Chapter 3-6 - Flashcards | StudyHippo.com

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1) An ongoing state of physiological arousal in response to ongoing or numerous perceived threats is

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chronic stress.

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2) An example of a tangible stressor is

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a confrontation with an angry coworker.

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3) A school examination is an example of a(n)

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stressor.

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4) The physiological state in which the body's systems are functioning normally is known as

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homeostasis.

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4) The physiological state in which the body's systems are functioning normally is known as

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acute stress.

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6) An example of an event that is likely to be associated with eustress is

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getting a promotion at work.

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7) Debilitating tension and strain are associated with negative stress, also known as

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distress.

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8) Physiological responses such as increased heart rate and blood pressure occur in response to stress during which stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

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Alarm

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9) The reaction that occurs in our bodies when we perceive danger is the

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fight-or-flight response.

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10) The function of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is to

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return the body to a state of homeostasis.

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11) You are speeding down the highway and see the flashing lights of a police car in your rearview mirror. Your heart begins to pound as you slow down, but the police car passes you in pursuit of someone else. Your physical reaction occurs at which stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

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Alarm

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12) Which part of the nervous system is responsible for triggering the release of stress hormones?

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Sympathetic nervous system

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13) Sasha wakes up suddenly when she hears a strange noise. After a few moments, she realizes that the noise was caused by her cat jumping up on her dresser and not an intruder. Which part of Sasha's nervous system is responsible for slowing the body functions that were stimulated by her stress response?

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Parasympathetic nervous system

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13) Sasha wakes up suddenly when she hears a strange noise. After a few moments, she realizes that the noise was caused by her cat jumping up on her dresser and not an intruder. Which part of Sasha's nervous system is responsible for slowing the body functions that were stimulated by her stress response?

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Hypothalamus

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15) As part of the stress response, the hormone epinephrine is released. What are some of the changes that are triggered in the body due to its release?

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Heart and respiratory rates increase

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16) Common physical effects of unresolved stress include

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cardiovascular disease and weight gain.

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17) What is the function of cortisol during the stress response?

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It mobilizes nutrients to be available for energy.

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18) Carrying a heavy course load, working at a demanding part-time job, and having ongoing conflicts with her roommate resulted in Jana becoming so mentally and physically drained that she ended up in the hospital. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome had she reached?

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Exhaustion

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19) The 2011 Stress in America survey reported which two concerns to be the leading causes of stress in American adults?

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Money and work issues

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20) Tiffany has been under a great deal of stress during the past year and has experienced unexplained weight gain. Which of the following hormones may be linked to her weight gain?

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Cortisol

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21) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of long-term stress?

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Long-term stress can lead to cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and weight gain.

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22) Steps you can take to reduce stress include

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exercising regularly and learning to laugh at life's ups and downs.

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23) Increased plaque build-up in the arteries and increased blood pressure can indicate a direct relationship between stress and

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cardiovascular disease.

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24) When the body's stress response is activated, which of the following occurs?

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Blood-clotting ability increases.

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25) According to studies in psychoneuroimmunology, how does long-term stress affect immunity?

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Long-term stress impairs the body's ability to fight infection.

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26) Stress created by overuse of technology and the constant state of connection is known as

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technostress.

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27) Misplacing your cell phone, spilling coffee all over yourself as you are trying to get out the door, and then missing the bus are examples of

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hassles.

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28) Environmental stressors of which people are often unaware are

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background distressors.

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29) You just realized that you must take two extra courses this quarter and get straight A's if you want to go to law school. This situation is an example of

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pressure.

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30) Susan was anxious about making a presentation at work. In an effort to overcome her anxiety, she practiced her presentation in front of several friends. This is an example of

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stress inoculation.

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31) A student who gets good grades, is president of her sorority, and works 25 hours a week at her job would likely be experiencing stress due to

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overload.

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32) Telogen effluvium and alopecia areata are two stress-related conditions that result in

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hair loss.

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33) Feeling extremely burdened by the demands made on us is a state known as

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overload.

