question

Stroke is a common cause of brain disorder that is ______ ?

answer

Potentially treatable

question

Petit mal seizure typically occurs in children ___ to ___ y/o

answer

4-12 years old

question

In some situations the postical state may be characterized by?

answer

Hemapharesis or weakness on one side of the body, resembling a stroke.

question

Treat stroke and AMS in children how?

answer

The same way you would for an adult.

question

In geriatric patients you should consider a headache as ________ ?

answer

Potentially serious

question

The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for _______ ?

answer

Decreased breathing and slowing heart rate.

question

Cephalic presentation is _____ ?

answer

Normal position of childbirth where the head enters the pelvis first.

question

Diabetics often suffer from medical complications such as?

answer

Heart disease, visual disturbances, renal failure, stroke, ulcers or infections to the feet or toes.

question

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for ______ ?

answer

Speeding up the heart rate and the breathing.

question

Normal blood glucose levels are?

answer

80-120 mg/dL

question

Once blood glucose levels reach _______ mg/dL, excess glucose is excreted by the _____ ?

answer

200 mg/dL, kidneys

question

A 73 y/o woman was in her backyard gardening when she collapsed to the ground. Her husband told 911 that \"she is breathing very fast and will not talk to me.\" You arrive to find the woman lying on her side in the grass. She is breathing at 7 breaths per minute and her pulse is irregular and very thready. Her lungs also present with crackles upon auscultation As you are taking a blood pressure (88/66) the husband tells you that the woman has been having jaw pain and some weakness for approximately 3 days. What is the most likely cause of this woman's condition and how would you treat her?

answer

Cardiogenic shock, assist ventilations and transport. The woman is likely experiencing pump failure and is hypoperfusing.

question

Name the forms of medication (hint- there's 8)

answer

1). compressed powder/tablet 2). liquid injection 3). gel 4). suspension (must shake!) 5). gas 6). spray 7). fine powder for inhalation (i.e. MDI's) 8). liquid vaporized fixed dose nebulizer (compressed gas)

question

Routes of medication administration

answer

1). sublingual 2). oral (swallowed) 3). inhalation 4). injection

question

Medication name types

answer

1). chemical name 2). generic name 3). trade (brand) name 4). official name

question

Epinephrine stimulates four receptors, what are they?

answer

Alpha 1 & 2, Beta 1 & 2. These properties make up the sympathetic nervous system. **Beta 1- speeds up heart rate

question

Beta 2 agonist drug causes ______ to dilate.

answer

Bronchioles

question

Epinephrine is a ________ ?

answer

Vasoconstrictor, bronchodilator, and decreases capillary permeability (to reduce fluid leakage).

question

Nitroglycerin is a __________ ?

answer

Vasodilator. (Main side effect: hypotension, causes headache)

question

Define a \"drug\".

answer

A chemical substance used to treat or prevent a disease or condition.

question

Define a \"medication\".

answer

A drug or other substance used as a remedy for illness.

question

The bronchioles are lined _______ and _______.

answer

Lined with smooth muscle and mucous membranes.

question

The ____ lung is slightly larger than the ______ lung.

answer

Right lung, larger than the left.

question

Brain cells only use ______ for energy.

answer

Glucose

question

Trachea posterior wall is _________ ?

answer

Made up of muscle therefore not a rigid structure.

question

The first few levels of bronchi are ________ ?

answer

Supported by rings of cartilage.

question

The trachea (aka \"windpipe\") extends from the _____ to the ______.

answer

Larynx to the carina.

question

The lower airway extends from the ______ to the ______.

answer

Cricoid cartilage to the alveoli of the lungs.

question

Name the possible positions in which to place a patient.

answer

1). Supine 2). Prone 3). Fowlers: (sitting up) patient's upper body is at a 45-60 degree angle. 4). Semi-fowlers: patient's upper body is at less than a 45 degree angle. 5). Trendelenberg: patient's legs are elevated higher than the head. 6). Shock position 7). Lateral recumbent: (recovery position) patient is laying on their left or right side.

question

\"Ipsilateral\" refers to _______ ?

answer

The same side.

question

\"Contralateral\" refers to _______ ?

answer

The opposite side.

question

Plantar & palmar refer to _______ ?

answer

The sole of the foot and the palm of the hand.

question

Ligaments connect ______ to ______.

answer

Bone to bone.

question

Tendons connect ________ to ______.

answer

Muscle to bone.

question

The skeletal system serves 4 main functions, what are they?

answer

1). Gives the body shape. 2). Provides protection of vital internal organs. 3). Allows for movement. 4). Stores minerals and produces blood cells.

question

Name the 6 main components of the skeletal system.

answer

1). Skull 2). Spinal column 3). Thorax 4). Pelvis 5). Upper extremities 6). Lower extremities

question

Name the skeletal components of the skull.

answer

Interlocking bones: the occipital, two parietal, two temporal, the frontal.

question

Name the skeletal components of the face.

answer

14 bones, 13 of which are immovable & interlocking. Includes: orbits, nasal bones, the maxillae (upper jaw), the zygomatic (cheek) bones, the mandible (lower jaw, strongest bone in the face).

question

What is an intervertebral disc?

answer

A fluid pad of tough elastic cartilage between each vertebrae. It acts as a shock absorber & allows for movement of spine.

question

The thorax (aka the chest) is composed of what?

answer

The ribs, sternum and thoracic spine.

question

The ____ ribs are ______ arches of bone, which are arranged in _____ and are attached by ______ to the ________.

answer

The 24 ribs are semi-flexible arches of bone, which are arranged in 12 pairs and are attached posteriorly by ligaments to the 12 thoracic vertebrae.

question

Name the components of the midline area (abdominal quadrant).

answer

-the aorta -pancreas -small intestines -bladder -spine

question

Name the components of the LLQ (left lower quadrant).

answer

-colon -small intestines -major artery & vein to the left leg -ureter

question

Name the components of the RLQ.

answer

-colon -small intestines -major artery & vein to the right leg -ureter -appendix

question

Name the components of the RUQ.

answer

-liver -right kidney -colon -pancreas -gallbladder

question

Name the components of the LUQ.

answer

-liver -spleen -left kidney -stomach -colon -pancreas

question

Name the components (inferior & superior) of the sternum.

answer

The superior manubrium and the inferior xiphoid process.

question

Describe the attachment of the ribs.

answer

-First 7 pair (true ribs) are attached to the sternum by cartilage. -Next 3 pair are attached to the ribs above them with cartilage. -Last 2 pair are not attached to the sternum (false or floating ribs).

question

Name the components of the pelvis.

answer

-the sacrum & coccyx of the spine -the iliac crest -pubis -the ischium

question

What is the iliac crest?

answer

The part of the pelvis that forms the \"wings\".

question

What is the ischium?

answer

The posterior & inferior portion of the pelvis.

question

What is the pubis?

answer

The anterior & inferior portion of the pelvis.

question

What is the acetabulum?

answer

The rounded cavity or socket on the external surface of the pelvis that receives the head of the femur.

question

Which bone is the \"shin bone\" ?

answer

The tibia (the medial larger bone of the lower leg).

question

The fibula is the _______ ?

answer

The lateral, smaller long bone of the lower leg.

question

Metatarsals are _______ ?

answer

The bones that form the arch of the foot.

question

The tarsals are __________ ?

answer

The bones of the ankle, hind foot and mid foot.

question

What is the acromion?

