BMSC 210 – Microbiology Answers – Flashcards
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            | The central dogma | 
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        | DNA --> RNA --> Protein Replication --> Transcription --> Translation | 
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            | Multiple genes that are organized together on a genome: | 
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        | Operon | 
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            | Operon | 
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        | A group of related genes arranged in a linear fashion whose expression is under control of a single operon --> allows for expression of multiple genes to be coordinated. | 
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            | The backbone of the DNA chain | 
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        | alternating phosphates and the pentose sugar deoxyribose | 
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            | What eukaryotic cell has plasmids? | 
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        | Yeast | 
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            | Transposable elements | 
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        | segment of DNA that can move from one site to another site on the same or different DNA molecule. Inserted into other DNA molecules. three main types: - insertion sequences - transposons - special viruses | 
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            | Plasmids | 
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        | typically double stranded genetic elements, typically circular, that replicate separately from the chromosome. may confer a selective growth advantage under certain conditions. virulence characteristics are encoded by plasmid genes. Genes encoding Bacterions are often carried on plasmids. | 
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            | Episomes. Who are similar? | 
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        | plasmids that can integrate into the cell chromosome. Similar situation can be seen with prophages. | 
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            | Word for the removal of plasmids from host cells. | 
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        | curing | 
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            | What are the different kinds of plasmids? | 
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        | episomes (integrate into cell chromosome) Conjugative (transfer via cell to cell contact) R-plasmids - Resistant plasmids; confer resistance to antibiotics and other growth inhibitors | 
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            | R-plasmids | 
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        | Plasmids that confer a resistance to antibiotics and other growth inhibitors. Many on conjugative. | 
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            | Virulence factors | 
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        | enable pathogen to colonize enable pathogen to cause host damage hemolysin enterotoxin | 
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            | Bacteriocins | 
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        | Proteins produced by bacteria that inhibit or kill closely related species or different strains of the same species. | 
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            | What are the different kinds of transposable elements? | 
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        | Insertion sequences (IS) Transposons Special viruses | 
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            | Bacteriophages | 
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        | Viruses that take over a bacterial cell and force it to replicate the viral DNA. | 
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            | Replication always proceeds from which end? | 
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        | 5' to 3' ends. | 
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            | Why is DNA said to be semiconservative? | 
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        | Because each of the two progeny double helices have one parental strand and one new strand. | 
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            | What is the precurser to each nucleotide? | 
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        | a deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphate (dNTP) | 
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            | Why does replication proceed from 5' to 3'? | 
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        | in order to create new peptide bonds, a hydrolysis reaction must occur. This means that there must be a hydroxyl group available and this is only available on the 3' side. | 
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            | DNA polymerases | 
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        | DNA polymerases catalyze the addition of dNTP's (deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphates...the precursers toe ach nucleotide) | 
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            | What do DNA polymerases require before they can begin? | 
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        | an RNA primer | 
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            | what creates the RNA primer needed by DNA polymerase? | 
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        | RNA primase. | 
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            | replication fork | 
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        | zone of unwound DNA where replication occurs. | 
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            | DNA helicase | 
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        | an enzyme that unwinds the DNA for replication (etc) | 
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            | What's the difference between the leading and lagging strands? | 
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        | Extension of DNA occurs continuously on the leading strand. Extension of DNA occurs discontinuously on the lagging strand. These fragments are called Okazaki fragments. | 
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            | Transcription is carried out by which polymerase? | 
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        | RNA polymerase | 
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            | RNA polymerase | 
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        | carries out transcription of both DNA and RNA molecules. | 
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            | What's the difference between RNA and DNA polymerases? | 
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        | RNA polymerase doesn't need a primer. | 
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            | What does RNA polymerase recognize on DNA strands? | 
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        | sites that are called promoters. They are sites of initiation for transcription. | 
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            | What part of the RNA polymerase recognizes the promoters? | 
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        | the Sigma factor (subunit) | 
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            | what are the two regions within promoters that are highly conserved (and important) where are they located? | 
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        | Pribnow box (-10 region) -35 region --> located 35 bases upstream of transcription. | 
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            | Concensus sequences | 
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        | Sequences that establish a baseline rate of transcription for that gene. Controlled by how deviant from the ideal concensus sequence it is. Found at the -10 and -35 base regions of the promoter sequence. | 
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            | What terminates transcription? | 