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34) Among college students, stress related to academic performance is often associated with

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more frequent upper respiratory tract infections.

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35) Megan's neighbor plays her stereo so loudly that Megan cannot concentrate. The loud music is an example of which type of distressor?

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Background

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36) Low self-esteem and low self-efficacy are which type of stressors?

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Internal

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37) Selena and Lucy are servers in the same restaurant. Selena finds the job stimulating and enjoys the fast pace. Lucy, on the other hand, finds the work stressful and exhausting. Which internal factor explains their different perceptions?

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Appraisal

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38) Being quick to anger, distrusting others, and having a cynical attitude are toxic characteristics of which personality type?

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Type A

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39) Which of the following best describes a Type C personality?

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Stoic

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40) Joe is an overachieving sales manager who puts a lot of pressure on his employees. When his sales team doesn't perform up to his expectations, he often confronts them, criticizing their performance and threatening to fire them. He accuses them of trying to make him appear incompetent to his boss. Which component of Joe's personality most increases his risk for cardiovascular disease?

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Hostility

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41) Alyssa is a hard-driven perfectionist who finds her fast-paced job in marketing to be enjoyable and rewarding. She has high self-esteem and takes responsibilities for her mistakes. Which of the following attributes best protect Allison from developing cardiovascular disease?

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She has psychological hardiness.

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42) Effective coping strategies that can help alleviate daily stress include

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being realistic and managing your time.

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42) Effective coping strategies that can help alleviate daily stress include

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express it constructively.

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44) Stress among college students is associated with

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lack of physical activity and substance abuse.

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45) An effective way to avoid overcommitment is to

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say "No" in a kind but firm manner.

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46) A corporate executive takes an early retirement from his high-stress city job and moves to a small rural community. He takes up painting again after 30 years and sells his work at weekend art fairs. This is an example of

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downshifting.

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47) Relaxation techniques are used for stress management because they

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calm anxiety and improve coping skills.

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47) Relaxation techniques are used for stress management because they

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prioritizing your tasks and doing one thing at a time.

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49) Creating pleasant mental images that promote relaxation is a technique known as

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visualization.

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50) Regular exercise helps in stress management by

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raising endorphin levels and improving mood.

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51) T/F? Both eustress and distress can trigger the fight-or-flight response.

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TRUE

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52) T/F? At the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the body achieves complete calm.

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FALSE

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53) T/F? Katya is afraid of public speaking, but Jim is not. However, both will have the same stress response when they deliver a speech to a large audience.

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FALSE

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54) T/F? The body's stress response can be triggered by a dangerous situation that is completely imaginary.

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TRUE

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55) T/F? Chronic stress may cause weight gain.

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TRUE

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56) T/F? The parasympathetic nervous system initiates the body's fight-or-flight response.

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FALSE

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57) T/F? Extreme stress may cause hair loss.

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TRUE

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58) T/F? The pituitary gland functions as control center of the sympathetic nervous system, directing the body's stress response.

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FALSE

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59) T/F? ACTH signals the adrenal glands to release the hormone cortisol as part of the stress response.

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TRUE

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60) T/F? A tangible stressor is a thought or fear that initiates a stress response.

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FALSE

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61) T/F? Stress has been identified as one of the key modifiable risk factors for heart attack.

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TRUE

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62) T/F? A person with a high stress level has an increased risk for hypertension and cardiovascular disease.

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TRUE

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63) T/F? T/F? A person with a high stress level has an increased risk for hypertension and cardiovascular disease.

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TRUE

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64) T/F? Consistently elevated stress hormone levels decrease the immune system's ability to fight infections.

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TRUE

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65) T/F? Anger is often the result of frustrations, resentments, perceived threats, or unmet expectations.

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TRUE

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66) T/F? In the long run, minor hassles are never as stressful as major life changes.

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FALSE

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67) T/F? College students suffering from overload have a good chance of performing well on tests because they are used to dealing with high-pressure situations.

