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Amino Acids
Bond Between Amino Acids
Chapter 19 – Flashcards with Answers 75 terms
75 terms
Preview
Chapter 19 – Flashcards with Answers
question
| are all proteins structurally similar? |
answer
| yes |
question
| proteins are polymers consisting of... |
answer
| chains of amino acids chemically bound to each other |
question
| an amino acid is a compound that contains both a |
answer
| amino group and carboxylate group |
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| how many amino acids are commonly found in the body? |
answer
| 20 |
question
| what are the amino acids found in proteins called? |
answer
| alpha amino acids |
question
| why are they called alpha amino acids> |
answer
| because they are attached to the alpha carbon |
question
| what is the alpha carbon? |
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| the carbon next to the carboxylate group |
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| what gives an amino acids its unique characteristics |
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| the R group (or side chain) |
question
| what four categories are amino acids broken up into? |
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| neutral with nonpolar side chains, neutral with polar side chains, basic side chains and acidic side chains |
question
| acidic side chains contain a (blank) group |
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| carboxylate |
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| basic side chains contain an (blank) group |
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| amino group |
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| what is the simplest amino acid |
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| glycine |
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| with the exception of glycine, what is true of the alpha carbons in amino acids? |
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| they are chiral |
question
| are most amino acids found in the D or L form? |
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| L |
question
| what is a zwitterion? |
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| a dipolar ion that carries both a positive and negative charge as a recult of an internal acid-base reaction in an amino acid molecule |
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| what is the net charge of a zwitterion? |
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| zero |
question
| what happens to a zwitterion if an acid is added? |
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| then the COO- picks up a hydrogen |
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| what happens to a zwitterion if a base is added? |
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| then the amino group loses a hydrogen |
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| what is the isoelectric point? |
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| the pH at which the zwitterion forms |
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| what is the only sulfhydryl containing amino acid? |
answer
| cysteine |
question
| what chemical property do cysteine have that other amino acids don't? |
answer
| they are able to be oxidized to form a disulfide bond |
question
| what is the product of oxidizing a cysteine? |
answer
| a disulfide compound, cystine |
question
| what functional group reacts when two amino acids are put together? |
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| the carboxylate group |
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| what are dipeptides? |
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| compounds made up of two amino acids |
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| what kind of bonds peptide bonds? |
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| amide linkages |
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| does the order amino acids are in matter? |
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| yes |
question
| alyclalamine and alanylglycine are (blank) isomers of each other. |
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| structural |
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| peptide |
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| an amino acid polymer of short chain length. |
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| polypeptide |
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| an amino acid polymer of intermediate chain length containing up to 50 amino acid residues |
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| protein |
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| an amino acid polymer made up of more than 50 amino acids |
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| amino acid residue |
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| an amino acid that is part of a peptide, polypeptide or protein chain |
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| N-teminal residue |
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| an amino acid on the end of a chain that has an unreacted or free amino acid |
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| C-terminal residue |
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| an amino acid on the end of a chain that has an unreacted or free carboxylate group |
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| which side is the N-terminal on? |
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| the left |
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| disulfide bridge |
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| a bond produced by the oxidation of -SH groups on two cysteine residues. The bond loops or holds two peptide chains together. |
question
| what is the difference in the structure of vasopressin and oxytocin? |
answer
| two amino acids |
question
| are proteins relatively large or small molecules? |
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| large |
question
| what is one of the most important properties of proteins that is based on its R group? |
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| acid base behavior |
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| what determines at what pH a protein will clump together? |
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| the charge on the R group |
question
| name eight functions of proteins in the body: |
answer
| catalysts, structural, storage, protective, regulatory, nerve impulse transmission, movement, and transport |
question
| what are two types of proteins that are based on their structural shape? |
answer
| fibrous and globular |
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| fibrous proteins |
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| made up of long rod shaped molecules that can intertwine with one another and form strong fibers. |
question
| are fibrous proteins water soluble? |
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| no |
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| where are fibrous proteins usually found? |
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| tissue, hair and skin |
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| globular proteins |
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| more spherical |
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| are globular proteins soluble in water? |
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| yes, they either dissolve or form colloidal dispersions in water |
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| what are the two types of proteins based on composition? |
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| simple and conjugated |
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| simple proteins |
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| contain only amino acid residues |
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| conjugated proteins |
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| contain amino acid residues and other organic or inorganic compounds |
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| prosthetic group |
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| the non amino acid parts of conjugated proteins |
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| what do all proteins have in common? |
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| carbon nitrogen backbone |
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| what does the primary structure of a protein tell you? |
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| the order in which amino acid residues are linked together |
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| what causes a protein chain to fold and curl into distinctive shapes that in turn enables the protein to function properly. |
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| the sequence of amino acids |
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| when a primary structure folds and becomes aligned in a certain orderly pattern, this is called... |
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| secondary structure |
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| what kind of bonding makes secondary structures? |
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| hydrogen |
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| what are the two forms secondary structures can take? |
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| alpha helix and beta sheets |
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| in an alpha helix, what compounds are hydrogen bonded? |
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| the carbonyl oxygens and amide hydrogens |
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| are all amide groups or all carbonyl oxygens involved in hydrogen bonding? |
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| all amide groups |
question
| what is the less common structure: alpha helix or beta sheets |
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| beta sheets |
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| where is the only place beta sheets are found extesively? |
answer
| silk proteins |
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| what are hydrogen bonded in beta sheets? |
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| the amide carbonyl oxygens and amide hydrogens |
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| what is tertiary structure? |
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| the bending and folding of the protein into specific three dimensional shape. |
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| the tertiary structure results from the interactions between |