answer

The lateral triangular projection of the scapula that forms the point of the shoulder.

question

The carpals are ________ ?

answer

The 8 bones that form the wrist.

question

The metacarpals are ________ ?

answer

The bones of the hand.

question

Name the 6 types of joints and an example of each.

answer

1). Ball & socket- shoulder, hip 2). Hinged- elbow, knee, finger 3). Pivot- wrist, head, neck (permits a turning motion) 4). Gliding- bones in hand and feet 5). Saddle- the ankle (permits combination of limited movement) 6). Condyloid- the wrist can move up/down & side/side but not rotate completely. (modified ball & socket type joint that permits motion in 2 directions)

question

Bones have both ______ & ______.

answer

Arteries and vessels.

question

The phrenic nerve, which exits the spinal column between the _____ & ______ cervical vertebrae, transmits the electrical impulses that cause the ______ to contract.

answer

The phrenic nerve, which exits the spinal column between the 3rd & 5th cervical vertebrae, transmits the electrical impulses that cause the diaphragm to contract.

question

Unlike ______ the _____ have valves to keep blood from backflowing.

answer

Unlike the arteries, the veins have valves to help prevent the backflow of blood.

question

Plasma contains large molecules of _______ that keep the water portion of plasma from leaking outside the vessel.

answer

Albumin

question

The fetus develops inside a fluid-filled bag-like membrane called the amniotic sac or bag of waters and contains ____ - _____ mL of fluid.

answer

500-1,000 mL

question

As the time of delivery nears, certain complications can occur, preeclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension, a condition that can develop after the ____ week of gestation.

answer

20th week

question

Post delivery care includes drying the baby off and wrapping it in a blanket or towel, as well as placing it on one side with..... ?

answer

The head slightly LOWER than the rest of the body.

question

Post delivery care of the umbilical cord is important because?

answer

Infection is easily transmitted through the cord to the baby.

question

When transporting a premature infant, keep the temperature of the ambulance at ______.

answer

90 to 95 degrees F (32.2-35.9 degrees C)

question

Excessive bleeding occurs when the bleeding exceeds _____ mL.

answer

500 mL

question

Infants born before ____ weeks are considered premature.

answer

37 weeks

question

A pulmonary embolism is a _____?

answer

Blockage of the main artery of the lung (the pulmonary artery) or one of its branches by a substance that has travelled from elsewhere in the body through the bloodstream. This is usually due to embolism of a thrombus (blood clot) from the deep veins in the legs.

question

Symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include?

answer

Dyspnea, chest pain on inspiration.

question

Signs of a pulmonary embolism include?

answer

Tachycardia, tachypnea, low SpO2, cyanosis.

question

What elements should be evaluated (list in the proper order) when considering the MOI of a car vs. pedestrian accident?

answer

1). speed of the vehicle 2). the path the victim took after striking the vehicle 3). how much damage was done to the vehicle 4). apparent injuries

question

What should you suspect from a patient that has just fallen from a significant height? (Hint: something you can't see)

answer

Internal injuries

question

What are the two passageways at the end of the pharynx?

answer

1). trachea (air) 2). esophagus (food)

question

The larynx has what two parts?

answer

1). thyroid cartilage (Adam's apple); anterior/superior to 2). cricoid cartilage; anterior/inferior to

question

What is a common airway obstruction in ALOC patients?

answer

The tongue which falls back and occludes airway.

question

What do the submandibular muscles do?

answer

Control the tongue.

question

Define \"hypoxia\".

answer

The reduction of oxygen delivery to tissues.

question

Where does the upper airway extend from?

answer

The nose, to the mouth, to the most inferior portion of the larynx (cricoid cartilage).

question

Name the vital signs.

answer

-respirations (rate, depth, quality) -pulse (rate, rhythm, quality) -skin (CTC- color, temperature, condition) -pupils (PERL?- equality, reactivity, size) -blood pressure -pulse oximetry

question

Noisy Breathing (Sound & Potential Cause)

answer

-snoring: tongue partially blocking upper airway -wheezing: constriction of bronchioles in lungs -gurgling: fluid in UPPER airway -stridor/crowing: partial UPPER airway obstruction

question

Name the oxygen cylinders and how many liters are in them at what PSI?

answer

All cylinders are at 2,000 PSI -D tank: 350 liters -E tank: 625 liters -M tank: 3,000 liters -G tank 5,300 liters -H tank 6,900 liters

question

Central chemoreceptors are located ________?

answer

In the medulla of the brain stem.

question

What muscles are used in breathing?

answer

The intercostal and diaphragm muscles.

question

Define \"hypopnea\".

answer

Low volume breathing

question

What is a stoma?

answer

A surgical opening

question

What is a tracheostomy?

answer

Stoma in the neck

question

What is a laryngectomy?

answer

All or partial removal of the larynx.

question

What is the air pressure for both inhalation and exhalation?

answer

At inhalation, pressure is negative. At exhalation, the pressure is positive.

question

Healthy people breath on a _________ drive.

answer

Hypercarbic drive

question

The respiratory systems stimulus to breath, responds primarily to ________ ?

answer

Levels of carbon dioxide in the body.

question

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in kids?

answer

Hypoxia

question

When is the \"Sellick maneuver\" (cricoid pressure) used? What is it effective for? How many people must you have to do it?

answer

Only in an unresponsive patient not protected by endotracheal tube (ET tube). It is effective in reducing gastric inflation, regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. You need 2 EMTs for this.

question

What is the \"crossed finger\" technique used for?

answer

To open mouth of an ALOC or unresponsive patient.

question

A patient with severe bleeding may not show signs of ________ because _________.

answer

Cyanosis, because hemoglobin must be present in blood to change its color.

question

When doing a child assessment, remember to _______ before you lay them on their back.

answer

Put padding such as a folded towel under their shoulders to keep the airway aligned (they have bigger heads than their body).

question

______ is an early sign of hypoxia in ________.

answer

Bradycardia is an early sign of hypoxia in infants.

question

What is a late sign of hypoxia?

answer

Cyanosis

question

In severe hypoxic patients, tachycardia could ________.

answer

Lead to dysrhythmias and eventually bradycardia.

question

COPD patients breathe on a _______.

answer

Hypoxic drive

question

Oxygenation is the ______ by which the ______ become saturated in oxygen and is the result of ________.

answer

Process by which blood and cells become saturated in O2, is the result of respiration.

question

What is the complication with administering oxygen therapy to COPD patients?

answer

Their chemoreceptors sense excessive levels of oxygen in the body and send signals to slow or even stop respirations (respiratory arrest or failure could occur).

question

Ventilation is a ______ process.

answer

Mechanical process that creates pressure changes in the lungs to draw air in/force it out.

question

The diaphragm is responsible for ______ % of the ventilation effort?

answer

60-70%

question

Where is the pleural space/cavity? At what pressure is it at?

answer

Between the parietal (rib/outer) pleura and the visceral (lung/inner) pleura space. At negative pressure.

question

What is serous fluid?

answer

It is a fluid within the pleural space that acts as a lubricant to reduce friction during the breathing process.

question

This can relax with the tongue in an ALOC patient and cause a non-visible airway obstruction.

answer

The epiglottis

question

Name some of the general guidelines of lifting.

answer

-have an even number of rescuers -heavy loads carry no more than 1 minute -back locked; don't hyperextend (lean back) -know your limitations

question

Name the 4 principles of \"body mechanics\".