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FALSE

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68) T/F? Health care professionals who work long hours are particularly prone to stress, overload, and burnout.

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TRUE

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69) T/F? Students from other countries who attend college in the United States without a strong social support network will likely experience more stress-related illnesses than American students.

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TRUE

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70) T/F? Experiencing discrimination due to race, nationality, age, religious beliefs, or sexual orientation is not a significant stressor because it will strengthen an individual's coping skills.

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FALSE

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71) T/F? T/F? Experiencing discrimination due to race, nationality, age, religious beliefs, or sexual orientation is not a significant stressor because it will strengthen an individual's coping skills.

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TRUE

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72) T/F? When people use cognitive restructuring, they focus on learning to manage stress by modifying how they think and talk to themselves.

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TRUE

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73) T/F? People who are Type A personalities can incorporate stress management and coping strategies to learn to handle stressful situations more like Type Bs.

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TRUE

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74) T/F? Psychological hardiness is a desirable trait that involves having a sense of control, commitment, and the ability to thrive on challenge.

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TRUE

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75) T/F? Utilizing a variety of technological devices reduces a person's stress levels because it allows for constant access to friends and work- or school-related issues.

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FALSE

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76) T/F? By simplifying his or her life, a process also known as "downshifting," a person can experience less stress and pressure.

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TRUE

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77) T/F? Suppressing anger can be as unhealthy as expressing it aggressively.

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TRUE

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78) T/F? Exercise can "burn off" the stress hormones that would otherwise have deleterious psychological and physiological effects.

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TRUE

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79) T/F? T/F? Exercise can "burn off" the stress hormones that would otherwise have deleterious psychological and physiological effects.

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FALSE

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80) T/F? Meditation stimulates the sympathetic nervous system to promote relaxation.

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FALSE

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81) T/F? The sympathetic nervous system slows body systems as part of recovery from the stress response.

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FALSE

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82) T/F? The peripheral nervous system regulates body functions that are not under conscious control.

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FALSE

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83) T/F? Cortisol is the hormone that makes stored nutrients available for energy as part of the stress response.

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TRUE

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84) T/F? The hypothalamus is the gland that secretes ACTH.

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FALSE

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85) T/F? As part of the stress response, the adrenal glands release the hormone epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, which stimulates various body functions.

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TRUE

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86) T/F? The balance or equilibrium of all body systems is known as homeostasis.

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TRUE

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87) T/F? T/F? The balance or equilibrium of all body systems is known as homeostasis.

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FALSE

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88) T/F? Massage therapy has been shown to offer some relaxation benefits, but studies show that it has no real benefit in stress management.

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FALSE

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89) T/F? Allostatic load is the wear and tear on the body caused by prolonged or excessive stress responses.

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TRUE

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90) T/F? Coping is the process of managing situations or conditions to lessen the physical or psychological effects of excess stress.

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TRUE

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1) The key to resolving conflict in a relationship is

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having open and honest communication with your partner.

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2) The characteristic of intimate relationships that causes feelings of love is

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emotional attachment.

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3) A man loses his wife of 30 years. He feels empty and misses her presence in his daily life. The component of intimacy that he has lost is

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behavioral interdependence.

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4) Phoebe and Dwight are close friends who share their worries and concerns. Which characteristic of intimate relationships does this reflect?

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Need fulfillment

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4) Phoebe and Dwight are close friends who share their worries and concerns. Which characteristic of intimate relationships does this reflect?

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intimacy.

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6) Kayla and Emily are best friends. They know they can depend on each other to listen to their worries and problems. Which relationship need is being met by their friendship?

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Social integration

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7) Intimate relationships cannot exist without

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emotional availability.

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8) Inez reminds Leo often that he is a great person and that he matters a lot to her. Which relationship need is Inez fulfilling?

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Affirmation

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9) The ability to give to and receive from others emotionally, without fear of being hurt or rejected is referred to as

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emotional availability.

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10) In our early years, our most significant relationships are those with

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family.

