Chapter 14: Acute Respiratory Failure – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory failure and identifies "Risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance" as a nursing diagnosis. A nursing intervention relevant to this diagnosis is: a. Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees. b. Obtain order for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. c. Provide adequate sedation. d. Reposition patient every 2 hours.
answer
d. Reposition patient every 2 hours.
question
The patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would exhibit which of the following symptoms? a. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration b. Elevated alveolar surfactant levels c. Increased lung compliance with increased FiO2 administration d. Respiratory acidosis associated with hyperventilation
answer
a. Decreasing PaO2 levels despite increased FiO2 administration
question
The nurse assesses a patient who is admitted for an overdose of sedatives. The nurse expects to find which acid-base alteration? a. Hyperventilation and respiratory acidosis b. Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis c. Hypoventilation and respiratory alkalosis d. Respiratory acidosis and normal oxygen levels
answer
b. Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis
question
Intrapulmonary shunting refers to: a. alveoli that are not perfused. b. blood that is shunted from the left side of the heart to the right and causes heart failure. c. blood that is shunted from the right side of the heart to the left without oxygenation. d. shunting of blood supply to only one lung.
answer
c. blood that is shunted from the right side of the heart to the left without oxygenation.
question
When fluid is present in the alveoli: a. alveoli collapse and atelectasis occurs. b. diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide is impaired. c. hypoventilation occurs. d. the patient is in heart failure.
answer
b. diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide is impaired.
question
In assessing a patient, the nurse understands that an early sign of hypoxemia is: a. clubbing of nail beds b. cyanosis c. hypotension d. restlessness
answer
d. restlessness
question
The basic underlying pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome results from: a. a decrease in the number of white blood cells available. b. damage to the right mainstem bronchus. c. damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant. d. decreased capillary permeability.
answer
c. damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant.
question
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome who is hypoxemic despite mechanical ventilation. The physician orders a nontraditional ventilator mode as part of treatment. Despite sedation and analgesia, the patient remains restless and appears to be in discomfort. The nurse informs the physician of this assessment and anticipates an order for: a. continuous lateral rotation therapy. b. guided imagery. c. neuromuscular blockade. d. prone positioning.
answer
c. neuromuscular blockade.
question
A patient presents to the emergency department in acute respiratory failure secondary to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse anticipates which treatment to facilitate ventilation? a. Emergency tracheostomy and mechanical ventilation b. Mechanical ventilation via an endotracheal tube c. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV) d. Oxygen at 100% via bag-valve-mask device
answer
c. Noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)
question
Which of the following acid-base disturbances commonly occurs with the hyperventilation and impaired gas exchange seen in severe exacerbation of asthma? a. Metabolic acidosis b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis
answer
c. Respiratory acidosis
question
An acute exacerbation of asthma is treated with which of the following? a. Corticosteroids and theophylline by mouth b. Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids c. Prone positioning or continuous lateral rotation d. Sedation and inhaled bronchodilators
answer
b. Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids
question
The nurse is discharging a patient home following treatment for community-acquired pneumonia. As part of the discharge teaching, the nurse instructs: a. "If you get the pneumococcal vaccine, you'll never get pneumonia again." b. "It is important for you to get an annual influenza shot to reduce your risk of pneumonia." c. "Stay away from cold, drafty places because that increases your risk of pneumonia when you get home." d. "Since you have been treated for pneumonia, you now have immunity from getting it in the future."
answer
b. "It is important for you to get an annual influenza shot to reduce your risk of pneumonia."
question
The nurse is discharging a patient with asthma. As part of the discharge instruction, the nurse instructs the patient to prevent exacerbation by: a. obtaining an appointment for follow-up pulmonary function studies 1 week after discharge. b. limiting activity until patient is able to climb two flights of stairs. c. taking all asthma medications as prescribed. d. taking medications on a "prn" basis according to symptoms.
answer
c. taking all asthma medications as prescribed.
question
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia? a. Bradycardia b. Change in sputum characteristics c. Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis d. Pursed-lip breathing
answer
b. Change in sputum characteristics
question
The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. The nurse understands that the most common cause of a pulmonary embolus is: a. amniotic fluid embolus. b. deep vein thrombosis from lower extremities. c. fat embolus from a long bone fracture. d. vegetation that dislodges from an infected central venous catheter.
answer
b. deep vein thrombosis from lower extremities.
question
The nurse is concerned that a patient is at increased risk of developing a pulmonary embolus and develops a plan of care for prevention to include which of the following? a. Antiseptic oral care b. Bed rest with head of bed elevated c. Coughing and deep breathing d. Mobility
answer
d. Mobility
question
Which of the following statements is true regarding venous thromboembolism (VTE) and pulmonary embolus (PE)? a. PE should be suspected in any patient who has unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE. b. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are classic symptoms of PE. c. Dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis occur in nearly all patients with PE. d. Most critically ill patients are at low risk for VTE and PE and do not require prophylaxis.
answer
a. PE should be suspected in any patient who has unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE.
question
A patient at high risk for pulmonary embolism is receiving Lovenox. The nurse explains to the patient: a. "I'm going to contact the pharmacist to see if you can take this medication by mouth." b. "This injection is being given to prevent blood clots from forming." c. "This medication will dissolve any blood clots you might get." d. "You should not be receiving this medication. I will contact the physician to get it stopped."
answer
b. "This injection is being given to prevent blood clots from forming."
