EXAM II – Study Guide

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1. Ernst Mayr’s definition of biological species A) applies to all organisms. B) does not take into account geographically isolated members of a species. C) only applies to animals. D) only applies to groups of organisms living in the same areas. E) does not apply to organisms that reproduce asexually.
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(E) DOES NOT Apply to Organisms that Reproduce Asexually.
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2. Which of the following statements about speciation is FALSE? A) Evolution always results in speciation. B) Gene flow within a population must be interrupted for speciation to occur. C) The Dobzhansky-Muller model is based on a minimum of two gene loci. D) Chromosomal rearrangements can lead to speciation. E) Reproductive isolation may take millions of years to occur.
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A) Evolution (does not) ALWAYS results in speciation.
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3. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to lead to Allopatric Isolation? A) A river dividing a population of small crickets B) A lake dividing a population of butterflies C) A mountain dividing a population of desert dwelling mice D) A deep gorge dividing a population of slow-moving snails E) A land bridge dividing a population of tuna
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B) a Lake Dividing a Population of Butterflies
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4. Geographic isolation A) always results in reproductive isolation. B) always results in the formation of new species. C) is required for speciation. D) may decrease the probability, over time, that members of two separated populations can mate. E) has the same effects on all organisms.
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D) may DECREASE the Probability, over time, that members of 2 separated populations can mate.
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5. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY sequence of events in Allopatric Isolation? A) Geographic barrier, reproductive isolation, genetic divergence B) Geographic barrier, genetic divergence, reproductive isolation C) Genetic divergence, geographic barrier, reproductive isolation D) Genetic divergence, reproductive isolation, geographic barrier E) Reproductive isolation, genetic divergence, geographic barrier
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B) Geographic Barrier, Genetic Divergence, Reproductive Isolation
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6. Ginkgo trees (Ginkgo biloba) are “living fossils.” Although ginkgos are native to China, they now are commonly planted in cities in the United States. Keeping in mind the principles of allopatric speciation, what might happen over time to the two populations of Ginkgos? A) Nothing will happen, because ginkgo trees have evolved so slowly. B) Environmental factors, such as air pollution, could result in the more rapid evolution of the trees in the cities of the United States. C) Reproductive isolation could develop. D) The two populations could develop into separate species. E) All of the above
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(E) All of the above
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7. Darwin’s finches on the Galápagos Islands A) Evolved from Different Ancestors. B) are Very Similar to each other. C) are Similar to their Mainland Ancestor(s). D) provide Examples of Allopatric Speciation. E) provide Examples of Sympatric Speciation.
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(D) provide examples of Allopatric Speciation.
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8. Rhagoletis pomonella in the Hudson River Valley of New York State is separating into TWO different groups—one that Lays Eggs on Apples & the other that Lays Eggs on Hawthorn Fruits. This fly species is demonstrating A) allopatric speciation. B) speciation due to directional selection. C) sympatric speciation due to their preference for either apple or hawthorn fruits. D) the formation of new species by polyploidy. E) the early stages of extinction.
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(C) SYMPATRIC speciation due to their preference for either Apple or Hawthorn Fruits.
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9. Sympatric Speciation A) involves reproductive isolation of dispersed populations. B) is often associated with polyploidy in animals. C) is common in plants, since many plant species can reproduce by self-fertilization. D) can result from the generation of fertile triploid plants. E) results only from the generation of allopolyploids.
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(C) is COMMON in PLANTS, since MANY Plant Species can Reproduce by Self-fertilization.
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10. Sympatric Speciation A) Involves Glaciers separating populations of Fish in Lakes. B) Results in Birds being separated on an Island from a Mainland population. C) Occurs MOST COMMONLY as Polyploidy in Plants. D) May lead to Flowering of Species in Spring vs. Fall. E) May lead to the Production of Hybrids, such as Mules.
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(C) Occurs MOST COMMONLY as Polyploidy in Plants.
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11. Which of the following statements about Polyploidy in Plants is CORRECT? A) Polyploidy is rare in plants. B) Allopolyploids are hybrid plants that result from the mating of two closely related species. C) Tetraploid plants can mate with other tetraploid plants of the same species, but not with themselves. D) Tetraploid and diploid plants of a given species can mate to produce viable triploid offspring. E) Polyploid plants are usually less vigorous than diploid plants of the same species.
