Biology Test V (Ch. 14 & 40) – Flashcards
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Start/ methionine
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AUG
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Stop codon
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UAG UGA UAA
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Amino Acid
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AUC UGC CAC ACU AAA GCA
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During translation, nucleotide base triplets (codons) in mRNA are read in sequence in the 5' → 3' direction along the mRNA. Amino acids are specified by the string of codons. What amino acid sequence does the following mRNA nucleotide sequence specify? 5′−AUGGCAAGAAAA−3′ Express the sequence of amino acids using the three-letter abbreviations, separated by hyphens (e.g., Met-Ser-Thr-Lys-Gly).
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Met-Ala-Arg-Lys
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What amino acid sequence does the following DNA nucleotide sequence specify? 3′−TACAGAACGGTA−5′ Express the sequence of amino acids using the three-letter abbreviations, separated by hyphens (e.g., Met-Ser-His-Lys-Gly).
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Met-Ser-Cys-His
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Which of these correctly illustrates the pairing of DNA and RNA nucleotides?
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GTTACG CAAUGC
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The direction of synthesis of an RNA transcript is _____.
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5' —> 3'
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For any given gene, what ultimately determines which DNA strand serves as the template strand?
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the base sequence of the gene's promoter
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Which three statements correctly describe the processing that takes place before a mature mRNA exits the nucleus?
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A poly-A tail (50-250 adenine nucleotides) is added to the 3' end of the pre-mRNA. A cap consisting of a modified guanine nucleotide is added to the 5' end of the pre-mRNA. Noncoding sequences called introns are spliced out by molecular complexes called spliceosomes
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tRNA
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contains an anticodon has amino acids covalently attached
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mRNA
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contains exons specifies the amino acid sequence for a protein
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rRNA
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is the most abundant form of RNA is a component of ribosomes
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transcription/RNA processing
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mRNA
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translation
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tRNA rRNA
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Where does translation take place?
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Ribosome
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Which nucleic acid is translated to make a protein?
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mRNA
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Which of the following processes is an example of a post-translational modification?
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Phosphorylation
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Which of the following steps occurs last in the initiation phase of translation?
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The large ribosomal subunit joins the complex
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At which site do new aminoacyl tRNAs enter the ribosome during elongation?
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A-site
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What is meant by translocation?
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The ribosome slides one codon down the mRNA.
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True or false. A tRNA with an anticodon complementary to the stop codon catalyzes the reaction by which translation is terminated.
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false
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Based on the genetic code chart above, which of the following would be the result of this single base-pair substitution?
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a nonsense mutation resulting in early termination of translation
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PFK
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cytoplasm only
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insulin
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ER -> Golgi -> Outside cell
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True or false? A codon is a group of three bases that can specify more than one amino acid
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false
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Which of the following statements about mutations is false?
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A knock-out mutation results in a total absence of the mutated protein
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If a DNA sequence is altered from TAGCTGA to TAGTGA, what kind of mutation has occurred?
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Deletion.
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Which mutation(s) would not change the remainder of the reading frame of a gene sequence that follows the mutation(s)?
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One addition and one deletion mutation.
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If the sequence ATGCATGTCAATTGA were mutated such that a base were inserted after the first G and the third T were deleted, how many amino acids would be changed in the mutant protein?
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two
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If a mutated DNA sequence produces a protein that differs in one central amino acid from the normal protein, which of the following kinds of mutations could have occurred?
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An addition mutation and a deletion mutation.
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Which of the following molecules is/are produced by translation? Include molecules that are subject to further modification after initial synthesis.
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Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase RNA polymerase
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Which of the following mutations would likely be most dangerous to a cell?
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Deletion of nucleotide
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The average length of a transcription unit along a eukaryotic DNA molecule is about 27,000 nucleotide pairs, whereas an averaged-sized protein is about 400 amino acids long. What is the best explanation for this fact?
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Most eukaryotic genes and their RNA transcripts have long noncoding stretches of nucleotides that are not translated
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Which of the following statements about ribozymes is/are correct?
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A ribosome can be regarded as one large ribozyme. Ribozymes are RNA molecules that function as enzymes. In some genes, intron RNA functions as a ribozyme and catalyzes its own excision
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According to the findings in this study, which of the following is true?
