Clinical 1 Final Exam Review – Flashcards
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Which of the following is not classified as a classic vital sign?
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Sensorium
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How often should vital signs be recorded in a patient who is hospitalized but is not in intensive care?
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Every 4 to 6 hours
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Which of the following statements regarding vital signs is most accurate?
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Trends in vital signs are far more important than a single measurement.
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Which of the following statements best reflects the importance of comparing changes in vital signs?
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It allows detection of additional symptoms.
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When vital signs are compared with other signs and symptoms to arrive at a conclusion about what is wrong with a patient, this is known as the:
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differential diagnosis.
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If dehydration is suspected in a patient, which of the following parameters should be monitored often?
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Fluid intake and output
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A patient's general clinical presentation indicates to the respiratory therapist (RT) that the patient is in distress. The RT's first step should be to:
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evaluate the problem quickly and intervene or locate someone to assist the patient.
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A well-written description of an RT's initial observations is beneficial to other healthcare providers because it:
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helps them know how to plan care and relate to the patient's needs.
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Assessing the patient's level of consciousness is important because it:
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evaluates the adequacy of cerebral perfusion and oxygenation.
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Which of the following scales is the gold standard for assessing trends in the neurologic function of patients who have suffered head trauma?
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Glasgow scale
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The normal range for oral body temperature in most people is _____ to _____° F.
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97; 99.5
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Fever is defined as an:
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elevation of body temperature above normal because of disease.
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What is the most common cause of fever above 102° F?
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Infection
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For every elevation in body temperature of 1° C, oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production increase by approximately ____%.
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10
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Which of the following conditions causes hypothermia?
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Damage to the hypothalamus
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Which of the following is not considered a typical site for temperature measurement?
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Fingertip
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What site is used to measure body temperature in comatose patients?
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Rectal
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Which of the following is the method of choice for measuring temperature in neonates?
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Axillary
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Which of the following statements is true regarding oral temperature measurements?
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They are the most convenient to obtain and are most readily accepted by alert adults.
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What is the main advantage of tympanic thermometry over the classic forms of temperature measurement?
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It is fast, clean, and noninvasive.
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Which of the following reasons has been listed as the number one concern regarding use of the tympanic site for body temperature measurement?
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Accuracy
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The normal pulse rate range for adults is _____ beats/min.
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60 to 100
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A pulse rate above the normal range is the definition of which of the following terms?
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Tachycardia
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What is an important reason to monitor the heart rate in patients with lung disease?
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Tachycardia is a common finding when hypoxemia is present.
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Which of the following characteristics should be included in the assessment of a patient's pulse?
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Rate, rhythm, and strength
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Which of the following arteries is most appropriate for measuring the pulse of a patient with very low blood pressure?
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Femoral artery
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Which of the following terms is used to describe a significant decrease in pulse pressure during spontaneous inspiration?
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Pulsus paradoxus
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An alternating succession of strong and weak pulses that usually is not related to respiratory disease is known as pulsus:
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alternans
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A respiratory rate of greater than _____ breaths/min is considered abnormal at any age.
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60
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In postoperative patients, the degree of tachypnea typically is related to the degree of:
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atelectasis.
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Which of the following breathing patterns describes Kussmaul breathing?
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Fast and deep
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Bradypnea may be caused by which of the following?
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Hypothermia Narcotic overdose Head injury
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Which of the following techniques is not useful in measuring the respiratory rate in patients who are spontaneously breathing and alert?
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Ask the patient to breathe normally.
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The diastolic blood pressure is a reflection of:
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the pressure exerted during left ventricular relaxation.
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Which of the following is not true about pulse pressure?
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It is calculated from the 12-lead electrocardiographic printout.
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Which of the following organs is not at risk for disease in the presence of systemic hypertension?
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Pancreas
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Which of the following is not a cause of hypotension?
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Right heart failure
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When the blood pressure is measured, the sounds that are heard through the stethoscope between the systolic and diastolic pressures are known as _____ sounds.
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Korotkoff
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What is the most probable cause for the significant decrease in blood pressure that occurs during inhalation in some patients?
