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Are group of related concepts that explain existing phenomena and predict events. It provides us with a frame of reference, the ability to choose concepts to study of ideas that are within ones practice.

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THEORIES

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A nursing theory that refers to a specific population or to specific situation, thereby making the theory easy to understand.

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MIDDLE RANGE THEORIES

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Examines symptoms that are influenced by physiologic, psychologic, and situational factors as they relate to performance.

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THEORY OF UNPLEASANT SYMPTOMS

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is broad in scope and may describe and explain large segments of human experience.

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GRAND THEORY

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is not a standard term applied to nursing theory.

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DEVELOPMENTAL THEORY

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investigated the effects of the environment on healing, and this serves as the foundation for nursing science.

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FLORENCE NIGHTINGALE

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proposed the theory of cultural care diversity and universality. This theory of transcultural nursing comprises concepts involving caring and the components of a cultural care theory: diversity, universality, worldview, and ethnohistory.

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Madeleine Leininger

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is based on the nurse's promoting synchronicity between human beings and the universe/environment.

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Martha Rogers' theory

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facilitates client self-care by measuring the client's deficit relative to self-care needs. In __________ the nurse implements measures to assist clients in meeting self-care needs by matching them with an appropriate supportive intervention.

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Dorothea Orem's self-care deficit model

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identifies feelings of the client as a predictor of positive outcomes related to health and wellness.

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Hildegard Peplau's theory

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explores the interpersonal relationship between the nurse and the client and identifies the client's feelings as a predictor of positive outcomes related to health and wellness.

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Peplau's interpersonal relations model

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is a holistic outlook, proposed in 1978, that addresses the effect and importance of altruism, sensitivity, trust, and interpersonal skills.

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Watson's theory of human caring

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proposed in 1971, addresses client systems and includes society, groups, and the individual.

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King's theory of goal attainment

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when the client incurs an insult that renders him or her in need of environmental modification, the nurse will be the change agent in assisting the individual with this adaptation.

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Roy's adaptation model

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the client reacts to some stimulus in a negative manner.

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stimuli frame

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asks the question that is to be the main focus

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The hypothesis

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decides what data will be collected to answer the question.

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The method

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results are examined with the goal of determining the relevance of outcome data in answering the hypothesis; also the significance of the data and the potential for future research are explored.

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evaluation

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is a step-by-step procedure that is undertaken with the goal of answering the question.

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Data collection

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examines research proposals to ensure that the ethical rights of those individuals participating in the research study are protected. This board makes sure that persons who participate in research are assured that their right to privacy, confidentiality, fair treatment, and freedom from harm is protected.

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The institutional review board (IRB) (also called the human subjects committee)

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is a qualitative research design that uses inductive descriptive methodology to describe the lived experiences of study participants.

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Phenomenology

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Clinical agencies need to make a commitment to implementing research findings and then developing policies and procedures to guide the implementation process.

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Utilization of research guides nursing practice.

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is a study in which the researcher collects data for the purpose of estimating the needs of a group; commonly used to prioritize the needs of an organization or community.

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A needs assessment method

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is a smaller version of a proposed study conducted to develop or refine methodology, such as treatment, instruments, or a data collection process, to be used in a larger study.

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A pilot study

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is a nonexperimental research design that focuses on obtaining information regarding the status quo of some situation, often through direct questioning of participants. A survey is a research design that is used to collect demographic information, social characteristics, behavioral patterns, and other information.

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Survey

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is a type of quantitative research that lacks one of the components (randomization, control group, manipulation of one or more variables) of an experimental design.

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Quasi-experimental research design

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are used to present an in-depth analysis of a single subject, group, institution, or other social unit. The purpose is to gain insight and provide background information for more controlled, broader studies.

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Case study designs

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is a federal agency that provides federal funding for health care research.

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The National Institute of Nursing Research

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is a nursing organization.

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Sigma Theta Tau International

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results in the organization of words or phrases, not numbers. Interviews are reviewed and are transcribed line by line in an effort to group common conceptual meanings. ___________ research involves ambiguous concepts. Analysis of interviews with participants who are experiencing the phenomena enables the researcher to describe unclear phenomena. ___________ research is time consuming and costly. One-on-one interviewing takes time, and the interviews must be recorded, typed, transcribed, and analyzed. Qualitative studies use small sample sizes that are not randomly selected. The small sample sizes used in ____________ research do not allow results to be generalizable to the whole population.

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Qualitative data analysis

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consists of numerical data.

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Descriptive statistics

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consists of numerical data.

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Inferential statistics

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focus on trauma, abuse, and violence. The ______ ______ provides direct services to clients and consults with and serves an expert witness for medical and law enforcement.

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Forensic nurses

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is one who searches for possible alternatives regarding issues that involve patient care, safety, and motivation of the industry and who assesses cost-effective resources for use in health-related situations.

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A change agent

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A nurse functioning in the role of _______ helps patients understand the complications of their disease process.