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| the R side chains and the amino acid residues |
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| what are the four types of R group interactions |
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| disulfide bridges, salt bridges, hydrogen bonds, and hydrophobic interactions |
question
| what two residues can a disulfide linkage occur between |
answer
| cysteine |
question
| are disulfide linkages present in secondary structures? |
answer
| no |
question
| what are salt bridges? |
answer
| a result of ionic bonds that form between the ionized side chain of an acidic amino acid and the side chain of a basic amino acid |
question
| what is the difference between the hydrogen bonds of the tertiary structure and the hydrogen bonds of the secondary structure? |
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| in the secondary structure the bonding is between backbone carbonyl and amide groups, in the tertiary structure, it is between the R groups |
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| hydrophobic interactions |
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| result when nonpolar groups are either attracted to one another or forced together by their mutual repulsion of an aqueous solution |
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| what is the weakest of the four types of bonds? |
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| the hydrophobic interactions |
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| quaternary structure |
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| arrangement of subunits |
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| what is a subunit |
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| a polypeptide chain |
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| if proteins are exposed to physical or chemical conditions such as extreme temperatures or pH values, what happens? |
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| denaturation |
question
| what happens during denaturation? |
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| folded structure breaks down and the protein takes on a random disorganized conformation |
question
| what else, besides heat and pH cause denaturation? |
answer
| heavy metal ions |
AP Biology
Biological Chemistry
Biology
Bond Between Amino Acids
Chemistry
Three Dimensional Shape
Exam 3 – Chemistry Test Questions – Flashcards 84 terms
84 terms
Preview
Exam 3 – Chemistry Test Questions – Flashcards
question
| A bond that results from the sharing of electrons between atoms |
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| Covalent Bond |
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| The bonding electrons of one atom are attracted to the nucleus of the second atom and vice versa; the attraction is limited by |
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| Nuclear repulsion |
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| If atoms are too close, _____ repulsions occur |
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| Strong |
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| The bond length is the ______ point between electron attraction to nuclei and nuclear repulsion |
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| Lowest |
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| Single covalent bonds between non-metals are very ______ and take _____ of energy to break; double and triple bonds are even _______ |
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| Strong, lots, stronger |
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| Covalent bonds are ______ than ionic bonds, but individual molecules behave much differently than ionic aggregates |
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| Stronger |
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| The ability of an atom in a molecule to attract the shared electrons in a covalent bond. The attraction of shared electrons by atoms; differences lead to covalent bond polarity and then to ionic character (left to right) |
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| Electronegativity |
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| In polar covalent bonds, the electron density surrounds the most ________ atom since its nucleus has the greater electron attraction |
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| Electronegative |
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| Ionic bonds are _____ but not covalent |
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| Polar |
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| Small atoms with _____ effective nuclear charge have ______ electronegativity |
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| High, highest |
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| Large atoms with _____ effective nuclear charge have ________ electronegativity |
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| Low, lowest |
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| A representation of an atom's valence electrons by using dots and indicates by the placement of dots how the valence electrons are distributed in the molecule. The 4 sides of an atomic symbol are surrounded by its number of valence electrons, first singly, then doubly. A single covalent bond represents the sharing of single valence electrons between two atoms |
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| Electron-dot Structures (Lewis Structures) |
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| The number of valence electrons is equal to the |
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| Group number |
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| The choice of single, double, or triple is to be sure each atom shares or owns a(n) ______ of electrons |
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| Octet |
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| _____ one valence electron for each negative charge and _______ one valence electron for each positive charge |
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| Add, Subtract |
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| 8 - the group number (number of valence electrons) = |
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| The number of bonds needed |
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| The central atom of a Lewis Dot Structure is the most |
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| Electronegative atom |
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| Atoms with _______ can have more than an octet |
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| d-orbitals |
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| Structures that differ only in the movement of electrons are |
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| Resonance Structures |
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| Electrons in bonds and in lone pairs can be thought of as "charge clouds" that repel one another and stay as far apart as possible, this causing molecules to assume specific shapes. Working from an electron-dot structure, count the number of "charge clouds" and the determine the molecular shape |
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| VSEPR (Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion Model) |
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| For a central atom with two electron clouds, VSEPR predicts a _____ shape with a bond angle of _____ |
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| Linear, 180 degrees |
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| For a central atom with three electron clouds, VSEPR predicts a _________ shape with a bond angle of ______ and molecular shape of ______ |
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| Trigonal planar, 120 degrees, bent |
question
| For a central atom with four electron clouds, VSEPR predicts a ________ shape with a bond angle of ______ |
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| Tetrahedral, 109.5 degrees |
question
| For a central atom with four electron pairs, if one bond is replaced with a lone electron pair, the molecule is ________ |
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| Trigonal pyramidal |
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| For a central atom with four electron clouds, if two bonds are replaced with two lone pairs, the molecule is ______ |
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| Bent |
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| For expanded octets with five bonds, the VSEPR model predicts ____________ with bond angles of _______ and _______ |
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| Trigonal bipyramidal, 90 degrees, 120 degrees |
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| For a central atom with five electron clouds, if one electron bond is replaced with a lone electron pair, then it is a ________ molecule |
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| Seesaw |
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| For a central atom with five electron pairs, if two bonds are replaced with two lone electron pairs, then it is a ________ molecule |
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| T-shaped |
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| For a central atom with five electron pairs, if three bonds are replaced with three lone electron pairs, then it is a ______ molecule |
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| Linear |
question
| For a central atom with six electron pairs, the VSEPR model is _________ with a bond angle of |
answer
| Regular octahedron, 90 degrees |
question
| For a central atom with six electron clouds, if one bond is replaced with one lone electron pair, the it is a _______ molecule |
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| Square Pyramidal |
question
| For a central atom with six electron clouds, if two bonds are replaced with two lone electron pairs, it is a _________ molecule |
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| Square planar |
question
| A quantum mechanical model which shows how electron pairs are shared in a covalent bond. The covalent bond results from overlap of valence atomic orbitals (s-s and p-p overlap) |
answer
| Valence Bond Theory |
question
| Each overlapping orbital has one electron or opposite spin. The orbitals maintain their shape (spherical for s and lobed for p). Covalent bonds are formed by overlap of atomic orbitals, each of which contains one electron of opposite sign. Each of the bonded atoms maintains its own atomic orbitals, but the electron pair in the overlapping orbitals is shared by both atoms. The greater the amount of overlap, the stronger the bond |
