Question 1

The definition of epidemiology includes the term \"distribution.\" Which TWO of the following best describes this term?  A. Frequency   B. Determinants   C. Population   D. Pattern

Accepted Answer

A, D

Question 2

Epidemiology can involve the study of:  A. Infectious diseases   B. Chronic diseases   C. Accidents and injuries   D. A and B ONLY   E. A, B, and C

Accepted Answer

E

Question 3

Characterizing the distribution of health-related states or events according to person, place, and time is:  A. The Scientific Method   B. Descriptive Epidemiology   C. Analytic Epidemiology   D. None of the above

Accepted Answer

B

Question 4

Which term is used to describe a disease that is habitually present in a particular region or population?  A. Epidemic   B. Endemic   C. Pandemic   D. None of the above

Accepted Answer

B

Question 5

Which of the following might be considered an epidemic?  A. Thousands of cases of Ebola in West Africa   B. One case of small pox in New Jersey   C. 50 or more cases of meningitis in a Rutgers dorm   D. A and C ONLY   E. A, B, and C

Accepted Answer

E

Question 6

Who applied experimental methods to identify that oranges and lemons were effective remedies for scurvy?  A. Thomas Sydenham   B. James Lind   C. John Snow   D. Edward Jenner

Accepted Answer

B

Question 7

Who demonstrated that cholera was transmitted through contaminated water, not miasmata?  A. James Lind   B. John Graunt   C. John Snow   D. Louis Pasteur

Accepted Answer

C

Question 8

Who introduced the terms epidemic and endemic?  A. John Snow   B. Robert Koch   C. Socrates   D. Hippocrates

Accepted Answer

D

Question 9

Louis Pasteur is credited with which of the following:  A. Developing vaccines for rabies and anthrax   B. Discounting the theory of \"spontaneous generation\"   C. Pasteurization   D. B and C ONLY   E. A, B, and C

Accepted Answer

E

Question 10

Place the steps of The Epidemiologic Approach in the correct order A. Formulate and test a hypothesis B. Communicate recommendations C. Describe a problem according to person, place, and time D. Evaluate an intervention E. Define a problem

Accepted Answer

E C A B D

Question 11

Match each of the following types of prevention with the appropriate example:  A. Mammogram screening program B. Chemotherapy and radiation for breast cancer treatment C. Education about the risk factors for breast cancer  1. Primary Prevention  2. Secondary Prevention  3. Tertiary Prevention

Accepted Answer

1. Primary Prevention- C 2. Secondary Prevention- A 3. Tertiary Prevention- B

Question 12

Match each stage of the disease process with the correct description:  A. The elapsed time between exposure to a disease and onset of symptoms B. Before an \"at-risk\" person has been exposed to the disease C. The period of recovery when the host may or may not be infectious D. The host exhibits physical symptoms of the disease  1. Susceptibility  2. Incubation  3. Clinical disease  4. Convalescence

Accepted Answer

1. Susceptibility- A 2. Incubation- B 3. Clinical disease- D 4. Convalescence- C

Question 13

What are the inanimate objects that serve a role in disease transmission?   A. Carriers   B. Hosts   C. Fomites   D. Reservoirs

Accepted Answer

C

Question 14

When describing the infectious disease process, how is Latency distinguished from Incubation?   A. For infectious diseases, Latency and Incubation are the same thing.   B. For infectious diseases, Latency refers to the entire pre-symptomatic period, while Incubation refers only to the pre-infectious period.   C. For infectious diseases, Incubation refers to the entire pre-symptomatic period, while Latency refers to only the pre-infectious period.   D. For infectious diseases, Latency refers to the symptomatic period, while Incubation refers to the pre-infectious period.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 15

In 2014, a city recorded 1000 live births and 100 infant deaths. The mid-year population of the city was 500,000. What was the crude birth rate for 2014 (per 1,000)?   A. 2.2 per 1,000   B. 1.8 per 1,000   C. 2.0 per 1,000   D. I need more information to calculate crude birth rate.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 16

An observed increase of prostate cancer incidence over time may be due to:  A. Improved screening and diagnostic tests   B. Changes in screening recommendations   C. A true increase in prostate cancer incidence   D. A and C only   E. A, B, and C

Accepted Answer

E

Question 17

Match each of the following population indicators with the appropriate purpose: A. Fetal Death Rate B. Infant Mortality Rate C. Perinatal Mortality Rate D. Neonatal Mortality Rate  1. Reflects events occurring during pregnancy and shortly after birth  2. Compared internationally to assess unmet public health needs  3. Estimates risk of death from events immediately after birth  4. Estimates risk of death associated with late stages of gestation

