CHPTER 14 – Flashcard
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1) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis? A) bacteria in the human colon B) tapeworm in the human intestine C) tuberculosis in the human lung D) protozoa in termites E) microbes passing across the placenta to the fetus
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E
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2) Mutualism is a relationship A) that sometimes provides benefits for both members such that one or both parties cannot live without the other. B) where only one member derives benefit from the other. C) where one member of the relationship may kill the other. D) where one member of the relationship benefits without hurting the other. E) where it is hard to prove the benefits or disadvantages one member of the relationship may provide for the other.
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A
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3) A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as A) commensalism. B) mutualism. C) parasitism. D) both commensalism and parasitism. E) a nonsymbiotic relationship.
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B
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4) The fungus Pneumocystis jiroveci is found in the lungs of most people in low numbers, but in immunocompromised people it overgrows, resulting in severe respiratory problems. The fungus is best described as A) a parasite. B) resident microbiota. C) a mutualist symbiotic partner. D) transient microbiota. E) both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.
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E
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5) Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent? A) mucous membrane portal B) parenteral route C) skin portal D) contact E) fomite
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B
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6) Symptoms are A) subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel. B) objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured. C) objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others. D) characteristics of a disease, such as sweating. E) laboratory tests used to diagnose a disease.
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A
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7) Axenic systems of the body include A) the nasal cavity. B) the mouth. C) the urethra. D) the kidneys. E) the conjunctiva of the eye.
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D
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8) In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease? A) A pathogen crosses from the mother to the fetus by way of the placenta. B) A pathogen is introduced into the body when the person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal cavity by way of tears. C) A person is bitten by a mosquito that carries the malaria parasite. D) Fungi digest the outer layer of the skin. E) A person receives an injection with a contaminated needle.
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B
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9) Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE? A) The suspect agent must be present in all cases of disease. B) The suspect agent must cause the disease under investigation when introduced into a susceptible host organism. C) The suspect agent must be isolated and cultured in the laboratory. D) It must be possible to reisolate the suspect agent from the infected experimental host. E) The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.
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E
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10) Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota? A) The baby acquires the residential microbiota in the colon after the first meal. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis is transferred from the hospital staff to the newborn after delivery. C) Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy. D) Microorganisms grow in the respiratory tract after the baby's first breath. E) Microbes enter the nose and mouth when the baby is in the birth canal.
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C
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11) Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens? A) growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin B) growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine C) treatment of a cancer patient with radiation D) growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth E) presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the sigmoid colon
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C
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12) Which of the following is considered part of the indigenous microbiota of the female reproductive system? A) Candida B) Lactobacillus C) E. coli D) Bacteroides E) both Candida and Lactobacillus
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E
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13) Which of the following is an example of an exotoxin? A) neurotoxins B) coagulase C) lipid A D) streptokinase E) collagenase
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A
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14) Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body? A) coagulase B) enterotoxin C) hemolysin D) hyaluronidase E) coagulase and hemolysin
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D
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15) Which of the following stages of an infectious disease is the most severe? A) the incubation period B) the prodromal period C) the illness period D) the decline period E) the convalescence period
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C
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16) Which of the following is transmitted by the parenteral route? A) ringworm B) warts C) gonorrhea D) yellow fever E) cutaneous anthrax
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D
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17) Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission? A) cockroach transmission of Shigella B) mosquito transmission of Plasmodium C) flea transmission of Yersinia D) tsetse fly transmission of Trypanosoma E) louse transmission of Rickettsia
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A
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18) Which of the following is a sign of disease? A) headache B) dizziness C) fever D) nausea E) cramps
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C
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19) A nosocomial disease is a disease acquired A) by being bitten by an infected insect. B) by eating contaminated food. C) by using a contaminated needle. D) in a health care facility. E) by having unprotected sexual intercourse
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D
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20) Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as A) iatrogenic infections. B) exogenous infections. C) opportunistic infections. D) endogenous infections. E) subacute infections.
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A
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21) Which of the following is a major source of disease transmission in the world? A) contaminated fomites B) fecal-oral infection C) waterborne transmission D) foodborne transmission E) bodily fluid transmission
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B
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22) Acne is an example of a A) contagious disease. B) subacute disease. C) chronic disease. D) noncommunicable disease. E) latent disease.
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D
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23) In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza ("swine flu") in the United States. By the summer, the number of confirmed cases was reported as over 40,000. The pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) __________ disease. A) epidemic B) endemic C) sporadic D) pandemic E) opportunistic
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A
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24) The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases. This means A) 12.43 in every 100,000 people in the United States had tuberculosis in the year 2000. B) 12.43 of every 100,000 people died of tuberculosis in the U.S. in the year 2000. C) there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the United States in the year 2000. D) there were 12.43 tubercle bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the United States in the year 2000. E) 12.43 of every 100,000 cases of tuberculosis were treated in the United States in the year 2000.