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| Valence Bond Theory |
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| Overlap of s and p orbitals cannot explain the symmetry of molecules in VSEPR so new orbitals called __________ are created |
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| Hybrid orbitals |
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| When two sp^2 atoms form a double bond, overlap of sp^2 orbitals form a single bond, called _______, and overlap of the p-orbitals give a ______ bond |
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| Sigma, pi |
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| The capacity to supply heat or do work |
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| Energy |
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| The energy of motion |
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| Kinetic energy |
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| Stored energy |
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| Potential energy |
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| Energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be converted from one form to another |
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| Law of Conservation of Energy |
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| The kinetic energy of molecular motion and is measured by finding the temperature of an object. Molecular motion provides this |
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| Thermal energy |
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| The amount of thermal energy transferred from one object to another as the result of a temperature difference between the two |
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| Heat (q) |
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| The total internal energy of an isolated system is constant. Total energy is equal to the final energy minus the initial energy |
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| First Law of Thermodynamics |
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| Energy can be treated like a reagent; if delta U is _______ then starting material (energy absorbed or if delta U is ______ then the product (energy released) |
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| Positive, negative |
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| A function or property whose value depends only on the present state, or condition, of the system, not on the path used to arrive at that state. Energy is an example of this, meaning that the chemical energy content is independent of how the chemical is made |
answer
| State Function |
question
| Chemical energy (U) can be used to do ______ (Force * Distance) |
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| Work |
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| With combustion, the increase in gas volume __________ the volume under the piston, pushing it _______ |
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| Expands, upward |
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| Work done as the result of a volume changed in the system. Also called pressure-volume or PV work |
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| Expansion work |
question
| Changes in chemical energy are best measured as _________ at constant pressure |
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| Heat flow (q) |
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| A state function whose value depends only on the current state of the system, not on the path taken to arrive at that state. The heat content at constant pressure; Change in this is measured as heat flow during a reaction |
answer
| Enthalpy |
question
| Most stable form of a substance at 1 atm pressure and at a specified temperature, usually 25 degrees C for all substances in solution |
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| Thermodynamic Standard State |
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| The amount of heart necessary to melt a substance without changing its temperature (melting) |
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| Enthalpy of Fusion |
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| The amount of heat required to vaporize a substance without changing its temperature (boiling) |
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| Enthalpy of Vaporization |
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| The amount of heat required to convert a substance from a solid to a gas without going through the liquid phase (solid to gas) |
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| Enthalpy of Sublimation |
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| Reactions that release heat are called _________ |
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| Exothermice |
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| Reactions that gain heat are called ________ |
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| Endothermic |
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| The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of an object or substance a given amount |
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| Heat capacity (C) |
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| The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one mol of a substance by one degree C |
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| Molar Heat Capacity |
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| The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by one degree C |
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| Specific Heat |
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| Liquids hold _______ heat relative to solids as molecular motion (molecules in liquids are free to move) |
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| Much more |
question
| The overall enthalpy change for a reaction is equal to the sum of enthalpy changes for the individual steps in the reaction |
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| Hess's Law |
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| The enthalpy change for the formation of one mol of a substance in its standard state from its constituent elements in their standard states |
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| Standard Heat of Formation |
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| Standard Heat of Formation are used to calculate _________ for a reaction of those substances; Standard heat of formation values must be multiplied times their stoichiometry and reactants are subtracted from their products |
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| Enthalpy change |
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| Standard enthalpy changes for the corresponding bond-breaking reactions |
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| Bond dissociation energies |
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| A substance where particles are far separated relative to their volume; particles do not interact |
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| Gas |
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| Motion of particles of a gas is dependent of _________ |
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| The temperature |
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| Collision of gas particles are |
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| Elastic |
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| Particles in constant motion, colliding with the container |
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| Pressure |
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| Measured with a barometer; Hg is used because of its high density |
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| Atmospheric pressure |
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| Measures pressure differences between two systems, one typically atmosphere |
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| Manometer |
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| A gas whose behavior follows the gas laws exactly |
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| Ideal gas |
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| Showed that Pressure*Volume changes are linear only with Pressure versus 1/Volume at constant mols (n) and temperature (K). Decrease in volume, increase in collisions and pressure |
answer
| Boyle's Law |
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| Showed that Volume and Temperature are directly proportional at constant n and Pressure. Increase in temperature increases collisions so volume must expand to reduce collisions, maintaining a constant pressure |
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| Charles' Law |
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| Showed that Volume and mols are directly proportional at constant temperature and pressure. More particles means more collisions, the volume expands to reduce collisions, maintaining constant pressure |
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| Avogadro's Law |
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| At standard temperature and pressure of gases (STP), the volumes of all gases are the same, even for mixtures of gases and the volume is |
answer
| 22.414 Liters |
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| The total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases in a container at constant Volume and Temperature is equal to the sum of the pressures of each individual gas in the container |
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| Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures |
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| A gas consists of tiny particles, either atoms or molecules, moving about at random The volume of the particles themselves is negligible compared with the total volume of the gas; most of the volume of a gas is empty space The gas particles act independently of one another; there are no attractive or repulsive forces between particles Collisions of the gas particles, either with other particles or with the walls of a container, are elastic (constant temperature). They do not lose energy The average kinetic energy of the gas particles is proportional to the Kelvin temperature of the sample |
answer
| The Kinetic-Molecular Theory of gases |
question
| The velocity of gas particles depends on _______, average speed decreases with increase in size |
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| Particle size |