question
A definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism can be made by: a. arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. b. chest x-ray examination. c. pulmonary angiogram. d. ventilation-perfusion scanning.
answer
c. pulmonary angiogram.
question
A strategy for preventing thromboembolism in patients at risk who cannot take anticoagulants is: a. administration of two aspirin tablets every 4 hours. b. infusion of thrombolytics. c. insertion of a vena cava filter. d. subcutaneous heparin administration every 12 hours.
answer
c. insertion of a vena cava filter.
question
Which of the following treatments may be used to dissolve a thrombus that is lodged in the pulmonary artery? a. Aspirin b. Embolectomy c. Heparin d. Thrombolytics
answer
d. Thrombolytics
question
The nurse is assessing a patient. Which assessment would cue the nurse to the potential of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? a. Increased oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry b. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator c. Normal chest radiograph with enlarged cardiac structures d. PaO2/FiO2 ratio > 300
answer
b. Increased peak inspiratory pressure on the ventilator
question
The nurse calculates the PaO2/FiO2 ratio for the following values: PaO2 is 78 mm Hg; FiO2 is 0.6 (60%). a. 46.8; meets criteria for ARDS b. 130; meets criteria for ARDS c. 468; normal lung function d. Not enough data to compute the ratio
answer
b. 130; meets criteria for ARDS
question
The nurse is assessing a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome. An expected assessment is: a. cardiac output of 10 L/min and low systemic vascular resistance. b. PAOP of 10 mm Hg and PaO2 of 55. c. PAOP of 20 mm Hg and cardiac output of 3 L/min. d. PAOP of 5 mm Hg and high systemic vascular resistance.
answer
b. PAOP of 10 mm Hg and PaO2 of 55.
question
The nurse is caring for a patient who is being turned prone as part of treatment for acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse understands that the priority nursing concern for this patient is which of the following? a. Management and protection of the airway b. Prevention of gastric aspiration c. Prevention of skin breakdown and nerve damage d. Psychological support to patient and family
answer
a. Management and protection of the airway
question
During rounds, the physician alerts the team that proning is being considered for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse understands that proning is: a. an optional treatment if the PaO2/FiO2 ratio is less 100. b. less of a risk for skin breakdown because the patient is face down. c. possible with minimal help from co-workers. d. used to provide continuous lateral rotational turning.
answer
a. an optional treatment if the PaO2/FiO2 ratio is less 100.
question
The etiology of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is related to damage to the: a. alveolar-capillary membrane. b. left ventricle. c. mainstem bronchus. d. trachea.
answer
a. alveolar-capillary membrane.
question
Identify diagnostic criteria for ARDS. (Select all that apply.) a. Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study b. Decreased cardiac output c. PaO2/ FiO2 ratio of less than 200 d. Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP) of more than 18 mm Hg
answer
a. Bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray study c. PaO2/ FiO2 ratio of less than 200
question
Which of the following statements is true regarding oral care for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Tooth brushing is performed every 2 hours for the greatest effect. b. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. c. Oral care protocols should include oral suctioning and brushing teeth. d. Protocols that include chlorhexidine gluconate have been effective in preventing VAP.
answer
b. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. c. Oral care protocols should include oral suctioning and brushing teeth. d. Protocols that include chlorhexidine gluconate have been effective in preventing VAP.
question
Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of ARDS? (Select all that apply.) a. Increase functional residual capacity b. Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli c. Improve arterial oxygenation d. Open collapsed alveoli
answer
a. Increase functional residual capacity b. Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli c. Improve arterial oxygenation d. Open collapsed alveoli
question
Which of the following are components of the Institute for Healthcare Improvement's (IHI's) ventilator bundle? (Select all that apply.) a. Interrupt sedation each day to assess readiness to extubate. b. Maintain head of bed at least 30 degrees elevation. c. Provide deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. d. Provide prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease. e. Swab the mouth with foam swabs every 2 hours.
answer
a. Interrupt sedation each day to assess readiness to extubate. b. Maintain head of bed at least 30 degrees elevation. c. Provide deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. d. Provide prophylaxis for peptic ulcer disease.
question
Select the strategies for preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolus (PE). (Select all that apply.) a. Graduated compression stockings b. Heparin or low-molecular weight heparin for patients at risk c. Sequential compression devices d. Strict bed rest
answer
a. Graduated compression stockings b. Heparin or low-molecular weight heparin for patients at risk c. Sequential compression devices
question
The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient. The nurse understands that strategies to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Drain condensate from the ventilator tubing away from the patient. b. Elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees. c. Instill normal saline as part of the suctioning procedure. d. Perform regular oral care with chlorhexidine.
answer
a. Drain condensate from the ventilator tubing away from the patient. b. Elevate the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees. d. Perform regular oral care with chlorhexidine.
question
The nurse is caring for a patient in acute respiratory failure and understands that the patient should be positioned: (Select all that apply.) a. high Fowler's. b. side lying with head of bed elevated. c. sitting in a chair. d. supine with the bed flat.
answer
a. high Fowler's. b. side lying with head of bed elevated. c. sitting in a chair.
question
The nurse is caring for a patient with cystic fibrosis (CF) and understands that treatment consists of which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Airway clearance therapies b. Antibiotic therapy c. Nutritional support d. Tracheostomy
answer
a. Airway clearance therapies b. Antibiotic therapy c. Nutritional support
