question

1) The two primary classes of transactions in the sales and collection cycle are: A) sales and sales discounts. B) sales and cash receipts. C) sales and sales returns. D) sales and accounts receivable.

answer

B

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2) The appropriate and sufficient evidence to be obtained from tests of details must be decided on an: A) efficiency basis. B) effectiveness basis. C) audit objectives basis. D) none of the above.

answer

C

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3) Auditors are especially concerned with three aspects of internal control for the sales and collection cycle. Which of the following is not one of their major concerns? A) Controls over cutoff B) Controls that prevent or detect embezzlements C) Controls over sales discounts D) Controls related to the allowance for uncollectible accounts

answer

C

question

4) For sales, the occurrence transaction-related audit objective affects which of the following balance-related audit objective? A) Existence B) Completeness C) Rights D) Detail tie-in

answer

A

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5) For cash receipts, the occurrence transaction-related audit objective affects which of the following balance-related audit objective? A) Existence B) Completeness C) Rights D) Detail tie-in

answer

B

question

1) Which of the following types of receivables would not deserve the special attention of the auditor? A) Accounts receivables with credit balances B) Accounts that have been outstanding for a long time C) Receivables from related parties D) Each of the above would receive special attention.

answer

D

question

2) Analytical procedures are substantive tests and, if the results of the analytical procedures are favorable, the auditor would normally: A) reduce the extent of tests of details of balances. B) reduce the extent of tests of controls. C) reduce the tests of transactions. D) reduce all of the other tests.

answer

A

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3) Analytical procedures: A) are only done during the planning of the audit and when performing detailed tests. B) performed during the detailed testing phase are done before tests of details of balances. C) performed during the detailed testing phase are done before the balance sheet date. D) are performed only on accounts receivable, not on the entire sales and collection cycle.

answer

B

question

4) Which of the following is a correct statement regarding analytical procedures? A) If an auditor identifies a possible misstatement in sales using analytical procedures, accounts payable will be the likely offsetting misstatement. B) Auditors should also compare the results of their analytical procedures to budgets and industry trends. C) If sales are overstated, the income statement will be incorrect, but the balance sheet will be correct. D) If an analytical procedure uncovers an unusual fluctuation, the auditor must assume fraud is involved.

answer

B

question

5) An auditor is comparing the write-off of uncollectible accounts as a percentage of total accounts receivable with previous years. A possible misstatement this procedure could uncover is: A) overstatement or understatement of sales. B) overstatement or understatement of accounts receivable. C) overstatement or understatement of bad debt expense. D) overstatement or understatement of sales returns and allowances.

answer

C

question

1) The understatement of sales and accounts receivable is best uncovered by: A) testing internal controls. B) testing the aged accounts receivable trial balance. C) substantive tests of transactions for shipments made but not recorded. D) substantive tests of transactions for bad debts.

answer

C

question

2) Tests of which balance-related audit objective are normally performed first in an audit of the sales and collection? A) Accuracy B) Completeness C) Rights D) Detail tie-in

answer

D

question

3) A listing of the balances in the accounts receivable master file at the balance sheet date, by total balance outstanding and by the amount of time the component parts have been outstanding, is the: A) customer list. B) aged trial balance. C) accounts receivable ledger. D) schedule of accounts receivable.

answer

B

question

4) Testing the information on the aged trial balance for detail tie-in is a necessary audit procedure, which would normally include: Test-footing the total column and the columns depicting the aging Comparing the total of the aged trial balance with the general ledger accounts receivable account

answer

Yes Yes

question

5) Audit procedures designed to uncover credit sales made after the client's fiscal year end that relate to the current year being audited provide evidence for which of the following audit objective? A) Realizable value B) Accuracy C) Cutoff D) Existence

answer

C

question

The auditor fails to obtain the end-of-year bank statement directly from the bank, obtaining instead the statement which includes the two succeeding weeks Subsequent period transactions are recorded in the current period Current period transactions are recorded in the subsequent period

answer

No Yes Yes

question

7) Cutoff misstatements occur: A) either by error or fraud. B) by error only. C) by fraud only. D) randomly without causes related to errors or fraud.

answer

A

question

8) Which of the following is likely to be determined first when performing tests of details for accounts receivable? A) Recorded accounts receivable exist. B) Accounts receivable in the aged trial balance agree with related master file amounts, and the total is correctly added and agrees with the general ledger. C) Accounts receivable are owned. D) Existing accounts receivable are included.

answer

B

question

9) An auditor is performing a credit analysis of customers with balances over 60 days due. She is most likely obtaining evidence for which audit related objective? A) Realizable value B) Existence C) Completeness D) Occurrence

answer

A

question

10) The most important test of details of balances to determine the existence of recorded accounts receivable is: A) tracing details of sales invoices to shipping documents. B) tracing the credits in accounts receivable to bank deposits. C) tracing sales returns entries to credit memos issued and receiving room reports. D) the confirmation of customers' balances.