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11) Brian is 13 and lives with his mother, stepfather, half-brother, and stepsister. He is part of a

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blended family.

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12) During Janine's early childhood, the other people in her household were her mother and maternal grandparents. This represents her

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family of origin.

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13) Healthy love relationships and friendships both require

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trust and respect.

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14) Frank chooses to spend time with his girlfriend even though he is going to miss an important review for his chemistry final. Which quality of a love relationship does this characterize?

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Fascination

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15) Which two psychological factors influence your ability to establish and maintain healthy relationships?

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Self-concept and self-esteem

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16) According to Sternberg's theory of love, which of the following defines consummate love?

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Combination of intimacy, passion, and commitment

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17) When Adam is alone with his girlfriend, his heart races and he feels sexually aroused. This type of love is

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passionate love.

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18) Which of the following characterizes passionate love?

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Attraction and desire

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19) Cynthia has decided to "settle down" and marry Patrick. Which component of Sternberg's theory of love does her decision demonstrate?

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Commitment

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20) Trust in relationships is created based on

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predictability, dependability, and faith.

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21) According to Fisher's theory of love, "imprinting" involves

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a past experience that triggers a romantic reaction.

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22) What role does oxytocin play in Fisher's theory of love?

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It stimulates feelings of satisfaction and attachment.

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23) After four years, Cole feels as if the excitement and passion is gone from his marriage. According to Fisher's theory of love, this feeling is due to

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a decrease in phenylethylamine (PEA) levels.

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24) What is one of the most important components of a satisfying and stable relationship?

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Effective communication

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24) What is one of the most important components of a satisfying and stable relationship?

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Endorphins

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26) Which of the following are possible underlying causes of jealousy?

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Insecurity or possessiveness

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27) A person you recently met in one of your classes tells you that she was adopted shortly after her birth. This is an example of

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self-disclosure.

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28) An important aspect of effective communication is

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understanding nonverbal communication.

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29) A professor may share information about his experiences as an undergraduate with his students. If done in a positive way, this type of self-disclosure may

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help students deal with current issues in their lives.

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30) The objective of being a good listener is to enhance relationships by

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understanding what others are thinking and feeling.

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31) Which listening mode involves restating or paraphrasing what the speaker has said?

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Reflective

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32) When Ted talks with his classmates, he often points out the weaknesses in their logic. Which mode of listening is he using?

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Competitive

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33) A slouched posture or leaning forward toward the speaker are examples of

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body language.

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34) Roberto listens to his friends with genuine interest but rarely asks for clarification or verifies what his friends are saying. What is his listening style?

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Passive

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34) Roberto listens to his friends with genuine interest but rarely asks for clarification or verifies what his friends are saying. What is his listening style?

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repeating what we think we've heard to confirm understanding.

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36) Your friend Joey describes the fight he had with his girlfriend and you respond, "It sounds to me like you're angry with her for never being ready on time." Your response is an example of

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paraphrasing.

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37) Which of the following is true about nonverbal communication?

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If verbal and nonverbal communication don't match, the listener is more likely to believe the nonverbal cues.

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38) When Steven has a disagreement with his roommate, he frequently interrupts and angrily stabs his finger at his chest. Steven's gestures suggest that he is

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not being respectful of his roommate's thoughts or feelings.

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38) When Steven has a disagreement with his roommate, he frequently interrupts and angrily stabs his finger at his chest. Steven's gestures suggest that he is

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gender differences in communication.

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40) Many men tend to use which type of body language when they communicate?

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Making forceful gestures

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41) Two key components to resolving conflict within relationships are

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negotiation and compromise.

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42) Which of the following is an effective strategy for conflict resolution?

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Evaluating alternative solutions.

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43) Which of the following is an effective strategy for conflict resolution?

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Identifying and clarifying the exact nature of the problem.

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43) Which of the following is an effective strategy for conflict resolution?

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Using "I" statements instead of blaming "you" messages.