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Negative intrathoracic pressure that diminishes blood flow out of the left ventricle
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Which of the following conditions is not associated with the presence of pulsus paradoxus?
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Hypervolemia
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A 42-year-old male patient with a history of poorly controlled asthma is seen in the emergency department by the respiratory therapist (RT). The patient is seated in a chair and clearly is in extreme respiratory distress, with inspiratory and expiratory wheezing throughout. He reports that he has had a fever for the past 2 days and has eaten and drunk very little. He also reports some chest pain, and his blood pressure is 95/55 mm Hg. At one point, the patient stands to move from the chair to the stretcher and has an episode of syncope. The differential diagnosis for this patient should include all of the following except:
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Cerebrovascular accident (CVA; stroke).
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An RT attempts to take the blood pressure of the patient in question 42. The RT notes that the pulse intensity determined from palpation of the radial artery decreases during inspiration. The most likely explanation for this would be:
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an acute asthma exacerbation
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An RT is called to the emergency department on New Year's Eve to assist in the treatment of a 5-year-old child pulled from under the ice of a local pond. When the child arrives, he has been intubated and has a weak, irregularly irregular pulse of 55 beats/min, no spontaneous respiratory effort, and a body temperature of 30o C. The normal practice in this hospital is to use heat-moisture exchangers (HMEs) for all mechanically ventilated patients. Which of the following should the therapist suggest for the ventilator setup?
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Heated humidity in place of the HME
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An RT has just finished administering an aerosol treatment by a small-volume nebulizer to a patient who has a serious case of pneumonia. For the past 24 hours, the patient has had a fever of 39 to 40o C. Just as the therapist is finishing, a nursing aide comes in to record the vital signs. She uses an electronic thermometer to record an oral temperature of 36.5o C and comments to the patient, "Well, Mr. Jones, you must be getting better because your fever is completely gone." The therapist should:
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go to the nursing aide after she leaves the room and tell her that the temperature she recorded is probably not accurate and should be repeated.
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An RT is taking the blood pressure in the arm of a 12-year-old girl. The only sphygmomanometer available has a cuff in which the ends overlap slightly when it is inflated. The pressure that the RT records:
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should be accurate if the measurement is otherwise done properly.
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What structure in the body is responsible for regulating the body temperature?
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hypothalamus
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What is the most common cause of hypothermia?
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exposure to cold temperatures
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Which of the following sites is closest to core body temperature?
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rectal
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Which of the following is least likely to cause tachycardia?
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hypothermia
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What two factors determine cardiac output?
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stroke volume and heart rate
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Which of the following is a common cause of pulsus paradoxus?
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acute asthma attack
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Which of the following is NOT a common cause of tachypnea?
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narcotic overdose
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What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
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90-140 mmHg
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What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure in the adult patient?
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60-90 mm Hg
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What is the normal range for pulse pressure?
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30- 40 mm Hg
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Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the cause of systemic hypertension in adult patients?
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cause is often unknown
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Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypotension?
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mild tachycardia
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What artery is most often used to assess arterial blood pressure?
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brachial
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Why should the respiratory therapist perform a blood pressure assessment fairly quickly?
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The procedure cuts off blood flow to the forearm temporarily.
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Which of the following is/are advantages of the digital blood pressure measurement devices?
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reduce the risk of human error
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What is indicated by the presence of central cyanosis?
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respiratory failure
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What is the advantage of COPD patients breathing through pursed-lips during exhalation?
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promotes more complete emptying of the lungs
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Which of the following may cause the trachea to shift to the right?
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right upper lobe atelectasis
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What is the most common cause of jugular venous distention (JVD)?
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right-sided heart failure
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Which of the following is the least likely cause of lymphadenopathy in the neck?
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congestive heart failure
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Physiologic effects of hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy include all of the following except:
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systemic vasodilation
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Which of the following conditions can be treated with hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy? I. Carbon monoxide poisoning II. Septic shock III. Air embolism IV. Clostridial gangrene
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I, III, and IV
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What is the most common complication of hyperbaric oxygen therapy?
