Bacteriology/Mycology – Flashcards
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What is the standard incubation temperature for bacteria? |
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37 C |
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At what temperature are plasmids inactivated? |
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60 C |
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What temperature kills most bacteria? |
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80-90 C |
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Do Koch's postulates apply to all diseases? |
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No |
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What is the term for the asymptomatic state of a disease, for example TB? |
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Carrier State |
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What is necessary to see bacteria properly in light microscopy? |
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Oil immersion |
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Is Staphylococcus aureus Gr - or +? |
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Gr + |
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In vet med, most cocci are _____. |
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Gr + |
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What is the shape of S. aureus? |
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Cocci in bunches |
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What is the shape of Streptococci? |
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Cocci in chains |
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What is the shape of Pseudomonas? |
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Rod |
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What is the shape of E. coli? |
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Rod |
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What is the shape of Campylobacter jejuni? |
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Curved rod |
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What are 3 examples of branching bacteria? |
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Actinomyces, Nocardia, Dermatophilus |
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What is the shape of Leptospira? |
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Spiral |
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What is the shape of Borrelia? |
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Spiral |
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What is an example of a cocco-bacillary bacteria? |
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Pasturella |
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What shape is Corynebacterium? |
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Pleiomorphic |
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What is the shape of Mycoplasma? |
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No particular shape |
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Give an example of a large, capsulated rod. |
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Bacillus anthracis |
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What is the #1 bacteria used in biological warfare? |
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Bacillus anthracis |
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What bacteria causes plague? |
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Yersinia pestis |
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Is Francisella tularensis Gr+ or -? |
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Gr - |
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Is Streptococcus Gr+ or -? |
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Gr+ |
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Is S. aureus penicillin R or S? |
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R |
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Is Streptococcus penicillin R or S? |
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S |
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R |
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Resistant |
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S |
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Susceptible |
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Is Pseudomonas Gr+ or -? |
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Gr - |
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Is E. coli Gr+ or -? |
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Gr - |
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Why can Pseudomonas sometimes be confused with E. coli? |
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Both are Gr- rods |
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How can Pseudomonas be differentiated from E. coli? |
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Pseudomonas is more uniform/E. coli is less uniform |
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Is Campylobacter Gr+ or -? |
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Gr - |
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Is Actinomyces Gr + or -? |
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+ |
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Is Nocardia Gr + or -? |
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Gr+ |
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Is Dermatophilus Gr+ or -? |
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Gr+ |
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What skin disease-causing organism may appear like railroad track? |
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Dermatophilus |
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Is Dermatophilus penicillin R or S? |
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S |
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Is Dermatophilus tetracycline R or S? |
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S |
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What bacteria causes Lyme disease in humans and dogs? |
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Borrelia burgdorferi |
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Is Lyme disease zoonotic? |
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Yes |
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What bacteria causes leptospirosis in humans & animals? |
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Leptospira |
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Is Leptospirosis zoonotic? |
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Yes |
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Is Pasturella Gr + or -? |
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Gr - |
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What organism causes fowl cholera? |
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Pasturella |
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Is Corynebacterium Gr + or -? |
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Gr+ |
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What disease does Corynebacterium renale cause in cattle? |
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Pyelonephritis |
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What Gr + pleiomorphic bacterium resembles Chinese characters? |
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Corynebacterium |
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Is Corynebacterium R or S to penicillin? |
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100% S |
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Is Mycoplasma penicillin R or S? |
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R |
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Does Mycoplasma have a cell wall? |
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No |
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What determines whether an organism is Gr + or -? |
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Cell wall/Outer envelope |
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What is it called when only the ends of the cell stain well? |
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Bipolar staining |
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What is an example of a bipolar organism? |
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Pasturella |
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What is the term for bacteria that can not be stained well with Gram stain? |
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Acid fast bacteria |
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What can be used for bacteria that stain poorly with Gram stain? |