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45) Jay is getting frustrated by his wife's nagging him about a chore he forgot to do. Before he loses his temper he decides that they should stop the interaction and cool down. This is an example of

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a good conflict resolution strategy.

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46) Jerome and Deborah's relationship has been monogamous. This means that they

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only have sex with each other.

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47) Ali has had three exclusive relationships in her romantic life. Each relationship lasted two to three years. This is considered

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serial monogamy.

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48) Common-law marriage refers to

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cohabitation for a designated period that is legally binding in some states.

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49) In addition to the same issues faced by heterosexual couples, lesbian and gay relationships are often challenged by

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discrimination and legal difficulties.

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50) Breakdowns in relationships usually begin with changes in

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communication.

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1) The thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are associated with being male or female are referred to as

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sexuality.

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2) The combined factors of biological characteristics, gender roles, and sexual orientation create a person's

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sexual identity.

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3) Monica's ultrasound reveals that the baby she is carrying is a boy. Which chromosome pair is present in her baby?

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XY

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4) A condition in which a person's physical anatomy includes both male and female sexual characteristics is known as

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intersexuality.

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4) A condition in which a person's physical anatomy includes both male and female sexual characteristics is known as

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sex hormones.

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6) The primary male sex hormone is

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testosterone.

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7) At puberty, males develop secondary sex characteristics that include facial and body hair, larger skeleton, and

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deepening of the voice.

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8) Gonads are which reproductive organs in the male and female?

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Testes and ovaries

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9) Amber has entered puberty. She is developing breasts and now has underarm and pubic hair. These changes represent the development of

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secondary sex characteristics.

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9) Amber has entered puberty. She is developing breasts and now has underarm and pubic hair. These changes represent the development of

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androgynous.

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11) A person's inner sense or awareness of being male or female is known as

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gender identity.

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12) A person who is born biologically male, yet has a strong personal sense of being female is considered to be

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transgendered.

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13) Traditionally, in most cultures, men are expected to be independent, aggressive, and in control of their emotions. This expectation is an example of

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gender role stereotyping.

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14) Individuals who feel trapped inside their own bodies because they are physically one sex but psychologically the other sex are

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transsexual.

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15) Biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental factors all play a role in determining a person's

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sexual orientation.

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16) Haley had been in a sexual relationship with her boyfriend Miguel for two years when she found that she also had sexual feelings for Amy, her roommate. Haley's sexual orientation would be described as

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bisexual.

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17) The external female genitalia (including the mons pubis, labia minora and majora, the clitoris, and the urethral and vaginal opening) are collectively known as the

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vulva.

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18) The highly sensitive nodule of tissue located at the upper end of the labia minora is the

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clitoris.

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19) Which of the following external female genitals are folds of mucous membrane?

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Labia minora

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20) The tubular organ that serves as the birth canal is the

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vagina.

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21) The lower end of the uterus that opens into the vagina is the

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cervix.

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22) Fertilization of an egg by sperm takes place in the

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fallopian tubes.

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23) The average age for menarche is

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between 11 and 14 years.

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24) At about day 14 of the menstrual cycle, a mature ovum is released near a fallopian tube. This process is known as

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ovulation.

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24) At about day 14 of the menstrual cycle, a mature ovum is released near a fallopian tube. This process is known as

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HCG.

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26) The primary difference between PMS and PMDD is that

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the severity of symptoms is greater in PMDD.

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27) Effectively managing stress, exercising regularly, and reducing salt and caffeine intake will help to alleviate the symptoms of

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PMS.

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28) Maria is 52 years old and has not had a period in more than a year. She has been having hot flashes and headaches. Maria is probably experiencing

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menopause.

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29) The external male genitals include the penis and

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scrotum.

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30) The passageway through the center of the penis through which semen and urine to exit the body is the

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urethra.

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31) The function of the vasa deferentia is to

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store and move sperm.

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32) Where does the male human body store sperm until they reach full maturity?

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Epididymis

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33) An age-related hormonal change in men is known as

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andropause.