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        | Termination of RNA synthesis is governed by a specific DNA sequence. Intrinsic terminators: Transcription is terminated without any additional factors. Rho-dependent termination: Rho protein recognizes specific DNA sequences (rho sequence) and cause a pause in RNA polymerase. Inverted repeats will terminate transcription: A stem loop in RNA immediately upstream from a run of uracils leads to transcription termination. | 
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            | Unit of transcription: | 
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        | Unit of chromosome bounded by sites where transcription of DNA to RNA is initiated and terminated. Example: Operon or Regulon. | 
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            | An RNA encoding a group of cotranscribed genes is called what? | 
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        | polycistronic mRNA | 
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            | Regulon | 
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        | A group of operons that are coordinately regulated. | 
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            | constitutive proteins | 
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        | proteins that are needed at the same level all the time. | 
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            | What is the ribosome binding site? | 
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        | the Shine-Dalgarno sequence | 
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            | What are the major modes of regulation? | 
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        | One controls the activity of preexisting enzymes -posttranslational regulation (takes seconds) One controls the amount of an enzyme - regulate level of transcription - regulate translation (minutes) | 
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            | How is transcription regulated? | 
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        | DNA-binding protein, Negative control of transcription: Repression and induction Repression: protein binds to DNA in response to a signal and blocks synthesis of enzymes Induction - A small molecule binds to a repressor and causes it to fall off, thereby synthesizing the enzyme. Positive control of transcription: binding even of regulatory protein to DNA activates transcription global control and the lac operon | 
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            | DNA binding proteins | 
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        | small molecules that influence the binding of regulatory proteins to DNA. (proteins that regulate transcription). Most DNA-binding proteins interact with DNA sequences with specificity. Major groove of DNA is the main site of protein binding. | 
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            | which groove of the DNA is the main site of protein binding? | 
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        | the major groove of DNA. | 
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            | What type of sequence is typically the binding site for regulatory proteins? | 
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        | inverted repeats ==> read the same forwards as backwards and form a hairpin loop. **remember terminators are also these | 
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            | Homodimeric proteins | 
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        | Proteins composed of two identical polypeptides. - Protein dimers interact with inverted repeats on DNA. Each of the polypeptides binds to one inverted repeat. | 
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            | what are the classes of protein domains that are critical for proper binding of proteins to DNA. | 
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        | helix-turn-helix : First helix is the recognition helix. Second is the stabilizing helix. Ex: Lac and trip repressors of e. coli Zinc Finger : protein structure that binds a zinc ion. There's typically 2-3 zinc fingers on proteins that use them for DNA binding. Leucine Zipper : leucine residues are placed every seven amino acids Does not directly interact with DNA, instead interacts through the hydrophobic effect. | 
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            | Inducer | 
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        | a substance that induces enzyme synthesis by binding to a regulatory protein and causing it to fall off the DNA strand. | 
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            | Corepressor | 
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        | a substance that represses enzyme synthesis. It binds to a regulatory protein, a repressor, and causes it to bind to DNA. | 
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            | effectors | 
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        | collective term for inducers and repressors. repressor molecules bind to an allosteric repressor protein. | 
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            | Allosteric repressor | 
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        | Once bound to a repressor, allosteric repressors become active and bind to a region of DNA near the promoter called the operater. | 
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            | where is the operater found? What is it? | 
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        | downstream from the promoter. It is the sequence where the regulatory proteins bind and block transcription. | 
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            | Repressor | 
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        | A regulatory protein that, when bound to a corepressor, binds to a DNA strand and blocks transcription. | 
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            | Positive control | 
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        | A regulator protein activates the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA. Activator proteins, when bound to an inducer, bind to the activator binding site and RNA polymerase and urge transcription forwards. | 
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            | Global control systems. what are some xamples of it? | 
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        | regulate expression of many different genes simultaneously. Catabolite repression: synthesis of unrelated catabolic enzymes is repressed if glucose is present in the growth medium. - Lac operon is under control of catabolite repression. | 
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            | Diauxic growth | 
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        | Two exponential growth phases. Occurs when glucose is used up and another energy source has been tapped. | 
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            | Catabolite repression is what kind of activation? | 
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        | positive activation | 
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            | Selectable mutations | 
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        | Those that give the mutant a growth advantage under certain conditions | 
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            | nonselectable mutations | 
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        | those that give the mutant neither an advantage or disadvantage over the parent. e.g. inability to grow under certain conditions. requires screening to detect mutants. | 
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            | Bacteria that can grow on one medium but not another would be called what? | 
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        | auxotrophs | 
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            | List and describe the different methods of mutation. | 