answer

1). keep weight of object as close to body as possible 2). use hip, leg, gluteal muscles to lift 3). \"stack\" (shoulders, hips, feet) 4). reduce height/distance which object must be moved (lift in stages if needed).

question

What is \"lordosis\"?

answer

Swayback (the butt sticks out)

question

What is \"kyphosis\"?

answer

Slouch back (shoulders roll forward)

question

Only around ___ - ___ % of the epinephrine gets injected into the patient, the rest stays in the auto-injector.

answer

10-20%

question

Name a list of several narcotic (opiates) and what effect they have on the CNS....

answer

-Hydrocodone (Vicodin) -Propoxyphene (Darvon) -Heroin, morphine, codeine, meperidine (Demerol) These type of drugs suppress the CNS, depressing the respiratory system, heart rate and blood pressure.

question

Frostbitten extremities should not be ____ if there is a chance they could _____.

answer

Should not be rewarmed if there's a chance they could refreeze after you've rewarmed them.

question

_____ is a drug that a paramedic can administer to reverse the effects of narcotic drugs.

answer

Naloxone (Narcan)

question

Meperidine (Demerol) is a drug used to treat ______.

answer

Moderate to severe pain.

question

Drugs such as ____ and _____ are benzodiazepines.

answer

Valium & Xanex

question

Ritalin and Adderall are examples of _____ drugs.

answer

Amphetamines

question

Benzodiazepines (BZD) are drugs used to ______. What are they classified as?

answer

Produce sedation, induce sleep, relieve anxiety & muscle spasms and prevent seizures. This drug is classified as a depressant.

question

The liver and gallbladder lie within ____ quadrant.

answer

RUQ (right upper quadrant)

question

Most of the stomach is within the _____ quadrant, as is the entire _____.

answer

LUQ (left upper quadrant); spleen

question

CPR chest compressions are at ____ per minute and about _____ breaths per minute.

answer

Chest compressions: 100 per minute Breaths: 5-6 per minute

question

Seizures in children are most often the result of?

answer

Fever (febrile seizures)

question

What would you do if a newborn infant has a heart rate lower than 100 beats per minute?

answer

Ventilate at 40-60 breaths a minute.

question

Your 34 y/o patient is breathing on their own at a rate of 18 breaths per minute and an approximate volume of 150 mL. What should you do?

answer

Give positive pressure ventilation with high flow O2. Tidal volume of 150 mL is INEFFECTIVE at oxygenating tissues at any rate. 150 mL is what air resides in the \"dead space\" of the airway and NEVER reaches the alveoli, therefore if the patient is only taking in 150 mL of air, the oxygen is never reaching the alveoli.

question

If the infant is below 60 beats per minute, you should?

answer

Begin chest compressions

question

You come upon a victim of asphyxial cardiac arrest. What is the correct sequence of events for your actions?

answer

-CPR for 5 cycles (approx. 2 minutes) -Activate the emergency response system -Retrieve the AED

question

Glasgow Coma Scale (Eyes) Describe the rating scale.....

answer

(1 point) Does not open eyes (2 points) Opens eyes in response to painful stimuli (3 points) Opens eyes in response to voice (4 points) Opens eyes spontaneously

question

Glasgow Coma Scale (Verbal) Describe the rating scale.....

answer

(1 point) Makes no sound (2 points) Incomprehensible sounds (3 points)Utters inappropriate words (4 points) Confused and disoriented (5 points) Oriented, converses normally

question

Glasgow Coma Scale (Motor) Describe the rating scale.....

answer

(1 point) Makes no movement (2 points) Extension to painful stimuli ---> Decerebrate response (3 points) Abnormal flexion to painful stimuli --->Decorticate response (4 points) Flexion/withdrawal to painful stimuli (5 points) Localizes painful stimuli (6 points) Obeys commands

question

You are the only responder to arrive on the scene of an unconscious patient that has no pulse and no sign of trauma. What should you do?

answer

Open the airway and begin CPR.

question

You assess a young man who has yellow colored sclera. You would suspect he is suffering from?

answer

Liver failure

question

Describe the treatment for a spider bite.

answer

Put patient on O2 and lightly cleanse the bite with soap & water.

question

Epithelial tissue ________.

answer

Covers the whole surface of the body.

question

The optimal pH of blood is normal at?

answer

7.4

question

For delivery of a baby, the first clamp should be put approximately ____ inches from the babies umbilicus and the second clamp should be placed _____ inches from the first towards the _____.

answer

First clamp: 3-4 inches Second clamp: 2-4 inches towards mom.

question

What is the correct ratio and depth for 2 person rescuer CPR compressions?

answer

Ratio- 15:2 Depth- 1/3 to 1/2 the depth of the chest

question

A woman with preeclampsia will _____?

answer

Have swelling in the feet, hands and or face.

question

Of the following vitals, which would you hope to find in a 7 y/o child? -BP 104/60, respirations of 16 per minute and a pulse of 98 -BP 108/64, respirations of 20 per minute and a pulse of 100 -BP 100/58, respirations of 14 per minute and a pulse of 125 -BP 116/70, respirations of 27 per minute and a pulse of 130

answer

-BP 108/64, respirations of 20 per minute and a pulse of 100

question

Fractures of the tibia and fibula commonly include?

answer

Damage to the vessels.

question

Describe 1st degree burns.

answer

First degree burns, or Superficial, involve only the epidermis and are the result of short exposure to high heat sources, or longer exposure to weaker heat sources, as in a sunburn.

question

Describe 2nd degree burns.

answer

Second degree or partial thickness burns involve the epidermis and dermis. They are often very painful and accompanied by blistering.

question

Describe 3rd degree burns.

answer

Third degree burns or full thickness burns involve all of the tissue layers and will include bone or organ damage as well. Pain in the area of a third degree burn is nonexistent because of destroyed nerves. The area immediately surrounding the full thickness burn can be incredibly painful though, as nerves are likely still intact.

question

What is the treatment for an injured eye?

answer

Cover the eye with a paper cup and bandage WITHOUT pressure. Goal is to prevent further injury to eye without pressure. You'll want to cover the uninjured eye as well.

question

The larynx is above the _____.

answer

Trachea

question

What is the average tidal volume for an adult?

answer

500-600 mL

question

A 6 year old girl is having trouble breathing. Her parents state she has never had any breathing problems before. The mother says the child has been sick for a few days and the breathing problems started happening this morning. Upon assessment, you notice the child is flaring her nostrils and has a hoarse voice when talking to you. What is she most likely suffering from and what should you do?

answer

She could have epiglottitis and needs to be transported with high flow O2 on an NRB

question

The Pediatric Assessment Triangle is a visual assessment tool used to assess what?

answer

Appearance, work of breathing and circulation to the skin.

question

Hyperventilating results in what?

answer

Respiratory alkalosis. The body is getting rid of too much CO2

question

No breath sounds on one side is a characteristic of _____ or a _____.

answer

Pneumothorax or collapsed lung.

question

What does the prefix ecto- mean?

answer

Outside

question

What nervous system causes the constriction of the pupils?

answer

Sympathetic

question

A 6 y/o was struck by a car while crossing the street. You would suspect what type of injuries on this patient?

answer

Because of their size and relationship to the height of cars, children's injuries most often include head, chest, abdomen, and pelvis.

question

Seizures are caused by an overload of electrical activity in the brain. Which of the following answers is capable of causing this electrical overload? -Epilepsy -Medication -Head injury

answer

All of the above. Many things can cause a seizure. Electrical impulses in the brain can be set to overload.