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Ear or sinus barotrauma
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Physiologic effects of inhaled nitric oxide (NO) include which of the following? I. Recruitment of collapsed alveoli II. Improved blood flow to ventilated alveoli III. Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance IV. Reduced intrapulmonary shunting
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II, III, and IV
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Which of the following is an indication for the use of helium-O2 mixtures?
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Large-airway obstruction
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A physician requests that you provide a patient with exactly 40% O2 at a flow of 60 L/min. Lacking a blender, you must manually mix air and O2 to achieve the desired mixture at the prescribed flow. Which of the following air and O2 flows would you select?
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45 15
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A 45-year-old patient with congestive heart failure is receiving O2 through a 35% air-entrainment mask. With an O2 input of 6 L/min, what is the total output gas flow?
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36 L/min
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You connect an intubated patient to an air-entrainment nebulizer system through a T tube set at 60% with an input flow of 15 L/min. Toward the middle of inspiration, you observe that mist stops exiting from the open end of the T tube. What does this indicate?
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Patient is not receiving 60% O2
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What is the maximum FiO2 expected to be delivered by most air-entrainment masks?
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50%
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To minimize the risk of retinopathy of prematurity (ROP), the American Academy of Pediatrics recommends keeping the PaO2 below what level?
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80 mm Hg
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Infection control is primarily concerned with which of the following? I. Preventing the spread of venereal diseases II. Disinfecting disposable hospital equipment III. Decontaminating reusable patient-care equipment IV. Preventing the spread of surface-borne pathogens
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I, III, and IV
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Which of the following is typically associated with tuberculosis?
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Mycobacterium
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An agent that destroys a pathogenic organism is best described as a:
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Germicide
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Sterilization differs from pasteurization in that sterilization destroys:
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All microbes
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Alcohols such as ethyl and isopropyl are unable to kill which of the following?
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Bacterial spores
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The household item that is useful for disinfection of respiratory home care equipment is which of the following?
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Vinegar
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To ensure that an autoclave is functioning properly, manufacturers routinely use which of the following: I. Pressure-sensitive tape II. Biological indicators III. Chemical indicators IV. Heat-sensitive tape
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II and IV only
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Which of the following is considered to be the most important infection control procedure for anyone having direct patient contact?
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Handwashing
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Droplet isolation precautions require all of the following except:
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Special air handling
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Which isolation precaution requires the patient to be placed in a separate room?
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Contact
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Which of the following terms is used for red blood cells?
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Erythrocytes
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Which of the following is a formed element found in circulating blood?
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platelets
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Which of the following terms is used for white blood cells?
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leukocytes
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Which of the following terms is used for blood platelets?
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thrombocytes
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What type of white blood cell typically is most prevalent in the circulating blood?
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neutrophil
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Which of the following terms describes the immature neutrophil?
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band
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Which of the following types of white blood cells fights bacterial infection?
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Neutrophil
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Which of the following types of white blood cells is useful against allergic reactions and defends against parasitic infestations?
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eosinophil
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Which of the following types of white blood cells exists as two types—the B cell and the T cell?
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Lymphocyte
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Which of the following types of white blood cells is physically the largest?
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Monocyte
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Which of the following types of white blood cells is responsible for phagocytosis?
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Monocyte
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Which of the following terms describes the change in white blood cell count that often occurs in patients with tuberculosis?
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Monocytosis
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Which of the following terms describes an overall abnormal decrease in white blood cell count?
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Leukopenia
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Which of the following types of leukocytosis is typically seen in patients with viral infection?
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Lymphocytosis
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What cells proliferate in patients with leukemia?
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Blasts
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What substance is responsible for carrying red blood cell oxygen on to the tissues?
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Hemoglobin
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What substance is a vital constituent of the heme portion of hemoglobin?
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Iron
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Which of the following terms describes an abnormal decrease in red blood cell count?
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anemia
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The most common type of anemia worldwide is the result of:
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Iron deficiency
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Heavy smokers are prone to what change in the red blood cell count?
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Secondary polycythemia
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What problem is associated with an abnormal international normalized ratio (INR) value?