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educator

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The primary focus of the ____ ____ _____ is to use the nursing process in caring for patients. Care is based on assessment of symptoms and the person as a whole.

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care provider's role

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was created to honor all military nurses.

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The statue the Spirit of Nursing

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the nursing profession is predicted to have only 64% of the RN workforce required to meet demands in 2020.

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According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics

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funds $20 million to provide nursing scholarships, public service announcements promoting nursing as a career, faculty loan cancellation programs, geriatric training grants, and nurse retention and safety enhancement grants.

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Nurse Reinvestment Act of 2002

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In 1924, ______ _______ offered the first separate Department of Nursing, whose graduates earned a baccalaureate degree.

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Yale University

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is the evaluation of abilities based on an objective demonstration of specific required competencies. This may include performance in actual or simulated situations.

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Performance-based assessment

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occurs when courses are delivered through some electronic format such as a Web-based course. The course may be presented a great distance from the student, who is never required to attend a class at a physical location.

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Distant learning

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coordinates licensure activities on a national level and creates and administers the licensure examination (NCLEX).

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The NCSBN

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are those skills and elements that are fundamental and essential for safe competent practice.

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Core competencies

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The nurse should contact the _____ to determine the education, experience, and examination requirements that must be met if one is to become certified.

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ANCC

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is a professional organization that represents all nurses.

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ANA

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is a professional organization whose members represent multiple disciplines; this group conducts many types of activities, including accreditation of nursing education programs.

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NLN

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is an organization whose membership consists of the board of nursing from each territory of the state.

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NCSBN

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is one of the essential purposes of the state board of nursing, which regulates licensure.

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Protecting the public

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represent the aims and concerns of many individuals and groups and are written and passed by legislators.

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Nurse practice acts

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may be included in a state's nurse practice act, and this means that the act must be reviewed by a specific date; if not, it is automatically rescinded.

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Sunset legislation

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contains compact state information. Nurses who practice in a compact state are responsible for following the laws and regulations of each state in which they practice.

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NCSBN website

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In 1946 _____________ became the first field of nursing practice to certify advanced practitioners.

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nurse anesthesia

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The most important role in community nursing.

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caregiving role

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a nurse manages and cares for the community. Using the nursing process and critical thinking skills, a nurse develops appropriate, individualized nursing care for specific patients and their families. In addition, the nurse individualizes care within the context of the patient's community to achieve long-term successful health care outcomes.

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Community setting

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means using the right combination of resources—energy, time, and money—to accomplish a task, and effectiveness means doing the right thing right in health care.

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Efficiency

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occurs when providers increase their charges against households and public and private insurers who pay for their own care while making some contribution to the care of the uninsured population.

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Cost shifting

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incorporates knowledge from published health sciences. It is broader than the focus of public health. A community-based nurse works in an established program that provides health services to specific populations in the community.

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Community health nursing

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is a federal statute that was established to support individuals in expressing their preferences about medical treatment and making decisions about end-of-life care.

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The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990

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involves preselection by the client of a person who has been authorized legally to make health care decisions once the client becomes incompetent to do so.

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Durable power of attorney

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is a formal document in which a competent adult makes clear his or her wishes regarding care that will be provided in the final stages of a terminal illness.

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A living will

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is information that is provided by the physician or advanced practice nurse so that the client can make intelligent health care decisions and must reveal expected benefits.

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Informed consent

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is defined as comments that are written about a person that are defaming. Nurses may be subject to a charge of libel for subjective comments meant to denigrate the client that are placed in the medical record or in other written materials read by others.

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Libel

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Negligence is defined as failure to act in a reasonable and prudent manner. The most frequent allegations include failure to ensure client safety, improper treatment, failure to monitor the client and report significant findings, medication errors, and failure to follow the agency's policies and procedures. Delegation of client care tasks falls within the role of the team leader, and inappropriate delegation of client care tasks could result in ________

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Negligence

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is a federal statute that was enacted in 1986 to prohibit the transfer of unstable clients, including women in labor, from one facility to another. This law also prohibits refusal of care for indigent and uninsured clients who seek medical assistance in the emergency department.

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The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Law (EMTALA)

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is the principle of respect for the individual person. It is defined as personal freedom, the right to make choices.

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Autonomy

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is telling the truth in personal communication as a moral and ethical requirement.

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Veracity

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is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that humans are rational and act out of principles that are consistent and objective and that compel them to do what is right. Deontologic theory claims that a decision is right only if it conforms to an overriding moral duty and wrong only if it violates that moral duty.

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Deontology

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is an ethical duty that states that one should be answerable legally, morally, ethically, or socially for one's activities.

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Accountability

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is an action and an attitude wherein the provider tries to act on behalf of the client and believes that his or her actions are justified because of a commitment to act in the best interest of the client. _________ is a reflection of the "father knows best" way of thinking.