question

If your patient is unconscious as a result of an FBAO (foreign body airway object), you should _______ after verifying _______.

answer

Begin chest compressions after verifying an occluded airway.

question

What is the correct compression depth and rate for an adult in 2 rescuer CPR?

answer

Rate- 30:2 Depth- 1.5 to 2 inches

question

Respiratory acidosis occurs when?

answer

Exhalation is inhibited. The lungs cannot remove all the carbon dioxide the body is producing.

question

You are assisting your partner who is preparing to intubate a 79 year old woman. You are managing the BVM and begin ventilating and preoxygenating the patient at what rate?

answer

12-20 breaths a minute for 1-2 minutes

question

Adipose tissue is what?

answer

Fat (loose connective tissue composed of adipocytes).

question

Respiratory alkalosis is?

answer

A condition marked by low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood due to breathing excessively.

question

\"Buccal\" refers to ______.

answer

Between the cheek and gums. (Route administration)

question

Aphasia is a condition that may result from ________.

answer

A head injury where the patient is unable to speak or understand what is being said.

question

Dysarthria is a condition that stroke patients may exhibit and is characterized by?

answer

Slurred speech

question

Air that collects in the space between the visceral and parietal pleura is termed what?

answer

Pneumothorax

question

Allergic reactions generally _____ the BP and _____ the pulse rate.

answer

Lower the BP, speed up pulse rate.

question

Pre-oxygenating and hyperventilating a patient prior to intubation should be done at a rate of __________ per minute for _____ minutes with ______ attached.

answer

12-20 breaths per minute for 1-2 minutes with high flow O2 attached.

question

Normal respiratory rates for adults, children and infants are?

answer

Adults 12-20 Children 18-30 Infants 30-60

question

How long is an EPI injection shot usually effective for?

answer

10-20 minutes

question

What components are a part of the integumentary system?

answer

Skin, hair, nails, sweat glands.

question

Bradycardia is considered what in an adult? Child?

answer

Adult- less than 60 BPM Child- less than 80 BPM

question

Septic shock is the result of?

answer

An infection; treat for shock, rapid transport.

question

BURP is supposed to help you remember what?

answer

BACK- UP- RIGHT- PRESSURE. Used when giving cricoid pressure to help visualize the cords and prevent gastric distention.

question

Anaphylaxis will likely produce a _____ BP.

answer

Low

question

List from the most ominous to the least severe signs of potentially life threatening respiratory problems in adults.

answer

Altered mental status, severe cyanosis, absent breath sounds, audible stridor, 1-2 word dypsnea, tachycardia >130, diaphoresis, accessory muscle use.

question

With a conscious patient you should obtain _____ first, and then a _____, followed by _____

answer

HX first, then a focused assessment, followed by baseline vitals.

question

A sign is ______ while a symptom is ______.

answer

Signs are objective while symptoms are subjective. Objective truths are capable of proof.

question

List the layers of skin from most outer to inner.

answer

Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous layer.

question

Medications like _____ which is a ____ can be administered by a paramedic to help clear fluid in the lungs.

answer

Furosemide, a diuretic

question

Rule of Nines for Adults

answer

Head (entire)- 9% Chest (front)- 9% Chest (back)- 9% Abdominal (front)- 9% Abdominal (back)- 9% Entire Arm- 9% Genitals- 1% Entire Leg-9%

question

Rule of Nines for Children

answer

Head (entire)- 18% Chest & Abdomen (front & back)- 18% Entire Arm- 9% Genitals- 1% Entire Leg- 14% (13.5%)

question

CVA means?

answer

Stroke

question

What are baroreceptors?

answer

Baroreceptors sense changes in BP from vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

question

Everything above the _____ is considered the upper airway.

answer

Trachea

question

Which plane divides the body into the upper & lower planes?

answer

Transverse

question

Preeclampsia is characterized by what?

answer

Hypertension and fluid retention

question

Three glands of the endocrine system are?

answer

Adrenal, gonads, thyroid

question

Blood enters the right atrium from where?

answer

The inferior and superior vena cava.

question

A \"silent heart attack\" happens in approximately _____% of the elderly population.

answer

30%

question

You are off duty at a college football game when you see a man at the concession counter fall to the ground. A doctor standing in line behind the man begins to assess and yells, \"Call 911, he doesn't have a pulse!\" You scan the area for an AED and see nothing. What should you do?

answer

Begin CPR and ask a bystander to locate an AED. You would only call 911 yourself if you were the lone healthcare provider and the collapse was asphyxial in nature, but in this case the attack was most likely coronary in nature.

question

_________ is when the systolic pressure will drop by more than 10 mmHg when the patient inhales.

answer

Pulsus paradoxus

question

The 1st stage of labor is when the _____. The 2nd stage is when the _______. The 3rd stage is when ______.

answer

1st stage- dilation of the cervix 2nd stage- baby enters the birth canal 3rd stage- from delivery of the infant to the delivering of the placenta

question

Placenta previa and abruptio may occur in which stage of pregnancy?

answer

2nd and 3rd trimester

question

\"Biot's\" or cluster breathing is when the patient is _________. This type of respiratory pattern is indicative of _______.

answer

Breathing very fast, but not very deep with periods of apnea. It is indicative of a head wound and injury to the medulla oblongata. It can also be caused by strokes and uncal or tentorial herniations.

question

Biot's breathing is often also referred to as ______.

answer

Ataxic respirations

question

After an unsuccessful attempt at opening the patient's airway with the jaw thrust maneuver, you should then use the _______.

answer

Head tilt chin lift maneuver

question

What causes air to enter the lungs during inhalation?

answer

Negative pressure due to diaphragm contraction.

question

An elderly patient has adequate respiratory depth, rate and good quality but her SpO2 reading is at 90% What's causing the low reading and how will you treat her?

answer

Chemoreceptors slowing down because of advanced age, put patient on a nasal cannula at 5 lpm

question

Glasgow coma scale is rated from ___ to ___

answer

1-15

question

Cheyne-stokes breathing pattern is described as?

answer

Abnormal breaths with periods of apnea.

question

Pertinent negative is _____?

answer

A symptom you would expect to find under certain circumstances but is not present with the current patient. Example: Patient denies chest pain.

question

Rescue breaths in an adult should be delivered over a period of _____ and with _____.

answer

Over a period of 1 second with just enough volume to get visible chest rise.

question

When reconsidering the mechanism of injury in the Focused History & Physical Exam you should determine whether ______?

answer

The further evaluation of the mechanism of injury met criteria to be considered significant.

question

What skin sign temperature is a likely indicator of significant blood loss?

answer

Cool (shock, hypoperfusion)

question

During the initial assessment you are unable to ventilate an unresponsive infant after already repositioning the airway twice. What is your next action?

answer

Perform 5 rapid back blows followed by 5 quick chest thrusts. ***Never do abdominal thrusts!!!

question

A woman is cool, sweaty and wants a donut.... what is likely wrong with her?

answer

She is hypoglycemic and suffering from an overabundance of insulin in her system. (Insulin shock)

question

You can expect what type of side effects following the administration of an MDI?

answer

Common side FX of a beta agonist drug are: -tachycardia -tremors -nervousness -nausea -vomiting -dry mouth

question

A patient who responds to you when you speak to them is considered what?

answer

Responsive to verbal stimuli. You do not yet know if they are oriented.