answer

D

question

11) Because of its central role in auditing of accounts receivable, which of the following would normally be one of the first items tested? A) Accounts receivable master file B) Customer file C) Aged trial balance D) Sales register

answer

C

question

12) Confirmation of accounts receivable selected from the trial balance is the most common test of details of balances for the ________ of accounts receivable. A) presentation B) valuation C) accuracy. D) detail tie-in

answer

C

question

13) Most tests of accounts receivable are based on what schedule, file, or listing? A) Sales master file B) Aged accounts receivable trial balance C) Accounts receivable master file D) Accounts receivable general ledger account

answer

B

question

14) If the client's internal control for recording sales returns and allowances is evaluated as ineffective: A) a larger sample may be needed to verify cutoff. B) sampling is not appropriate. C) all sales returns must be traced to supporting documentation. D) all sales returns must be confirmed with the customer.

answer

A

question

15) A customer mails and records a check to a client for payment of an unpaid account on December 30. The client receives and records the amount on January 2. The records of the two organizations will be different on December 31. This represents: A cutoff misstatement A timing difference

answer

No Yes

question

16) Which of the following audit procedures would not likely detect a client's decision to pledge or factor accounts receivable? A) A review of the minutes of the board of directors' meetings B) Discussions with the client C) Confirmation of receivables D) Examination of correspondence files

answer

C

question

17) When do most companies record sales returns and allowances? A) During the month in which the sale occurs B) During the accounting period in which the return occurs C) Whenever the customer contacts the company regarding the credit D) During the month after the sale occurs

answer

B

question

18) Cutoff misstatements can occur for: Sales Sales returns and allowances

answer

Yes Yes

question

19) The most important aspect of evaluating the client's method of obtaining a reliable cutoff is to: A) perform extensive detailed testing of cutoff. B) evaluate the client's control procedures around cutoff. C) confirm a sample of transactions near period end with customers. D) confirm transaction with customers.

answer

B

question

20) Which of the following audit procedure would normally be included in the audit plan when auditing the allowance for doubtful accounts? A) Send positive confirmations. B) Inquire of the client's credit manager. C) Send negative confirmations. D) Examine sales invoices.

answer

B

question

21) Generally accepted accounting principles require that revenue be reported net of sales returns and allowances: A) if practical. B) if required by industry practice. C) if the amounts are material. D) any of the above.

answer

C

question

22) For which of the following accounts is cutoff least important? A) Sales B) Sales returns and allowances C) Cash collections D) Inventory

answer

C

question

23) Which of the following most likely would be detected by a review of a client's sales cutoff? A) Excessive sales discounts B) Unrecorded sales for the year C) Unauthorized goods returned for credit D) Lapping of year-end accounts receivable

answer

B

question

24) How might the auditor determine whether a client has limited rights to accounts receivable? Review minutes from board of directors meetings Inquiries of the client

answer

Yes Yes

question

25) You are reviewing sales to discover cutoff problems. If the client's policy is to record sales when title to the merchandise passes to the buyer, then the books and records would contain errors if the December 31 entries were for sales recorded: A) before the merchandise was shipped. B) at the time the merchandise was shipped. C) several days subsequent to shipment. D) at a time after the point at which title passed.

answer

A

question

26) A procedure to test for a cash receipts cutoff error is: A) reconciling the bank statement. B) performing a four-column proof-of-cash. C) observing the counting of cash at the balance sheet date. D) tracing recorded cash receipts to bank deposits on the bank statement of a different period.

answer

D

question

27) If material, all of the following are required to be separately disclosed in the financial statements except for: A) accounts receivable from officers. B) accounts receivable from affiliates. C) sales and assets for different business segments. D) sales for the last ten days of the fiscal year.

answer

D

question

28) For effective internal control, employees maintaining the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger should not also approve: A) employee overtime wages. B) credit granted to customers. C) write-offs of customer accounts. D) cash disbursements.

answer

C

question

29) For most audits, a proper cash receipts cutoff is less important than the sales cutoff because the improper cutoff of cash: A) is detected and correct when cash is separately audited. B) is unlikely to have a material impact on the balance sheet or the income statement. C) affects items on the balance sheet but does not affect net income. D) rarely occurs given the control consciousness of most entities.

answer

C

question

30) One of the shortcomings in evaluating the allowance for uncollectible accounts by reviewing individual noncurrent balances on the aged trial balance is: I. it is difficult to compare the results of the current year with those of the previous year. II. current accounts are ignored in establishing the adequacy of the allowance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I or II

answer

C

question

) An auditor selects a sample from the file of shipping documents to determine whether invoices were prepared. This test is to satisfy the audit objective of: A) accuracy. B) existence. C) control. D) completeness.

answer

D

question

33) The net realizable value of accounts receivable is equal to: A) gross accounts receivable less allowance for uncollectible accounts. B) gross accounts receivable less bad debt expense. C) gross accounts receivable less returns and allowances. D) gross accounts receivable less sales discounts.