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(B) Allopolyploids are HYBRID plants that result from the Mating of 2 CLOSELY RELATED species.
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12. Allopolyploidy A) can easily produce new plant species. B) occurs when a single plant duplicates its chromosomes. C) occurs when two plants of the same species breed. D) occurs when a tetraploid plant breeds with a diploid plant of the same species. E) results in plants that are usually outperformed by diploid relatives.
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(A) can EASILY produce New Plant species.
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13. Which of the following statements about Prezygotic Isolating Mechanisms is FALSE? A) they can arise from the Evolution of the Structure of Sexual Organs. B) they can arise from the Specific Interaction of Plants with Insect Pollinators. C) they can arise from Mate Selection Behaviors D) they can arise from Low Fertility of Hybrids. E) they can arise from Differences in Mating Periods.
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(D) they can arise from Low Fertility of Hybrids.
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14. Suppose that the Natural Ranges of Horses & Donkeys were to overlap. Which of the following statements best describes what would LIKELY HAPPEN to the Populations OVER TIME? A) The hybrid offspring (mules) would become widespread and mate with members of both populations. B) The hybrid offspring would mate with other hybrid offspring to produce viable offspring. C) The hybrid offspring would be less reproductively fit and reinforcement could strengthen postzygotic barriers. D) Eventually all members of both populations would be hybrids. E) The hybrid offspring would be less reproductively fit and reinforcement could strengthen prezygotic barriers
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(E) The hybrid offspring would be less reproductively fit and reinforcement could strengthen prezygotic barriers
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15. Two populations which were once isolated come in contact. Which of the following statements about what might happen after contact is FALSE? A) If hybrids are unfit, reinforcement of prezygotic barriers would be disfavored. B) If reproductive isolation is not complete, the two populations could interbreed. C) Hybrids, if fit, could spread through both populations, resulting in gene flow between them. D) If reproductive isolation had been established before contact, the two populations could not interbreed. E) Hybrid zones that last for long periods of time could develop.
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A) if Hybrids are Unfit, Reinforcement of Prezygotic Barriers would (NOT) be DISFAVORED.
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16. Natural Selection A) directly favors the development of prezygotic isolating mechanisms. B) favors development of postzygotic isolating mechanisms. C) can indirectly favor development of postzygotic isolating mechanisms. D) can indirectly favor development of prezygotic isolating mechanisms through reinforcement. E) has no effect on mechanisms of reproductive isolation.
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(D) can Indirectly Favor development of Prezygotic Isolating Mechanisms through Reinforcement.
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17. Persistent hybrid zones like those found in Bombina frogs in Europe are kept narrow due to A) low hybrid adult viability. B) hybrid infertility. C) habitat isolation. D) behavioral isolation. E) temporal isolation.
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*(E)
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18. It is difficult to apply the Biological Species Concept to Groups of Organisms that A) are Asexual. B) produce Hybrids only in captivity. C) show Little Morphological Diversity. D) Exist ONLY in the Fossil Record. E) Both A & D
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are ASEXUAL & Exist ONLY in the Fossil Record – (E) Both A & D
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19. Centric Fusion of Acrocentric (One-Armed) Chromosomes results in A) Mechanical Isolation. B) Behavioral Isolation. C) Temporal Isolation. D) Reproductive Isolation. E) Allopatric Speciation.
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(D) Reproductive Isolation.
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20. Two species of Narrowmouth Frogs in the United States have mating calls that differ more in their Region of Sympatry than in those parts of their ranges that do not overlap. IF this Difference in their Vocalizations has the Function of Preventing Hybridization between the Two Species, it is an example of A) a Hybrid Zone. B) Reinforcement. C) Sympatric Speciation. D) a Postzygotic Reproductive Barrier. E) Allopatric Speciation.
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(B) Reinforcement.
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21. In Allopatric Speciation, which process is likely to be LEAST IMPORTANT? A) a Founder Event B) Allopolyploidy C) Behavioral Isolation D) Genetic Drift E) Both B & D
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(B) Allopolyploidy
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22. Which of the following statements about Speciation is FALSE? A) A small founding population can be involved in speciation. B) Speciation always involves interruption of gene flow between different groups of organisms. C) The rate of speciation can vary for different groups of organisms. D) Speciation always requires many generations. E) Speciation may occur because certain genotypes within a population prefer distinct microhabitats where mating takes place.
