Exam 1 Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
bright field microscopy
answer
(most common) source of illumination is visible light, used to visualize bacteria due to contrast difference in bacteria and medium
question
darkfield microscopy
answer

[image] 

reflected light is used to visualize bacteria too thin to be seen by bright field (e.g. Treponema pallidum) (diagnoses syphillis well)

question
positive stain
answer
[image]stains cells, not extracellular medium
question
negative stain
answer

[image] 

stains extracellular medium, not cells (e.g. india ink stain for visualizing capsules)

question
Gram stain
answer

[image] 

Procedure = (1) crystal violet - primary stain (purple); (2) iodine - mordant (fixative); (3) alcohol - decolorizer; (4) Saffarnin - counterstain (red)

question
Why does differential staining occur?
answer

[image] 

Gram-positive cell wall (extensive peptidoglycan layer) retains crystal violet-iodine complex; Gram-negative wall does not

question
cocci
answer

[image] 

round (shape)

question
staph-
answer

[image] 

clusters (arrangement)

question
strep-
answer

[image] 

chain (arrangement)

question
diplo-
answer
pairs
question
bacillus
answer

[image] 

rod (shape)

 

Bacillus are Gram(+)positive

Two Bacillus species are considered medically significant: B. anthracis, which causes anthrax, and B. cereus, which causes a foodborne illness similar to that of Staphylococcus.A third species, B. thuringiensis, is an important insect pathogen, and is sometimes used to control insect pests. The type speciesis B. subtilis, an important model organism. It is also a notable food spoiler, causing ropiness in bread and related food.  

question
helicoidal
answer

[image] 

curved rod (shape) e.g. Vibrio

question
helicoidal
answer

[image] 

spirochetal (shape) e.g. Treponema

question
pleomorphic bacillus
answer
varies in size and shape e.g. Haemophilus influenzae
question
H antigen
answer

[image] 

a bacterial flagellar antigen; important in serological identification of bacteria

question
K antigen
answer

[image] 

a bacterial capsular antigen, external to the cell wall; important for serological identification

question
biofilms
answer

[image] 

an aggregate of microorganisms in which cells adhere to each other in a self-producing matrix; a protected structure of bacterial cells/microcolonies enmeshed in mucoid (hydrated) exopolysaccharide adhering to a wet surface (inert or living) ... biofilms may form on living or non-living surfaces, and may be prevalent in industrial/hospital settings

question
fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane
answer
polypeptides are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer with hydrophilic regions extended out into the cytoplasm, the extracellular volume or both
question
unit membrane
answer
phospholipid bilayer with hydrophilic groups at top and bottom and hydrophobic groups in middle
question
Gram positive
answer

[image] 

bacteria with cell walls consisting of thick layers of peptidoglycan will retain the violet inkstain of the Gram stain procedure

question
Gram negative
answer

[image] 

bacteria with thinner cell walls with less peptidoglycan will lose the violet inkstain during the decolorization stage of Gram staining procedure

question
Do both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria possess peptidoglycan?
answer
Yes
question
peptidoglycan
answer

[image] 

fabric shell encasing the cell; network of polymers, containing N-acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine; N-acetylmuramic acid subunits on different strands are cross-linked via their peptide stems (aka amino acid sidechains), which provides mechanical strength and prevents the cell from bursting via osmotic pressure

question
LPS
answer

[image] 

lipopolysaccharide (aka endotoxin)

question
O antigen
answer

[image] 

antigen occurring in the lipopolysaccharide layer of the wall of Gram-negative bacteria

question
periplasm
answer

[image] 

the peptidoglycan layer … major function is osmotic protection; also function in nutrient uptake, sensory (chemotaxis) mechanism, degradative enzymes

question
outer membrane
answer
lipid bilayer … major function is exclusion of some dyes; differentially permeable … Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane
question
Lipid A
answer

[image] 

composed of disaccharides, phosphate groups, and fatty acids … the toxicity of LPS lipopolysaccharide is primarily associated with Lipid A

question
core polysaccharide
answer

[image] 

part of LPS lipopolysaccharide; may contain sugars, aminosugar, sugar acids, sugar alcohols; often contains the uniqe sugar ketodeoxyoctulonate (KDO)

question
KDO
answer

[image] 

ketodeoxyoctulonate; unique sugar found in core polysaccharide of LPS

question
terminal polysaccharide
answer

[image] 

consists of a unit (sugars, aminosugars, sugar acids, sugar alcohols) repeated N-number of times … highly specific region, e.g. Salmonella

question
lipooligiosaccharide (LOS)
answer

[image] 

certain bacteria lack O-antigenic (LPS) chain, only contain Lipid A and extended core - e.g. Neisseria meningitidis, N. gonorrhoeae, Haemophilus influenzae, Haemophilus ducreyi