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Paternalism

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is to find out the technical and scientific facts and assess the human dimension of the situation—the feelings, emotions, attitudes, and opinions. Trying to understand the full picture of a situation is time consuming and requires examination from many different perspectives, but it is worth the time and effort that is required to understand an issue fully before moving forward in the assessment procedure.

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The first step in the situational assessment procedure

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Identify all possible alternatives _____________________. A set of alternatives cannot be established until an assessment has been completed.

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second step in the situation assessment procedure.

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Selecting the best option is actually _________________. Options cannot be selected until an assessment has been done to define the issue. Justifying the action or inaction is the final step in the situational assessment procedure. No justification can be made until the assessment and action phases have been completed

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the third step in the situation assessment procedure

question

is an approach that is rooted in the assumption that an action or practice is right if it leads to the greatest possible balance of good consequences or to the least possible balance of bad consequences. On the basis of this principle, an attempt is made to determine which actions will lead to the greatest ratio of benefit to harm for all persons involved in the situation.

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Utilitarianism

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is the principle of telling the truth in a given situation.

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Veracity

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is the principle of respect for the individual person; this concept states that humans have incalculable worth or moral dignity. Within the concept of autonomy, people are free to form their own judgments and perform whatever actions they choose. They are self-determining agents who are entitled to decide their own destiny

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Autonomy

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was enacted in 1950. This act provided funding that resulted in a boom in the construction of hospitals across the country. As the number of hospitals increased rapidly, so did the need for nurses to staff the hospitals. Thus the nurse's role was shifted from community and public health settings to the acute care setting.

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The Hill-Burton Act, also known as the Hospital Survey and Construction Act

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is a citizen who has the opportunity to vote for candidates in elections for representation at local, state, and federal government levels.

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A constituent

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possesses the sole federal power to enact legislation; the ________________ originates and promotes major policy initiatives and has the power to override a presidential veto.

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The legislative branch

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step in the nursing process is consistent with identification of the targeted issue in the political process

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diagnosis

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step would involve collecting information and understanding the information collected prior to actual identification of the issue.

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assessment

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occurs after the information has been collected and the issue has been identified; generally, an effective policy plan involves input from many sources and perspectives.

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Planning

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occurs after an issue has been identified and a plan has been developed; this plan is then implemented through political action and a set of strategies

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Implementation

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is an arm of an organization, association, or labor union that is formed to persuade a policy maker to support a certain policy or program or, more often, to ensure the election or re-election of policy makers who support the organization's goals.

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A political action committee (PAC)

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keeps members up to date about background information and the platforms of candidates who are running for national office; ____________ also provides updates about key bills as they move through the legislative process.

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American Nurses Association Nurses Strategic Action Team (N-STAT).

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The median family income is slightly higher than that of non-Hispanic whites; because their income is higher, _____ have better access to health care. In _________, individuals tend to be present oriented and time is viewed as being more flexible than in the Western culture; being on time for appointments is not seen as a priority.

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Asian culture

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usually have close, extended family ties, and emphasis is on family needs rather than individual needs; all members participate in health care decisions. The _________ culture is present oriented and _______ individuals are often late for appointments because they are less concerned with planning ahead. Males often make decisions. In this culture it is important for an individual to agree with those in authority and to appear compliant, even if there is no intention of complying with instructions or plan of care.

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Asian

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touching a burning cigarette or piece of cotton to the skin, usually the abdomen, is done to compensate for "heat" lost through diarrhea. This type of burning is a common part of self-care.

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Southeast Asian culture

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at 40%, they have one of the highest uninsured rates

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Mexican-Americans

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The child has what is referred to as ________, which can lead to diarrhea, fever, and even death. It is associated with "evil eye," which causes fever, diarrhea, and restlessness.

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mal ojo

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A child said to have been exposed to __________ would experience diarrhea.

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vista fuerte

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is an emotion-based illness that is common among Mexicans. An unexpected fall, a barking dog, or a car accident could cause ______. Symptoms include colic, diarrhea, high temperature, and vomiting.

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Susto

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is a disease that can affect children or adults and is caused by food particles that become lodged in the intestinal tract, causing sharp pains

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Empacho

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is a disease that is brought on by anger. It primarily affects adults and commonly occurs a day or two after a fit of rage.

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Bilis

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The first step to becoming a culturally sensitive and competent health provider is to conduct a _____________________. Through identification of health-related attitudes, values, beliefs, and practices, the nurse can better understand the cultural aspects of health care from the client's perspective.

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cultural self-assessment

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In this culture, women, especially "Granny," play a key role in health care decisions.

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African-American culture

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is consistent with the American Indian culture, and touching another's hand is not common among Asians or American Indians.

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A low tone of voice

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is identified as the cause of excessive death among minority group members. The six leading causes are cardiovascular disease and stroke, chemical dependency, diabetes, homicides/accidents, and infant mortality.

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Cancer

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is not identified as one of the six leading causes of death among minority groups.

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Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

question

include recently arrived immigrants. Their lives and health care needs often are kept secret and are understood only by them.