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Bleeding
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Which of the following is considered the major cation of the extracellular fluid?
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sodium
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Which of the following symptoms is commonly seen with hyponatremia?
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Confusion
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What electrolyte abnormality is associated with irregular pulse, muscle weakness, and abdominal distention?
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Hypokalemia
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Elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels in the blood suggests what type of problem?
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Renal failure
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What disease is associated with elevations in sodium and chloride in sweat?
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cystic fibrosis
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During evaluation of the enzymes, what disorder is associated with elevation of the CK-MB on electrophoresis?
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myocardial infarction
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Hypoalbuminemia may result in what pulmonary problem?
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pulmonary edema
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The purpose of performing the sensitivity test on sputum samples is to:
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determine the antibiotic to prescribe
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Which of the following organisms is responsible for most cases of bacterial pneumonia?
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Streptococcus pneumoniae
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A practitioner forgets to ice an ABG sample and leaves it at room temperature for 45 min. Which of the following parameters can you predict will increase in this sample during that period? I. PCO2 II. pH III. PO2
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I
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When analyzing an ABG sample from a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome and refractory hypoxemia, you notice a PaO2 of 141 mm Hg and a PaCO2 of 14 mm Hg. Which of the following analytic errors should you suspect?
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Exposure of blood sample to air
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Which of the following changes would occur if an arterial blood sample of a patient breathing room air were exposed to a large air bubble? I. Decreased PCO2 II. Decreased pH III. Increased PO2
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I and III
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A PaO2 below what value would be considered moderate hypoxemia?
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55 mm Hg
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What is a normal level for CaO2?
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18 to 20 ml/100 ml
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To assess gas exchange at the tissues, you would obtain a blood sample from which of the following?
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Pulmonary artery (balloon-inflated)
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Under ideal conditions, electrochemical oxygen (O2) analyzers have approximately what degree of accuracy?
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2%
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How does the Clark polarographic O2 electrode function?
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It uses O2 to produce a reduction-oxidation reaction
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Which of the following is false about the galvanic fuel cell O2 analyzer?
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It requires an external power source (alternating current line or batteries).
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While checking a polarographic (Clark) electrode, you determine that the device fails to read 100% when exposed to pure O2. Which of the following actions would be the proper first step?
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replace the analyzers batteries
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What lung problem is ventilation/perfusion (mc001-1.jpg) scanning used to detect?
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Pulmonary embolism
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Which of the following structures will result in the most radiopaque shadow on the chest radiograph?
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ribs
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The right heart shadow is not visible on your patient's chest radiograph. Which of the following pathologies may explain this?
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right middle lobe pneumonia
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In which of the following situations is obtaining a chest radiograph least useful?
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When the static pressure drops by 2 cm H2O during CMV
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In what pulmonary condition does the chest radiograph often "lag behind" the clinical status of the patient?
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Pneumonia
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Which radiographic view of the chest allows the physician to read the best quality film?
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Posteroanterior
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Your patient just had an anteroposterior chest film taken. When you view the film, what may be a consideration?
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The heart may appear larger than it really is.
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What abnormality may appear to be present on the chest x-ray but is simply due to abnormal rotation of the patient during production of the film?
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Widened mediastinum
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What problem exists when interpreting an overexposed chest film?
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There is difficulty in seeing the peripheral blood vessels.
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In the standard posteroanterior chest film, the heart shadow should be less than what proportion of the chest width?
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50%
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Computed tomography (CT) scanning of the chest would be least useful for which of the following?
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To evaluate patients with asthma
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Which of the following diseases are typically evaluated using high-resolution CT? I. Emphysema II. Asthma III. Bronchiectasis IV. Interstitial lung disease
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I, III, and IV
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CT angiography is most often used to evaluate the patient for which of the following conditions?
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Pulmonary emboli
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Which of the following is a major limitation of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the chest?
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Cannot be used in patients with pacemakers
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Which of the following structures in the chest is typically examined using MRI? I. Lung parenchyma II. Hilar structures III. Large vessels in the lung IV. Structures in the mediastinum
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II, III, and IV
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Which of the following statements is false regarding the use of ultrasound to image the chest?