question

What is the ideal number of EMTs to ventilate a patient using a BVM?

answer

3, 1-holding mask seal, 2-squeezing the bag, 3-providing cricoid pressure

question

Cricoid cartilage is located in the _____ portion of the _____.

answer

Inferior portion of the larynx.

question

A child 3-6 y/o will have a range of ____ for pulse, _____ for respirations, and _____ systolic BP.

answer

Pulse: 80-120 BPM Respirations: 20-30 Systolic BP: 98-110

question

IV fluids administered over long periods of time can cause an irritation in the vein called?

answer

Thrombophlebitis

question

What is the preferred position of comfort for patients in respiratory distress?

answer

Fowler's (sitting up)

question

Ventilating an apneic patient with a BVM (ensure what 2 things?)

answer

1). use of an OPA or NPA 2). rate of 10-12 breaths per minute

question

Which assessment finding would most likely indicate cardiac compromise?

answer

An irregular pulse

question

Cardiac arrest in the adult population is most often the result of?

answer

A cardiac arrhythmia.

question

If the AED gives you a \"no shock advised\" message, what should your next move be?

answer

Assess the pulse.

question

What is the most detrimental effect that tachycardia can have on a patient experiencing cardiac compromise?

answer

Increased oxygen demand.

question

What is a significant finding for a patient complaining of a severe headache?

answer

Unilateral weakness (could indicate a stroke).

question

Hypoglycemia (Insulin Shock)

answer

RAPID ONSET! S/S Include: -cool, sweating -hunger -weakness -tingling/numbness -cranky/aggressive -fast pounding heart -blurred vision

question

Hyperglycemia (DKA, Diabetic Coma)

answer

SLOW ONSET S/S Include: -warm, dry skin -dry mouth -kussmal respirations -acetone/fruity breath -polyuria (frequent urination) -polyphagia (frequent hunger) -polydipsia (frequent thirst) -blurred vision

question

Care for soft tissue injuries includes?

answer

-Controlling bleeding -Check PMS -Dress/bandage the wound -Check PMS again

question

Burn management consists of?

answer

-stopping the burn process -support of ABC's -applying a DRY sterile dressing OR burn pads -preventing hypothermia -remove rings or other jewelry ONLY if there's severe swelling -NEVER peel off clothes, cut around them

question

A _____ device would NOT be appropriate for a rapid extrication because why?

answer

A vest-style device such as a K.E.D because it takes too long to apply.

question

When is the AED not reccommended for a patient in cardiac arrest?

answer

When the arrest is due to a traumatic injury.

question

When immobilizing with a vest-style device such as a KED, you must first _____ prior to ______.

answer

Secure the patient's torso prior to immobilizing the head. ***Also, prior to securing the torso, have the patient inhale as much as possible to permit air when they breathe.

question

Sucking chest wound, your first priority is what?

answer

To prevent air from entering the wound. Use an occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides, NOT trauma dressing.

question

OCAM stands for what?

answer

-Open the airway -Clear the airway of secretions -Assess respirations -Manage airway accordingly

question

Injuries to the shoulder are most effectively immobilized with use of a?

answer

Sling to support the arm and a swathe to secure the arm to the body. ***Patients with a dislocated or fractured shoulder will not let you extend their arm.

question

End tidal CO2 monitor is to verify what?

answer

That there is CO2 coming OUT of the lungs.

question

Serious burns have 3 different areas that often appear as a bulls eye.... name the zones.

answer

-Coagulation: most severely damaged -Stasis: contains cells still potentially viable -Hyperemia: outer edge of burn that's inflamed

question

What is the depth compression for a child in CPR?

answer

1/3- 1/2 an inch.

question

What path do head-on/front end collisions usually take on the body?

answer

Down & under/up & over

question

Cheyne-stokes breathing pattern is most often associated with?

answer

Stroke and metabolic problems.

question

Carbon monoxide poisoning may result from ______.

answer

Poorly ventilated wood stoves.

question

According to 2005 CPR and AED guidelines, a patient with a VF rhythm should be shocked how many times before CPR is resumed?

answer

One

question

Under what patient age should you not use an automatic ventilator?

answer

8 y/o

question

A drop in BP is a ____ sign of shock.

answer

Late sign

question

_________ __________ is a rare condition in which the heart is impeded by fluid in the pericardium, will result in a low BP and muffled heart sounds with a very weak pulse as the heart struggles to pump.

answer

Pericardial tamponade

question

Your patient is an 86 year old female who is complaining of difficulty breathing. She says it has been getting worse for the last few hours. She has a cough that she says, \"has been..(breath) a companion(breath) for years.\" During your assessment you find that she has a rapid pulse and diminished breath sounds on her right side. She also says her chest hurts every time she coughs. What is the likely cause of this woman's complaint?

answer

Pneumothorax. This woman likely has COPD, but the absence of breath sounds and the pain when she coughs is a sign that she has a spontaneous pneumothorax. Pulmonary Effusions is a made up term (it's pulmonary EMBOLISM and Pleural Effusion). People with weakened lung tissue can cough and cause a spontaneous pneumothorax.

question

A spontaneous pneumothorax is more common in men than women, true or false?

answer

True

question

A _________ ________ is often caused by a ruptured bleb or air sac on the lung

answer

A spontaneous pneumothorax

question

The glottic opening (vocal cords) of a child is ______ in the airway than that of an adult.

answer

Higher

question

A major organ located in the RUQ is the?

answer

Liver

question

An SaO2 saturation of ________ % is considered hypoxic.

answer

Less than 95% however patients with COPD will have a lower SPO2 reading.

question

Normal respiratory rate for infants is ___ to ____.

answer

30 to 60 per minute

question

A tell-tale sign that a patient has sustained a fracture is?

answer

Ecchymosis at the site of the injury.

question

______ is localized pain in the parietal peritoneum or stomach lining. ______ is diffused pain, dull and poorly localized. ________ is pain felt in another location other than where it originates.

answer

Parietal is localized pain in the parietal peritoneum or stomach lining. Visceral is diffused pain, dull and poorly localized. Referred pain is pain felt in another location other than where it originates.

question

The body's first physiological response to a deep laceration is _______?

answer

To stop it by chemical means and vasoconstriction (hemostasis).

question

You have requested helicopter transportation of a critical burn patient. The remote nature of the accident will force the helicopter to land on an incline. From which direction should you approach the helicopter?

answer

The downhill side.

question

You arrive on scene with your partner Dave to find a woman complaining of abdominal pain. She said it started around her belly button and has moved to the right. It started about 3 days ago and has continually gotten worse. What does the patient likely have?

answer

Appendicitis

question

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disease that ______________.

answer

Results from the destruction of the myelin coat of the CNS.

question

Hemostasis is _______?

answer

A process which causes bleeding to stop.

question

Anything less than ____% oxygen concentration won't allow for cellular diffusion.

answer

16%

question

Pharmacology terminology

answer

-classification (use of drug) -action (what it's used for, most drugs have several uses) -indication (why we use the drug) -contraindication (why we won't use the drug) -dosage -integrity -clarity

question

What two forms of oxygen dosage are there?

answer

-passive (the patient inhales it themselves) -active (positive pressure ventilation via BVM)

question

Newborns being administered oxygen therapy can potentially be caused _____?

answer

Retinal damage and blind the baby.

question

Always document patient's ____ to glucose after administration.

answer

Response

question

Nitro has a ____ minute lifespan in the body.