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Giemsa stain or Silver stain |
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What is a sign of dermatophilus infection? |
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Superficial skin infection without abscesses |
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Give an example of an acid-fast bacteria. |
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Mycobacterium |
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Can Gr stain be used for Mycobacteria? |
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No |
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With what bacteria will old cells stain Gr - even though the bacteria is Gr +? |
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Clostridium |
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What color is the primary stain in acid-fast staining? |
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Pink/Red |
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What color is the counter stain after decolorization in acid-fast staining? |
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Blue |
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Can Gr stain be used for Leptospira? |
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No |
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What stain is used for Leptospira? |
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Silver Stain |
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How does Leptospira appear when stained with Silver stain? |
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Black spirals |
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What is an alternative to Gr, Giemsa, & Silver staining? |
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Negative Staining (India Ink) |
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Give an example of a capsulated bacteria (besides Bacillus). |
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Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pasturella |
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What bacteria exhibit bipolar staining? |
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Pasturella multocida & Yersinia pestis |
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What antibiotic can be used to treat Pasturella? |
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Tetracycline |
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What are some spore-forming bacteria? |
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Bacillus; Clostridia |
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What are some outer envelope components? |
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Capsule, Flagella, Pili/Fimbriae, Outer membrane/LPS, Periplasmic space/Gr-, Cell wall, inner membrane |
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What type of bacteria contain LPS? |
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Gr - |
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What type of bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer? |
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Gr + |
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Why do Gr + bacteria retain crystal violet? |
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Thick peptidoglycan layer |
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What type of bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer? |
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Gr - |
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What type of bacteria have a periplasmic space? |
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Gr - |
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LPS |
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Lipopolysaccharide |
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What are some outer envelope structures of E. coli? |
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Pili/Fimbriae & Flagella |
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How do E. coli attach to mucosa? |
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Fimbriae |
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What are some bacteria with flagella? |
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E. coli, Salmonella |
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Does Gram-stain show flagella? |
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No |
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Bacterial Spores |
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Highly R thick-walled oval or spherical bodies |
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Is B. anthracis aerobic or anaerobic? |
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Aerobic |
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What bacteria have terminal spores that are drumstick or tennis racket like in appearance? |
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Clostridium tetani |
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Are Clostridia aerobic or anaerobic? |
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Anaerobic |
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What is the doubling time of E. coli? |
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20min |
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What is the doubling time of Mycobacterium tuberculosis? |
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24 hr |
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Viable, but non-culturable bacteria can be present in the _____ phase. |
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Decline |
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Many pathogens need ____ for nutrition. |
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Blood |
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Give an example of a bacteria that requires blood. |
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Pasturella |
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Does E. coli require blood to grow? |
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No |
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What are the 4 phases of the bacterial growth curve? |
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Lag, Log/Exponential Growth, Stationary, Death/Log Decline |
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At what phase of bacterial growth are virulence factors expressed? |
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Exponential Growth/Log Phase |
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Are most pathogens aerobic, microaerophilic, or anaerobic? |
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Aerobic |
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Give an example of a microaerophilic bacteria. |
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Campylobacter jejuni |
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Give 2 examples of anaerobic bacteria. |
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Fusobacterium, Clostridium |
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Give an example of a thermophilic bacterium. |
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C. jejuni |
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What temperature do thermophilic bacteria grow at? |
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45 C |
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What temperature do psychrophilic bacteria grow at? |
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4 C |
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Give 2 examples of psychrophilic bacteria. |
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Listeria, Yersinia enterocolitica |
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What % O2 is normal? What % is microaerophilic? |
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20%; 5% |
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What is required to cultivate microaerophilic bacteria & anaerobes? |
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Special pouches or jars |
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What is characteristic of an anaerobic chamber? |
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Completely O2-free |
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What is another term for freeze drying? |
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Lyophilization |
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What are 3 methods of preserving bacteria? |
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Freeze-drying, freezing at -70C, freezing in liquid Nitrogen (-190C) |