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D) Speciation (DOES NOT) ALWAYS requires many generations.
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23. The Dobzhansky-Muller Model describes how A) two independent lineages come together to form an ancestral population. B) an ancestral population separates to become two independent lineages. C) geographical barriers lead to speciation. D) species should be defined. E) allopatric speciation occurs.
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(B) an Ancestral Population separates to become TWO Independent Lineages.
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24. The species definition that includes Similarity of Appearance among Individual Members is the Basis for A) the Lineage Species Concept. B) Reproductive Isolation. C) the Morphological Species Concept. D) Centric Fusion. E) the Biological Species Concept
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(C) the Morphological Species Concept
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25. Which of the following would NOT be CONSIDERED an example of a Prezygotic Reproductive Isolating Mechanism? A) One bird species forages in the tops of trees for flying insects, whereas another forages on the ground for worms and grubs. B) The males of one species of moth cannot detect and respond to the sex attractant chemicals produced by the females of another species. C) Sperm of one species of sea urchin are unable to penetrate the egg plasma membrane of another species. D) Mosquitoes of one species are active in foraging and searching for mates at dusk, whereas those of another species are active at dawn. E) Flowers of one orchid species mimic female bees of species A, whereas flowers of another orchid species mimic female bees of species B.
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(A) One bird species forages in the tops of trees for flying insects, whereas another forages on the ground for worms and grubs.
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26. Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is FALSE? A) Prokaryotes comprise a single domain. B) Prokaryotes are the most numerous organisms on Earth. C) Prokaryotes have evolved many different mechanisms of deriving energy from the environment. D) A very small proportion of prokaryotes are pathogenic. E) Some prokaryotes can live in extreme environments.
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A) Prokaryotes (DO NOT) comprise a Single Domain.
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27. The phylogenetic tree shown below *** IMAGE *** A) is paraphyletic. B) is polyphyletic. C) indicates that Bacteria are more closely related to Eukarya than to Archaea. D) indicates that Bacteria and Archaea share a more recent common ancestor than Archaea and Eukarya. E) indicates that Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya share a common ancestor.
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(E) indicates that Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya share a Common Ancestor.
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28. Peptidoglycan A) is present in the cell walls of almost all bacteria. B) is present in the cell walls of Archaea. C) is present in larger amounts in Gram-negative cell walls than in Gram-positive ones. D) synthesis is unaffected by penicillin. E) is present in the cell walls of yeasts. 29. Which of the following is not a common bacterial shape? A) Cocci B) Bacilli C) Spiral-shaped helices D) Comma-shaped E) All of the above are common bacterial shapes.
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A) is present in the cell walls of almost all bacteria.
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29. Which of the following is NOT a common bacterial shape? A) Cocci B) Bacilli C) Spiral-shaped helices D) Comma-shaped E) All of the above are common bacterial shapes.
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D) Comma-shaped
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30. Which of the following statements regarding the suitability of Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) nucleotide sequences for phylogenetic analysis of prokaryotes is FALSE? A) rRNA is present in all free-living organisms. B) rRNA plays a crucial role in transcription in all organisms. C) rRNA has evolved relatively slowly. D) rRNA is ancient on the evolutionary time scale. E) All of the above are true; none is false.
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B) rRNA plays a crucial role in transcription in all organisms.
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31. The “sideways” movement of genes from one prokaryote species to another is a phenomenon known as _______ transfer. A) vertical gene B) lateral gene C) bidirectional gene D) semiconservative gene E) sliding gene
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B) lateral gene
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32. Which bacterial group is a valuable source of antibiotics? A) Actinomycetes B) Cyanobacteria C) Hadobacteria D) Firmicutes E) Staphylococci
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A) Actinomycetes
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33. The _______ of cyanobacteria carry out _______, whereas the _______ carry out _______. A) vegetative cells; nitrogen fixation; heterocysts; photosynthesis B) spores; photosynthesis; vegetative cells; nitrogen fixation C) vegetative cells; photosynthesis; heterocysts; nitrogen fixation D) heterocysts; photosynthesis; spores; nitrogen fixation E) vegetative cells; nitrogen fixation; spores; photosynthesis
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C) vegetative cells; photosynthesis; heterocysts; nitrogen fixation
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34. Which of the following characteristics is present in Archaea, but NOT in Bacteria or Eukarya? A) Nitrogen fixation B) Chlorophyll-based photosynthesis C) Ether-linked membrane lipids D) Cell walls with peptidoglycan E) Plasmids
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C) Ether-linked membrane lipids
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35. Why might Biofilms on medical devices be difficult to combat? A) They may be impermeable to antibiotics. B) They are water-soluble. C) Cells within the biofilm do not grow and divide. D) The cells attach in a reversible manner. E) None of the above
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A) They may be impermeable to antibiotics.