 

LOS is a potent endotoxin that can cause petichae, purpura, septic shock 

question
exogenous pyrogen
answer
fever-producing entity (e.g. LPS)
question
LBP
answer
LPS Binding Protein
question
SIRS
answer

[image] 

systemic inflammatory response syndrome … similar to acute inflammation (acute phase response), but on a systemic scale with macrophages, PMNs, endothelial cells serving as effector cells

question
DS
answer
distributive shock (hypovolemic shock)
question
DIC
answer

[image] 

disseminated intravascular coagulation; pathological activation of blood clotting

question
MOF
answer
multiorgan failure
question
sepsis
answer

[image] 

the presence of both (a) proven infection - e.g. pneumonia, UTI, bacteremia, as well as (b) SIRS

question
severe sepsis
answer

[image] 

the presence of both (a) sepsis [= infection + SIRS] as well as (b) organ failure

question
septic shock
answer

[image] 

the bresence of both (a) severe sepsis, as well as (b) refractory hypotension

question
hypovolemic shock
answer

[image] 

caused by loss of fluid from the vascular system; blood pressure drops … not vascular obstructive, not cardiogenic

question
leukopenia (or leukocytosis)
answer
abnormally low (or high) levels of peripheral white blood cells in the blood
question
drotecogin alfa
answer
activated human recombinant protein C; inhibits clotting, inhibits inflammation, activates fibrinolysis … used as treatment to control SIRS/DS
question
Protein C
answer

also known as autoprothrombin IIA and blood coagulation factor XIV ... protein C inhibits clotting (anticoagulant), activates fibrinolysis, inhibits inflammation ... does this by inactivating Factor Va and Factor VIIIa

 [image]

pt's with deficiency or resistance to protein C will be at a significantly increased risk of forming dangerous blood clots (thrombosis)

question
lipoteichoic acid
answer

[image];

additional polymer of glycerol or ribitol phosphate, found in Gram-positive cell wall stain ; functions in adherence, antiphagocytic

question
Do the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria contain LPS/endotoxin, or an outer membrane?
answer
NO
question
teichoic acids
answer

[image];

additional polymers of glycerol or ribitol phosphate, found in Gram-positive cell wall stain ; function to produce endotoxin-like shock, interacts with C-reactive protein, activates alternative complement pathway

question
TLR
answer
LPS-signal-transducer receptor protein, located on macrophages, sends the LPS signal through cytoplasm to the nucleus
question
PAMPs
answer

[image];

pathogen-associated molecular patterns; include peptidoglycan, teichoic acids, CpG nucleotides, and of course LPS

question
What are the two genera of endospore-formers?
answer
Bacillus and Clostridium
question
virion
answer

[image];

the complete viral particle

question
capsomeres
answer

[image];

protein subunits of the capsid; repetetive polypeptide subunits arranged in symmetric patterns = capsid

question
capsid
answer

[image];

the protein shell (or coat) that encloses the core of the NA nucleic acid genome of a virus + any associated proteins

question
nucleocapsid
answer

[image];

protein associated with the NA nucleic acid genome; the capsid together with the NA genome plus any associated proteins

question
envelope
answer

[image];

the viral membrane; the "skullcap" or "scalp"; viral envelope is composed of virus-specific proteins plus host-derived lipids and carbohydrates (from nuclear, ER, Golgi, or cytoplasmic membranes) that the virus "wears" on its outer membrane; useful for identification

question
peplomer
answer

[image];

spikes ; viral glycoproteins that form spike-like projections on the surface of the envelope and play a role in attachment

question
tegument (aka Matrix protein)
answer

[image];

amorphous layer b/w nucleocapsid and envelope that mediates the interaction b/w capsid and envelope

question
viroid
answer
naked RNA virus (mainly plant viruses)
question
prion
answer

[image];

infectious protein (misfolded) which causes disease in the CNS ; NOT a virus

question
icosahedral
answer

[image];

type of capsid symmetry found in animal viruses; capsomeres are arranged in triangles that form a symmetric figure

question
helical
answer

[image];

type of capsid symmetry found in animal viruses; capsomeres are arranged in a hollow core that appears helix-shaped

question
positive sense (+) ssRNA
answer

[image];

positive sense RNA resembles mRNA and thus can be immediately translated by the host cell ... the viral nucleic acid serves as mRNA, but they must encode for an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase to make the antisense RNA to produce the viral genome

question
retroviruses
answer

[image];

have a reverse transcriptase (RNA dependent-DNA polymerase) which transcribes the (+)ssRNA to DNA, then the mRNA is transcribed from the viral specific DNA ; this is the target for many anti-HIV drugs, e.g. AZT

question
negative sense (-) ssRNA and ds-RNA
answer

[image];