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| Speed obeys a __________ about a mean; as temperature increases, the distribution is more spread out |
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| Gaussian distribution |
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| The mixing of different gases by molecular motion with frequent molecular collisions |
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| Diffusion |
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| Gas molecules will ______ until the distribution of gases is equal; the rate is inversely proportional to the molar mass |
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| Diffusion |
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| The escape of a gas through a pinhole into a vacuum without molecular collisions |
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| Effusion |
question
| Real gases do not obey ______; they form at high concentration of gas molecules, this increases ideal volume |
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| Ideal Gas Law |
question
| Concentration in real gases also allows molecular interaction; typically attraction, which reduces ideal pressure. Attractive forces between particles become __________ at higher pressures |
answer
| More important |
AP Biology
Biology
Bond Between Amino Acids
Genetics
BMSC 210 – Microbiology Answers – Flashcards 108 terms
108 terms
Preview
BMSC 210 – Microbiology Answers – Flashcards
question
| The central dogma |
answer
| DNA --> RNA --> Protein Replication --> Transcription --> Translation |
question
| Multiple genes that are organized together on a genome: |
answer
| Operon |
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| Operon |
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| A group of related genes arranged in a linear fashion whose expression is under control of a single operon --> allows for expression of multiple genes to be coordinated. |
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| The backbone of the DNA chain |
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| alternating phosphates and the pentose sugar deoxyribose |
question
| What eukaryotic cell has plasmids? |
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| Yeast |
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| Transposable elements |
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| segment of DNA that can move from one site to another site on the same or different DNA molecule. Inserted into other DNA molecules. three main types: - insertion sequences - transposons - special viruses |
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| Plasmids |
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| typically double stranded genetic elements, typically circular, that replicate separately from the chromosome. may confer a selective growth advantage under certain conditions. virulence characteristics are encoded by plasmid genes. Genes encoding Bacterions are often carried on plasmids. |
question
| Episomes. Who are similar? |
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| plasmids that can integrate into the cell chromosome. Similar situation can be seen with prophages. |
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| Word for the removal of plasmids from host cells. |
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| curing |
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| What are the different kinds of plasmids? |
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| episomes (integrate into cell chromosome) Conjugative (transfer via cell to cell contact) R-plasmids - Resistant plasmids; confer resistance to antibiotics and other growth inhibitors |
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| R-plasmids |
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| Plasmids that confer a resistance to antibiotics and other growth inhibitors. Many on conjugative. |
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| Virulence factors |
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| enable pathogen to colonize enable pathogen to cause host damage hemolysin enterotoxin |
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| Bacteriocins |
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| Proteins produced by bacteria that inhibit or kill closely related species or different strains of the same species. |
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| What are the different kinds of transposable elements? |
answer
| Insertion sequences (IS) Transposons Special viruses |
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| Bacteriophages |
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| Viruses that take over a bacterial cell and force it to replicate the viral DNA. |
question
| Replication always proceeds from which end? |
answer
| 5' to 3' ends. |
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| Why is DNA said to be semiconservative? |
answer
| Because each of the two progeny double helices have one parental strand and one new strand. |
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| What is the precurser to each nucleotide? |
answer
| a deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphate (dNTP) |
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| Why does replication proceed from 5' to 3'? |
answer
| in order to create new peptide bonds, a hydrolysis reaction must occur. This means that there must be a hydroxyl group available and this is only available on the 3' side. |
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| DNA polymerases |
answer
| DNA polymerases catalyze the addition of dNTP's (deoxynucleoside 5'-triphosphates...the precursers toe ach nucleotide) |
question
| What do DNA polymerases require before they can begin? |
answer
| an RNA primer |
question
| what creates the RNA primer needed by DNA polymerase? |
answer
| RNA primase. |
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| replication fork |
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| zone of unwound DNA where replication occurs. |
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| DNA helicase |
answer
| an enzyme that unwinds the DNA for replication (etc) |
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| What's the difference between the leading and lagging strands? |
answer
| Extension of DNA occurs continuously on the leading strand. Extension of DNA occurs discontinuously on the lagging strand. These fragments are called Okazaki fragments. |
question
| Transcription is carried out by which polymerase? |
answer
| RNA polymerase |
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| RNA polymerase |
answer
| carries out transcription of both DNA and RNA molecules. |
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| What's the difference between RNA and DNA polymerases? |
answer
| RNA polymerase doesn't need a primer. |
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| What does RNA polymerase recognize on DNA strands? |
answer
| sites that are called promoters. They are sites of initiation for transcription. |
question
| What part of the RNA polymerase recognizes the promoters? |
answer
| the Sigma factor (subunit) |
question
| what are the two regions within promoters that are highly conserved (and important) where are they located? |
answer
| Pribnow box (-10 region) -35 region --> located 35 bases upstream of transcription. |
question
| Concensus sequences |
answer
| Sequences that establish a baseline rate of transcription for that gene. Controlled by how deviant from the ideal concensus sequence it is. Found at the -10 and -35 base regions of the promoter sequence. |
question
| What terminates transcription? |
answer
| Termination of RNA synthesis is governed by a specific DNA sequence. Intrinsic terminators: Transcription is terminated without any additional factors. Rho-dependent termination: Rho protein recognizes specific DNA sequences (rho sequence) and cause a pause in RNA polymerase. Inverted repeats will terminate transcription: A stem loop in RNA immediately upstream from a run of uracils leads to transcription termination. |
question
| Unit of transcription: |
answer
| Unit of chromosome bounded by sites where transcription of DNA to RNA is initiated and terminated. Example: Operon or Regulon. |
question
| An RNA encoding a group of cotranscribed genes is called what? |
answer
| polycistronic mRNA |
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| Regulon |
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| A group of operons that are coordinately regulated. |
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| constitutive proteins |
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| proteins that are needed at the same level all the time. |
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| What is the ribosome binding site? |
answer
| the Shine-Dalgarno sequence |
question
| What are the major modes of regulation? |
answer
| One controls the activity of preexisting enzymes -posttranslational regulation (takes seconds) One controls the amount of an enzyme - regulate level of transcription - regulate translation (minutes) |
question
| How is transcription regulated? |
answer
| DNA-binding protein, Negative control of transcription: Repression and induction Repression: protein binds to DNA in response to a signal and blocks synthesis of enzymes Induction - A small molecule binds to a repressor and causes it to fall off, thereby synthesizing the enzyme. Positive control of transcription: binding even of regulatory protein to DNA activates transcription global control and the lac operon |
question
| DNA binding proteins |
answer
| small molecules that influence the binding of regulatory proteins to DNA. (proteins that regulate transcription). Most DNA-binding proteins interact with DNA sequences with specificity. Major groove of DNA is the main site of protein binding. |
question
| which groove of the DNA is the main site of protein binding? |
answer
| the major groove of DNA. |
question
| What type of sequence is typically the binding site for regulatory proteins? |
answer
| inverted repeats ==> read the same forwards as backwards and form a hairpin loop. **remember terminators are also these |
question
| Homodimeric proteins |
answer
| Proteins composed of two identical polypeptides. - Protein dimers interact with inverted repeats on DNA. Each of the polypeptides binds to one inverted repeat. |
question
| what are the classes of protein domains that are critical for proper binding of proteins to DNA. |
answer
| helix-turn-helix : First helix is the recognition helix. Second is the stabilizing helix. Ex: Lac and trip repressors of e. coli Zinc Finger : protein structure that binds a zinc ion. There's typically 2-3 zinc fingers on proteins that use them for DNA binding. Leucine Zipper : leucine residues are placed every seven amino acids Does not directly interact with DNA, instead interacts through the hydrophobic effect. |