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Marginalized populations

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is the responsibility of all nurses to become knowledgeable about the values, beliefs, and health care practices of the culturally diverse groups that are dominant in the nurse's particular practice area.

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Cultural competence

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is the belief that one's own ethnic group, culture, or nation is best.

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Ethnocentrism

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is a preconceived, deeply held, usually negative judgment that has been formed about other groups.

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Prejudice

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is defined as assigning particular beliefs and behaviors to specific groups without recognition of individuality.

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Stereotyping

question

include denser bones in African-Americans. ________________ such as body build and structure, genetic variations, skin characteristics, susceptibility to disease, and nutritional variations exist among different cultures. Other common variations include skin color, eye shape, hair texture, and adipose tissue deposits.

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Biologic variations

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Applying heat to the acupoints

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moxibustion

question

is a type of mind-body intervention that is based on techniques in which the client is taught to alter specific bodily functions such as heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension. The client uses various relaxation and imagery exercises to produce desired responses.

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Biofeedback

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consists of a group of noninvasive approaches that are used to achieve balance; these include yoga, massage, diet, purification regimens, breathing exercises, meditation, and herbs.

answer

Ayurveda

question

the care provider provides small quantities of remedies that produce symptoms similar to those of the illness being treated.

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homeopathy

question

corrects misalignments of the spine, called subluxations, by putting pressure on the nerves that are causing pain. are licensed in the state in which they practice.

answer

chiropractor

question

is performed by a licensed professional with reimbursement privileges and is an accepted complementary alternative medicine (CAM) therapy. It is covered by most insurance companies. ____________________ has been practiced for longer than 100 years.

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Chiropractic medicine

question

is derived from the Atropa belladonna plant, which primarily affects the parasympathetic nervous system.

answer

Atropine

question

is derived from the Digitalis purpurea plant; it increases contractility of the heart, making it a popular choice for patients in heart failure.

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The drug digitalis (Lanoxin)

question

The drug __________ is derived from the plant Cephaelis ipecacuanha, which is used to induce vomiting in some cases of poisoning.

answer

ipecac

question

The drug ___________ is derived from the plant known as Rauwolfia serpentina and was used in the past to treat patients with depression; currently, it is used in the treatment of those with hypertension.

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reserpine

question

reduces the efficacy of anticonvulsants, which may lead to increased seizure activity. ________ decreases coagulation of blood by prolonging bleed time. _________ has no known effect on sodium regulation.

answer

Ginkgo

question

results in kidney stones and malabsorption of other essential minerals

answer

Calcium

question

is thought to relieve pain by creating a slight electrical current that stimulates the nervous system; it is also thought to speed wound healing by dilating vessels and increasing circulation to an area and is even purported to boost the immune system. The effect of magnets on fetal growth has not been determined.

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Magnet therapy

question

Both are used to reduce anxiety and stress. ________ begins with a goal that is to be achieved and a picture that is formulated by the person under treatment. Imagery is self-constructed. ____________ is incorrect because it is not contraindicated and can actually be used to reduce stress and discomfort associated with pregnancy.

answer

imagery and relaxation

question

conjures up a desirable image

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A hypnotist

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can recall both positive and negative images/memories.

answer

Hypnosis

question

is safe throughout pregnancy, unless the patient is allergic to particular scents. Therapeutic touch requires only light or no physical contact.

answer

Aromatherapy

question

Every disaster begins as a local event known as the ____________________, which consists of planning, preparedness, prevention, and warning.

answer

pre-impact stage

question

all efforts are directed to responding to the disaster, initiating the emergency management system, and limiting the effects of the hazard

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At the impact stage

question

the focus is on recovery, rehabilitation, and reconstruction; this occurs about 72 hours after the disaster and not before. Evaluation of the disaster plan is a major part of the post-impact phase.

answer

post-impact stage

question

is part of the post-impact stage.

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Rehabilitation

question

refers to diseases such as plague or smallpox.

answer

The biologic category

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includes diseases that are easily spread through the air and require decontamination.

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chemical category

question

results in burns and poisoning

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Radioactive dirty bombs

question

consists of thermal burns due to nuclear blasts.

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nuclear category

question

responds to disaster with trained individuals who have expertise in this type of situation and who have the equipment required to be effective. funded by local and state governments until funds are exhausted; then federal funds are contributed.

answer

MMRS

question

is a national repository, supplies antibiotics, chemical antidotes, antitoxins, IV administrations, airway supplies, and other medical-surgical items as needed to replenish supplies of local and state agencies during a time of emergency. The _________ _____________ __________ provides antibiotics, antidotes, and medical and surgical items when local and state supplies have been exhausted.

answer

The Strategic National Stockpile

question

arranges for the use of federal hospitals.

answer

The National Disaster Medical System

question

is a group of health care professionals who can be deployed to respond to a disaster, as a large group or in small numbers.