RNA viruses can be classified according to the sense or polarity of their RNA. Positive sense viral RNA is similar to mRNA (can be immediately translated); whiel negative-sense RNA is complementary to mRNA and thus must be converted to positive-sense RNA by an RNA polymerase before translation

These virions must contain functional proteins (an RNA-dependent-RNA polymerase) to make the mRNA as well as possess the gene that codes for the protein

question
primary replication
answer
is at or near the portal of entry (POE) for a virus
question
viral tropism
answer
where virus has specificity for a particular host tissue
question
productive infection
answer

[image];

involves lethal or non-lethal damage/alteration to cells and their functions, as a result of infection

question
persistent infection
answer

[image];

involves periods of incubation or persistence, where there is an absence of disease symptoms during infection

question
tumor (neoplasm)
answer
a mass of new tissue which persists and grows independently of its surrounding structures
question
malignant transformation (neoplasm)
answer
the conversion of a cell from restricted growth to unrestricted growth, which is characteristic of tumors
question
dimorphism
answer

[image];

ability of fungus to grow as a mycelial (mold) form at room temperature and a yeast form at 37*C

question
mycelial fungi
answer

[image];

growth occurs by elongation of hyphae to form a mycelium ; sexual and asexual spores produced

question
hyphae
answer

[image];

a long, branching filamentous structure of a fungus, or also the unrelated Actinobacteria (hypha of penicillum, above) ... cells are branching cylindrical tubules +/- septa or crosswalls; collectively called mycelium

question
mycelium
answer

[image];

mass of intertwined hyphae

question
yeasts
answer

[image];

eukaryotic microorganisms classified under the kingdom fugi ... yeasts are unicellular; asexual reproduction by budding

question
blastospores
answer

[image];

aka yeast

question
macroconidia
answer

[image];

large (macro) spores (conidia), which are not enclosed in any sort of special structure, naked spores ; macroconidia are infectious form for fungi that infect skin (Dermatophytes)

question
microconidia
answer

[image];

small (micro) spores (conidia), which are not enclosed in any sort of special structure, naked spores ; microconidia are small enough to get to alveoli when inhaled and are the infectious form for certin fungi

question
symbiosis
answer
a close association of two different organisms
question
mutualism
answer
a beneficial association for two different organisms
question
commensalism
answer
beneficial association of one organism with another (unaffected) organism
question
parasitism
answer
beneficial association of one organism, to the detriment of another organism
question
rhizopods (amoebas)
answer

[image];

protozoa; microscopic; single cells ; motile by means of cytoplasmic extensions (pseudopodia)

question
flagellates
answer

[image];

protozoa; microscopic; single cells ; motile by means of flagella

question
ciliates
answer

[image];

protozoa; microscopic; single cells ; motile by means of cilia

question
sporozoans
answer

[image];

protozoa; microscopic; single cells ; complex life cycles with asexual and sexual stages

question
helminths
answer

[image];

the worms. Adults mostly macroscopic, eggs microscopic. Mostly monoecious w/ male and female sex organs in the same individual

question
monoecious
answer
male and female sex organs in the same individual
question
platyhelminthes
answer

[image];

flatworms

question
trematodes
answer
the flukes
question
cestodes
answer

[image];

tapeworms

question
nemathelminthes
answer

[image];

round worms, nematodes

question
arthropods
answer
chitinous exoskeletons, e.g. lice, mites, ticks, etc.
question
definitive host
answer
host which harbors adult or sexual stage of the parasite
question
intermediate host
answer
host(s) in which asexual stage(s) occur
question
autotrophic metabolism
answer
source of all carbon building blocks is CO2; autotrophic bacteria "fix CO2" … cellular energy is obtained from the oxidation/reduction of inorganic ions (chemoautotroph) or harvesting light energy (photoautotroph)
question
heterotrophic metabolism
answer
sources of energy and carbon are organic carbon sources … most pathogenic bacteria are heterotrophic
question
fastidious microbes
answer

[image];

have complex growth requirements (specific nutrient, atmospheric, or temperature demands); this makes them difficult to cultivate in the laboratory

question
non-fastidious microbes
answer

[image];

have less complex growth requirements, and are easier to cultivate in the laboratory

question
halophiles
answer

[image];

"salt lovers", e.g. Vibrio chlorae, V. parahaemolyticus

question
mesophiles
answer
growth occurs between 20-50*C … most pathogens are mesophiles ; grow best at 35-36*C
question
thermophiles (obligate or facultative)
answer
"heat lovers"; grow at temperatures greater than 55*C
question
psychrophiles or cryophiles (obligate or facultative)
answer
grow at temperatures less than 20*C (think "cryo"genics, etc.)
question
aerobes
answer