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The environment plays a role in the cause of certain diseases.
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Rheumatoid arthritis, celiac disease, and multiple sclerosis are all autoimmune diseases. Which of the following is true?
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Gene switches likely play a role in these diseases.
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Rather than "junk" DNA, such material is now referred to as what?
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dark matter
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Your identical twin is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following is true?
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You may or may not get Crohn's disease.
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According to this study, which of the following is true?
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In humans, less DNA is used for genes than gene switches.
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What are the two major factors determining the distribution of terrestrial biomes?
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temperature and rainfall
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Which of these biomes is characterized by little rainfall?
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desert
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Which of these is the largest terrestrial biome on Earth?
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coniferous forest
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Which biome is characterized by an extensive canopy that allows little light to penetrate to the ground and by the presence of epiphytes?
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tropical rain forest
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Which biome is characterized by the presence of permafrost?
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tundra
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Which action influences the abiotic components of an organism's environment?
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water pollution
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Which aspects of a region's climate have the most impact on plants and animals?
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temperature & moisture
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True or false? Weather is defined as the prevailing long-term atmospheric conditions in a particular region.
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false
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Which of the following statements about Hadley cells is true?
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As warm air rises, air at the top of the atmosphere is pushed poleward and cools
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Which location on Earth receives the most solar radiation per unit area?
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equator
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What are rain shadows?
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Dry regions on the leeward side of mountain ranges.
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Which desert is caused by a Hadley cell?
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Sahara Desert in Africa.
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Which of these is characteristic of the photic zone of a freshwater biome?
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the presence of algae
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The benthic zone of aquatic environments is defined as the _____.
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substrate at the bottom of the body of water
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The _____ biome is the largest of Earth's biomes
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marine
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A(n) _____ is a region where fresh water and salt water mix.
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estuary
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Aquatic biomes can be distinguished by chemical characteristics such as dissolved oxygen content and salinity and by physical characteristics such as water flow. Which five of the following statements about aquatic biomes are true?
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Wetlands have slow water movement or no water movement and no turnover. Temperature drives water movement in some lakes. Tropical coral reefs generally exist in relatively shallow areas of the ocean. Estuaries are very productive and are used as breeding grounds by many species of fish. A freshwater organism permanently attached to the substrate would be unlikely to survive and reproduce in an estuary.
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If rmax is doubled, how would the population growth rates change?
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the population growth rates would double
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What does a negative population growth rate tell you about the dynamics of the population
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The population size is decreasing instead of increasing.
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Does the measured growth match the predicted growth pattern/
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no, it is lower than the predicted values in some parts and higher in other parts.
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What is the predicted carrying capacity of the Daphnia culture?
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135 Daphnia/50mL
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Did the Daphnia population ever experience a negative growth rate>
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From about day 70 to day 105, the population decreased in size, indicating a negative growth rate.
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What is the best biological explanation for why the Daphnia population growth rate became negative between days 70 and 105?
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The population overshot the carrying capacity and started running out of resources during that period.
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What is the best biological explanation for why the population stayed below the carrying capacity between days 100 and 160?
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Overcrowding before day 100 caused the birth rate to decrease and the death rate to increase, and it took another 60 days for the relative rates to stabilize.
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K increases
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a main competitor for food is eliminated, increasing food availability. an abandoned building creates more nesting areas
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K decreases
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a parking lot is built, shrinking the habitat wetlands are drained ,decreasing the amount of available water a species with the same food requirements is introduced
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no effect on K
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offspring live longer
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Type of growth
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J-shaped curve: Exponential growth S-shaped curve: Logistic growth
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Habitat conditions
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J-shaped curve: abundant resources S-shaped curve: limited resources
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Growth rate
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J-shaped curve: faster as population size increases S-shaped curve: slows as population size increases
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maximum population size
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J-shaped curve: no limit to population size S-shaped curve: carrying capacity
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Example from part A
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J-shaped curve: Isabela Island geckos S-shaped curve: Daphne Major geckos
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Which of these species typically has a mortality rate that remains fairly constant over an individuals life span?
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robins
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Oyster populations are primarily, if not exclusively, composed of _____
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adults
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Which of these organisms has a survivorship curve similar to that of oysters
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grasses
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Which of these organisms has a survivorship curve similar to that of humans
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elephants