answer

The Commissioned Corps Readiness Force

question

is the agency responsible for coordinating efforts to protect the United States against terrorism.

answer

The Department of Homeland Security

question

is a large nonprofit community organization that meets the health and human needs of the community through established programs but would not provide the means to obtain medications and supplies.

answer

The local YMCA

question

so those who have the greatest chance of survival are given priority. Care is shifted from categorizing patients at low, intermediate, and critical risk to using resources to serve those with the greatest likelihood of survival.

answer

Trained responders triage care,

question

______________ The Hospital Incident Command System has responsibility for determining common terminology.

answer

Only one

question

determines the effect of the incident and communicates honestly to calm and reassure staff and consumers of the facility and the news media.

answer

The facility information officer

question

determines whether a credible threat is present.

answer

The Federal Bureau of Investigation

question

occurs during the pre-impact planning stage.

answer

Community awareness

question

occurs during the post-impact stage.

answer

Evaluation of the DMAT

question

is an initiative led by the surgeon general that consists of trained health care professionals who can be deployed to support the DMAT.

answer

The Commissioned Corps Readiness Force

question

is the lead federal agency for medical response under the National Response Plan; this system provides supplies and equipment, assists with evacuation, and arranges for hospitalization in federal and voluntary nonfederal acute care facilities.

answer

The National Disaster Medical System

question

is the first contact for patients, families, and employees within the facility or news media, so they may better understand the situation and know how to react and protect themselves.

answer

The crisis communication officer

question

communicates with the news media, as well as with individuals who work at or are consumers of the health care facility. must calm the public and consumers of the facility.the voice to the public that supplies known facts

answer

The crisis communication officer

question

are local volunteers trained to respond to local emergencies.

answer

The MRC

question

is a federal emergency system for major emergency and federally declared emergencies.

answer

The NDMS

question

The CCRF emergency teams are led by _______________________________when emergencies exceed the capability of the local and state services.

answer

the Office of the Surgeon General

question

occurs when the nurse responds with noncommittal or generalized answers.

answer

Blocking

question

It reflects openness between two parties.

answer

Open communication

question

is the unconscious exclusion of extraneous stimuli in communication.

answer

Filtration

question

is showing a lack of concern or a lack of knowledge by responding with meaningless answers such as "don't worry." The patient might even conclude that the nurse is trivializing his concern or is patronizing.

answer

False assurance

question

is awareness achieved through excitation of all the senses. can be described as all that the person knows about a situation or circumstance according to what each of the senses—taste, smell, sight, sound, touch, and intuition—discovers and interprets. Empathy is the ability to mentally place oneself in another person's situation to better understand the person and to share the emotions or feelings of that person.

answer

Personal perception

question

are conceptions, opinions, or thoughts that the receiver has developed before having an encounter. Such ideas can dramatically affect the receiver's acceptance and understanding of the message.

answer

Preconceived ideas

question

occurs when the argument is made that something is okay because most people do it.

answer

An appeal to common practice

question

is an attempt to manipulate other people's emotions for the purpose of avoiding the real issue.

answer

An appeal to emotion

question

is the argument that doing things a particular way is best because they've always been that way.

answer

An appeal to tradition

question

is the introduction of an irrelevant topic for the purpose of diverting attention away from the real issue.

answer

A red herring

question

occurs when a person's position on a topic is misrepresented.

answer

A straw man

question

is the belief that one event will inevitably follow another without any real support for that belief.

answer

A slippery slope

question

are confused when one assumes that one event must cause another just because the two events often occur together.

answer

Cause and effect

question

In active listening, a number of techniques can be used by the receiver to enhance the ability to listen; these include

answer

(1) providing undivided attention, (2) giving feedback (rephrasing), (3) making eye contact, (4) noting nonverbal messages (body language), and (5) finishing listening before one begins to speak.

question

is an overall communication style in which the person displays the presence of positive declaration and persistently demonstrates confidence; he or she has obtained the facts, carefully considered the options, and exuded confidence while forming a point of view; active listening may be a component of assertive communication.

answer

Assertive communication

question

is the ability to mentally place oneself in another person's situation for the purpose of better understanding a person and sharing the emotions or feelings of that person.

answer

Empathy

question

is a form of communication in which the individual fails to say what is meant.

answer

Passive communication

question

education and involvement are keys to successful change. People must believe that improvement is possible before they will be willing to consider change.

answer

Lewin's stages of change

question

these terms are used interchangeably, and it is difficult to discuss one without discussing the other. However, these roles have specific traits unique to themselves.

answer

leadership and management

question

is the coordinator of resources (time, people, and supplies) needed to achieve outcomes. _________ are assigned responsibility for accomplishing the goals of an organization.

answer

The manager

question

is the legitimate right to direct others that is given to a person by the organization through assignment to an authorized position such as a nurse manager.

answer

Authority

question

who has the ability to guide or influence, as well as to motivate and inspire, others on the team.

