Test Answers on Final Prep – Flashcards
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Which newly admitted patient should the nurse assign as a roommate for a patient who has aplastic anemia?
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A patient with severe heart failure rationale: Patients with aplastic anemia are at risk for infection because of the low white blood cell production associated with this type of anemia, so the nurse should avoid assigning a roommate with any possible infectious process.
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After receiving change-of-shift report for the following four patients with neutropenia, which patient should the nurse assess first?
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35-year-old who has a fever of 100.8° F (38.2° C) rationale: Any fever in a neutropenic patient indicates infection and can quickly lead to sepsis and septic shock. Rapid assessment and (if prescribed) initiation of antibiotic therapy within 1 hour are needed. The other patients also need to be assessed but do not exhibit symptoms of potentially life-threatening problems.
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A patient with possible disseminated intravascular coagulation arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 82/40, temperature 102° F (38.9° C), and severe back pain. Which of these physician orders will the nurse implement first?
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Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes. rationale: The patient's blood pressure indicates hypovolemia caused by blood loss and should be addressed immediately to improve perfusion to vital organs. The other actions also are appropriate and should be rapidly implemented, but improving perfusion is the priority for this patient.
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The nurse is caring for a client with TB. When the family visits for the first time, what would be the best statement for the nurse to make to the family?
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a. Please wear a gown so you don't get a skin infection from the droplets b. Please wear this special mask when in the room to avoid inhaling infected airborne droplets c. Please wear these gloves and gown so you do not come in contact with any blood that may be in the room d. Visitors are restricted at this time to immediate family only because of the infection b. Please wear this special mask when in the room to avoid inhaling infected airborne droplets
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. A client has returned to the clinic 72 hours following a tuberculin skin test with an induration of 5 - 6 mm at the administration site. The client is visibly upset and states, "I can't believe I have TB!" Which statement by the nurse is appropriate?
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a. You'll need to put on a mask and wear it whenever you are around other people b. The doctor will prescribe Isoniazid for you to take for the next three months c. This finding does not confirm TB; it may indicate a recent exposure to tuberculosis d. We'll need to do a chest x-ray. This may be falsely positive because of your history of diabetes c. This finding does not confirm TB; it may indicate a recent exposure to tuberculosis
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7. When the nurse is assessing the mouth of a patient who uses smokeless tobacco for signs of oral cancer, which finding will be of most concern? a. A 3-mm ulcer on the floor of the mouth b. A red, velvety patch on the buccal mucosa c. White, curdlike plaques on the back of the tongue d. Painful blisters at the border of the lips
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Answer: B Rationale: A red, velvety patch suggests erythroplasia, which has a high incidence (greater than 50%) of progression to squamous cell carcinoma. The other lesions are suggestive of acute processes (aphthous stomatitis, oral candidiasis, and herpes simplex).
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8. The nurse is admitting a patient who has been diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the buccal mucosa. When interviewing the patient for the health history, the nurse will ask about a. any use of tobacco by the patient. b. any history of streptococcal throat infection. c. chronic overexposure to the sun. d. recurrent herpes simplex (HSV) infections.
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Answer: A Rationale: Tobacco use greatly increases the risk for oral cancer. History of acute infections such as strep throat is not a risk factor for oral cancer, although chronic irritation of the oral mucosa does increase risk. Sun exposure does not increase the risk for cancers of the buccal mucosa. Human papillomavirus infection (HPV) infection may be associated with increased risk, but HSV infection is not a risk factor for oral cancer.
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9. A patient with oral squamous cell carcinoma is transferred to the postoperative surgical unit after a hemiglossectomy and radical neck procedure. When planning care the nurse will anticipate the need to a. insert a long-term central venous catheter for parenteral nutrition. b. use an alphabet board to assist the patient with communication. c. administer chemotherapy starting the first postoperative day. d. reinforce pressure dressings at the surgical incision.
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Answer: B Rationale: The patient will have a tracheostomy after having a radical neck procedure, and the nurse should plan ways to allow the patient to communicate. IV fluids (but not parenteral nutrition) are given for 24 to 48 hours, followed by enteral feedings. Chemotherapy is not started until after surgical wounds have healed. Pressure dressings are not used because they could obstruct the patient's airway.
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16. A 62-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with esophageal cancer tells the nurse, "I know that my chances are not very good, but I do not feel ready to die yet." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "You may have quite a few years to live still left." b. "Having this new diagnosis must be very hard for you." c. "Thinking about dying will only make you feel worse." d. "It is important that you be realistic about your prognosis."