[image];

can grow in the presence of O2 because they produce enzymes which detoxify superoxide radicals and hydrogen peroxide

question
facultative anaerobes
answer

[image];

can grow in the presence of O2 because they produce enzymes which detoxify superoxide radicals and hydrogen peroxide

;

Some examples of facultative anaerobic bacteria are;Staphylococcus;(Gram positive),;Escherichia coli;and;Shewanella oneidensis;(Gram negative), andListeria;(Gram positive). Certain;eukaryote;phyla;are also facultative anaerobes, including;fungi;such as;yeasts;and many aquatic;invertebrates;such asNereid (worm);polychaetes, for example.;There are also circulating;white blood cells;that are classified as facultative anaerobes. These include;neutrophils,monocytes;and tissue;macrophages. ;

question
superoxide dismutase (SOD)
answer

[image];

enzyme of aerobes that detoxifies superoxide anion (O2*-)

question
catalase
answer

[image];

enzyme of aerobes that detoxifies H2O2

question
obligate aerobes
answer

[image];

require the presence of atmospheric O2 for growth, e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

question
microaerophilic organisms
answer

[image];

require the presence of some O2 but NOT at atmospheric levels (reduced O2), e.g. Campylobacter

question
facultative anaerobes
answer

[image];

can grow in the presence or absence of O2 ; many pathogens are facultative anaerobes, e.g. enteric bacteria

question
aerotolerant anaerobes
answer

[image];

can survive in the presence of O2, e.g. Lactobacillus spp.

question
obligate anaerobes
answer

[image];

are killed by the presence of O2, they are lacking in the enzymes superoxide dismutase and catalase, e.g. Clostridium, Bacteroides, and others

question
respiration
answer
an enzymatic process occurring in a membrane vesicle or sack; the function of which is to provide energy via Proton Motive Force for ATP synthesis (production) during the conversion (recycling) of NADH2 to NAD
question
aerobic respiration (aka oxidative phosphorylation)
answer

[image];

O2 is the terminal electron acceptor, which is reduced to water by the electron transport system ; common among pathogenic microorganisms and humans

question
anaerobic respiration
answer

[image];

inorganic compounds (nitrate, sulfate, etc.) serve as terminal electron acceptors ; this is significant especially for pregnant females, high levels of nitrites can cause methemoglobinemia (MetHb) especially in the fetus

question
fermentation
answer
simpler and less efficient than respiration … fermentation consists of catabolic pathways where organic compounds serve as electron donors and electron acceptors; substrates are partially oxidized generating end products which are 1,2,3,4 carbon compounds, as electron acceptor, and are excreted/released from the cell
question
dental carries (cavities)
answer
a fermentation process … bacteria like streptococcus mutans produce lactic acid, which demineralizes the tooth
question
acification of skin and vagina
answer
a fermentation process … bacteria like Lactobacillus sp. (produces lactic acid) and Propionibacterium acnes (produces propionic acid) all lower pH of tissues
question
hydrogen lyase
answer
enzyme responsible for recycling ferredoxin from the reduced to the oxidized form, in the fermentation process typical for many species of Clostridium
question
urease
answer
microbial enzyme that hydrolyzes urea, producing ammonia (NH4+) and CO2
question
calculi
answer

[image];

kidney stones ; the more alkaline pH in the urinary tract, the more the Ca2+ and NH4+ ions in the urine can form salts which may precipitate out, accumulating in stones

question
lag phase
answer

[image];

phase in the growth cycle, in which there is no change in cell number

question
exponential/log phase
answer

[image];

follows lag phase in the growth cycle ; growth occurs at an exponential/logarithmic rate during this phase

question
generation time
answer

[image];

the time required for a parent to divide into two daughter cells ; also known as the doubling time

question
stationary phase
answer

[image];

phase in the growth cycle which follows log phase and where no net increase in cell numbers occurs

question
death phase
answer

[image];

defined as the phase which follows the stationary phase of the growth cycle, and where cell death begins to occur at a logarithmic rate

question
fulminant infections
answer
rapidly progressing ; from the latin fulminare meaning "to strike with lightning" ... fulminant infections may be produced by bacteria with a short mean generation time ... may also refer to onset of disease (e.g. fulminant liver failure, fulminant meningitis)
question
chronic infections
answer
bacteria with a long generation time generally produce chronic infections, a low Ag dose
question
genome
answer
the set of all chromosome(s) of an organism
question
genotype
answer
complete listing of all genes present in an organism
question
phenotype
answer
complete listing of all physical characteristics that an organism expresses under a defined set of conditions
question
replicon
answer

[image];

a DNA or RNA molecule that controls its own replication and is capable of self-duplication

question
extra chromosomal elements
answer
replicons that are present in a cell, excluding the host cell DNA, and including plasmids, baccteriophages (bacterial viruses)
question
plasmids
answer