question
| Inducer |
answer
| a substance that induces enzyme synthesis by binding to a regulatory protein and causing it to fall off the DNA strand. |
question
| Corepressor |
answer
| a substance that represses enzyme synthesis. It binds to a regulatory protein, a repressor, and causes it to bind to DNA. |
question
| effectors |
answer
| collective term for inducers and repressors. repressor molecules bind to an allosteric repressor protein. |
question
| Allosteric repressor |
answer
| Once bound to a repressor, allosteric repressors become active and bind to a region of DNA near the promoter called the operater. |
question
| where is the operater found? What is it? |
answer
| downstream from the promoter. It is the sequence where the regulatory proteins bind and block transcription. |
question
| Repressor |
answer
| A regulatory protein that, when bound to a corepressor, binds to a DNA strand and blocks transcription. |
question
| Positive control |
answer
| A regulator protein activates the binding of RNA polymerase to DNA. Activator proteins, when bound to an inducer, bind to the activator binding site and RNA polymerase and urge transcription forwards. |
question
| Global control systems. what are some xamples of it? |
answer
| regulate expression of many different genes simultaneously. Catabolite repression: synthesis of unrelated catabolic enzymes is repressed if glucose is present in the growth medium. - Lac operon is under control of catabolite repression. |
question
| Diauxic growth |
answer
| Two exponential growth phases. Occurs when glucose is used up and another energy source has been tapped. |
question
| Catabolite repression is what kind of activation? |
answer
| positive activation |
question
| Selectable mutations |
answer
| Those that give the mutant a growth advantage under certain conditions |
question
| nonselectable mutations |
answer
| those that give the mutant neither an advantage or disadvantage over the parent. e.g. inability to grow under certain conditions. requires screening to detect mutants. |
question
| Bacteria that can grow on one medium but not another would be called what? |
answer
| auxotrophs |
question
| List and describe the different methods of mutation. |
answer
| induced mutations - environmentally or deliberately induced - exposure to oxygen radicals or natural radiation spontaneous mutations point mutations - mutations that change only one base pair - can lead to single amino acid change in a protein, an incomplete protein or no change at all (silent) |
question
| What are the different types of mutations that can occur? |
answer
| Silent mutation - does not effect amino acid sequence missense mutation -AA changed - polypeptide altered nonsense mutation - codon becomes stop codon, incomplete protein. Frameshift mutations - deletions or insertions result in a shift of reading frame. Often results in complete loss of gene function. |
question
| Which type of mutation is usually reversable? |
answer
| point mutations. |
question
| reversion |
answer
| alteration of DNA that reverses the effects of a prior mutation |
question
| revertant |
answer
| stain in which the original phenotype has been restored. two types: same type revertant: mutation is at same site as original mutation second-site revertant: mutation is at a different site in the DNA. |
question
| Mutagents: |
answer
| chemical, physical or biological agents that increase mutation rates |
question
| what are the classes of mutagents: |
answer
chemical mutagens: - nucleotide base analogs -> resemble nucleotides - C.M. that induce chemical modification - C.M. that cause frameshift mutations (example: acridine)
Radiation: - non ionizing --> purines and prymidines strongly absorb UV. Pyrimidime dimer is an effect of this. - Ionizing radiation (cosmic rays, xrays, gamma rays)High energy short wave. --> ionize water and cause free radicals which damage macromolecules in the cell |
question
| What are the three types of DNA repair systems? |
answer
| Direct Reversal - mutated base is still recognizable and can be repaired without referring to other strand. Repair of single strand damage - damaged DNA is removed and repaired using opposite strand as template Repair of double strand damage: a break in the DNA --> requires more error prone repair mechanisms. |
question
| What repair system is used when DNA damage is severe? |
answer
| a mechanism called the SOS regulatory system. It's more error prone, which allows replication to proceed and the cell to replicate, but errors are most likely. |
question
| Translesion synthesis |
answer
| used by the SOS system, it allows DNA to be synthesized with no template. |
question
| RecA |
answer
| protein that recognizes and is activated by DNA damage detected as small bits of DNA that accumulate in the cell. It interacts with the LexA repressor, which helps the LexA to cleave itself. It then falls off the opressor of the SOS regulons, which then can be transcribed. It is also used during transformation by bringing strands of DNA closer together. |
question
| Radioduran |
answer
| an organism that is 20-200 times more resistant to radiation than E. coli. Why? it has hyper repair mechanisms. |
question
| Ames test |
answer
| Test makes practical use of bacterial mutations to detect for potentially mutagenic chemicals. |
question
| Genetic recombination |
answer
| Physical exchanged of DNA between genetic elements. |
question
| homologous recombination |
answer
| Process that results in the genetic exchange between two homologous DNA from two different sources. When two different alleles of the same gene are exchanged, one for the other. |
question
| Transformation |
answer
| genetic transfer process by which DNA is incorporated into a recipient cell and brings about genetic change. |
question
| What does it mean when a cell is competent? |
answer
| The the cell is capable of taking up DNA and being transformed. electricity and chemical methods can be used to make cells more competent. |
question
| Transduction |
answer
| Transfer of DNA from one cell to another by bacteriophage. Basically, when a piece of the chromosome of the last victim of a virus is taken and given to the next "victim". Two modes: 1) Generalized Transduction: DNA from any portion of the host genome is accidentally packaged inside the virion 2) Specialized Transduction: DNA from a specific region of the host chromosome is integrated directly into the virus genome. |
question
| Conjugation |
answer
| Mechanism of genetic transfer that involves cell-to-cell contact. - plasmid encoded mechanism |
question
| What are essential features of conjugation? |
answer
| Donor cell and recipient cell. F (fertility) plasmid - An episome that contains tra gene that encodes transfer functions. Contains several transposable elements that allow the plasmid to integrate into the host chromosome. Encodes pilus. |
question
| What is the difference between Hfr, F+ cells. |
answer
| Cells possessing an integrated F plasmid are called Hfr (high frequency of recombination) F+ - cells possessing non-integrated F plasmids |
question
| molecular cloning |
answer
| isolation and incorporation of a piece of DNA into a vector so it can be replicated and manipulated. |
question
| What are the main steps of gene cloning? |
answer
| 1) Isolation and fragmentation of source DNA - source DNA can be genomic DNA, RNA, or PCR-amplified fragments. 2) Insertion of DNA fragment into cloning vector - vectors derived from plasmids or viruses. DNA ligase used to join two DNA molecules. 3) introduction of cloned DNA into host organism - transformation is often used to get recombinant DNA into host. |
question
| Gene library |
answer
| Mixture of cells containing a variety of genes. |
question
| shotgun cloning |
answer
| gene libraries made by cloning random genome fragments |
question
| How do you detect the expression of a foreign gene with screening? |
answer
| antibodies nucleic acid probes -- look for binding of labeled nucleic acid probe to DNA from specific colonies. |
question
| blue-white cloning --> |
answer
| the degradation of B-galactosidase creates a blue cell. you can screen for colonies that have the cloned vector in it by looking at the colors. Blue do not have the cloned vectors, white cells do. the white cells are an example of insertional inactivation |
question
| Insertional inactivation. |
answer
| When a gene is inactivated by the insertion of foreign DNA. |
question
| Saccaromyces Cerevisiae |
answer
| Yeast cells |
question
| What are the molecular methods of mutagenesis? |
answer
| Site-directed mutagenesis Casette mutagenesis and knockout mutations - DNA fragment can be cut, excised and replaced by synthetic DNA fragment. - Gene disruption is when the DNA is put into the middle of genes and causes a knockout mutation. |
question
| Expression vectors |
answer
| Allow experimenter to control the expression of a clone gene. Based on transcriptional control and allows for high levels of protein expression. Expression vectors are under the control of their own promotors and regulatory proteins. IE in T7 expression vectors, cloned genes are placed under T7 promotors control. T7 RNA polymerase gene is present and recognizes only T7 promotors. |
question
| Virion |
answer
| A viral particle, the extracellular form of the virus. Contains the N.A. genome surrounded by a protein coat. |
question
| What are the different viral classes and genomes? |
answer
| DNA viruses --> single stranded and double stranded DNA genomes. RNA viruses --> single stranded and double stranded DNA genomes. RNA <--> DNA viruses --> Single stranded RNA (Retroviruses) and Double Stranded DNA (hepadnaviruses) |
question
| How can viruses be classified? |
answer
| by the hosts that they infect. Example: Bacterial viruses are bacteriophages, archaeal viruses animal viruses plant viruses |
question
| What is the viral structure? |
answer
| Capsid --> the protein shell that surrounds the genome of a virus particle. Capsomere --> subunit of the capsid. Continuously binds to RNA strand. Nucleocapsid --> complete complex of nucleic acid and protein packaged in the virion Enveloped virus --> virus that contains additional layers around the nucleocapsid. |
question
| What are the different symmetries of the nucleocapsids? |
answer
| helical symmetry: rod shaped viruses (tobacco mosaic virus) Isohedral symmetry: Spherical viruses Enveloped (budding) viruses: membrane surrounding the nucleocapsid. Complex viruses: virions composed of several parts, each with separate shapes/symmetries. (isohedral heads and helical tails) |