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34) Which male reproductive organ produces chemicals that aid sperm in fertilizing an ovum?

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Prostate gland

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34) Which male reproductive organ produces chemicals that aid sperm in fertilizing an ovum?

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decreased bone density.

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36) Which of the following represents the correct order for the stages of sexual response?

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Excitement, plateau, orgasmic, resolution

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37) Vasocongestion of the genitals occurs during which stage of the sexual response?

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Excitement/arousal

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38) During which phase of sexual response would a man secrete pre-ejaculatory fluid?

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Plateau

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39) During which phase of sexual response do rhythmic contractions occur through the genital regions?

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Orgasmic

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39) During which phase of sexual response do rhythmic contractions occur through the genital regions?

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Resolution

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41) Most men have to wait a period of time before they can become aroused again after an orgasm. This time is referred to as the

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refractory period.

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42) Which of the following terms describes areas of the body that that lead to sexual arousal when touched?

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Erogenous zones

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43) Autoerotic behaviors involve

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sexual self-stimulation.

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44) The purpose of pornography is to be

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sexually arousing.

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44) The purpose of pornography is to be

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vaginal intercourse.

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46) Self-stimulation of the genitals is

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masturbation.

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47) Bonnie ended an abusive relationship before any severe physical harm occurred, but she now is afraid to engage in sexual contact with any new partner. Her fears and anxiety are related to a sexual desire disorder is known as

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sexual aversion disorder.

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48) Observing others for the purpose of sexual gratification is a variant sexual behavior known as

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voyeurism.

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49) Achieving sexual gratification through the infliction of pain or being subject to pain is a variant sexual behavior known as

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sadomasochism.

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50) The most common sexual arousal disorder is

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erectile dysfunction.

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1) A woman will release an egg from one of her two ovaries how frequently, on average?

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Every 28 days

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2) A fertilized ovum in the fallopian tube is a known as a(n)

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zygote

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3) A significant benefit of using condoms is that they

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prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections.

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4) Which of the following can cause condoms to be less effective?

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Storing them in a location that reaches a high temperature.

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5) Which contraceptive is most associated with urinary tract infections?

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Spermicide

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6) The Mirena IUD must be replaced how often to ensure effectiveness?

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Every 5 years

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7) Which of the following is true about the cervical cap?

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It must be kept in place for 6 to 8 hours after intercourse.

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8) If a woman inserts the cervical cap and leaves it in place more than 48 hours, she increases her risk of

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toxic shock syndrome.

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9) When used consistently and correctly, the male condom is how effective in preventing pregnancy?

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Up to 98%

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10) Which of the following are the major health risks associated with the combination pill?

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Blood clots and elevated blood pressure

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10) Which of the following are the major health risks associated with the combination pill?

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It thickens cervical mucus and interferes with implantation.

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12) Which of the following groups of women using oral contraceptives has the highest risk for stroke?

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Women over 35 who smoke

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13) Which health risk is associated with long-term use of Depo-Provera contraceptive injections?

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Loss of bone density

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14) Gina uses a hormonal contraceptive that has the effect of reducing her menstrual periods to one every three months. Gina most likely uses

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Seasonale or Seasonique pills.

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14) Gina uses a hormonal contraceptive that has the effect of reducing her menstrual periods to one every three months. Gina most likely uses

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abstinence.

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16) After the birth of her third child, Jenna had a laparoscopic surgical procedure to make her sterile. Which procedure did she most likely have?

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Tubal ligation

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17) What is the earliest point after conception that a home pregnancy test can be used to confirm pregnancy?

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2 weeks later

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18) Which of the following forms of birth control must be fitted and inserted into the uterus by a physician?

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IUD

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18) Which of the following forms of birth control must be fitted and inserted into the uterus by a physician?

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24 hours

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20) Which of the following birth control methods would be an appropriate choice for a couple whose religious beliefs prohibit them from using conventional forms of birth control?

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Fertility awareness methods

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21) The cervical mucus, body temperature, and calendar methods of birth control are based on

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tracking ovulation.