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What are 2 methods of bacterial inactivation? |
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Thermal/Sterilization, Chemical/Killing by Formalin ~0.5% or beta-propiolactone (vaccines) |
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What are 3 preliminary tests for diagnosis of bacterial dz? |
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Oxidase, Catalase, Agglutination |
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Samples should be collected before _____. |
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Antibiotic treatment |
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Are dry swabs suitable for sample collection & transport? |
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No |
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What type of swabs keep specimens moist, leaving bacteria viable, yet not multiplying? |
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Transport Swab |
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What temperature should samples be held at when transport swabs are used? |
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4C |
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What is used for sample collection from uterus? |
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Guarded Swab |
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What type of swab allows aseptic sample collection from the site of infection? |
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Guarded Swab |
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Direct Gram's smear was taken from a deep wound w/ foul smelling dark discharge. Routine culture on blood & MacConkey agar was (-) for growth. What are the bacteria? |
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Anaerobes - Most likely clostridia |
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What is used to treat Clostridium? |
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Penicillin |
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What are 2 routinely used culture media? |
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Blood & MacConkey Agar |
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What bacteria show mucoid colonies on BA & lactose fermenting colonies on Mac agar? |
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Klebsiella |
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Give an example of a bacteria that can cause otitis externa in dogs, & genital tract infections in horses. |
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Klebsiella |
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Describe MacConkey agar. |
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Selective for Gr -, differential for lactose fermentation |
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MA |
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MacConkey Agar |
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What Gr + cocci in bunches show double zone hemolysis on BA? |
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S. aureus |
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What test is done to differentiate Staphylococcus from Streptococcus? |
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Catalase Test |
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Describe the Catalase Test. What bacteria will bubble? |
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Add a drop of 3% H2O2 to a few colonies on a slide. Staph will bubble. |
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Is pseudomonas penicillin S or R? |
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R |
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What can be used to treat Pseudomonas? |
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Gentamycin |
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What is the most common cause of wound inf. in N Am? |
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Pseudomonas |
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Is pseudomonas Oxidase (+) or (-)? |
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(+) |
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What media will Pseudomonas grow on? |
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BA & MA |
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What color is a positive oxidase rxn? |
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Purple |
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What is an example of a commercial bacteria ID sys? |
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API (Analytical Products Inc) Strip |
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For what bacteria is it necessary to use a selective or enriched broth medium to isolate the organism? |
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Salmonella |
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For Salmonella isolation, feces is first inoculated into ______ or ______ & incubated. The ingredients in this media suppress ______ & ____ other than Salmonella. After ___ hr, subculture is done on ___ & ____. |
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Rappaport or Selenite broth; E. coli & enterics; 18; BA & MA |
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Is Salmonella zoonotic? |
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Yes |
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For isolation & ID of bacteria, always use _____. |
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Pure Culture |
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After isolation & ID of bacteria, what is done? |
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Antibiotic sensitivity testing |
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What is one method of antibiotic sensitivity testing? |
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Disk Diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) Method |
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What medium is used for disk diffusion antibiotic sensitivity testing? |
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Mueller Hinton agar |
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Diagnosis of _____ is done using bacterial agglutination for Ab's. |
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Brucellosis |
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Latex particle/slide aggln is done for typing of ____ |
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Streptococci; S. aureus, E coli |
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FloAb is used for ____. |
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Canine Brucellosis |
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ELISA tests are used for antibodies, e.g. _____, or toxins, e.g. _____. |
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Lyme dz; Clostridium perfringens |
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Serotyping of bacteria is done for ____ |
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E coli |
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DHT is used for ___ & ___. |
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Tuberculosis, Glanders |
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What are 2 diseases that have a carrier state? |
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TB, Brucellosis |
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Is TB zoonotic? |
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Yes |
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What is another name for DTH test? |
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Mallein Test |
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DTH testing is done to diagnose glanders in ____, & TB in ___. |
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Horses; Cattle |
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What organism causes glanders? |
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Pseudomonas |
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What are 3 bacterial pathogenesis factors? |
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Host susceptibility, Bacterial infectivity, Virulence factors |
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Give some examples of virulence factors. |
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Pili, non-fimbrial adhesins, capsule, toxins |
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What organism causes shipping fever in cattle? |
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Mannheimia haemolytica |
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Does Mannheimia haemolytica affect dogs? |
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No |
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Mannheimia haemolytica is specific to ____. |