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It is useful to image lung tissue.
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Blunting of the costophrenic angles seen on the posteroanterior or lateral chest film typically indicates:
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excess pleural fluid.
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Which chest x-ray view is best used to identify excess pleural fluid?
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Lateral decubitus
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What is the earliest sign of a left-sided pleural effusion on an upright chest radiograph?
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An increased distance between the inferior margin of the left lung and the stomach gas bubble
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An air-fluid level in the pleural space typically indicates
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hydropneumothorax
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What is the primary indication for tracheal suctioning?
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Retention of secretions
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What is the most common complication of suctioning?
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hypoxemia
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Complications of tracheal suctioning include which of the following? I. Bronchospasm II. Hyperinflation III. Mucosal trauma IV. Elevated intracranial pressure
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I, III and IV
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How often should patients be suctioned?
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when physical findings support the need
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What is the normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning an adult patient?
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-100 to -150 mm Hg
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What is the normal range of negative pressure to use when suctioning children?
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-100 to -120 mm Hg
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You are about to suction a 10-year-old patient who has a 6-mm (internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. What is the maximum size of catheter that you would use in this case?
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10 Fr
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You are about to suction a female patient who has an 8-mm (internal diameter) endotracheal tube in place. What is the maximum size of catheter you would use in this case?
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14 Fr
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To prevent hypoxemia when suctioning a patient, the respiratory care practitioner should initially do which of the following?
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Preoxygenate the patient with 100% oxygen.
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To maintain positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) and high FiO2 when suctioning a mechanically ventilated patient, what would you recommend?
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Use a closed-system multiuse suction catheter.
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Auscultation of the chest over a pneumothorax would most likely reveal
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diminished breath sounds
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an RT osculates a patients chest over the major airways and identifies the presence of diffuse wheezing. this would indicate which of the following?
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bronchospasm
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while the RT osculates a patients chest the patient repeats the words one two three. an increase in vocal clarity and intensity is noted in the right lower lobe compared to the other lung fields, which most likely indicates
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consolidation
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digital clubbing can be most easily assessed by
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inspecting the angulation of the nail bed
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while interviewing a patient prior to starting therapy, an RT notices that the patient arouses easily and responds appropriately. This information will help the therapist determine the patients
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level of consciousness
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a patient receiving o2 therapy with a nasal cannula and o2 concentrator needs a delivery system to use when outside of the home for short periods of time, what should they recommend?
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E cylinder
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which of the following allows immediate determination of the lowest FiO2 needed to achieve satisfactory oxygenation?
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pulse ox
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which of the following is the best device to administer a controlled oxygen concentration for a patient who has a tidal volume of 500 mL and a respiratory rate that fluctuates between 12 and 25/min
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air entrainment mask
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a respiratory therapist notices frequent build-up of liquid in the large- bore aerosol tubing during oxygen delivery by heated aerosol mask to a trach collar. which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
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the temperature of the inspired gas is too high
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which of the following is the most effective in destroying all microorganisms?
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ethylene oxide
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which of the following agents is appropriate to recommend for use in the cleaning of home respiratory equipment?
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acetic acid (vinegar)
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which of the following is the best method to monitor equipment sterilization?
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biologic indicators
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during an aerosol treatment with albuterol, a patient complains of dizziness and lightheadedness. the patients pulse increases from 70 to 85 ppm during the treatment. which of the following notes should be recorded in the patients chart?
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I. the patient was instructed to breathe more slowly during therapy II. the reaction was most likely a result of increase respiratory rate and depth during therapy III. the nurse was notified of the patients response to therapy
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a 20 year old asthma patient is receiving .5 mL of albuterol and 4 mL normal saline by hand held nebulizer. During treatment the patient complains of tremors and palpitations. which of the following should the RT recommend?
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decrease the amount of ventolin to .25 mL
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an RT is administering a neb treatment of .3 mL albuterol. the patients heart rate increases from 110 to 140 5 minutes after the treatment is started. which of the following should the therapist do?