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Answer: B Rationale: This response is open-ended and will encourage the patient to further discuss feelings of anxiety or sadness about the diagnosis. Patients with esophageal cancer have only a 20% 5-year survival rate, so the response "You may have quite a few years to live still yet" is misleading. The response beginning, "Thinking about dying" indicates that the nurse is not open to discussing the patient's fears of dying. And the response beginning, "It is important that you be realistic," discourages the patient from feeling hopeful, which is important to patients with any life-threatening diagnosis.
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40. When counseling a patient with a family history of stomach cancer about ways to decrease risk for developing stomach cancer, the nurse will teach the patient to avoid a. chronic use of H2-blocking medications. b. emotionally or physically stressful situations. c. smoked foods such as bacon and ham. d. foods that cause abdominal distension.
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Answer: C Rationale: Smoked foods such as bacon, ham, and smoked sausage increase the risk for stomach cancer. Use of H2 blockers, stressful situations, and abdominal distension are not associated with an increased incidence of stomach cancer.
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2. While the nurse is obtaining a nursing history from a 52-year-old patient who has found a small lump in her breast, which question is most pertinent? a. "Do you currently smoke cigarettes?" b. "Have you ever had any breast injuries?" c. "Is there any family history of fibrocystic breast changes?" d. "At what age did you start having menstrual periods?"
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D Rationale: Early menarche and late menopause are risk factors for breast cancer because of the prolonged exposure to estrogen that occurs. Cigarette smoking, breast trauma, and fibrocystic breast changes are not associated with increased breast cancer risk.
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3. A 62-year-old patient complains to the nurse that mammograms are painful and a source of radiation exposure. She says she does breast self-examination (BSE) monthly and asks whether it is necessary to have an annual mammogram. The nurse's best response to the patient is, a. "If your mammogram was painful, it is especially important that you have it done annually." b. "An ultrasound examination of the breasts, which is not painful or a source of radiation, can be substituted for a mammogram." c. "Because of your age, it is even more important for you to have annual mammograms." d. "Unless you find a lump while examining your breasts, a mammogram every 2 years is recommended after age 60."
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C Rationale: Annual mammograms are recommended for women over age 40 as long as they are in good health. The incidence of breast cancer increases in women over 60. Pain with a mammogram does not indicate any greater risk for breast cancer. Ultrasound may be used in some situations to differentiate cystic breast problems from cancer but is not a substitute for annual mammograms.
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4. A patient with a small breast lump is advised to have a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy. The nurse explains that an advantage to this procedure is that a. only a small incision is necessary, resulting in minimal breast pain and scarring. b. if the specimen is positive for malignancy, the patient can be told at the visit. c. if the specimen is negative for malignancy, the patient's fears of cancer can be put to rest. d. FNA is guided by a mammogram, ensuring that cells are taken from the lesion.
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B Rationale: An FNA should only be done when an experienced cytologist is available to read the specimen immediately. If the specimen is positive for malignancy, the patient can be given this information immediately. No incision is needed. If the specimen is negative for malignancy, the patient will require biopsy of the lump. FNA is not guided by mammography.
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7. During examination of a 67-year-old man, the nurse notes bilateral enlargement of the breasts. The nurse's first action should be to a. palpate the breasts for the presence of any discrete lumps. b. explain that this is a temporary condition caused by hormonal changes. c. refer the patient for mammography and biopsy of the breast tissue. d. teach the patient about dietary changes to reduce the breast size
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A Rationale: If discrete, circumscribed lumps are present, the patient should be referred for further testing to determine whether breast cancer is present. Gynecomastia is usually a temporary change, but it can be caused by breast cancer. Mammography and biopsy will not be needed unless lumps are present in the breast tissue. Dietary changes will not affect the condition.
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9. At a routine health examination, a woman whose mother had breast cancer asks the nurse about the genetic basis of breast cancer and the genes involved. The nurse explains that a. her risk of inheriting BRCA gene mutations is small unless her mother had both ovarian and breast cancer. b. changes in BRCA genes that normally suppress cancer growth can be passed to offspring, increasing the risk for breast cancer. c. because her mother had breast cancer, she has inherited a 50% to 85% chance of developing breast cancer from mutated genes. d. genetic mutations increase cancer risk only in combination with other risk factors such as obesity.