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36. Which of the following types of prokaryotes are most NEGATIVELY impacted by oxygen? A) Obligate aerobes B) Obligate anaerobes C) Facultative anaerobes D) Aerotolerant airobes E) Photoautotrophs
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B) Obligate anaerobes
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**37. Examining the Spectroscopy data shown below, what can you conclude about the different types of chlorophyll found in Purple Sulfur bacteria and Green Alga? A) The chlorophyll found in green alga absorbs light maximally at approximately 450 nm and 675 nm. B) The chlorophyll found in purple sulfur bacteria absorbs light in both the visible spectrum as well as in the infrared spectrum. C) The chlorophyll found in green alga absorbs only in the infrared spectrum. D) Both a and b E) All of the above
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C) The chlorophyll found in green alga absorbs only in the infrared spectrum.
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38. For an organism to be a successful pathogen, it must A) arrive at the body surface of a potential host. B) enter the host’s body. C) reproduce inside the host and infect a new host. D) evade the host’s defenses. E) All of the above
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E) All of the above
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39. Which of the following set of rules was an important tool used to identify the cause of a bacterial infection during a time when it was not widely understood that microorganisms cause disease? A) Chargraff’s rules B) Germ theory of disease C) Koch’s postulates D) Theory of spontaneous generation E) Rivers’s postulates
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C) Koch’s postulates
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40. Which of the following characteristics is unique to prokaryotes? A) Lack of membrane-enclosed organelles B) Presence of cell walls C) Presence of plasma membranes D) Presence of a cytoskeleton E) Absence of ribosomes
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A) Lack of membrane-enclosed organelles
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41. A bacterium that requires a carbon source other than carbon dioxide, yet can convert light energy to chemical energy, is called a A) photoautotroph. B) photoheterotroph. C) chemoautotroph. D) chemoheterotroph. E) chemolithotroph.
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B) photoheterotroph.
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42. Autoclaves, which sterilize medical and laboratory equipment by means of pressurized heat, must pass a “spore test” in many states to demonstrate that they work correctly. The spore-producing bacteria used for this test are most likely taken from which of the following groups? A) Low-GC Gram-positive bacteria B) Proteobacteria C) Cyanobacteria D) Chlamydias E) High-GC Gram-positive bacteria
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A) Low-GC Gram-positive bacteria
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43. The mitochondria of eukaryotes were derived by endosymbiosis from A) proteobacteria. B) chemoheterotrophs. C) eukaryotes. D) archaea. E) viruses.
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A) proteobacteria.
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44. Gram-negative bacteria stain pink because A) they have specialized lipids in their cell walls. B) their peptidoglycan layer is thin. C) their peptidoglycan layer is thick. D) they are receptive to antibiotics. E) their cell walls are composed largely of proteins
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B) their peptidoglycan layer is thin.
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45. Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotes is TRUE? A) Because prokaryotes do not contain organelles, they cannot photosynthesize or carry out cellular respiration. B) Prokaryotes have no chromosomes and therefore lack DNA. C) Prokaryote flagella are similar in structure to eukaryote flagella. D) Prokaryotes undergo mitosis. E) None of the above
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E) None of the above
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46. Rod-shaped bacteria are referred to as A) bacilli. B) cocci. C) spiral. D) helici. E) roddi.
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A) bacilli.
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47. Which of the labeled areas retains the violet dye during the Gram-staining procedure?
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A = Gram-Positive stain; b/c this has a THICK layer of Peptigoglycan
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48. Which of the labeled areas picks up the counterstain during the Gram-staining procedure?
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D = b/c this has a THIN layer of Peptigoglycan
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49. These bacteria photosynthesize using chlorophyll a and contain photosynthetic lamellae
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Cyanobacteria
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50. These bacteria use axial filaments to move and include the bacterium that causes syphilis.
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spirochetes

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