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terminate treatment and monitor the patients heart rate
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Which of the following is the best aerosolized bronchodilator for a patient with an acute asthma attack?
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albuterol (proventil)
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a RT notes vesicular sounds throughout the periphery of the lung during auscultation, which should be documented in the chart?
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normal breath sounds
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activity of respiratory accessory muscles most likely indicates
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increased airway resistance
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a physiologic goal of CPAP in atelectasis is to increase
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functional residual capacity
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common complications associated with arterial punctures include which of the following?
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hematoms formation and spasm of the vessel
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which of the following id indicated by a popping of whistling sound when the water bottle of a humidifier is tested by obstructing the gas outlet with the finger?
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expected function
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which of the following best reflects the adequacy of ventilation?
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PaCO2
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which of the following most consistently delivers the highest water vapor content to a patients airway?
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heated wick
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which of the following is a high flow oxygen delivery system in which the gas flow of the apparatus is sufficient to meet all inspiratory flow requirements of a patient?
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24% air entrainment mask
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a 44 year old patient present to the ED with diabetic ketoacidosis. which of the following respiratory patterns is most consistent with this diagnosis?
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rapid, deep breathing
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which of the following is an indication for an oropharyngeal airway?
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prevention of upper airway obstruction in an unconscious patient
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a gas is saturated with 100% relative humidity at 32.2 degrees celsius. as the gas cools to 26.7 degrees celsius the relative humidity will
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remain 100% and excess water will rain out
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while performing postural drainage on a patient who is in a head down position, the patient appears dyspneic due to severe prolonged coughing. the RT should
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place the patient in semi-fowlers postion
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three days postoperatively a patient is febrile and the white blood cell count is 18,000. a chest XR shows patchy infiltrates with air bronchograms. which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
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pneumonia
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activity of respiratory muscles most likely indicates
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increased airway resistance
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which of the following are indications of sudden upper airway obstruction?
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retraction of intercostal spaces, panic, marked use of accessory muscles of ventilation
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which of the following devices can provide the greatest total fluid output?
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ultrasonic nebulizer
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a patient is receiving chest percussion, lung expansion therapy and directed coughing to treat obstructive atelectasis. which of the following should the RT do to assess responses to care?
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chest radiograph
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the purpose of cleaning and sterilizing non disposable respiratory care equipment after each use is to
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prevent cross infection and reinfection of patients
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during initial assessment of a patient with a closed head injury, the patient opens his eyes only in response to painful stimuli. on a follow up exam, patient opens on verbal commands
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the level of consciousness is increased
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a patient who is oxygen dependent travels using an e cylinder, he carries the are in the trunk of his car. Rt should inform the patient he should
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secure the spare cylinder in the back seat
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patient says "i seem to breathe fast and lift my shoulders a lot, but i feel like i am getting enough air." therapist can conclude that the patient likely has
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increased work of breathing
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which of the following devices should be used to deliver a 70% helium/ 30% oxygen mixture most effectively to a patient?
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nonrebreathing mask
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while evaluating a patient for bronchodilator therapy a respiratory therapist notes that the patient does not respond to verbal commands. has no cough or gag reflexes. conclude
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patient is comatose
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Which of the following autonomic or protective neural responses represent potential hazards of emergency airway management? I. Hypotension II. Bradycardia III. Cardiac arrhythmias IV. Laryngospasm
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I, II , III and IV
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Which of the following indicate an inability to adequately protect the airway?I I. Wheezing II. Coma III. Lack of gag reflex IV. Inability to cough
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2 3 4
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Which of the following types of artificial airways are inserted through the larynx? I. Pharyngeal airways II. Tracheostomy tubes III. Nasotracheal tubes IV. Orotracheal tubes
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2 and 4
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Compared with the nasal route, the advantages of oral intubation include which of the following? I. Reduced risk of kinking II. Less retching and gagging III. Easier suctioning IV. Less traumatic insertion
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1 3 4
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Compared with the oral route, the advantages of nasal intubation include which of the following? I. Reduced risk of kinking II. Less retching and gagging III. Less accidental extubation IV. Greater long-term comfort
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2 3 4
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Compared with translaryngeal intubation, the advantages of tracheostomy include which of the following? I. Greater patient comfort II. Reduced risk of bronchial intubation III. No upper airway complications IV. Decreased frequency of aspiration
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1 2 3
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What is the standard size for endotracheal or tracheostomy tube adapters?