answer

A

question

32) When designing tests of details of balances, an important point to remember is: A) auditors emphasize income statement accounts. B) the audit procedures selected depends heavily on whether planned evidence for a given objective is low, medium, or high. C) if accounts receivable are overstated, then sales will be understated. D) sales cutoff is the most important test of details of accounts receivable.

answer

B

question

1) Which of the following is the principle "weakness" of using negative confirmations for your tests of details of balances for accounts receivable? A) They can only be used for large balance accounts. B) They cannot not be used when account balances "bunch" around a mean value. C) Conclusions drawn from receiving no reply may not be correct. D) Response rates are generally too low to draw any conclusions.

answer

C

question

2) Communication addressed to the debtor requesting him or her to confirm whether the balance as stated on the communication is correct or incorrect is a: A) representation letter. B) negative confirmation. C) bank confirmation. D) positive confirmation.

answer

D

question

3) A type of positive confirmation known as a blank confirmation: A) requests the recipient to fill in the amount of the balance. B) is considered less reliable than the regular positive confirmation. C) generates as high a response rate as the regular positive confirmation form. D) is used when the auditor is confirming several small balances.

answer

A

question

4) The most effective audit evidence gathered for accounts receivable is the: A) detail tie-in of the records. B) analysis of the allowance for doubtful accounts. C) confirmation of accounts receivable. D) examination of sales invoices.

answer

C

question

5) The audit procedure that provides the auditor with the most appropriate evidence when performing test of details of balances for accounts receivable is: A) confirmations. B) recalculation of the aged receivables and uncollectible accounts. C) tracing credit memos for returned merchandise to receiving room reports. D) tracing from shipping documents to journals to the accounts receivable ledger.

answer

A

question

6) When should auditors not perform alternative procedures in testing the accounts receivable balance? A) When customers do not return positive confirmation requests B) When customers do not return negative confirmation requests C) When confirmations are deemed to be ineffective as an audit procedure D) When confirmations are too costly to use

answer

B

question

7) A positive confirmation is more reliable evidence than a negative confirmation because: A) fewer confirmations can be sent out. B) the auditor has a document which can be used in court. C) the debtor's lack of response indicates agreement with the stated balance. D) follow-up procedures are performed if a response is not received from the debtor.

answer

D

question

8) When positive confirmations are used, auditing standards require alternative procedures for confirmations not returned by the customer. Which of the following would not be considered an alternative procedure? A) Send a second confirmation request. B) Examine subsequent cash receipts to determine if the receivable has been paid. C) Examine shipping documents to verify that the merchandise was shipped. D) Examine customer's purchase order and the duplicate sales invoice to determine that the merchandise was ordered.

answer

A

question

9) The positive (as opposed to the negative) form of receivables confirmation may be preferred when: A) internal control surrounding accounts receivable is considered to be effective. B) there is reason to believe that a substantial number of accounts may be in dispute. C) a large number of small balances are involved. D) the auditor believes that the recipients of the confirmations will give the requests adequate consideration.

answer

B

question

10) An auditor should perform alternative procedures to substantiate the existence of accounts receivable when: A) no reply to a positive confirmation request is received. B) no reply to a negative confirmation request is received. C) collectability of the receivables is in doubt. D) pledging of the receivables is probable.

answer

A

question

11) Confirmation of accounts receivable balances normally provides evidence concerning the: A) valuation of the balances. B) rights of the balances. C) existence of the balances. D) completeness of the balances.

answer

C

question

13) The most reliable evidence from confirmations is obtained when they are sent: A) as close to the balance sheet date as possible. B) at various times throughout the year to different segments of the sample, so that the entire sample is representative of account balances scattered throughout the year. C) several months before the year-end, so the auditor will have adequate time to perform alternate procedures if they are required. D) at various times throughout the year to the same group in the sample, so that the sample will not have a time bias.

answer

A

question

14) A type of positive confirmation in which an individual invoice is confirmed, rather than the customer's entire accounts receivable balance is the ________ confirmation. A) invoice B) specific C) balance D) voucher

answer

A

question

What is the term for "margin of error" according to the AICPA? PCBOA?

answer

performance materiality tolerable misstatement

question

What is the starting point for TOBs for AR?

answer

1. recalculation of totals (footing and cross-footing) do the totals on the aging schedule match the balance sheet? 2. detail tie in (agree the balances to the ledger) (3. visual inspection to see if numbers look reasonable)

question

What are confirmations? Are these required under US standards? International standards?

answer

Verifications from 3rd parties that support audit objectives of existence, accuracy, and cutoff. Required in most cases under US standards. Suggested (but not required) under international standards.

question

Explain positive confirmation and negative confirmation.

answer

Positive confirmation - asks for explicit response (more reliable but also more expensive) Negative confirmation - asks for explicit response ONLY if discrepancy exists (less reliable and less expensive)

question

When should confirmations be sent out? Why should the auditor spend time verifying addresses? If responses come back ok, what audit objectives does this provide evidence for? What happens if no response?

answer

January 1 to prevent possible fraud existence, accuracy perform alternate procedures (e.g. inspect source documents)

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