answer

5-10 minute

question

Nitro comes in a spray form, NEVER _____ the bottle, it will cause the drug to start breaking down.

answer

Shake

question

Indications for Nitro are....?

answer

Crushing/dull like chest pain, or patient describes pain that is indicative of cardiac chest pain.

question

Contraindications for Nitro are....?

answer

-NEVER give a patient w/a suspected head injury -NEVER give to children -Patients taking erectile dysfunction drugs -NEVER give to a patient with a systolic LESS than 90 BP (outside LA county) or LESS than 100 BP (LA county)

question

A hypotonic solution usually consists of ____ or _____% saline.

answer

0.25 or 0.45%

question

Chewable aspirin is ____ the dose of swallowable.

answer

Half

question

Prescribed inhaler overdose can cause ______ _______.

answer

Cardiac ischemia

question

A steroid inhaler is used for ______ ______ reduction of needed use.

answer

Long term

question

A rare side effect of an inhaler would be _____ but can be mitigated by O2 administration.

answer

Chest pain

question

Cardiovascular problems can relate to one or a combination of?

answer

A pipe, pump or fluid problem.

question

Smooth muscle makes up ___% of the body.

answer

10%

question

Skeletal muscle makes up ____% of the body.

answer

90%

question

Electrolyte imbalances (sodium or potassium) in the body can cause _____ ______.

answer

Cardiac irregularity

question

Sodium (electrolytes) are found mostly _____ the cell.

answer

Outside (extracellular)

question

Potassium (electrolytes) are found mostly _____ the cell.

answer

Inside

question

If you inject a patient with too much of a _________ solution the red blood cells will begin to draw so much water in that they can swell up and burst releasing potassium into the body.

answer

Hypotonic solution

question

Define \"ischemia\".

answer

Damaged cell tissue due to a lack of oxygen.

question

The brain stem affects ________.

answer

Awareness

question

The cerebellum affects _______.

answer

Orientation

question

Depth perception is something that can be affected by either or both of the ______ lobes or the ______ lobes.

answer

Occipital or frontal lobes

question

Sympathetic NS response overview

answer

Pulmonary: bronchodilation (faster breathing) Heart: Increased HR & stroke volume Blood Vessels: Vasodilation to skeletal muscles, vasoconstrict periphery Skin Signs: cool, pale, sweaty Mental Stats: (ALO x3) scared, pissed, anxious, confused G.I. Tract: decreases activity, shuts down the gut

question

Parasympathetic NS response overview

answer

Pulmonary: bronchioconstriction (slowing breathing) Heart: Decreased HR & stroke volume Blood Vessels: Vasodilation Skin Signs: pink, warm, dry Mental Stats: lethargic, relaxed, calm G.I. Tract: increased activity

question

Exposure to nerve gas (S.L.U.D.G.E)

answer

S- salivation L- lacrimation (crying) U- urination D- defecation G- G.I. pain E- emesis (vomit)

question

Arterioles are ______?

answer

Smaller arteries

question

There is ____ pressure in the veins and _____ pressure in the arteries.

answer

Low pressure in veins, high pressure arteries.

question

With regard to the heart..... Decrease in volume= _______ in pressure. Increase in volume= ________ in pressure.

answer

Decrease in volume= increase in pressure. Increase in volume= decrease in pressure.

question

A patient with heart failure will have a ____ stroke volume (SV) and a ______ heart rate (HR).

answer

Decreased stroke volume and to offset, will have an increased heart rate.

question

PVR stands for?

answer

Pulmonary vascular resistance

question

The resistance offered by the ______ _____ is known as the systemic vascular resistance (SVR), while the resistance offered by the _____ _______ is known as the pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).

answer

The resistance offered by the peripheral circulation is known as the systemic vascular resistance (SVR), while the resistance offered by the vasculature of the lungs is known as the pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).

question

_______ is your first sign of shock.

answer

Tachycardia

question

Hypoxia= Ischemia= Infarction=

answer

Hypoxia= decreased oxygen Ischemia= hypoxia 2nd degree (blocked flow) Infarction= cell death 2nd degree (ischemia)

question

Plasma is the _____ portion of the blood that carries everything else.

answer

Liquid

question

1Hb ----> 4 hemes

answer

One hemoglobin has 4 subsections called \"hemes\"

question

Atrioventricular valves on both sides of the heart are called?

answer

Right AV= tricuspid Left AV= bicuspid (aka mitral)

question

If you don't know what type of shock, but there's trauma, assume it's _______ shock.

answer

Hypovolemic

question

Distributive shock (pipe problems)

answer

-hypothermia -drug overdose -anaphylaxis

question

What are the types of shock?

answer

-Hypovolemic -Distributive -Obstructive -Cardiogenic -Anaphylactic -Sepsis -Neurogenic

question

Stages of shock?

answer

-Compensated -Decompensated -Irreversible

question

Obstructive shock (blocked flow)

answer

-embolism, thrombus -aneurysm -pneumothorax -cardiac tamponade

question

Treatments for Shock (\"The 4 H Club\")

answer

Prevention of: -Hypoxia (oxygen therapy; high flow O2) -Hypothermia (passive warming) -Hypotension (backboard- supine, no backboard- supine or 'shock position') Higher care (ALS, emergency department)

question

Common places to check skin signs

answer

-Nail beds -Mucous membranes (inside lips or eyelids)

question

Pulse rule? Example: Radial= 80, brachial=70, carotid=60

answer

It takes more pressure to get blood further out from the heart.

question

Types of abdominal pain

answer

-Colicky pain= cramping; comes and goes -Parietal pain= stabbing -Referred pain= travels -Visceral pain= vague or dull

question

Some possible causes of \"colicky pain\" are?

answer

-kidney stones -gallstones -chronic lead poisoning -choledocholithiasis

question

Upper G.I. bleeds

answer

-hematemesis (vomiting bright red blood) -coffee ground emesis (digested blood in vomit, dark red/purple)

question

Lower G.I. bleeds

answer

-hematochezia (acute rectal bleed, bright red) -melena (digested blood in stool, dark red/purple)

question

Your patient is a 33 year old female who fell off the back of a motorcycle going approximately 20 MPH. Her respirations are irregular at 8 a minute. An OPA has been inserted and ventilations are being assisted with a BVM and 100% O2 at a rate and tidal volume of________________________. C-Spine precautions have been taken and she is packaged and moved to the ambulance where she stops breathing and there is no palpable pulse. CPR is started and the lead paramedic does a rapid sequence intubation. The BVM is attached to the ET tube and ventilations are restarted at a rate of ______________________________________________.

answer

10 to 12 breaths per minute. Tidal volume of just enough air to give adequate chest rise. 8 to 10 breaths per minute without pauses in compressions.

question

The release of histamines can cause?

answer

Leaking of fluid from the vessels.

question

You are intubating a 53 year old woman who is unconscious and has no gag reflex. Just after placing the tube and inflating the cuff you auscultate the epigastrum and lungs. You are unsure if tube placement is correct as there were conflicting sounds in the epigastrum. You should?

answer

Deflate the cuff and take the ET tube out. If you are not sure if tube placement is good and the airway is patent you must immediately remove the tube and prepare to try again. (While your partner returns to ventilations and hyper oxygenation.)

question

________ is often seen in stroke patients. It is paralysis of one side of the body as nerve fibers cross in the brainstem.

answer

Hemiplegia is often seen in stroke patients. Damage to one side of the brain produces opposite side paralysis.