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15 mm external diameter
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What is the purpose of the additional side port (Murphy eye) on most modern endotracheal tubes?
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Ensure gas flow if the main port is blocked.
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What is the purpose of a cuff on an artificial tracheal airway?
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To seal off and protect the lower airway
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What is the purpose of the pilot balloon on an endotracheal or a tracheostomy tube?
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to monitor cuff status and pressure
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Total application time for endotracheal suction in adults should not exceed which of the following?
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10 to 15 seconds
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While suctioning a patient, you observe an abrupt change in the electrocardiogram waveform being displayed on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
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stop suctioning and immediately administer oxygen
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Which of the following methods can help to reduce the likelihood of atelectasis due to tracheal suctioning? I. Limit the amount of negative pressure used. II. Hyperinflate the patient before and after the procedure. III. Suction for as short a period of time as possible.
answer
I, II and III
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Which of the following can help to minimize the likelihood of mucosal trauma during suctioning? I. Use as large a catheter as possible. II. Rotate the catheter while withdrawing. III. Use as rigid a catheter as possible. IV. Limit the amount of negative pressure.
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II and IV
question
Absolute contraindication for nasotracheal suctioning includes which of the following? I. Epiglottitis II. Croup III. Irritable airway
answer
I and II
question
Which of the following equipment is needed to perform nasotracheal suctioning?
answer
I, III and IV
question
After repeated nasotracheal suctioning over 2 days, a patient with retained secretions develops minor bleeding through the nose. Which of the following actions would you recommend?
answer
Stop the bleeding and use a nasopharyngeal airway for access.
question
Before the suctioning of a patient, auscultation reveals coarse breath sounds during both inspiration and expiration. After suctioning, the coarseness disappears, but expiratory wheezing is heard over both lung fields. What is most likely the problem?
answer
The patient has hyperactive airways and has developed bronchospasm.
question
What general condition requires airway management? I. Airway compromise II. Respiratory failure III. Need to protect the airway
answer
I, II and III
question
Which of the following conditions require emergency tracheal intubation? I. Upper airway or laryngeal edema II. Loss of protective reflexes III. Cardiopulmonary arrest IV. Traumatic upper airway obstruction
answer
I, II, II and IV
question
What size endotracheal tube would you select to intubate an adult female?
answer
7 mm
question
What is the purpose of an endotracheal tube stylet?
answer
It adds rigidity and shape to ease insertion.
question
To make oral intubation easier, how should the patient's head and neck be positioned?
answer
Neck flexed, with head supported by towel and tilted back
question
What should be the maximum time devoted to any intubation attempt?
answer
30 sec
question
Which of the following statements are true about methods used to displace the epiglottis during oral intubation? I. Regardless of the blade used, the laryngoscope is lifted up and forward. II. The curved (MacIntosh) blade lifts the epiglottis indirectly. III. The straight (Miller) blade lifts the epiglottis directly. IV. Levering the laryngoscope against the teeth can aid displacement.
answer
I, II and III
question
During oral intubation of an adult, the endotracheal tube should be advanced into the trachea about how far?
answer
Until its cuff has passed the cords
question
Immediately after insertion of an oral endotracheal tube on an adult, what should you do? I. Stabilize it with your right hand. II. Inflate the tube cuff. III. Provide ventilation or oxygenation.
answer
1 2 3
question
Ideally, the distal tip of a properly positioned endotracheal tube (in an adult man) should be positioned approximately how far above the carina?
answer
2 to 4 cm
question
Which of the following bedside methods can absolutely confirm proper endotracheal tube position in the trachea?
answer
Fiberoptic laryngoscopy
question
What is the average distance from the tip of a properly positioned oral endotracheal tube to the incisors of an adult man?
answer
21 to 23 cm