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22) In the United States, which type of abortions are illegal unless the mother's life or health is in danger?

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Third trimester

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23) Which type of abortion involves the use of one or more drugs?

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Medical

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24) Why is it so important for a pregnant woman to consume folic acid before and during early pregnancy?

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Folic acid reduces the risk of spina bifida in a baby.

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25) In addition to obstetrician-gynecologists, which other licensed health care professional has specialized trained in prenatal care and deliveries?

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Midwife

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26) Which of the following is a risk related to having a baby after the age of 35?

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The risk of birth defects increases.

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27) Gestational diabetes and high blood pressure can result from

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excessive weight gain during pregnancy.

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28) Shannon gained 27 pounds during her pregnancy. Approximately how much of her gain represents the weight of a normal-birth-weight baby?

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6 to 8 pounds

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29) At her first prenatal visit, Sophia tells her doctor that she loves to drink wine. What advice about alcohol consumption during pregnancy will her doctor most likely give?

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Abstain from alcohol during pregnancy.

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30) Smoking during pregnancy harms the fetus by

answer

restricting blood supply, oxygen, and nutrients to the fetus.

question

31) Which of the following hormones detected in a woman's urine will result in a positive home pregnancy test result?

answer

HCG

question

32) At what point in pregnancy is an embryo referred to as a fetus?

answer

At the beginning of the third month of pregnancy

question

33) All fetal organ systems are in place at the start of the

answer

third month.

question

33) All fetal organ systems are in place at the start of the

answer

third trimester.

question

35) Which imaging procedure is used to determine the size and position of a growing fetus?

answer

Ultrasound

question

36) The most common genetic abnormality that amniocentesis can identify is

answer

Down syndrome.

question

37) Greta is 38 years old and 15 weeks into her first pregnancy. Which test will her doctor recommend to detect any genetic abnormalities in the fetus?

answer

Amniocentesis

question

38) Gillian is at the stage of birth where the cervix becomes fully dilated, and the baby's head begins to move into the vagina. Which stage is this?

answer

Transition

question

38) Gillian is at the stage of birth where the cervix becomes fully dilated, and the baby's head begins to move into the vagina. Which stage is this?

answer

preeclampsia.

question

40) A miscarriage is also known as

answer

spontaneous abortion.

question

41) Ectopic pregnancy is a potential side effect of

answer

pelvic inflammatory disease.

question

42) The leading cause of death among infants 1-12 months of age is

answer

SIDS.

question

43) Which of the following is the most common cause of female infertility in the United States?

answer

Polycystic ovary syndrome

question

43) Which of the following is the most common cause of female infertility in the United States?

answer

Parts of the uterine lining migrate to block the fallopian tubes.

question

45) The most common cause of male infertility is

answer

low sperm count.

question

46) Which contraceptive methods prevent the meeting of egg and sperm?

answer

Barrier methods

question

47) Which contraceptive method used by women consists of a pad of foam containing spermicide?

answer

Contraceptive sponge

question

48) Which sterilization procedure involves cutting the vas deferens and either tying off or cauterizing the ends?

answer

Vasectomy

question

48) Which sterilization procedure involves cutting the vas deferens and either tying off or cauterizing the ends?

answer

teratogenic.

question

50) An antigen present in the red blood cells of the majority of people is known as the

answer

Rh factor.

question

51) T/F? Vasectomies have been shown to decrease male sexual performance.

answer

FALSE

question

52) T/F? For conception to occur, the following are necessary: a viable egg, a viable sperm, and access to the egg by the sperm.

answer

TRUE

question

53) T/F? Petroleum jelly is an effective lubricant for use with condoms.

answer

FALSE

question

54) T/F? When used correctly, the female condom provides protection against some sexually transmitted infections and HIV.

answer

TRUE

question

55) T/F? Sperm survive an average of 48-72 hours in the fallopian tubes.

answer

TRUE

question

56) T/F? T/F? Sperm survive an average of 48-72 hours in the fallopian tubes.