question
| what is the structure of bacteriophage T4? |
answer
| From top to bottom: Head, collar, tail, tail pins, end plate, tail fibers. |
question
| What enzymes do virions contain? |
answer
| lysozyme, used to bore a hole through the cell wall. nucleic acid polymerases neuraminidases - enzymes that cleave glycosidic bonds allowin the liberation of the virus from the host cell. |
question
| What are the different life cycles of viruses? |
answer
| virulent mode: viruses lyse host cells after infection Temperate mode: viruses replicate their genomes in tandem with host genomes and without killing their host. |
question
| What type of lifecycle does bacteriophage lambda experience? |
answer
| temperate |
question
| What type of genome does bacteriophage T4 have? |
answer
| It has a dsDNA genome that is circularly permuted and terminally redundant. |
question
| T4 genome can be divided into three parts. What are they and what does each express? |
answer
| Early and middle proteins: Enzymes needed for DNA replication and transcription Late protein: head and tail proteins and enzymes required to liberate mature phage particles. |
question
| Lysogen |
answer
| A bacterium containing a prophage |
question
| Lysogeny |
answer
| state where most virus genes are not expressed and virus genomes (prophage) is replicated in synchrony with host chromosome. |
question
| Lytic lifecycle |
answer
| Virus hijacks cells biosynthesis mechanisms until it bursts the cell with lysozyme |
question
| which two repressor proteins are key elements in the regulation of lytic vs. lysogenic events in lambda? |
answer
| cl protein (the lambda repressor) causes repression of lambda lytic events. Cro repressor: controls activation of lytic events. |
question
| Animal viruses |
answer
| entire virion enters animal cell, unlike in prokaryotes. Nucleus is site of replication for many viruses. Much more likely to be enveloped. |
question
| what are the consequences of viral infections in animal cells? |
answer
| persistent infections: release of virions from host cell does not result in lysis latent infections: delay between infection by the virus and lytic events. transformation: conversion of normal cell into tumor cell cell fusion: two or more cells become one cell with many nuclei |
question
| retroviruses |
answer
| viruses that replicate through a DNA intermediate. - enveloped viruses - contain reverse transcriptase (copies information from its RNA genome into DNA), integrase and protease. Virion contains specific tRNA molecules. Contains specific genes: gag - encode structural proteins pol - encode reverse transcriptase and integrate env - encode envelope proteins |
question
| what is the process of replication for a retrovirus? |
answer
| -entrance into cell -removal of virion envelope @ membrane -reverse transcriptase of one or two RNA genomes -integration of retroviral DNA into host genome -transcription of retroviral DNA -assembly and packaging of genomic RNA -budding of enveloped virions; release from cell |
AP Biology
Bond Between Amino Acids
Chemistry
Van Der Waals Interactions
Biochemistry Unit 1 AP Biology Full – Flashcards 78 terms
78 terms
Preview
Biochemistry Unit 1 AP Biology Full – Flashcards
question
ionic bond
answer
bond resulting from a transfer of electrons (electrons being ripped off)
question
covalent bond
answer
bond resulting from the sharing of electrons
question
nonpolar
answer
electrons shared equally
question
polar covalent bond
answer
bond resulting from electrons shared unequally
question
buffer
answer
substance that resists changes in pH
question
bicarbonate ion
answer
most important buffer in human blood
question
isomer
answer
organic compounds with the same molecular formula but different structure
question
monosaccharide
answer
C6H12O6 simple sugar; glucose, galactose, and fructose
question
disaccharide
answer
two monosaccharides joined together; C12H22O1; maltose, lactose, and sucrose
question
dehydration synthesis
answer
condensation; joining compounds together with water released
question
hydrolysis
answer
breakdown of a compound by adding water
question
polysaccharide
answer
polymers of carbohydrates ("many" sugars)
question
cellulose
answer
structural polysaccharide that makes up plant cell walls
question
starch
answer
storage polysaccharide found in plants
question
amylose
answer
simplest storage polysaccharide form of starch
question
amylopectin
answer
more complex storage polysaccharide form of starch
question
chitin
answer
structural polysaccharide found in animals; makes up the exoskeleton in arthropods
question
glycogen
answer
storage polysaccharide animal starch that in humans is stored in the liver and the skeletal muscle
question
glycerol
answer
alcohol portion of a lipid
question
fatty acid
answer
hydrocarbon chain with a carboxyl group at one end; attaches to glycerol
question
saturated fat
answer
fat without double bonds
question
unsaturated fat
answer
fat with double bonds
question
steroid
answer
lipid with a four fused ring structure; cholesterol and testosterone
question
peptide bond
answer
bond creating amino acid chains or polymers (bond between amino acids)
question
conformation
answer
protein's unique shape that determines its function
question
primary structure
answer
linear sequence of amino acids; peptide bonds
question
secondary structure
answer
protein formed with hydrogen bonds
question
tertiary structure
answer
3D conformation formed; determines specificity, due to hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, hydrophobic interactions and ionic bonds
question
quaternary structure
answer
protein with more than one polypeptide chain
question
alpha helix
answer
secondary structure form of a protein; human hair (keratin)
question
beta pleated sheet
answer
secondary structure form of a protein; spider webs and silk
question
heme group
answer
one of four polypeptide chains in the quaternary structure of hemoglobin
question
protein folding problem
answer
how proteins form their unique shapes
question
functional group
answer
components of organic molecules most often involved in chemical reactions
question
metabolism
answer
sum of all chemical reactions that take place in cell
question
enzyme
answer
catalytic protein that lowers a reaction's energy of activation
question
induced fit model
answer
enzyme model where the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape slightly so it fits better
question
cofactor
answer
inorganic enzyme assist
question
coenzyme
answer
organic enzyme assist (vitamins)
question
competitive inhibition
answer
compounds that look like the normal substrate compete for the same active site on the enzyme
question
noncompetitive inhibition
answer
more than one active site and the substrates do not look like each other
question
allosteric inhibition
answer
two active sites, one for a substrate and one for an inhibitor
question
feedback inhibition
answer
metabolic pathway is switched off by the end product; allosteric inhibition
question
cooperativity
answer
substrate stimulating an enzyme with quaternary structure to be more effective
question
cohesion
answer
like molecules sticking together
question
alkaline
answer
synonym for basic
question
salt
answer
compound that releases ion other than H+ or OH- when dissolved in water
question
chemical equilibrium
answer
when the reaction rate is about the same in either direction
question
polymer
answer
long molecule consisting of many similar or identical monomers linked together
question
monomer
answer
building block for polymers; only made by producers
question
adhesion
answer
attraction between different kinds of molecules
question
surface tension
answer
measure of how difficult it is to stretch or break the surface of a liquid
question
van der Waals interactions
answer
tertiary structure; weak attractions between molecules or parts of molecules that result from localized charge fluctuations
question
evaporative cooling
answer
property of a liquid where the surface becomes cooler during evaporation due to the loss of molecules
question
hydration shell
answer
sphere of water molecules around each dissolved ion
question
disulfide bridge
answer
tertiary structure; strong covalent bond formed when one sulfur of one cysteine monomer bonds to the sulfur of another
question
hydrophobic interaction
answer
tertiary structure; weak chemical bond formed when molecules that do not mix with water change to exclude the water
question
hydrocarbon
answer
organic molecule consisting of only hydrogen and carbon
question
macromolecule
answer
giant molecule formed by the joining of smaller molecules
question
glycosodic linkage
answer
covalent bond formed between two monosaccharides by a dehydration synthesis reaction
question
triose
answer
three carbon sugar
question
pentose
answer
five carbon sugar
question
hexose
answer
six carbon sugar
question
hydroxyl
answer
hydrogen bonded to oxygen bonded to an organic molecule's carbon skeleton; alcohol; polar
question
carboxyl
answer
oxygen double bonded to a carbon atom that is bonded to a hydroxyl group
question
amine
answer
nitrogen bonded to two hydrogens and to the carbon skeleton
question
phosphate
answer
phosphorous bonded to four oxygens, two have negative charges, one is bonded to the carbon skeleton; phospholipid
question
isotope
answer
atoms with same number of protons but different number of neutrons
question
hydrogen bond
answer
weak bond between hydrogen and a highly electronegative atom like nitrogen or oxygen
question
acid
answer
more H+ than OH- ions, pH below 7
question
base
answer
more OH- than H+ ions, pH above 7
question
pH
answer
measure of H+ ions in a solution
question
triglyceride
answer
glycerol plus 3 fatty acids
question
phospholipid
answer
has a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail, major component of cell membrane
question
LDL
answer
low density lipoprotein, "bad cholesterol"
question
HDL
answer
high density lipoprotein, "good cholesterol"
question
amino acid
answer
contain carboxyl group (COOH) and amino group (NH2) and side chain R.... make up proteins
question
chaperonin
answer
a protein that assists in the proper folding of a polypeptide into a protein
Biology
Bond Between Amino Acids
BIO 1404: Ch 15, 16, 17, & 18 65 terms
65 terms
Preview
BIO 1404: Ch 15, 16, 17, & 18
question
Which of the following can regulate protein expression in a cell? A. mRNA degredation B. Protein degredation C. RNA processing
answer
All of the above
question
Alternative RNA splicing allows for:
answer
Different mRNA molecules are produced from the same primary transcript
question
An operon may consist of which of the following: A. Promoter B. Genes C. Regulatory gene
answer
A & B: A promotor and genes
question
What is a protein produced by a regulatory gene?