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Cattle |
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E. coli strains that cause diarrhea in neonatal calves do not cause diarrhea in older cattle, b/c _____. |
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The older animals have no receptors in the intestine for attachment of E. coli |
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E. coli strains which cause Hamburger dz belong to specific _____, & produce _____, which damages ____. |
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Serotypes, Shiga toxin, Blood vessels |
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What type of toxin is Shiga toxin? |
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Enterotoxin |
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Capsules help bacteria escape from ____. |
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Phagocytosis |
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Pathogenic E. coli strains have ____ for attachment to ____, & ability to produce _____. |
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Pili, intestinal mucosa, enterotoxin |
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Do pathogenic E. coli release enterotoxin first, or bind to intestinal mucosa? |
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First bind to mucosa, then release enterotoxin |
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An organism that causes dz |
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Pathogen |
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Establishment of pathogen in host |
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Infection |
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Give an example of an obligate pathogen. |
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Bacillus anthracis |
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Give an example of a primary pathogen. |
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Chlamydophila felis |
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What organism causes conjunctivitis in cats? |
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Chlamydophila felis |
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Give an example of a secondary pathogen. |
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Staph |
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Give an example of an opportunistic pathogen |
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Staph, E. coli --> UTI |
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Give an example of an endogenous inf |
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Gingivitis in dogs from commensals |
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Give an example of exogenous inf |
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Bacillus anthracis |
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C. tetani produce ____ toxin |
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Exotoxin |
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Give 2 examples of contagious dz |
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Strangles in horses, Pneumonic plague |
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What organism causes pneumonic plague? |
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Yersinia pestis |
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What organism causes Strangles? |
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Streptococcus equi |
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The degree of pathogenicity bacteria may lose or gain |
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Virulence |
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The process of diminishing virulence |
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Attenuation |
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Is Tetanus an inf? |
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No - it is an intoxication |
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Are clostridium tetani & botulinum contagious? |
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No |
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Give some examples of bacterial entry |
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Inhalation, Ingestion, Skin/mucosa abrasion, Urogenital tract, Placenta to fetus, Umbilicus |
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Give an example of an inhaled bacteria |
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Bordetella bronchiseptica |
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What does Bordetella bronchiseptica cause in dogs? In cats? |
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Kennel cough, Feline pneumonia |
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Give an example of an ingested bacteria. |
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Salmonella |
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Give an example of a bacteria in contaminated water. |
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Leptospira |
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Give an example of a bacteria that enters through the urogenital tract. |
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Brucella |
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Give an example of a bacteria transmitted from placenta to fetus. |
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Brucella |
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Give an example of a bacteria that is transmitted via umbilicus. |
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E. coli |
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Spread by contact, food, water, etc. |
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Horizontal Transmission |
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Transmission from mother to offspring during pregnancy. |
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Vertical Transmission |
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Give an example of a species-specific pathogen. |
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Streptococcus equi |
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Give an example of an organ-specific pathogen. |
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Brucella abortus/canis (genital organs) |
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What structure helps with bacterial attachment and colonization? |
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Pili |
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What factors help bacteria escape the immune system? |
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Capsules, Toxins |
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Name 2 intracellular bacteria that invade host cells. |
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Mycobacterium, Salmonella |
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Name a bacteria with antigenic variation. |
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Mycoplasma |
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Name 2 bacteria that cause apoptosis. |
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Salmonella, Listeria |
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How are virulence factors acquired? |
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Mutation, Transformation, Transduction, Conjugation |
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Bacteriophage enters and codes for virulence factor. |
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Transduction |
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Give an example of a toxin that is transferred via transduction. |
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Botulism toxin |
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What structure, transferred by conjugation, codes for antimicrobial resistance factor & virulence factors? |
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Plasmid |
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Plasmids are transferred by _____. |
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Conjugation |
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Are exotoxins produced by Gr + or - bacteria? |
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Both |
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Examples of exotoxins |
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Tetanus neurotoxin, Cholera toxin, E coli enterotoxin, Botulism neurotoxin |
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Examples of endotoxins |
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LPS --> Endotoxemia |
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Are endotoxins produced by Gr + or - bacteria? |