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        | induced mutations - environmentally or deliberately induced - exposure to oxygen radicals or natural radiation spontaneous mutations point mutations - mutations that change only one base pair - can lead to single amino acid change in a protein, an incomplete protein or no change at all (silent) | 
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            | What are the different types of mutations that can occur? | 
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        | Silent mutation - does not effect amino acid sequence missense mutation -AA changed - polypeptide altered nonsense mutation - codon becomes stop codon, incomplete protein. Frameshift mutations - deletions or insertions result in a shift of reading frame. Often results in complete loss of gene function. | 
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            | Which type of mutation is usually reversable? | 
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        | point mutations. | 
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            | reversion | 
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        | alteration of DNA that reverses the effects of a prior mutation | 
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            | revertant | 
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        | stain in which the original phenotype has been restored. two types: same type revertant: mutation is at same site as original mutation second-site revertant: mutation is at a different site in the DNA. | 
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            | Mutagents: | 
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        | chemical, physical or biological agents that increase mutation rates | 
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            | what are the classes of mutagents: | 
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        | chemical mutagens: - nucleotide base analogs -> resemble nucleotides - C.M. that induce chemical modification - C.M. that cause frameshift mutations (example: acridine) 
 Radiation: - non ionizing --> purines and prymidines strongly absorb UV. Pyrimidime dimer is an effect of this. - Ionizing radiation (cosmic rays, xrays, gamma rays)High energy short wave. --> ionize water and cause free radicals which damage macromolecules in the cell | 
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            | What are the three types of DNA repair systems? | 
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        | Direct Reversal - mutated base is still recognizable and can be repaired without referring to other strand. Repair of single strand damage - damaged DNA is removed and repaired using opposite strand as template Repair of double strand damage: a break in the DNA --> requires more error prone repair mechanisms. | 
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            | What repair system is used when DNA damage is severe? | 
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        | a mechanism called the SOS regulatory system. It's more error prone, which allows replication to proceed and the cell to replicate, but errors are most likely. | 
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            | Translesion synthesis | 
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        | used by the SOS system, it allows DNA to be synthesized with no template. | 
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            | RecA | 
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        | protein that recognizes and is activated by DNA damage detected as small bits of DNA that accumulate in the cell. It interacts with the LexA repressor, which helps the LexA to cleave itself. It then falls off the opressor of the SOS regulons, which then can be transcribed. It is also used during transformation by bringing strands of DNA closer together. | 
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            | Radioduran | 
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        | an organism that is 20-200 times more resistant to radiation than E. coli. Why? it has hyper repair mechanisms. | 
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            | Ames test | 
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        | Test makes practical use of bacterial mutations to detect for potentially mutagenic chemicals. | 
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            | Genetic recombination | 
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        | Physical exchanged of DNA between genetic elements. | 
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            | homologous recombination | 
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        | Process that results in the genetic exchange between two homologous DNA from two different sources. When two different alleles of the same gene are exchanged, one for the other. | 
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            | Transformation | 
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        | genetic transfer process by which DNA is incorporated into a recipient cell and brings about genetic change. | 
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            | What does it mean when a cell is competent? | 
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        | The the cell is capable of taking up DNA and being transformed. electricity and chemical methods can be used to make cells more competent. | 
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            | Transduction | 
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        | Transfer of DNA from one cell to another by bacteriophage. Basically, when a piece of the chromosome of the last victim of a virus is taken and given to the next "victim". Two modes: 1) Generalized Transduction: DNA from any portion of the host genome is accidentally packaged inside the virion 2) Specialized Transduction: DNA from a specific region of the host chromosome is integrated directly into the virus genome. | 
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            | Conjugation | 
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        | Mechanism of genetic transfer that involves cell-to-cell contact. - plasmid encoded mechanism | 
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            | What are essential features of conjugation? | 
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        | Donor cell and recipient cell. F (fertility) plasmid - An episome that contains tra gene that encodes transfer functions. Contains several transposable elements that allow the plasmid to integrate into the host chromosome. Encodes pilus. | 
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            | What is the difference between Hfr, F+ cells. | 
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        | Cells possessing an integrated F plasmid are called Hfr (high frequency of recombination) F+ - cells possessing non-integrated F plasmids | 
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            | molecular cloning | 
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        | isolation and incorporation of a piece of DNA into a vector so it can be replicated and manipulated. | 
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            | What are the main steps of gene cloning? | 
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        | 1) Isolation and fragmentation of source DNA - source DNA can be genomic DNA, RNA, or PCR-amplified fragments. 2) Insertion of DNA fragment into cloning vector - vectors derived from plasmids or viruses. DNA ligase used to join two DNA molecules. 3) introduction of cloned DNA into host organism - transformation is often used to get recombinant DNA into host. | 
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            | Gene library | 
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        | Mixture of cells containing a variety of genes. | 
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            | shotgun cloning | 
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        | gene libraries made by cloning random genome fragments | 
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            | How do you detect the expression of a foreign gene with screening? | 