question

The membrane closest to the lungs is called the?

answer

Visceral pleura

question

You and your partner Bob are called to the scene of a man down. The report said the man has no pulse and that family members are doing CPR. Upon arriving at the scene what 3 things are you going to do first?

answer

Attach the AED, tell everyone to stand back, and hit the analyze button.

question

Exposure to nerve agents has become a very real threat for today's EMS personnel. Antidote kits are now being carried on some BLS units. What are these antidote kits called?

answer

Antidote kits for nerve agents are called Mark 1 kits or NAAK (Nerve Agent Antidote Kits). They consist of two auto injectors of medication. The first is atropine and the second is 2-PAM chloride (pralidoxime). Use of these kits are based upon local protocols.

question

Use of an SpO2 monitor on a person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning will be inaccurate because ___________.

answer

The carbon monoxide molecule displaces the oxygen molecule inhibiting oxygen delivery. The carbon monoxide molecule has a stronger bond to the hemoglobin and displace oxygen molecules leaving them essentially stranded in the blood. While the monitor may show a number in the mid 90's?it does not mean that oxygen is reaching the tissue and perfusing correctly.

question

Carbon monoxide _____ to the hemoglobin in red blood cells displacing the oxygen molecule and _______ perfusion.

answer

Carbon monoxide binds to the hemoglobin in red blood cells displacing the oxygen molecule and inhibiting perfusion

question

Pulmonary emboli

answer

A pulmonary emboli is a piece of foreign material that has traveled from another part of the body and is lodged, blocking the pulmonary artery. It is common and underdiagnosed as it is the 3rd leading cause of death in the United States. Causes include obesity, infection, long bone fractures, pregnancy, surgery, prolonged inactivity, blood diseases, and cancer.

question

Subcutaneous injections should be done at a _____ degree angle.

answer

Subcutaneous injections should be done at a 45 degree angle.

question

Rescue breaths for adults and children based on 2005 AHA CPR guidelines are?

answer

2005 AHA CPR Guidelines specify that adults should get 10-12 breaths per minute (one breath every 5-6 seconds). Children should get between 12-20 breaths per minute (one breath every 3-5 seconds).

question

The specialized subdivision of the peripheral nervous system is known as the _________ subdivision. It is further broken down into sympathetic and parasympathetic.

answer

The specialized subdivision of the peripheral nervous system is known as the autonomic subdivision. It is further broken down into sympathetic and parasympathetic.

question

Lack of insulin will produce?

answer

Hyperglycemia

question

Your patient is a 19 year old female who is G4/P2/A1. Her boyfriend called 911 stating that the woman is a diabetic and pregnant in her third trimester. She is complaining of a headache, abdominal pain, and blurred vision. Upon arrival at the residence, you notice the woman's feet and fingers are swollen. Her pulse is 116 and her respirations are about 16 breaths per minute. The patient's blood pressure is 145/92 and auscultation of the lungs reveals rales. How many live births has this woman had? What is most likely wrong with her and how should she be treated?

answer

This woman has had 4 pregnancies, 2 live births and 1 abortions. She has preeclampsia and should be transported to the hospital in a left lateral position while on high flow O2. Initiate an IV line TKO if protocols and scope of practice allow.

question

Hyperglycemia is a ______ onset.

answer

Slow (usually takes several hours or days)

question

The SA node has an inherent rate of?

answer

The SA has a normal intrinsic rate of 60-100 and the AV junction has a rate of 40-60.

question

Your patient is a 3 year old girl who has attempted to ingest a penny. She is pale and has nasal flaring and intercostal retractions during inhalation that is accompanied by stridor. Her pulse is 70 and her movements are sluggish. With regard to respiratory arrest, which of the above signs is the most ominous?

answer

Her pulse is 70. Anything below 80 for a child or below 100 for an infant is considered life threatening.

question

What would you use to remove a bee stinger in a patient?

answer

Credit card (or similar). Using a tweezer could rupture the venom sac injecting more venom.

question

Burns to children are considered to be critical when it involves?

answer

The head, face, feet or genitals; or a significant portion of the body being burned.

question

A woman with preeclampsia will have what signs & symtoms?

answer

Swelling in the feet, hands or face. This condition can result in the patient having seizures and coma. She will also be hypertensive.

question

Electrical impulses traveling through the ATRIA produce the ________. These impulses originate at the ______.

answer

P wave/SA node

question

Patient with orthostatic hypotension will be ________. This is a result of ________.

answer

Patients with orthostatic hypotension have low BP's that is tolerable when lying down but results in hypoxia and dizziness when the patient stands up because of the inability of the system to pump blood efficiently to the brain at current pressures. This is a result of poor pump function.

question

Unequal pupils are associated with _______________.

answer

Head trauma cerebral hemorrhage.

question

Methods of controlling bleeding include?

answer

-Direct pressure -Elevation -Air splints -Application of ice -Application of clotting agents -Tourniquet

question

A shunt is what?

answer

A tube running out of the brain cavity used to drain fluids.

question

Beta receptor stimulation will cause the patient's heart rate to _____ and the vessels to ______.

answer

Increase & constrict

question

When assessing the breathing of an infant or child, you should look for?

answer

The presence or absence of breathing (based on 2005 AHA guidelines)

question

The ongoing assessment consists of?

answer

Repeating the initial assessment, repeating vitals, repeat focused assessment, check interventions

question

The greater the volume of blood that enters the heart during diastole, the greater the output and force during systole. This cause and effect is termed?

answer

Starling's Law

question

The pancreas creates ______ which stimulates the _____ into converting stored _____ into glucose and releasing it into the bloodstream.

answer

The pancreas creates glucagon which stimulates the liver into converting stored glycogen into glucose and releasing it into the bloodstream.

question

List the haz-mat placards

answer

-class 1-explosives -class 2-gases -class 3-flammable & combustible liquids -class 4-flammable solid spontaneously combustible-dangerous when wet -class 5-oxidizer & organic peroxide -class 6-poison & poison inhalation hazard -class 7-radioactive -class 8-corrosive -class 9-miscellaneous

question

You are providing life support and performing CPR on a 53 year old male who had an unwitnessed collapse. The defibrillator was attached, an analysis was performed, and a shock was delivered. What should you do next?

answer

Begin CPR with chest compressions.

question

What history and physical exam would you choose for a patient who is in respiratory distress and has no signs of trauma?

answer

Focused; focused. You know their chief complaint and life threat is likely the respiratory distress so you can FOCUS on gathering history of breathing difficulty as well as do a FOCUSED exam of the affected body system which in this case is the lungs and airway.

question

What size of ET tube would you choose to fit an average sized man or woman?

answer

7.5

question

You and your partner Monroe arrive on scene to a house fire that has just been put out. You are treating a female patient with a full thickness burn to her leg. Which of the burn zones is the one most likely to recover?

answer

Zone of hyperemia

question

Describe the percentage breakdowns of burns.

answer

Minor- less than 10% Moderate- 10-20% Critical- full thickness burns of any % along with partial thickness above 20% of the body

question

You and your partner Ingo arrive on scene to find a 55 year old man who is showing signs of aphasia. He shows positive for right arm drift and the right side of his face is drooping slightly when he tries to speak. This patient should be transported?

answer

On their right side. Patients who show signs of a stroke should be transported with the affected side down with the head elevated 6 inches.

question

What two important hormones are produced by the pancreas to regulate blood sugar?