[image];

plasmids are DNA molecules that are separate from, and capable of replicating independently of, the chromosomal DNA; they are considered replicons, capable of autonomous replication, although they use the bacteria's replication machinery ... plasmids are double stranded covalently closed circular DNA molecules which reside in the bacterial cytoplasm. So they are extra-chromosomal elements.

question
conjugative plasmids
answer

[image] 

encode for a mechanism of plasmid transfer (sex pilus)

question
R factors (plasmids)
answer

[image] 

encode for drug resistance

question
Virulence plasmids
answer
ecnode for virulence factors
question
bacteriophages
answer

[image] 

viruses (either DNA or RNA) which infect bacteria. Some bacteriophages can exist in a latent state in the bacterial cells. The viral DNA (prophage) either integrates into the host cell's chromosome or functions as a plasmid in the bacterial cytoplasm.

question
lysogenized bacteria
answer
bacteria with latent phages (have prophages); in contrast with phages that go through only a lytic cycle (lyse bacteria)
question
phenotypic variation
answer
the situation in which ALL cells in a population respond to environmental stimuli in the SAME fashion, and produce a new/altered phenotype via the expression of a gene(s) ; no genotypic change is needed for this to occur ; e.g. capsule production by the yeast Cryptococcus neoformans
question
quorum sensing
answer

ability of bacteria to detect the size of their own population; a system of stimulus and response correlated to population density; can be used to coordinate gene expression

;

Some of the best-known examples of quorum sensing come from studies of;bacteria. Bacteria use quorum sensing to coordinate certain behaviors based on the local density of the bacterial population. Quorum sensing can occur within a single bacterial;species;as well as between diverse species, and can regulate a host of different processes, in essence, serving as a simple communication network. A variety of different;molecules;can be used as;signals. Common classes of signaling molecules are;oligopeptides;in;Gram-positive bacteria,;N-Acyl Homoserine Lactones;(AHL) in;Gram-negative bacteria, and a family of;autoinducers;known as;autoinducer-2;(AI-2) in both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.;

question
genotypic variation
answer
when the genome (genotype) of one or more cells is/are altered … the acquisition of new genetic information occurs by two different processes -- mutation or horizontal gene transfer
question
mutation
answer
alteration in nucleotide sequence of a gene; process of acquiring new genetic information that involves INTERNAL change of the genome
question
horizontal gene transfer
answer

[image] 

process of acquiring new genetic information that involves acquisition of a gene from EXTERNAL sources

question
transformation
answer

[image] 

mechanism of horizontal gene transfer … occurs when there is replacement of a portion of the recipient's genome are replaced by homologous chromosomal genes from another (donor) bacteria; recipient must be "competent," so it can incorporates free donor DNA into its genome, e.g. recombination

question
conjugation
answer

[image] 

mechanism of horizontal gene transfer … when the source of external genetic information is a conjugative (transmissable) plasmid carrying new or altered genes (from donor cell)

question
transduction
answer
[image]mechanism of horizontal gene transfer, where DNA is transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus or viral vector; does not require cell-to-cell contact (unlike conjugation) … transduction involves lysogeny (prophages), i.e. acquisition of bacteriophages (as a prophage, latent virus)
question
bacteriophages
answer

[image] 

bacterial virus; any number of viruses that infect bacteria ... they do this by injecting genetic material (ssRNA, dsRNA, ssDNA, dsDNA) that was stored in their capsid into the bacteria ... phages are one of the most common and diverse entities in the biosphere

question
lytic phage
answer

[image] 

infects the bacterial host cell, replicates, then kills (lyses) the bacterium releasing the new progeny to injfect other cells … involved in transduction, form of horizontal gene transfer

question
temperate phage
answer

[image] 

infects the host bacterial cell, after which the phage has two options - either undergo the normal lytic cycle (infect, replicate, then lyse) or can become latent thus "lysogenizing" the bacterium (either by reamaining as plasmid in cytoplasm or by integrating/inserting into host cell DNA)

question
latent virus
answer

[image] 

can remain latent inside bacterial host cell either by remaining as a plasmid in the cytoplasm or by integrating/inserting into the host cell DNA

question
lysogenic conversion
answer

[image] 

when the recipient bacterial host cell is infected by a temperate virus … a bacterium exhibits a new phenotype due to the acquisition of a prophage (latent bacteriophage) which encodes for the new phenotype

question
plasmid analysis
answer
used epidemiologically to determine common source of infecting organisms … plasmid DNA is isolated, purified, DNA fragments are separated by size; detection methodology involves staining = (+) positive match means strains of the same organism possess same number and size of plasmids; (-) negative match means strains with different number or sizes of plasmids, not epidemiologically related
question
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
answer

[image] 

PCR is the in vitro amplification of target DNA or RNA from an organism; the purpose is to amplify nucleic acid sequences which cannot be detected directly … i.e. standard for diagnosis of specific agents detection of Herpes simplex virus JC virus, enteroviruses, rabiesvirus in CNS

question
normal flora (NF)
answer

[image] 

Microorganisms that are expected to be present, and that under normal circumstances do not cause disease, but instead participate in maintaining health, are deemed members of the normal flora. 