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        | antibodies nucleic acid probes -- look for binding of labeled nucleic acid probe to DNA from specific colonies. | 
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            | blue-white cloning --> | 
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        | the degradation of B-galactosidase creates a blue cell. you can screen for colonies that have the cloned vector in it by looking at the colors. Blue do not have the cloned vectors, white cells do. the white cells are an example of insertional inactivation | 
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            | Insertional inactivation. | 
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        | When a gene is inactivated by the insertion of foreign DNA. | 
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            | Saccaromyces Cerevisiae | 
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        | Yeast cells | 
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            | What are the molecular methods of mutagenesis? | 
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        | Site-directed mutagenesis Casette mutagenesis and knockout mutations - DNA fragment can be cut, excised and replaced by synthetic DNA fragment. - Gene disruption is when the DNA is put into the middle of genes and causes a knockout mutation. | 
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            | Expression vectors | 
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        | Allow experimenter to control the expression of a clone gene. Based on transcriptional control and allows for high levels of protein expression. Expression vectors are under the control of their own promotors and regulatory proteins. IE in T7 expression vectors, cloned genes are placed under T7 promotors control. T7 RNA polymerase gene is present and recognizes only T7 promotors. | 
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            | Virion | 
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        | A viral particle, the extracellular form of the virus. Contains the N.A. genome surrounded by a protein coat. | 
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            | What are the different viral classes and genomes? | 
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        | DNA viruses --> single stranded and double stranded DNA genomes. RNA viruses --> single stranded and double stranded DNA genomes. RNA <--> DNA viruses --> Single stranded RNA (Retroviruses) and Double Stranded DNA (hepadnaviruses) | 
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            | How can viruses be classified? | 
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        | by the hosts that they infect. Example: Bacterial viruses are bacteriophages, archaeal viruses animal viruses plant viruses | 
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            | What is the viral structure? | 
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        | Capsid --> the protein shell that surrounds the genome of a virus particle. Capsomere --> subunit of the capsid. Continuously binds to RNA strand. Nucleocapsid --> complete complex of nucleic acid and protein packaged in the virion Enveloped virus --> virus that contains additional layers around the nucleocapsid. | 
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            | What are the different symmetries of the nucleocapsids? | 
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        | helical symmetry: rod shaped viruses (tobacco mosaic virus) Isohedral symmetry: Spherical viruses Enveloped (budding) viruses: membrane surrounding the nucleocapsid. Complex viruses: virions composed of several parts, each with separate shapes/symmetries. (isohedral heads and helical tails) | 
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            | what is the structure of bacteriophage T4? | 
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        | From top to bottom: Head, collar, tail, tail pins, end plate, tail fibers. | 
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            | What enzymes do virions contain? | 
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        | lysozyme, used to bore a hole through the cell wall. nucleic acid polymerases neuraminidases - enzymes that cleave glycosidic bonds allowin the liberation of the virus from the host cell. | 
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            | What are the different life cycles of viruses? | 
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        | virulent mode: viruses lyse host cells after infection Temperate mode: viruses replicate their genomes in tandem with host genomes and without killing their host. | 
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            | What type of lifecycle does bacteriophage lambda experience? | 
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        | temperate | 
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            | What type of genome does bacteriophage T4 have? | 
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        | It has a dsDNA genome that is circularly permuted and terminally redundant. | 
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            | T4 genome can be divided into three parts. What are they and what does each express? | 
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        | Early and middle proteins: Enzymes needed for DNA replication and transcription Late protein: head and tail proteins and enzymes required to liberate mature phage particles. | 
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            | Lysogen | 
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        | A bacterium containing a prophage | 
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            | Lysogeny | 
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        | state where most virus genes are not expressed and virus genomes (prophage) is replicated in synchrony with host chromosome. | 
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            | Lytic lifecycle | 
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        | Virus hijacks cells biosynthesis mechanisms until it bursts the cell with lysozyme | 
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            | which two repressor proteins are key elements in the regulation of lytic vs. lysogenic events in lambda? | 
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        | cl protein (the lambda repressor) causes repression of lambda lytic events. Cro repressor: controls activation of lytic events. | 
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            | Animal viruses | 
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        | entire virion enters animal cell, unlike in prokaryotes. Nucleus is site of replication for many viruses. Much more likely to be enveloped. | 
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            | what are the consequences of viral infections in animal cells? | 
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        | persistent infections: release of virions from host cell does not result in lysis latent infections: delay between infection by the virus and lytic events. transformation: conversion of normal cell into tumor cell cell fusion: two or more cells become one cell with many nuclei | 
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            | retroviruses | 
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        | viruses that replicate through a DNA intermediate. - enveloped viruses - contain reverse transcriptase (copies information from its RNA genome into DNA), integrase and protease. Virion contains specific tRNA molecules. Contains specific genes: gag - encode structural proteins pol - encode reverse transcriptase and integrate env - encode envelope proteins | 
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            | what is the process of replication for a retrovirus? | 
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        | -entrance into cell -removal of virion envelope @ membrane -reverse transcriptase of one or two RNA genomes -integration of retroviral DNA into host genome -transcription of retroviral DNA -assembly and packaging of genomic RNA -budding of enveloped virions; release from cell | 