answer

Insulin & glucagon

question

Your 57 year old patient was a chain smoker for 35 years and is pursing their lips during exhalation. This is likely to?

answer

Create a back pressure on collapsed alveoli. Breathing with pursed lips is a sign that a COPD patient is trying to keep the alveoli open with back pressure on their lungs.

question

What sort of signs & symptoms would a patient with heat stroke demonstrate?

answer

Rapid respirations, rapid weak pulse, little to no sweat, dilated pupils, and seizures may all be seen in heat stroke.

question

Type 1 diabetes is associated with people who do not produce any ______. They may also suffer from metabolic problems & ______.

answer

Insulin/organ damage Type 1 diabetes is a result of the body's inability to produce insulin and may eventually result in organ failure due to the body literally eating itself.

question

The SA has a normal intrinsic rate of ______ and the AV junction has a rate of _______.

answer

The SA has a normal intrinsic rate of 60-100 and the AV junction has a rate of 40-60.

question

NREMT spinal immobilization skill sheet

answer

-Direct assistant to maintain manual immobilization of the head - Check pulse and motor sensory - Apply c-collar

question

______ _______ is when the placenta prematurely separates from the wall of the uterus and _______ ______ is when the placenta is blocking the cervix and presenting before the baby. They are best managed by transporting the patient on her _____ _______ to prevent supine hypotension.

answer

Placenta abruptio is when the placenta prematurely separates from the wall of the uterus and placenta previa is when the placenta is blocking the cervix and presenting before the baby. They are best managed by transporting the patient on her left side to prevent supine hypotension.

question

_______ denotes the number of pregnancies and ______ denotes the number of live births.

answer

Gravida/para

question

A collapsable tube that is approximately 10 inches in length?

answer

Esophagus

question

What is the goal for on scene time when caring for a trauma or shock patient?

answer

10 minutes (the platinum ten)

question

Cardiac output is?

answer

How much blood flows through the entire circulatory system in 1 minute.

question

Pulmonary edema?

answer

Can affect both the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lungs. Pulmonary edema is the filling of the lungs with fluid caused by either an increased hydrostatic pressure or a high permeability in the lung's tissues. It is not a disease, but a pathophysiological condition caused by both disease process, neurotoxin injection, brain injury, diving accidents, and cardiac problems.

question

_______ _______ is a part of being an EMT but not part of the EMT's Duty to Act.

answer

Patient advocacy

question

Placenta previa and abruptio may occur in which stage of pregnancy?

answer

2nd or 3rd trimester

question

The esophagus lies anterior to the ______ and posterior to the ______.

answer

The esophagus lies anterior to the spine and posterior to the trachea.

question

You and your partner are having lunch at a city park when you hear a woman on the playground screaming. Several adults and children are gathered around and you decide to investigate. As you approach the playground you can see the frantic woman holding an approximately 4 year old child in her arms. As you get closer you can see that the child has a laceration to the foot that is actively bleeding. Upon seeing you and your partner, the screaming woman comes running toward you. What would be the best course of action?

answer

Put direct pressure on the child's bleeding foot with a sterile dressing. While moving to the ambulance talk to the mother and encourage her to calm down. Let her and the child know that you are taking care of the cut on the foot.

question

he National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke state that a TIA is a transient stroke that lasts ________, but symptoms can persist for __________.

answer

he National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke state that a TIA is a transient stroke that lasts only a few minutes, but symptoms can persist for up to 24 hours.

question

Dispatch has called you and your partner Weston to a domestic dispute that has resulted in the wife stabbing the husband in the chest with an ice pick. The woman is in custody when you arrive and you enter the residence to find the husband lying on the floor with a bloody shirt on. He is conscious and alert with respirations around 26 per minute. His pulse is weak at approximately 130 beats per minute and his lungs sounds are clear and bilateral. His jugular veins are distended and removal of his shirt reveals 2 small holes just lateral of the sternum. His blood pressure is 94/60 and he is becoming increasingly distressed. This patient is likely suffering from? __________________________. Treatment would include_____________________.

answer

Pericardial tamponade/ C-spine stabilization, O2, and an IV set, using a large bore catheter. his patient is exhibiting the signs of pericardial or cardiac tamponade. A tension pneumothorax, sucking chest wound, or hemopneumothorax are not likely, as lungs sounds are clear and bilateral. Additionally, there is no tracheal deviation.

question

A person suffering from an allergic reaction will likely have ______________.

answer

Low BP, high pulse rate.

question

You come upon a victim of asphyxial cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the correct order of action?

answer

Do CPR for 5 cycles or approximately 2 minutes and then activate the emergency response system and retrieve the AED. 2005 AHA CPR Guidelines specify that treatment for asphyxial cardiac arrest should begin with 5 cycles of CPR prior to activating the emergency response system or retrieving the AED.

question

A short barrel gun would be ______ energy wound. While a hunting rifle would be _____ energy wound and an ice pick would be ______ energy wound.

answer

A short barrel gun would be medium energy wound. While a hunting rifle would be high energy wound and an ice pick would be low energy wound.

question

he windshield in the ambulance is made of what material?

answer

Windshields are made of safety glass that does not shatter when broken, but bullets will penetrate.

question

In a ________ solution, the RBCs will swell and pop. In a _________ solution, the RBCs will shrink, and in an _________ solution, they will appear to be the same.

answer

In a hypotonic solution, the RBCs will swell and pop. In a hypertonic solution, the RBCs will shrink, and in an isotonic solution, they will appear to be the same.

question

Your patient is a 62 year old female who has fallen approximately 4 feet from a ladder while decorating her Christmas tree. She has obvious kyphosis and is complaining of back pain and numbing in her left leg. Which of the following choices contains the most appropriate treatment?

answer

Move her to a backboard while maintaining c-spine stabilization. Pad under the patient's head as needed. A person who has kyphosis, and a suspected back or cervical spine injury, should be secured to a backboard while utilizing appropriate padding to fill the void created by the curvature in the vertebrae.

question

What is Para and Gravida?

answer

Para= # of live births Gravida= # of pregnancies

question

Which laryngoscope blade would you choose when intubating a child?

answer

he Miller blade is preferred in intubation of a child as the curve of the McIntosh blade takes up more of the airway and can interfere with visualization.

question

AHA Guidelines specify that for all children, a rescue breath rate of ___ to ____ is to be used.

answer

12 to 20

question

D cylinders contain about ____ liters of oxygen.

answer

350

question

E cylinders contain about ____ liters of oxygen.

answer

625

question

M cylinders contain about ____ liters of oxygen.

answer

3,000

question

G cylinders contain about _____ liters of oxygen.

answer

5,300

question

H cylinders contain about _____ liters of oxygen.

answer

6,900

question

The pressure in on O2 cylinder is approximately ____ psi in a full tank.

answer

2,000 psi

question

Pressure regulators supply a safe working pressure of about ___ to ___ psi.

answer

30 to 70 psi

question

What are the 5 special considerations for the pediatric airway vs. the adult airway?

answer

1). a child has a smaller nose & mouth 2). in a child, more space is taken up by the tongue 3). child's trachea is narrower 4). cricoid cartilage is less rigid and less developed 5). the child's airway structure is more easily obstructed

question

Scene Size-up includes evaluating which important things?

answer

1). scene safety (personal, partner, patient, bystander safety) 2). mechanism of injury or nature of illness 3). Number of patients 4). Need for additional resources

EMT-B National Registry Study

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