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B Rationale: Family history is a risk factor for breast cancer, and the nurse should discuss testing for BRCA genes with the patient. Although the BRCA gene is associated with increased risk for breast and ovarian cancer, the patient may be at risk if her mother had either one. About 5% to 10% of patients with breast cancer may have a genetic abnormality that contributes to breast cancer development. Risk factors are cumulative, but a family history alone will increase breast cancer risk.
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10. When assessing a patient for breast cancer risk, the nurse considers that the patient has a significant family history of breast cancer if she has a a. cousin who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 38. b. mother who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 42. c. sister who died from ovarian cancer at age 56. d. grandmother who died from breast cancer at age 72.
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B Rationale: A significant family history of breast cancer means that the patient has a first-degree relative who developed breast cancer, especially if the relative was premenopausal.
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11. A patient with a breast biopsy positive for cancer is to undergo lymphatic mapping and sentinel lymph node dissection (SLND). The nurse explains that this procedure a. can identify specific lymph nodes that have malignant cells, so only involved nodes need to be excised. b. reduces the need for extensive lymph node dissection for pathologic examination. c. eliminates the need for excision of more than one lymph node for staging of breast cancer. d. will confirm the absence of tumor spread if the sentinel lymph node is negative for malignant changes.
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B Rationale: The SLND may eliminate further lymph node dissection if the initial nodes are negative for malignancy. The procedure identifies which lymph nodes drain first from the tumor site, but not which ones are malignant. Several lymph nodes may be dissected for pathologic examination. Tumor may have distant metastases even when no malignancies are found in the lymph nodes.
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12. A woman with a positive biopsy for breast cancer is considering whether to have a modified radical mastectomy or breast conservation surgery (lumpectomy) with radiation therapy. Which information should the nurse provide? a. The postoperative survival rate for each is about the same, but there is a decreased rate of cancer recurrence after mastectomy. b. The lumpectomy and radiation will preserve the breast, but this method can cause changes in breast sensitivity. c. The hair loss associated with post-lumpectomy chemotherapy is not acceptable to some patients. d. The treatment period for the mastectomy is shorter, and breast reconstruction can provide a normal-appearing breast.
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B Rationale: The impact on breast function and appearance is less with lumpectomy and radiation, but there is some effect on breast sensitivity. The rate of cancer recurrence is the same for the two procedures. Chemotherapy may be used after either lumpectomy or mastectomy, but it is not always needed. The treatment period is shorter after mastectomy, but breast reconstruction does not provide a normal-appearing breast.
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13. Following a modified radical mastectomy, the health care provider recommends chemotherapy even though the lymph nodes were negative for cancer cells. The patient tells the nurse that she does not know what to do about chemotherapy because she has heard that she may not even need chemotherapy and that the side effects are uncomfortable. The nursing diagnosis that best reflects the patient's problem is a. anxiety related to prospect of additional cancer therapy. b. fear related to uncomfortable side effects of chemotherapy. c. decisional conflict related to lack of knowledge about prognosis and treatment options. d. risk for ineffective health maintenance related to reluctance to consider additional treatment.
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C Rationale: The patient's statements indicate that she is having difficulty making a decision about treatment because of a lack of understanding about prognosis and treatment. Although she may have some anxiety and fear, these are not the priorities at this time. The patient expresses concerns about chemotherapy rather than reluctance to consider additional treatment.
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14. A patient at the clinic who has metastatic breast cancer has a new prescription for trastuzumab (Herceptin). The nurse will plan to a. teach the patient about the need to monitor serum electrolyte levels. b. ask the patient to call the health care provider before using any over-the-counter (OTC) pain relievers. c. instruct the patient to call if she notices ankle swelling. d. have the patient schedule frequent eye examinations.
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C Rationale: Herceptin can lead to ventricular dysfunction, so the patient is taught to self-monitor for symptoms of heart failure. There is no need to monitor serum electrolyte levels. OTC pain relievers do not interact with Herceptin. Changes in visual acuity may occur with tamoxifen, but not with Herceptin.
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15. A 34-year-old woman has undergone a modified radical mastectomy for a breast tumor. The pathology report identified the tumor as a stage I, estrogen-receptor-positive adenocarcinoma. The nurse will plan on teaching the patient about a. raloxifene (Evista). b. estradiol (Estrace). c. trastuzumab (Herceptin). d. tamoxifen (Nolvadex).