Accepted Answer

A. Fetal Death Rate- 4 B. Infant Mortality Rate- 2 C. Perinatal Mortality Rate- 1 D. Neonatal Mortality Rate- 3

Question 18

Match each of the following population trends with the appropriate pyramid shape: A. A rectangular or hexagon-shaped pyramid B. A typical or \"A-shaped\" pyramid C. An upside-down or \"V-shaped\" pyramid  1. Population growth  2. Population decline  3. Population stability

Accepted Answer

1. Population growth- B 2. Population decline- C 3. Population stability- A

Question 19

Match the example equation with the appropriate term A. Cause-specific mortality rate B. Crude mortality rate C. Proportionate mortality rate D. Case-fatality rate  1. Number of people in the US who died from heart attack in 2011 // Number of people in the US who died from all causes in 2011  2. Number of people in the US who died from all causes in 2011 // Number of people living in the US in 2011  3. Number of people in the US who died from heart attack in 2011 // Number of people in the US who had a heart attack in 2011  4. Number of people in the US who died from heart attack in 2011 // Number of people living in the US in 2011

Accepted Answer

A. Cause-specific mortality rate- 4 B. Crude mortality rate- 2 C. Proportionate mortality rate- 1 D. Case-fatality rate- 3

Question 20

True or False: Death certificate data is always a high-quality source of information  A. True   B. False

Accepted Answer

B

Question 21

Which health indicator is used to identify the average number of births per woman?  A. Fertility rate   B. Total fertility rate   C. Birth rate   D. Live birth rate

Accepted Answer

B

Question 22

Match each term with the correct definition A. An observed change that occurs regardless of birth year or calendar time B. An observed change that occurs regardless of age or calendar time C. An observed change that occurs regardless of age or birth year  1. Age Effect  2. Cohort Effect  3. Period Effect

Accepted Answer

1. Age Effect- A 2. Cohort Effect- B 3. Period Effect- C

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT a reason for geographical variations in disease frequency?  A. Climate   B. Environmental exposures   C. Gene-environment interaction   D. All of these are reasons for place variation in disease

Accepted Answer

D

Question 24

Requiring health care providers to submit notification reports when certain diseases are diagnosed is an example of  A. Active surveillance   B. Passive surveillance   C. Sentinel surveillance   D. Syndromic surveillance

Accepted Answer

B

Question 25

Lyme Disease is common in New Jersey, with high frequency in the summer months, followed by low frequency in colder months. This is an example of  A. A point trend   B. A secular trend   C. A cyclical trend   D. None of the above

Accepted Answer

C

Question 26

Which of the following is not a type of analytic epidemiology study?  A. Case-control   B. Cohort   C. Experimental   D. All of the above are analytic epidemiologic studies

Accepted Answer

D

Question 27

Which study design is most appropriate when considering rare exposures (risk factors) in an observational study?  A. Case-control   B. Cohort

Accepted Answer

B

Question 28

Which study design is most appropriate when considering rare outcomes in an observational study?  A. Case-control   B. Cohort

Accepted Answer

A

Question 29

Which study design may be either retrospective or prospective?  A. Cohort   B. Case-control   C. Experimental   D. Cross-sectional

Accepted Answer

A

Question 30

When several potential outcomes are being investigated with a given exposure, which study design is more appropriate in an observational study?  A. Cohort   B. Experimental   C. Case-control

Accepted Answer

A

Question 31

What statistic is most appropriate for measuring the strength of the association between an exposure and disease outcome in a case-control study?  A. Risk ratio   B. Simple regression coefficient   C. Odds ratio   D. Correlation coefficient

Accepted Answer

C

Question 32

True or False? Recall bias in a case-control study results in differential misclassification. A. True B. False

Accepted Answer

A

Question 33

True or False? An effective way to increase statistical power in a case-control study with limited cases is to increase the ratio of controls to cases. A. True B. False

Accepted Answer

A

Question 34

Which of these sources of controls in a case-control study is not likely to lessen the estimated association between exposure and disease?  A. Special population   B. General population   C. Hospital

Accepted Answer

B

Question 35

Selection of controls in a case-control study may involve the general population, hospitals, and special populations (family, friends, and relatives). Which of these sources of controls is likely to be most costly?  A. Special population   B. Hospital   C. General population

Accepted Answer

C

Question 36

An attributable-risk percent of 85% was calculated for the association between smoking and lung cancer death. Assuming a causal association between smoking and lung cancer exists, which of the following provides the best interpretation of this statistic?  A. Of those dying of lung cancer who smoke, 85% of those deaths are attributed to their smoking.   B. 85% of all lung cancer deaths could be eliminated if smoking were discontinued.   C. The excess amount of lung cancer death attributed to smoking is 85 per 100,000.   D. All of the above.