answer

nurse leader

question

which is familiar to nurses who address patient care needs, can be applied to all management activities that require decision making and problem solving.

answer

The nursing process,

question

refers to a type of power that comes from followers' identification with the leader and is not a leadership style.

answer

"Referent"

question

How many are the primary sources of power are known.

answer

seven

question

is based on knowledge, skills, and information.

answer

Expert power

question

comes from the ability to reward others for complying; it may include such rewards as money, desired assignments, or recognition.

answer

Rewards power

question

is based on fear of punishment or failure to comply. _________________ fits well into the authoritative behavioral style because authoritative managers dictate the work with much control, usually ignore the ideas or suggestions of subordinates, and provide little feedback or recognition for work accomplished.

answer

Coercive power

question

is based on holding an official position within the organization.

answer

Legitimate power

question

may distribute a considerable amount of power among the workers. They can influence the attitude of the group, and significantly affect the efficiency and effectiveness associated with workflow, goal setting, and problem solving.

answer

Informal leaders

question

chart is a visual picture of an organization that identifies lines of communication and authority.

answer

An organizational chart

question

is the amount of output or work that is produced with a specific quantity of input or resources.

answer

Productivity

question

include personnel, time, and supplies needed to accomplish the goals of an organization.

answer

Resources

question

is the manpower needed to complete the work.

answer

Staffing

question

describes intrinsic traits of leaders and is based on the assumption that leaders were born with particular leadership characteristics. Other traits found to be associated with this leadership theory include intelligence, alertness, dependability, energy, drive, enthusiasm, ambition, decisiveness, self-confidence, cooperativeness, and technical mastery.

answer

Leadership trait theory

question

is an organizational theory that attempts to account for complexity and randomness in organizations.

answer

Chaos

question

is part of the organizational theory that provides an understanding of authority within organizations.

answer

Bureaucracy

question

revolves around the assumption that authority confers the right to issue commands within an organization on the basis of impersonal rules and rights, by virtue of the management position rather than any trait ascribed to the person who occupies that position. Other characteristics include the following: Impersonal rules govern the actions of superiors over subordinates, all personnel are chosen for their competence and are subject to strict rules that are applied impersonally and uniformly, and a system of procedures for dealing with work situations is in place.

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Weber's concept of bureaucracy

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provides the framework for an understanding of leadership and management, and for an understanding of complex organizations

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Organizational theory

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is concerned with the day-to-day operations of the facility.

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The transactional leader

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has attempted to integrate the dynamics of the interaction between the leader, the worker, and elements of the leadership situation, arguing that effective leadership depends on several variables.

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Situational theory

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is committed to organizational goals, has a vision, and is able to empower others with that vision.

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The transformational leader

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attempt to integrate the dynamics of the interaction between the leader, the worker, and elements of the leadership situation, arguing that effective leadership depends on several variables

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The contemporary theories

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This theory has two types; open and close

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the systems theory

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views the system as being totally independent of outside influence.

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Closed systems theory

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suggests that the organization is affected not only by internal change but also by external environmental changes that can have a direct or an indirect influence on the organization.

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Open systems theory

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which describes intrinsic traits of leaders, is based on the assumption that leaders were born with particular leadership characteristics. Other traits found to be associated with this leadership theory include intelligence, alertness, dependability, energy, drive, enthusiasm, ambition, decisiveness, self-confidence, cooperativeness, and technical mastery.

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Trait theory

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is a written document that details organizational goals, allocates resources, assigns responsibilities, and determines time frames. It generally looks 3 to 5 years into the future.

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A strategic plan

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Only the ________ can perform and sign the admission assessment, although some components such as vital signs may be delegated. The assessment must be completed and signed by the __________; however, some components may be delegated to the LPN/LVN.

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RN

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are not licensed.

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NAPs

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The scope of practice of the ___________ varies significantly from state to state; RNs should know the _________ nurse practice act in the state in which they practice and should understand the legal scope of practice of the __________ prior to delegating any assignments.

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LPN/LVN

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The purpose of ____________________ is to increase the safety and quality of care provided to consumers by providing voluntary accreditation that certifies that a hospital meets established standards.

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The Joint Commission

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involves the delegation of tasks that do not require independent nursing judgments.

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Right circumstance

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involves providing feedback to monitor how the process is working and to suggest improvements to the process.

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Right supervision of delegation

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involves giving clear explanations about tasks and expected outcomes.

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Right communication

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involves delegating to someone who is qualified and competent.

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Right person

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can increase productivity of the RN by performing those tasks that fall within their scope of practice.

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The NAP

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cannot supplement staffing when the RN is not available but can assume responsibility for tasks that are simple and routine and do not require adherence to the nursing process.

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The NAP

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are independent nursing orders that only the RN can initiate.

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Dietary consults

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is not an invasive procedure, and risk to the patient is minimal, making the task appropriate for delegation.