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D Rationale: Tamoxifen is used for estrogen-dependent breast tumors in premenopausal women. Raloxifene is used to prevent breast cancer, but it is not used post-mastectomy to treat breast cancer. Estradiol will increase the growth of estrogen-dependent tumors. Trastuzumab is used to treat tumors that have the HER-2/neu antigen.
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16. A patient returns to the surgical unit following a right modified radical mastectomy with dissection of axillary lymph nodes. An appropriate intervention for the nurse to include in implementing postoperative care for the patient includes a. teaching the patient to use the ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) every 10 minutes for the best pain relief. b. insisting that the patient examine the surgical incision when the dressings are removed. c. posting a sign at the bedside warning against blood pressures or venipunctures in the right arm. d. encouraging the patient to obtain a permanent breast prosthesis as soon as she is discharged from the hospital.
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C Rationale: The patient is at risk for lymphedema and infection if blood pressures or venipuncture are done on the right arm. The patient is taught to use the PCA as needed for pain control rather than at a set time. The nurse allows the patient to examine the incision and participate in care when the patient feels ready. Permanent breast prostheses are usually obtained about 6 weeks after surgery.
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17. The nurse provides discharge teaching for a patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection. The nurse determines that teaching has been successful when the patient says, a. "I should keep my left arm supported in a sling when I am up until my incision is healed." b. "I may expose my left arm to the sun for several hours each day to increase circulation and promote healing." c. "I can do whatever exercises and activities I want as long as I do not elevate my left hand above my head." d. "I will continue to exercise my left arm with finger-walking up the wall or combing my hair."
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D Rationale: The patient should continue with arm exercises to regain strength and range of motion. The left arm should be elevated to the level of the heart when the patient is up. Sun exposure is avoided because of the risk of sunburn. The left hand should be elevated at or above heart level to reduce swelling and lymphedema.
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18. A 38-year-old woman is scheduled for a breast-conservation therapy with a lumpectomy. As the nurse prepares her for surgery, she begins to cry and says, "I just do not know how to handle all of this." An appropriate response to the patient by the nurse is, a. "Would you like to talk about how you are feeling right now?" b. "I can see you are really upset. Would you like to be alone for a while?" c. "The important thing is that the tumor was found and is going to be removed." d. "With this surgery you will have very little change in the appearance of your breast."
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A Rationale: The nurse encourages the patient to express feelings about the diagnosis and surgery. The response beginning, "I can see you are really upset" may indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable being with the patient while she is upset. The response beginning, "The important thing is that the tumor was found" places the nurse's value system above the patient's current concerns. And the response, "With this surgery you will have very little change in the appearance of your breast" does not address all the patient's possible concerns and is not true.
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19. After the nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a left modified radical mastectomy and lymph node dissection, which statement by the patient indicates that no further teaching is needed? a. "I will avoid reaching over the stove with my left hand." b. "I will need to do breast self-examination on my right breast monthly." c. "I will keep my left arm elevated until I go to bed." d. "I will remember to use my right arm and to rest the left one."
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A Rationale: The patient should avoid any activity that might injure the left arm, such as reaching over a burner. Breast self-examination should be done to the right breast and the left mastectomy site. The left arm should be elevated when the patient is lying down also. The left arm should be used to improve range of motion and function.
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22. A patient with an abnormal mammogram is scheduled for stereotactic core biopsy. Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient about the procedure? a. "You will need to avoid eating or drinking anything for 6 hours before the procedure." b. "Any discomfort after the biopsy may be treated with mild pain relievers such as aspirin." c. "The core biopsy is evaluated immediately and you will get the results before leaving." d. "Several samples of tissue in the abnormal area will be obtained during the procedure."
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D Rationale: During stereotactic breast biopsy, a biopsy gun is used to remove several core samples in the area of abnormality. The procedure is done using a local anesthetic, so there is no need to be NPO before the procedure. Aspirin should not be used because it will increase bleeding at the site. The biopsy is sent to pathology, and results are not usually available immediately.
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24. Which of these nursing interventions for the patient who has had right-sided breast-conservation surgery and an axillary lymph node dissection is appropriate to assign to an LPN/LVN? a. Administering an analgesic 30 minutes before the scheduled arm exercises b. Teaching the patient how to avoid injury to the right arm c. Assessment of the patient's range of motion for the right arm d. Evaluation of the patient's understanding of discharge instructions about drain care
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A Rationale: LPN/LVN education and scope of practice include administration and evaluation of the effects of analgesics. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation of a patient's understanding of instructions are more complex tasks that are more appropriate to RN-level education and scope of practice.