Accepted Answer

A

Question 37

To study the causes of an outbreak of aflatoxin poisoning in Africa, investigators conducted a case-control study with 40 case-patients and 80 controls. Among the 40 poisoning victims, 32 reported storing their maize inside rather than outside. Among the 80 controls, 20 stored their maize inside. The resulting odds ratio for the association between inside storage of maize and illness is:  A. 3.2   B. 5.2   C. 12.0   D. 33.3

Accepted Answer

C

Question 38

The association between induced abortion and breast cancer has been the subject of several epidemiological studies. Cohort studies have found no association, while at least one case-control study has found a positive association. Possible explanations for the different results in case-control and cohort studies of this topic include.   A. The method of disease classification is different in case-control and cohort studies.   B. Case-control studies are prone to selection bias, whereas cohort studies are not vulnerable to selection bias.   C. Recall bias might explain the association observed in a case-control study, but this would not be a problem in prospective cohort studies.   D. All of the above

Accepted Answer

C

Question 39

In a case-control study of coffee drinking (exposure) and insomnia (outcome), you calculate an Odds Ratio of 1.5. Which of the following is an appropriate interpretation of this finding?  A. Coffee drinkers are 50% more likely to have insomnia than non-coffee drinkers   B. The odds of coffee drinking for those with insomnia are 50% higher than the odds of coffee drinking for those without insomnia   C. The risk of insomnia for coffee drinkers is 1.5 times the risk of insomnia for non-coffee drinkers   D. A and B

Accepted Answer

B

Question 40

With data from a case-control study, you can  A. Directly calculate risk   B. Indirectly estimate risk   C. Calculate an odds ratio   D. Both B and C

Accepted Answer

D

Question 41

What strategies might be used to minimize loss-to-follow up in a prospective cohort study?  A. Restrict cohort to subjects who are more likely to remain in the study   B. Send periodic mailings to subjects throughout the study   C. Collect information about subjects\' relatives and employers   D. All of the above

Accepted Answer

D

Question 42

To test your hypothesis that sugary beverage consumption causes obesity, you recruit 500 children from your local community. You interview the children\'s parents and learn that 300 of the children consume sugary beverages at least once per week. After 10 years of follow-up, you learn through physical examination that 200 of the children who drank sugary beverages and 100 of the children who did not have become obese. What is the relative risk of obesity associated with sugary beverage consumption?  A. 0.25   B. 2.0   C. 0.75   D. 1.33

Accepted Answer

D

Question 43

A new drug was compared with standard therapy in a clinical trial. The endpoint was myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following best describes the primary reason to randomize patients to treatments?  A. To create two treatment groups that are similar at baseline on known and unknown factors associated with MI   B. To prevent bias introduced when the patients know what type of treatment they are receiving   C. To prevent bias introduced when the investigators know what type of treatment the patients are receiving   D. B and C

Accepted Answer

A

Question 44

A new hypertension drug was compared with placebo in a double-blind clinical trial. Which of the following best describes the primary reason for a \"double-blind\" design?  A. To create two treatment groups that are similar at baseline on known and unknown factors associated with hypertension   B. To prevent bias introduced when the patients know what type of treatment they are receiving   C. To prevent bias introduced when the investigators know what type of treatment the patients are receiving   D. B and C

Accepted Answer

D

Question 45

Informed consent must include  A. A description of the research procedures   B. The availability of alternative treatments   C. Contact information for the researcher and his surrogate, if researcher not local   D. All of the above

Accepted Answer

D

Question 46

Match the each type of clinical trial with the appropriate description: A. Assesses the safety of a treatment for humans B. Small study to assess tolerance and side effects of a new treatment C. Large study to document side effects of an approved treatment D. Large randomized study to evaluate efficacy of a new treatment  1. Phase 1  2. Phase 2  3. Phase 3  4. Phase 4

Accepted Answer

1. Phase 1- A 2. Phase 2- B 3. Phase 3- D 4. Phase 4- C

Question 47

Subjects serve as their own controls in which type of intervention study?  A. Run-in design   B. Cross-over design   C. Factorial design   D. Matched pair randomization design

Accepted Answer

B

Question 48

True or False? A within group design does not involve a comparison. A. True B. False

Accepted Answer

B

Question 49

What method is most useful for controlling confounding at the design level of an experimental study?  A. Randomization   B. Blinding   C. Stratification   D. None of the above