 

Normal flora bacteria can act as opportunistic pathogens at times of lowered immunity.  

question
selective anatomical distribution
answer
characteristic of natural flora (NF); microorganisms have specialized ecological niches (anatomical locations) in and on the body … due in part to attachment sites, nutritional needs, competition, inhibitory substances
question
coliforms
answer

[image] 

indicators of fecal contamination and food; Gram-negative rods, facultative anaerobes

question
natural flora, regions
answer
see table
question
endogenous parasite
answer
when normal flora (NF) becomes opportunist (opportunistic infections, usually their virulence is low) … host suffers, microbes benefit
question
exogenous pathogen
answer
classical infectious disease; when an external microbe not part of normal flora causes damage to its (healthy) host
question
endotoxin (LPS)
answer

[image] 

produced by Gram-negative organisms, is pyrogenic (fever-causing), is heat stable (survives autoclaving), does not form toxoids, broad spectrum of activity (affects a wide variety of animal species)

question
exotoxins
answer
produced by Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria; polypeptides or proteins that are either secreted or cell-associated, can be chromosomal or plasmid-encoded or carried on temperate bacteriophages (lysogenic conversion), usually heat labile, can form toxoids (highly immunogenic) generally do not induce fever (not pyrogenic)
question
pathogen
answer
a microbial life form that is a harmful symbiont; the etiologic agent of an infectious disease
question
Frank pathogen
answer

[image] 

essentially always cause infection and/or disease in a specific host

question
opportunistic pathogen
answer
infect and/or cause disease only in compromised hosts (immunosuppressed, malnourished, have cancer, etc.) … also can be normal flora (NF) that become pathogenic due to some changes in the host
question
non-pathogens
answer

[image] 

microbial life form that essentially never cause disease, even if the host is severely compromised (e.g. lactobacillus)

question
pathogenesis
answer
the evolution of a disease within a host (the "course" of disease)
question
pathogenicity and virulence
answer
essentially interchangeable terms that describe the degree to which a pathogen causes disease
question
virulence
answer
the degree of pathogenecity; degree to which a pathogen causes disease
question
virulence factors
answer

determinants of virulence; any of a pathogens genetic, biochemical or structural features that enable it to produce disease in a host

virulence factors allow pathogens to colonize a host, evade immune responses, and obtain nutrition

 

Some virulence factors are intrinsic (capsule, endotoxin) while others are obtained from external (plasmids). LPS is the prototypical endotoxin; exotoxins include the tetanus toxin and the botulinum toxin 

question
colonization
answer
presence of microorganisms in a site of the body that does not necessarily lead to tissue damage and signs/symptoms of disease
question
symptoms
answer
effects of bacterial infection apparent to the infected person (the subjective side of describing and determining pain) … e.g. chills, pain, ache, soreness, irritation, nausea, malaise
question
signs
answer
the objective side of describing and determining pain/disease, such as temperature or blood pressure … examples = fever, antibodies in serum, blood pressure, heart beat, respiratory range, complete blood work
question
carriage
answer

[image] 

similar to colonization; refer to someone who is actually infected or has been previously infected with a pathogen, carries that pathogen with them as part of their normal flora (transmission potential), but does not exhibit disease manifestations referable to the pathogen (i.e. inapparent carriage; or in salmonella carriage)

question
mutualism
answer
both benefit
question
commensalism
answer
host not harmed, microbe benefits
question
parasitism
answer
host suffers, microbes benefit
question
ID50
answer
measure of virulence; amount of organism that will infect 50% of susceptible animals
question
LD50
answer
measure of virulence; amount of organism that will kill 50% of susceptible animals
question
inapparent (subclinical) or asymptomatic infection
answer
presence of pathogen; but no detectable clinical symptoms of infection (except seroconversion w/ antibodies does occur)
question
dormant (latent) infection
answer

[image] 

pathogen is present; but not active or manifest

question
primary infection
answer

[image] 

clinically apparent invasion and multiplication of microbes in body tissues, causing local tissue injury

question
secondary infection
answer
microbial invasion subsequent to primary infection
question
mixed infection
answer
two or more microbes infecting the same tissue
question
acute infection
answer

