opened, a protective bandage should be worn for ___ to ___ days, or until new skin forms.

answer

10 to 14

question

The only time an impaled object can safely be removed is:

answer

when it is stuck in the cheek

question

If an object is impaled in the eye, the most important point for a first aider to remember is to:

answer

never apply pressure to the eye

question

answer

all of the above

question

A clot of blood under the skin is called a:

answer

hematoma

question

Control bleeding in a closed wound by:

answer

applying an ice pack

question

What steps should be taken to care for a closed wound? a. control bleeding b. apply an elastic bandage c. elevate an injured extremity if appropriate d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which closed wounds always require medical care? a. a large or deep puncture wound b. human or animal bite c. internal bleeding d. all of the above

answer

internal bleeding

question

Stitches should be made by a physician within ___ to ___ hours of the injury.

answer

6 to 8

question

Which of the following are advantages of stitching wounds? a. the wound heals faster b. it reduces infection c. it lessens scarring d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following wounds usually require stitches?

answer

if the cut is more than 1 inch long and is deep

question

When should you close a gaping wound with butterfly bandages?

answer

a gaping wound should not be closed

question

What does first aid for gunshot wounds involved? a. checking breathing b. controlling bleeding with direct pressure c. treating for shock d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following would be placed directly over an open wound?

answer

gauze pads

question

Which type of dressing is useful for small wounds? a. gauze pads b. adhesive strips c. trauma dressings d. A and B

answer

A and B

question

Which type of dressing is used for small cuts and abrasions, and are a combination of both a sterile dressing and a bandage?

answer

adhesive strips

question

What type of dressing is made of large, thick absorbent sterile materials?

answer

trauma dressings

question

What is the purpose of a dressing? a. to control bleeding b. to prevent infection c. to absorb blood d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Which of the following would be used as a dressing?

answer

gauze pads

question

An example of an improvised dressing would be: a. a handkerchief b. a towel c. a cloth d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

When applying a sterile dressing be sure not to: a. cough on the wound b. breathe on the wound c. talk over the wound d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

What is the purpose of a bandage

answer

to hold a dressing in place

question

What is the purpose of a bandage? a. to hold a dressing in place b. to apply direct pressure c. to reduce swellings d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A roller bandage should be started

answer

below the wound

question

Which of the following would be signs that a bandage is too tight? a. blue or pale skin color b. coldness of the extremity c. tingling of the extremity d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

The most appropriate bandage for sprains and contusions would be

answer

an elastic roller bandgage

question

Which bandage would be most appropriate for use as a sling?

answer

triangular bandage

question

Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to cover a wound of the leg?

answer

spiral method

question

Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to proved compression at or near a joint?

answer

figure-8 method

question

Deaths and complications increase dramatically for burn victims from which age group?

answer

older than 55 years

question

At what point does skin death and injury occur?

answer

about 113 degrees

question

An important fact related to chemical burns is:

answer

the burning process will continue until the chemical is removed

question

Burns that extend through the entire outer layer and into the inner skin layer would be considered:

answer

second-degree (partial - thickness)

question

Burns that penetrate all the skin layers into the underlying fat and muscle are considered:

answer

third - degree (full - thickness)

question

A second - degree burn is also described as

answer

partial - thickness

question

A third degree burn is also described as

answer

full thickness

question

Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of burn?

answer

second - degree (partial - thickness)

question

Which type of burn requires removal of dead tissue and a skin graft to heal properly

answer

third- degree (full - thickness)

question

The first step in helping a burn victim is to

answer

stop the burning

question

Hot, burned, or smoldering clothing should be removed:

answer

once the fire is dead

question

The quick method of assessing the extent of a burn is known as:

answer

rule of nines

question

According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage of an adult's body surface is involved if both legs are burned?

answer

question

Under what circumstances should medical attention be sought for the burn victim? a. for all moderate burns b. for all severe burns c. if the burn is accompanied by another injury d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

A second-degree burn that covers from 15 to 30 percent of the body surface area in adults would be considered a ___ burn.

answer

moderate

question

A second - degree burn that covers more than 30 percent of the body surface area in adults would be considered a ____ burn.

answer

critical

question

Since widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ percent of an adult's body surface.

answer

question

Since widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ____ percent of a child's body surface.

answer

question

When should a dressing be applied to a first-degree burn?

answer

almost never

question

The pain and inflammation from a burn can be relieved by taking:

answer

ibuprofen or acetaminophen

question

Ointments, grease, butter, cream, or home remedies are not applied to a burn because: a. they may hold heat in b. they are unsterile c. they may lead to infection d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

Generally, burn dressings are changed ___ a day

answer

once or twice

question

Scald burns are the result of contact with

answer

hot liquid

question

What is the first step in caring for dry chemicals spilled on the skin?

answer

brush off the substance then flush with water

question

When washing chemicals from the body, the area should be flushed for at least ____ minutes.

answer

twenty

question

In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should examine the wound for: a. exposed skull bone b. exposed brain c. indention of the skull d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?

answer

apply pressure around the edges of the wound

question

Clear or pink watery fluid dripping from the nose or ear is a sign of:

answer

skull fracture

question

First aid for a victim of an open skull fracture includes:

answer

stabilizing the neck against movement

question

Which type of brain injury is a bruising of brain tissue?

answer

contusion

question

Which type of brain injury causes a temporary loss of brain function, usually without permanent damage?

answer

concussion

question

Which is the most serious type of brain injury?

answer

hematoma

question

What is the most frequent type of eye injury?

answer

loose objects in the eye

question

How can blunt force trauma cause death?

answer

it can ultimately cause cessation of breathing

question

Which of the following signs of head injury can appear withing 48 hours and indicate a need for medical care? a. vision problems b. slurred speech c. trouble swallowing d. both A and B

answer

both A and B

question

A head - injury victim who fails short -term memory tests probably has:

answer

a concussion

question

A first aider should suspect that all unresponsive victims of head injury also have:

answer

spine injury

question

To stabilize the head and neck of a head-injury victim, the victim should first be placed in what position?

answer

in the position you found them

question

First aid for a victim of head injury includes:

answer

stabilizing the neck against movement

question

If the victim with head injury vomits, you should:

answer

roll the victim onto his or her side while stabilizing the neck

question

What mnemonic an be used to assess and describe a head - injury victim's metal status?

answer

AVPU

question

Following a head injury, should the victim be allowed to sleep?

answer

let the victim sleep, but wake him/her every 2 hours

question

answer

all of the above

question

answer

all of the above

question

How should you care for cuts of the eye or lid?

answer

bandage both eyes lightly

question

For chemical burns of the eye, flush the eye continuously for at least:

answer

20 minutes

question

answer

both of the above

question

A tooth often can be successfully reimplanted if ti has been put back into its socket within ___ minutes after an injury.

answer

question

About ___ to __ percent of head - injury victims also have a spine injury.

answer

15 to 20

question

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain around the ribs?

answer

upper back

question

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain to the arms?

answer

neck

question

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain down the legs?

answer

lower back

question

To check for spine injury in an unresponsive victim:

answer

pinch the victim's hands and feet

question

Proper first aid for a victim with spinal cord injury is: a. checking and monitoring breathing b. notifying the EMS c. stabilizing the victim against any movement d. all of the above

answer

all of the above

question

What are three types of dressings?

answer

gauze pads, adhesive bandages, trauma dressings

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