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Obtaining a sterile urine sample from a patient with a Foley catheter that is connected to a closed drainage system

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An RN will have to assess the patient's tolerance and coordinate care on the basis of this assessment. Supervision is always a required component of delegation.

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Assisting a patient who is ambulating after surgery is not an appropriate task to delegate.

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is the deciding factor regarding what can legally be delegated. NAPs are responsible for accepting tasks for which they are competent to perform, but accountability remains with the RN.

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The state's nurse practice act

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_________________ is primarily based on relations with employees. Patients may fear or dislike invasive procedures, but the important consideration in __________________ is the quality of interactions with employees.

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Customer satisfaction

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nurses provide all aspects of patient care.

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total patient care

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a small team is assigned to a geographic location during their assigned shift.

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modular care delivery

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pairs the RN with a partner, usually a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) or nursing assistive personnel (NAP), allowing the RN to spend more time on tasks such as assessment and patient education.

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Partnership nursing, or co-primary nursing

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an RN directs the other members of the team, which can consist of care providers at various levels.

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team nursing

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members of the team are assigned specific tasks such as assessment or medication administration

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functional nursing

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the RN assumes 24-hour responsibility for the care of assigned patients The case manager, in collaboration with an interdisciplinary team, oversees the use of health care services by clients throughout a course of illness.

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primary nursing

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is responsible for handling the day-to-day operations of the nursing unit and for ensuring that the unit's philosophy and mission are congruent with those of the parent organization.

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The nurse manager

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works with an interdisciplinary team in providing a wide range of services.

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The coordinator of patient-centered care delivery

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coordinates and delegates care for a specific group of patients.

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The team leader

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is a deviation from the planned path.

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A variance

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is the end result of care, not just a single specific incident or deviation.

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The patient outcome

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is to provide high-quality cost-effective care.

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The goal

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is the criterion from which safe, effective care is derived.

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A standard

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is a plan that specifies the timing and sequencing of major patient care activities and interventions by the interdisciplinary team for a particular diagnosis, procedure, or health condition.

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A clinical pathway

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categorizes patients according to specific criteria and care requirements and thus helps to quantify the amount and level of nursing care needed.

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A classification system

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as used in this chapter, refers to a nursing care delivery model that is focused on interprofessional care, with the patient as the focus.

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Patient centered

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places patients into a predetermined reimbursement rate on the basis of diagnosis.

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A DRG

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is the activity that is involved in determining that an adequate number and mix of health care team members are available to provide safe, quality patient care.

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Staffing

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is the distribution of work that each staff member is responsible for during a given work period; assigned activities must fall within the individual's scope of practice and/or job description.

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Assignment

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is the work produced, such as the number of patient care hours provided.

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Output

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is the ratio of the amount of output produced, such as patients receiving care or home visits, to the specific amount of input (i.e., nursing hours worked) and is the measure of staffing efficiency.

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Productivity

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is measured by determining the amount and intensity of care required.

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Patient acuity

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is based on interactions or experiences while the patient is receiving care, although staffing can affect patient satisfaction.

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Patient satisfaction

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Examination of the skill mix and educational preparation of the staff is the criterion for _______

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delegation of care.

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is the criterion that is used on care pathways to predict required resources.

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The number of hospital days required by the patient

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can result in a lack of continuity of care, thereby decreasing patient satisfaction, which affects employee satisfaction.

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The use of temporary, part-time, or agency nurses

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has not been demonstrated to be an effective method of increasing nurse retention.

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Hiring more part-time employees and the use of "float" nurses

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the novice nurse has a positive image of nursing that coincides with the reason for becoming a nurse; this feeling is experienced immediately after the nurse begins work and often while still in orientation. During the honeymoon phase, the novice nurse has not yet been faced with complicated tasks that he or she feels uncomfortable or incompetent to perform. The novice nurse lacks confidence in himself or herself. Although becoming more organized and improving communication is part of resolving the shock phase, the novice should focus on positive accomplishments and should remember that a nurse cannot learn everything in school—many skills are learned after graduation. Expectations of new graduates are often unrealistic.

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honeymoon phase

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the novice nurse is overwhelmed by fear and a sense of incompetence. During this phase, there is inconsistency with what was learned in school and the work environment, and the novice nurse lacks many of the skills needed to be independent in this new role. ***novice nurses must ask themselves what they must do to become the type of nurse envisioned and to make a contribution.***

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shock or rejection phase

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the novice nurse regains some confidence and begins to heal.

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recovery phase

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the novice nurse has adjusted to the work environment and can work through change.

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resolution phase

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comes with gaining confidence, which is the issue faced by the graduate.

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"Fitting in"

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include extreme fatigue, headaches, difficulty sleeping, mood swings, anxiety, poor work quality, depression, and anger. ***more common among nurses with type A personalities and those who are overachievers.***

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Symptoms of burnout

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and retaining friendships outside the work environment can reduce stress, thus reducing the likelihood of burnout. The novice nurse lacks proficiency, which may be exaggerated by feelings of being overwhelmed by the new environment, causing him or her to not get the facts before asking for help.