answer
A repressor
question
For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur?
answer
RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter and the repressor must be absent
question
Enhancers are ___ control elements
answer
Distal
question
Steroid receptors produce their effects by:
answer
Binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription
question
Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histoacetylation are all examples of:
answer
Epigenic phenomena
question
Catabolite activator protein (CAP) is activated by:
answer
cAMP
question
\"In situ\" hybridization can be used to:
answer
See mRNA expressed in different parts of an organism
question
Which of the following controls pattern formation? A. Biocoid B. Homeotic genes C. Introns
answer
B. Homeotic genes
question
The target host of a virus is determined by:
answer
Proteins on the surface of the virus and on the surface of the host
question
Which of the following are sources of developmental information: A. Cytoplasmic determinants B. Induction by nearby cells through signaling molecules C. Albumin concentration
answer
A & B: Cytoplasmic determinants and induction by nearby cells through signaling molecules
question
Which virus has a genome that encodes for reverse transcriptase?
answer
Retrovirus
question
A stem cell can divide into: A. A stem cell and a precursor cell B. Two stem cells C. Two precursor cells
answer
All of the above
question
The bicoid gene expressed in Drosophila proves information about:
answer
The anterior-posterior axis
question
A proto-oncogene:
answer
Normally codes for proteins involved in cell growth and division
question
The membrane envelope of an influenza virus arises from:
answer
The plasma membrane
question
A mutation that affects a fundamental developmental process is called an:
answer
Embryonic lethal mutation
question
Another term for programmed cell death is:
answer
Apoptosis
question
The first cloned cat, Carbon Copy, was a calico, but she looked significantly different from her female parent. Why?
answer
X inactivation in the embryo is random and produces different patterns
question
Describe the lysogenic cycle of lambda phage.
answer
The phage genome replicates along with the host genome
question
The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that:
answer
Differentiated cells retain all the genes of the zygote
question
The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes? A. Relaying a signal from a growth factor receptor B. Cell-cell adhesion C. DNA replication D. Cell division E. DNA repair
answer
A. Relaying a signal from a growth factor receptor
question
A microarray known as a GeneChip, with most of the human protein-coding genetic sequences, has been developed to aid in the study of human cancer by first comparing two to three subsets of cancer subtypes. What kind of information might be gleaned from this GeneChip to aid in cancer prevention?
answer
Data that could alert patients to what kind of cancer they were likely to acquire
question
Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are:
answer
DNA methylation and histone acetylation
question
Which types of viruses include capsids?
answer
The three major types: spherical, helical, polyhedral, and complex viruses.
question
Which types of viruses include glycoproteins?
answer
Polyhedral and spherical
question
Which of the following accounts for someone who has had a herpesvirus-mediated cold sore or genital cold sore getting flare-ups for the rest of his or her life? A. Re-infection by a closely related herpesvirus of a different strain B. Co-infection with an unrelated virus that causes the same symptoms C. Copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei D. Re-infection by the same herpesvirus strain E. Copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host cell cytoplasm
answer
C. Copies of the herpesvirus genome permanently maintained in host nuclei
question
The tryptophan operon is a repressible operon that is:
answer
Turned off whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium
question
Why do RNA viruses appear to have higher rates of mutation?
answer
Replication of their genomes does not involve proofreading and repair mechanisms
question
What is considered to be the first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo?
answer
The occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins
question
Emerging viruses arise by: A. The spread of existing viruses to new host species B. The spread of existing viruses more widely within their host species C. Mutation of existing viruses
answer
All of the above
question
What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retrovirus?
answer
It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis
question
Forms of the Ras protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following? A. Cell division to cease B. DNA replication to be hyperactive C. DNA replication to stop D. Growth factor signaling to be hyperactive E. Cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional
answer
D. Growth factor signaling to be hyperactive
question
Why might the cricket genome have 11 times as many base pairs as that of Drosophila?
answer
Crickets must have more noncoding DNA
question
Gene expression might be altered at the level of post-transcriptional processing in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of what?
answer
Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns
question
Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon starts when?
answer
When the pathway's substrate is present
question
You are observing the activity of methylated DNA. You would expect it to have what effect on transcription?
answer
To have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription
question
Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses? A. Independent existence B. Genetic material composed of nucleic acid C. Cell division D. Metabolism E. Ribosomes
answer
B. Genetic material composed of nucleic acid
question
Which viruses have single-stranded RNA that acts as a template for DNA synthesis?
answer
Retroviruses
question
Mutations in which of the following genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts? A. Morphogens B. Inducers C. Egg-polarity genes D. Segmentation genes E. Homeotic genes
answer
E. Homeotic genes
question
What causes an increase in CAP?
answer
A decrease in glucose and an increase in cAMP
question
The lactose operon is the most likely to be transcribed when:
answer
The cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell
question
Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they:
answer
Express different genes
question
The functioning of enhancers is an example of what?