answer

FALSE

question

57) T/F? Some contraceptive methods protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

answer

TRUE

question

58) T/F? Sterilization has become the leading method of contraception for women.

answer

FALSE

question

59) T/F? A woman who undergoes a tubal ligation will no longer have menstrual periods.

answer

FALSE

question

60) T/F? A woman who has had a hysterectomy no longer has her uterus.

answer

TRUE

question

61) T/F? It is possible for a woman whose partner has had a vasectomy to become pregnant up to one month later.

answer

TRUE

question

62) T/F? A vasectomy affects sexual response in 50 percent of men who undergo this procedure.

answer

FALSE

question

63) T/F? Massaging, fondling, and kissing are forms of "outercourse."

answer

TRUE

question

64) T/F? Withdrawal, or coitus interruptus, is a reliable and effective contraceptive method.

answer

FALSE

question

65) T/F? T/F? Withdrawal, or coitus interruptus, is a reliable and effective contraceptive method.

answer

FALSE

question

66) T/F? The Implanon contraceptive implant provides protection from pregnancy and HIV.

answer

FALSE

question

67) T/F? Mifepristone is the same as the "morning after" pill.

answer

FALSE

question

68) T/F? The contraceptive patch offers protection against HIV and other STIs.

answer

FALSE

question

69) T/F? Worldwide, abortion rates have declined as access to and use of contraception has increased.

answer

TRUE

question

70) T/F? In induction abortion, chemicals are injected into the uterus and the fetus and placenta are expelled after 24-48 hours.

answer

TRUE

question

71) T/F? Suction curettage abortion can be performed up to the fourteenth week of pregnancy.

answer

FALSE

question

72) T/F? Studies have shown that an abortion causes long-term psychological trauma for a woman.

answer

FALSE

question

73) T/F? Preconception care is equally important for the mother-to-be and father-to-be.

answer

TRUE

question

74) T/F? T/F? Preconception care is equally important for the mother-to-be and father-to-be.

answer

FALSE

question

75) T/F? An intrauterine device (IUD) is effective immediately after it is placed in the uterus.

answer

TRUE

question

76) T/F? Physicians recommend that women abstain from alcohol and all drugs during pregnancy.

answer

TRUE

question

77) T/F? Use of painkilling medications during labor and delivery is not the best choice because it increases risks to the baby.

answer

FALSE

question

78) T/F? Fertility awareness methods of birth control offer no protection against STIs.

answer

TRUE

question

79) T/F? Postpartum depression is the same as "baby blues" and is common in new mothers.

answer

FALSE

question

80) T/F? A woman taking fertility drugs is more likely to conceive twins.

answer

TRUE

question

81) T/F? Marilyn plans to have children 5 years in the future. She can have a tubal ligation procedure now and have it reversed when she is ready to become pregnant.

answer

FALSE

question

82) T/F? To lower the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), babies should be laid down to sleep on their stomachs.

answer

FALSE

question

83) T/F? Diaphragms, cervical caps, and condoms are barrier methods of contraception.

answer

TRUE

question

84) T/F? Fertilization of an egg in a laboratory and then placing it into a woman's uterus is a procedure known as alternative insemination.

answer

FALSE

question

85) T/F? Sperm can survive up to five days in the female reproductive tract.

answer

TRUE

question

86) T/F? The birth defect characterized by mental retardation and distinctive physical traits that occurs more frequently in babies born to older mothers is called fetal alcohol syndrome.

answer

FALSE

question

87) T/F? The implantation of a fertilized egg outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes, is a condition known as ectopic pregnancy.

answer

TRUE

question

88) T/F? An excessive bleeding condition that may develop when a mother's Rh antibodies attack her fetus's red blood cells is called hemolytic disease.

answer

FALSE

question

89) T/F? An episiotomy is an incision made in a mother's perineum to speed a baby's exit from the birth canal.

answer

TRUE

question

90) T/F? The two types of adoption are open and confidential.

answer

TRUE

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