[image] 

rapid onset (hours or days) and brief duration (days or weeks)

question
subacute infection
answer
infection is not chronic but runs a rapid and severe, but less than acute, course; thus, it is intermediate between acute and chronic
question
chronic infection
answer
infection w/ prolonged duration (weeks, months, or years)
question
localized infection
answer
infection confined to a small area or to an organ
question
generalized infection
answer
infection disseminated to many body regions
question
pyogenic infection
answer
pus-forming infection
question
fulminant infection
answer
infection that occurs suddenly and intensely and are rapidly progressive
question
superinfection
answer
literally, an infection "on top of", as a result of, or in addition to the primary infection … often, these result from antimicrobial treatments … e.g. pt prescribed antibiotics for a UTI, and a yeast infection develops as a result
question
mixed infection
answer
infection caused by more than one organism simultaneously
question
coinfection
answer
this is when two infections appear together, they are often interdependent but are always simultaneous … closely related to the term superinfection (all superinfections are coinfections) … e.g. approximately 80% of TB patients have HIV
question
disease
answer
a specific set of manifestations of damage referable to specific pathogen-host interactions … from the Old French meaning "away from the normal" … disease spectrum ranges from asymptomatic to fatal progression
question
epidemiological triad
answer

[image] 

disease comes from a unique combination of events involving a (harmful) agent, a (susceptible) host, all in the same (proper) environment … disease can be blocked at any three of these "sides" of the "triangle"

question
host factors
answer
anything from innate or genetic susceptibility to disease, or psycho-social factors that affect the "host" angle of the epidemiological triad … interventions here would include hygiene, quarantine, immunization, etc.
question
environmental barriers
answer
anything from the availability of vectors, to the weather/seasonality, to the existence of reservoir hosts that makes up the "environment" angle of the epidemiological triad … interventions here would include handling/treatment of water/waste, appropriate food handling, controlling temperature, adequate ventilation, etc.
question
agent factors
answer
anything about the infectious agent such as persistence or survivability, toxins or virulence factors, that affects the "agent" angle of the epidemiological triad … interventions here include sterilization and disinfection measures
question
reservoir of infection
answer
a continual source of infection … can be living (humans w/ disease) or non-living (soil or water or food)
question
contact transmission
answer
involves either direct contact (sexual, kissing) or indirect contact (by vehicle such as water or food or soil or blood)
question
vehicle transmission, by a medium
answer
involves transmission via water or food or air or soil or blood or fomite
question
fomite
answer
any inanimate object or substance capable of carrying infectious organisms
question
vehicle transmission, by vector (live carrier)
answer
such as in the case with transmission via arthropods … either a biological vector (part of the life cycle of the pathogen, in saliva or in feces) or by a mechanical vector (passive transport of a pathogen on a vector's feet or other body part)
question

[image]

zoonoses

answer
those infections spread from animals (their natural reservoir) to humans as a receptive/susceptible and propagating host … zoonoses tend to be more serious (morbidity) and often fatal (mortality) in humans than in their natural animal reservoirs
question
non-communicable infectious diseases
answer
are not transmitted from one person to another; normal flora can be a source, so can preformed microbial toxins or environmental pathogens; but there is no person-to-person transmission
question
communicable (person-to-person) infectious diseases
answer
diseases that are transmitted person-to-person … can be spread horizontally (airborne, fecal-oral, bloodborne, etc.) or can be spread vertically (mother to fetus)
question

[image] 

herd immunity

answer
refers to the indirect effect of protection from infection of otherwise susceptible members of a populations and the population as a whole (herd) as a result of the presence of immune individuals … varies with different infectious agents … for most infectious diseases, only a small fraction of the population (herd) can be left unvaccinated for herd immunity to be effective
question
firewall
answer
in herd immunity, immune individuals provide a firewall against the spread of an infectious disease from person-to-person
question
incubation period (incubation time)
answer

the time between exposure to a pathogen and the appearance of the first symptoms of disease

 [image]

question
chemoprophylaxis
answer

administration of antimicrobials prior to onset of symptoms

 

antibiotics, for example, can be administered to patients with disorders of immune system dysfunction, to prevent opportunistic infection 

question
immunoprophylaxis
answer
passive or even active immunization prior to the onset of symptoms
question
incidence
answer
number of new occurrences of disease, injury, or death in the study population during the time period being examined
question
seasonality
answer
if the incidence rate (new occurrences) is consistently higher during a specific time of year, e.g. influenza demonstrates winter seasonality
question
prevalence
answer
the total number of existing cases with respect to the entire population (100%) … prevalence = incidence (new cases) + old cases
question
mortality rate
answer
measures the total number of deaths in a population due to a certain disease
question
morbitity rate
answer
measures the total number of persons afflicted with infectious diseases
question
endemic/endemicity
answer
the rate at which infection or disease is present - a certain constant rate (the endemic rate)
question
epidemic
answer