answer
Transcriptional control of gene expression
question
Which one of the following techniques involves reverse transcriptase, PCR amplification, and gel electrophoresis? A. \"in situ\" hybridization B. DNA microarray assays C. Nucleic acid hybridization D. RT-PCR E. RNA interference
answer
D. RT-PCR
question
What are oncogenes?
answer
They code for proteins associated with cell growth
question
How could you represent gene density?
answer
Genes per base pairs; humans have ~20,000 genes in 2,900 Mb
question
How was Dolly the sheep cloned?
answer
The fusion of an adult cell's nucleus with an enucleated sheep egg, followed by incubation in a surrogate
question
A multigene family is composed of:
answer
Genes whose sequences are very similar and that probably arose by duplication
question
What is the most probable fate of a newly emerging virus that causes high mortality in its host?
answer
The newly emerging virus will die out rather quickly or will mutate to be far less lethal
question
In a genome-wide expression study using a DNA microarray assay, each well is used to detect the:
answer
Expression of a specific gene by a cell
question
One of the characteristics of retrotransposons is that:
answer
They code for an enzyme that synthesizes DNA using an RNA template
question
In humans, why do the embryonic and fetal forms of hemoglobin have a higher affinity for oxygen than adults do?
answer
Because of nonidentical genes that produce different versions of globins during development
question
What is the most likely explanation for the differences in the human and chimpanzee genomes?
answer
The common ancestor of humans and chimpanzees had 24 pairs of chromosomes, and at some point in the human lineage, two chromosomes fused end to end, providing some selective advantage
question
Which of the following can be effective in preventing the onset of viral infection in humans? A. Taking antibiotics B. Taking vitamins C. Getting vaccinated D. Applying antiseptics E. Taking nucleoside analogs that inhibit transcription
answer
C. Getting vaccinated
question
The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called:
answer
RNA interference
question
When does exon shuffling occur?
answer
During meiotic recombination
question
When new viruses are being assembled, what mediates the assembly?
answer
Nothing; they self-assemble
question
The comparison between the number of human genes and those of other animal species has led to many conclusions, including that:
answer
The number of proteins expressed be the human genome is far more than the number of its genes
question
Homeotic genes contain a homeobox sequence that is highly conserved among very diverse species. The homeobox is the code for that domain of a protein that binds to DNA in a regulatory developmental process. What would you expect about the expression of homeotic genes?
answer
Homeotic genes are selectively expressed over developmental time
question
What is the whole-genome shotgun technique for sequencing a genome?
answer
Cloning fragments from many copies of an entire chromosome, sequencing the fragments, and then ordering the sequences
question
Which of the following is a characteristic of the lytic cycle? A. Viral DNA is incorporated into the host genome B. The virus-host relationship usually lasts for generation C. Many bacterial cells containing viral DNA are produced D. The viral genome replicates without destroying the host E. A large number of phages are released at a time
answer
E. A large number of phages are released at a time
question
What is bioinformatics?
answer
The application of computational methods to the storage and analysis of biological data
Amino Acid Side Chains
Bioinformatics
Bond Between Amino Acids
IB Biology
SCCC Seward County Community College Liberal, KS-Nutrition 44 terms
44 terms
Preview
SCCC Seward County Community College Liberal, KS-Nutrition
question
Makeup proteins & bonds that link together
answer
Nitrogen, Carboxyl, Hydrogen, Side Chain (R)
question
Good sources of protein
answer
Animal based-Tuna; Plant based-Soy
question
Protease is responsible for ___
answer
breakdown of proteins
question
Essential vs Non-Essential amino acids
answer
Essential-consumed via food Non-Essential--produced by body
question
Transamination
answer
transfer of amino group from an amino acid to a new amino acid
question
Deamination
answer
amino acid losing an amino group; excreted in urine
question
Complete proteins
answer
has adequate amounts of all essential amino acids; animal proteins
question
Incomplete proteins
answer
inadequate amounts of amino acids; plant proteins
question
Synthesis of proteins
answer
determined through gene expression
question
Primary protein structures
answer
Order of amino acids determines shape
question
Secondary protein structures
answer
weaker bonds between nearby amino acids form spiral-like or pleated sheet shape
question
Terciary protein structures
answer
3D folding determines function
question
Quaternary protein structure
answer
intertwined
question
North American Diet % and source Protein
answer
70% supplied by meat; poultry, fish, milk, milk products, legumes, nuts
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positive nitrogen balance
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protein intake exceeds protein losses
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negative nitrogen balance
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protein losses exceed protein intake
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Protein absorption
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cooking denatures protein, stomach, small intestine, amino acids absorbed into portal vein
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where are amino acids derived from?
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animal and plant foods
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nutrient concerns for vegetarian diets
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Lack of B12, Calcium, Iron, Zinc, Vitamin D, High-quality Protein, Riboflavin
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Recommended intake for protein
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10%
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Edema
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maintaining fluid balance
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Buffers
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contributing to acid base balance
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Function of Proteins
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forming hormones, enzymes, neurotransmitters
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Deamination process
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filters amino group in liver; excreted in urine
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Protein Function
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contributing to immune function; transporting nutrients; energy 4 kcal/g; forming glucose
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Marasmus
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minimal amounts of energy, protein, other nutrients
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Kwashiorkor
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minimal amounts of protein and moderate energy deficit
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Big 8 food allergies
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Peanuts, Tree nuts, Milk, Eggs, Fish, Shellfish, Soy, Wheat
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Facts of Alcohol
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7 kcal/g; standard drink provides 15 g of alcohol
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Source of alcohol
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beer, wine, distilled spirits, liqueers, cordials, hard cider
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Moderate intake of Alcohol
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< 1 drink/day for women < 2 drink/day for men
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Absorption of alcohol
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Thru GI tract by simple diffusion
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% Absorbed of alcohol
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20% in stomach; 80% duodenum/jejunum
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ADH-Metabolic Pathway of Alcohol
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Stomach & Liver; low to moderate intake
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MEOS-Metabolic Pathway of Alcohol
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Liver; moderate to excessive intake
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Catalase Pathway-Metabolic Pathway of Alcohol
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Liver & Other Cells; moderate to excessive intake
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Alcohol Metabolism and Rate
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5-7 g/hour (1/2 drink)
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Recommended intake of alcohol
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None
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Alcohol Consumption of North America
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62% Adults; 70% college students, 45% binge drink; 1/2 adolescents age 14-15 have consumed alcohol
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Effects of alcohol intake during pregnancy
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Most severe damage from 12-16 wks of pregnancy; Fetal alcohol syndrome & Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder
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Risks of excessive alcohol intake
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damages organs and systems; cancer; accidents; cirrhosis of liver
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Alcohol Dependency
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Alcoholism, Genetic influences, Effect of gender; Age of onset of drinking, Ethnicity, Mental health
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Effect of liver from Excess Alcohol Intake
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Cirrhosis- Jaundice, Fibrosis & Inflammation of liver tissue
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Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
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Small head, nose, eye opening thin lip, no upper lip groove