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Prioritizing obligations

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are based on meeting existing criteria rather than on knowing how the outcome was achieved.

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Outcomes

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This step represents the school environment in which steps are performed on the basis of sound rationales.

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"determining whether steps are logical"

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This step represents the school environment evaluation, which stems from the "correct step" aspect.

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"formulating increments in correct order"

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This step represents the school environment, in which each step is evaluated, rather than indicating the overall outcome. The experienced nurse knowingly enters into a relationship to advocate for and to enhance the self-esteem of the novice nurse.

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"appraising outcomes according to policy"

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requires an interactive process.

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Mentoring

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is usually a short-term relationship.

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A preceptorship

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is the desired outcome of mentoring but not of actual interactions.

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Socialization

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is the most important step in time management. This allows people to better use their time and can lead to closure in relation to those goals that will produce the greatest internal satisfaction.

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Planning

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is giving other people tasks to be accomplished.

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Delegating

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1) assisting in developing the initiative, skills, knowledge, and competence of others; (2) maintaining the level of responsibility and decision making of others; (3) freeing time for more important tasks; (4) extending results that can be accomplished from what one person can do alone to what he or she can manage through others; and (5) ensuring that completing the task is cost effective.

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The benefits of delegation

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is evident when a person is faced with an unpleasant task, a difficult task, or a difficult decision. Usually procrastination is easily recognizable because it involves completing low-priority tasks rather than high-priority ones, and it always welcomes interruptions. The result consists of less productivity, less internal satisfaction, and increased stress.

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Procrastination

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means ensuring that the right amount of effort matches the right task so that outcomes can be optimized, while the amount of personal energy expended/taxed to achieve the desired result is gauged.

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Energy management

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is establishing superiority in rank, a preferential rating, or the state of "coming first" in order or ahead of others in a process by which that order will represent the execution of the raked items.

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Priority setting

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is the act of examining one's own thoughts and emotions by concentrating on the inner self

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Introspection

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is a time management obstacle that may occur if you are afraid of completing a project that is creative and fun. To overcome this obstacle, take the time to understand why you are not completing the task or major project that has been with you for some time.

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Fear of completion

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is the ability to maintain sustained concentration on a task, to move flexibly between broad and narrow issues, and to be internally and externally focused, as needed by the situation. It includes mental preparation, visualization, positive self-talk, effective time management, and creativity.

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Mental energy

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consists of the key components of successful transition to a productive, highly energizing experience by paying attention to physical energy through routine or proper eating, adequate sleep and exercise, and frequent breaks during long shifts, as well as by drinking plenty of water and focusing on one activity while collecting thoughts about what to prioritize next.

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Physical energy

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requires presence in a quiet place, often to help one identify his or her vision of life as well as purpose and direction.

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Spiritual energy

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is dependent on physical, mental, and spiritual energy for building emotional capacity.

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Emotional energy

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Managing emotions skillfully in the service of high positive energy and full engagement is called....

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emotional intelligence.

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The primary focus of the care provider's role is to

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use the nursing process in caring for patients.

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Advancing nursing practice through research is the role of the ___________. The basic premise is to ensure that outcomes in client care services are consistent with established standards.

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nurse researcher

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is responsible for coordinating clinical and administrative requirements for the patient. The ___________ also does not provide acute care patient education but coordinates care on an inter-professional plan.

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The coordinator

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is to emphasize to the patient health promotion and maintenance.

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The role of the counselor

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organizes screenings for employees, assesses the work environment for hazards, and teaches health-promoting activities.

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The occupational health nurse

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assess the total incidence of infections within the hospital.

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Infection control nurses

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deals with data management for decision making

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Informatics

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The role of the ___________ ____________ includes managing and processing health care information.

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informatics specialist

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includes coordination of resources to achieve the best outcomes based on quality, access, and cost.

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The role of the case manager

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includes teaching and does not include coordination of resources. A nurse functioning in this role helps patients understand the complications of their disease process.

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The educator role

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addresses the need for health care providers to assess opportunities for process improvement, to implement changes, and to measure outcomes.

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The quality manager

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provides direct services to clients and consults with and serves an expert witness for medical and law enforcement.

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The forensic nurse

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is to care for diverse clients in an autonomous practice while using the opportunity to apply advanced skills.

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The role of the flight nurse

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provides a decision on what level of care a client may need after performing telephone or physical assessment.

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A triage nurse

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is one who searches for possible alternatives regarding issues that involve patient care, safety, and motivation of the industry and who assesses cost-effective resources for use in health-related situations. The role of the ____________ consists of assessing health care delivery issues and creating solutions to improve health care delivery.

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A change agent

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does not provide education to patients, as the acute care nurse would. The manager is the one who assesses the need for staffing and must justify this in a substantial way.

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The nurse manager

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as related to member roles, involves members of many disciplines working together to provide patient care to a distinct population.

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Interprofessional

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