[image] 

a significant (and usually sudden) increase above the endemic and sporadic rate of a disease … could be hours, days, months

question
common source epidemic
answer
an epidemic where all individuals are exposed to one specific source
question
point source epidemic
answer
an epidemic where all individuals are exposed to a specific source at a particular time
question
propagative or progressive epidemics
answer
indicates a transmissable or communicable disease
question
pandemic
answer

[image] 

a global epidemic (above the normal global endemic rate)

question
sporadic
answer
occasional cases of a disease at irregular intervals in random locales
question
epizootic
answer
epidemic zoonoses … above the endemic/sporadic rate
question
enzootic
answer
endemic zoonoses … within the range of endemic/sporadic observed rate
question
risk factor
answer
an attribute, characteristic, agent, etc. that is, or is suspected to be, related to the occurrence of a particular disease … help to identify populations at risk … thus can occasionally rule-out or rule-in certain diseases … more often used to rank-order possibilities in synthesizing a differential diagnosis from most likely to least likely ... e.g. age, gender, occupation, geography, etc.
question
siRNA
answer
Small interfering RNA (siRNA), sometimes known as short interfering RNA or silencing RNA, is a class of double-stranded RNA molecules, 20-25 nucleotides in length, that play a variety of roles in biology. The most notable role of siRNA is its involvement in the RNA interference (RNAi) pathway, where it interferes with the expression of a specific gene.
question
type species
answer
A type species is the species to which the name of a genus is permanently linked; it is the species that contains the biological type specimen(s) of the taxon. This is an important concept whenever a taxon containing multiple species must be divided into more than one genus; the type species automatically assigns the name of the original taxon to one of the resulting new taxa, thus reducing the potential for confusion.
question
How do plasmids differ from viruses?
answer
Plasmids are considered replicons, capable of replicating autonomously within a suitable host. Plasmids can be found in all three majordomains: Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya.Similar to viruses, plasmids are not considered by some to be a form of life. Unlike viruses, plasmids are naked DNA and do not encode genes necessary to encase the genetic material for transfer to a new host, though some classes of plasmids encode the sex pilus necessary for their own transfer. Plasmid host-to-host transfer requires direct, mechanical transfer byconjugation or changes in host gene expression allowing the intentional uptake of the genetic element by transformation.Microbial transformation with plasmid DNA is neither parasitic nor symbiotic in nature, because each implies the presence of an independent species living in a commensal or detrimental state with the host organism. Rather, plasmids provide a mechanism for horizontal gene transfer within a population of microbes and typically provide a selective advantage under a given environmental state. Plasmids may carry genes that provide resistance to naturally occurring antibioticsin a competitive environmental niche, or the proteins produced may act as toxins under similar circumstances. Plasmids can also provide bacteria with the ability to fix elemental nitrogen or to degrade recalcitrant organic compounds that provide an advantage when nutrients are scarce.
question
latent, reactivating infection
answer

 

[image]

 e.g. herpes simplex virus 

question
slow virus infection
answer

w/ periods of dormancy

[image]

 e.g. measles virus (SSPE); human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

question
toxoid
answer

A toxoid is a bacterial toxin (usually an exotoxin) whose toxicity has been weakened or suppressed either by chemical (formalin) or heat treatment, while other properties, typically immunogenicity, are maintained.

 

Toxoids are used as vaccines because they induce an immune response to the original toxin or increase the response to another antigen. For example, the tetanus toxoidis derived from thetetanospasmin produced by Clostridium tetani. The latter causes tetanus. Botulin is produced by Clostridium botulinum and it causes the deadly disease botulism.  

question
septum
answer

[image]

Septum is a small fissure formed during bacterial cell division ... Bacteria reproduce by an asexual process called binary fission. First, the DNA replicates and the cell elongates. In the middle of the elongated cell, a septum forms and this develops in to a cell wall that divides two seperate cells.

question
transpeptidase or penicillin binding proteins (PBP)
answer
the enzyme responsible for completing the final cross-linking (transpeptidation) process in the synthesis of peptidoglycan
question
Why are chemotherapeutic inhibitors of protein and/or peptidoglycan synthesis more effective against fast-growing than against slow-growing organisms?
answer

Inhibition of peptidoglycan synthesis inside an actively-dividing cell results in osmotic lysis; so if an organism is dividing more frequently, it will be lysed more frequently by the antibiotic

 

many antimicrobials utilize this - e.g. the penicillins, the cephalosporins, the carbapenems

question
host range
answer
The host range or host specificity of a parasite is the collection of hosts that an organism can utilize as a partner. In the case of human parasites, the host range influences the epidemiology of the parasitism or disease.
Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New