Accepted Answer

A

Question 50

Consider the following hypothetical findings of the screening test for tuberculosis:   Diseased and positive on the test = 40  Diseased and negative on the test = 15  No disease and positive on the test = 75  No disease and negative on the test = 1,600  Assuming the true prevalence of tuberculosis is 3.0%, what is Positive Predictive Value?   A. 33.3%   B. 37.5%   C. 34.8%   D. None of the above are correct

Accepted Answer

C

Question 51

Consider the following hypothetical findings of the screening test for tuberculosis:  Diseased and positive on the test = 40  Diseased and negative on the test = 15  No disease and positive on the test = 75  No disease and negative on the test = 1,600  If the true prevalence of tuberculosis is 3.0%, what is the sensitivity of this test?   A. 20.6%   B. 37.5%   C. 53.3%   D. 72.7%

Accepted Answer

D

Question 52

Consider the following hypothetical findings of the screening test for tuberculosis:  Diseased and positive on the test = 40  Diseased and negative on the test = 15  No disease and positive on the test = 75  No disease and negative on the test = 1,600  If the true prevalence of tuberculosis is 3.0%, what is the specificity of this test?   A. 97.6%   B. 99.1%   C. 90.4%   D. 95.5%

Accepted Answer

D

Question 53

Which of the following best describes the validity of a test?  A. How well the test performs in use over time.   B. How much disease it can detect in the screening process.   C. How well the test measures what it is supposed to measure.   D. All of the above reflect validity.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 54

Which of the following describes length-bias?  A. Screening advances the time of diagnosis, making it difficult to evaluate the benefit of early treatment.   B. Occurs when screening identifies an illness that would not have shown clinical signs before a person\'s death from other causes.   C. Slow-progressing cases of disease with a better prognosis are more likely to be identified than faster-progressing cases of disease with a poorer prognosis.

Accepted Answer

C

Question 55

In a case-control study to investigate the association between lung cancer and second-hand smoke, exposure is overestimated in the cases. This causes the OR to:  A. Increase   B. Decrease   C. Stay the same   D. Unable to determine from the information given

Accepted Answer

A

Question 56

Suppose you conducted a case-control study to assess whether a positive association exists between syphilis and neurological disorders. Which of the following is an appropriate way to present the hypotheses?  A. H0: OR = 1; HA: OR > 1   B. H0: OR = 1; HA: OR  1; HA: OR = 1   D. H0: OR < 1; HA: OR = 1

Accepted Answer

A

Question 57

A randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two (with a p-value < 0.05). Assume that in reality, however, the two drugs do not differ. This is therefore an example of:  A. Type 1 error (alpha)   B. Type II error (beta)   C. Confidence   D. Power

Accepted Answer

A

Question 58

An epidemiology report described the association between the exposure and the disease as \"a weakly  positive association but not statistically significant at the 0.05 level.\" The result most consistent with the  statement is:  A. Relative Risk = 1.25, p = 0.03   B. Relative Risk = 15.0, p = 0.3   C. Odds Ratio = 12.0, p = 0.1   D. Odds Ratio = 1.2, p = 0.2

Accepted Answer

D

Question 59

If the p-value for an association was 0.01, which of the following might you eliminate as an explanation for the result:  A. Confounding   B. Chance   C. Selection bias   D. All of the above

Accepted Answer

B

Question 60

The power of a study is influenced by all of the following except:  A. Size of the difference you want to detect   B. The size of the confidence interval   C. The probability of making a Type I error   D. The number of subjects in the study

Accepted Answer

B

Question 61

Which of the following is a way to control for confounding in the analysis phase of a study?  A. Matching   B. Restriction   C. Stratification   D. Randomization

Accepted Answer

C

Question 62

Which of the following is true of a confounder?  A. Must be a risk factor for the disease   B. Must be associated with the exposure   C. Must be an intermediate step in the exposure-disease causal pathway   D. Both A and B   E. A, B, and C

Accepted Answer

D

Question 63

You are interested in determining the relationship between gambling and lung cancer. You calculate a crude Odds Ratio (OR) of 3. You then calculate an odds ratio of 1.1 for smokers and 1.1 for non-smokers. In this example, smoking is  A. A confounder   B. An effect modifier   C. A mediator   D. Both A and B

Accepted Answer

A

Question 64

You are interested in determining the relationship between smoking and depression. You calculate a crude Odds Ratio of 4. You also calculate gender-specific OR\'s of 2 for men and 6 for women. In this example, gender is  A. A confounder   B. An effect modifier   C. A mediator   D. Both A and B

Accepted Answer

B

Epidemiology Final- Quiz/HW Questions – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Haven't found what you were looking for?

Search for samples, answers to your questions and flashcards