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C
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25) The index case is the first case of a disease A) identified in a given area or population. B) in a given area or population resulting in patient death. C) in a given area or population in which the patient recovers. D) transmitted to another individual in a given area or population. E) to be successfully treated in a given area or population.
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A
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26) In the wake of the cyclone that hit Myanmar (Southeast Asia) in 2008, there were widespread reports of typhoid fever. Which of the following was the most likely mode of transmission? A) mosquitoes B) aerosols C) contact D) contaminated water E) flies
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D
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27) Which of the following types of epidemiology applies Koch's postulates to study a disease? A) experimental epidemiology B) descriptive epidemiology C) analytical epidemiology D) systemic epidemiology E) retrospective epidemiology
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A
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28) Aerosols may be involved in __________ transmission of pathogens. A) droplet B) direct C) vector D) fecal-oral E) waterborne
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A
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29) Fomites are A) insects that transmit pathogens from an infected host to a noninfected host. B) inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens. C) fecal material from infected hosts. D) animal sources for human pathogens. E) silent carriers of infectious diseases.
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B
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30) Which of the following pairings of microbe and disease was DISPROVEN using Koch's postulates? A) HIV and AIDS B) Mycobacterium leprae and leprosy C) Hepatitis B and D and liver cancer D) Varicella-zoster virus and chickenpox E) Haemophilus influenzae and the flu
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E
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31) Which of the following is NOT an example of a zoonosis? A) typhus B) rabies C) typhoid fever D) salmonellosis E) anthrax
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C
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32) Which of the following is the correct sequence of a disease process? A) convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline B) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline C) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline D) incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence E) illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline
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D
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33) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of vehicle transmission of a pathogen? A) via animals B) via air C) via drinking water D) via food E) via body fluid
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A
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34) Clostridium difficile is the causative agent of A) pseudomembranous colitis. B) botulism. C) tetanus. D) cholera. E) bed sores.
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A
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35) Which of the following combinations of pathogen and virulence factor is correct? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and endotoxin B) Streptococcus pyogenes and protein M C) Staphylococcus aureus and neurotoxin D) Gram-positive bacteria and lipid A E) Escherichia coli and cytotoxin
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B
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36) A pathogen is best described as A) a microorganism that remains with the person throughout life. B) any microorganism that causes disease. C) an organism that remains in the body for a short time. D) a microorganism that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. E) a source of microbial contamination.
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B
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37) Microbes known as transient microbiota are A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life. B) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. C) organisms that remain in the body for a short time. D) unsuccessful microbial invaders because of the presence of preexisting microbes. E) sources of microbial contamination.
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C
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38) Opportunistic microorganisms are A) a source of microbial contamination. B) organisms that remain in the body for a short time. C) any microorganism that causes disease. D) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. E) organisms that remain in the body for a short time and cause disease.
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D
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39) Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life. B) any microorganisms that cause disease. C) organisms that remain in the body for a short time. D) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances. E) microorganisms that never cause disease.
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A
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40) The condition known as mutualism is A) a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed. B) a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other. C) a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit. D) an environment that is free of microbes. E) a relationship in which two organisms coexist only for a short time.
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C
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41) Commensalism is best described as A) an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. B) a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed. C) a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit. D) a relationship in which a microorganism causes disease. E) a source of contamination.
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B
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42) The condition called parasitism is characterized as A) a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed. B) a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit. C) a nonsymbiotic relationship. D) an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. E) a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.
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E
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43) An axenic environment is one A) in which microorganisms remain with the person throughout life. B) that is free of microbes. C) that is a source of contamination. D) in which microorganisms remain present only for a short time. E) contaminated by microbial toxins.
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B
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44) The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as A) microorganisms that remain with a person throughout life. B) a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other. C) a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits. D) an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes. E) a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.
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D
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45) A reservoir is A) a source of microbial contamination. B) an environment that is free of microbes. C) any microorganism that causes disease. D) a condition in which organisms remain in the body for a short time. E) a source of microbes for laboratory testing.
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A
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1) In commensalism, one member of the relationship harms the other.
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B
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2) Normal microbiota may cause disease if they are introduced into an unusual site in the body.
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A
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3) A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a particular disease.
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A
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4) All diseases go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness.
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B
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5) Fomites cause disease by direct contact.
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B
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6) A common cold is an example of a chronic disease.
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B
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7) Infection from a mosquito bite is an example of the parenteral route of transmission.
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T
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8) An antiphagocytic factor is one that permits pathogens to avoid attack by macrophages.
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A
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9) Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen.
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B
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10) An infection always leads to disease.
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B