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Gr - |
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____ are secreted by the bacteria; ____ is a part of the cell wall. |
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Exotoxins; Endotoxin |
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Penicillin ___ bacteria. |
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Lyses |
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What type of toxin is botulism toxin? |
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Exotoxin |
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What toxin causes flaccid paralysis of mm? |
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Botulism toxin |
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What toxin causes spastic contraction of mm & lockjaw? |
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Tetanus neurotoxin |
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What type of toxin is tetanus neurotoxin? |
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Exotoxin |
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Are fluoroquinolones NS or BS? |
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BS |
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What type of drugs should be used to target bacteria? |
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Specific, NS |
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What drug is used to treat S. equi? |
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Penicillin |
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How do penicillins stop infections? |
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Destroy cell wall |
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Give an example of a bactericidal antibiotic. |
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Penicillin |
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Kills bacteria |
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Bactericidal |
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Inhibits bacterial growth |
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Bacteriostatic |
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Give an example of a bacteriostatic antibiotic. |
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Tetracycline |
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Give 2 examples of NS drug. |
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Bacitracin, Penicillin G |
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Give 2 examples of BS drugs. |
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Tetracycline, Doxycycline |
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What is one chemical grouping of antibiotics? |
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Beta lactams |
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Does bacitracin target Gr + or - bacteria? |
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Gr - |
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What is the aim of antibacterial drugs? |
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Maintain effective [ ] @ inf site |
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Dosage of antibiotics is _____ |
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3-5x MIC |
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MIC |
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Minimal Inhibitory Concentration |
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Routes of antibacterial drugs: |
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PO, IV, IM, SC, Local (eye, ear) |
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What drug can be fatal to rabbits, chinchillas, and guinea pigs? |
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Penicillin & Cephalosporins |
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Is Streptococcus equi Penicillin R or S? |
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S |
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Antibacterial drugs should reach _____ @ _____. |
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Active concentration, inf. site |
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What drug is good for urinary, lung, & skin inf? |
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Baytril/Enrofloxacin |
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What drug should not be given PO? Why not? |
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Penicillin G; destroyed in stomach |
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Long-acting drugs such as Liquamycin-LA are administered _____ |
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IM in cattle |
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What bacteria causes pink eye in cattle? |
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Moraxella bovis |
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What antibiotics act by inhibition of cell wall synthesis? |
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Penicillins, Cephalosporins |
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What antibiotics act by damage to cell membrane function? |
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Polymyxins |
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What antibiotics act by inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis or function? |
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Sulfonamides, Quinolones, Enrofloxacin |
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What antibiotics act by inhibition of protein synthesis (ribosomes)? |
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Tetracyclines, Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin) |
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What drug is used only in creams (not systemically) |
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Polymyxins |
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What do drug resistant S. aureus produce? What does it do? |
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Beta-lactamase, destroy B-lactam ring of penicillin, Inactivate drug |
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What is a common nosocomial bacterial inf? |
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S. aureus |
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Give examples of Beta lactam drugs. |
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Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Ampicillin, Amoxicillin, Clavamox, Ceftiofur, Ceftazidime |
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Give an example of an Aminoglycoside. |
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Gentamicin |
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Give an example of a Macrolide. |
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Erythromycin |
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Give an example of a Sulfonamide |
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Trimethoprim |
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Give an example of a fluoroquinolone |
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Enrofloxacin |
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Beta lactam drugs are ____. |
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Bactericidal |
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What drug is used to treat Mycoplasma? |
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Tetracycline |
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What drug is used to treat pseudomonas? |
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Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin), Fluoroquinolones |
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What drug is used to treat Campy? |
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Macrolides |
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Is penicillin G NS or BS? |
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NS |
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Is Ampicillin NS or BS? |
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BS |
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What are some potentiated penicillins? |
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Ampicillin + Sulbactam, Amoxicillin + Clavulanic Acid |
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What bacteria is Penicillin G effective against? |
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Corynebacterium, most Streptococcus |
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Is Erysipelothrix penicillin S or R? |
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S |
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Avoid creation of drug-R bacteria by using ____ antibiotics. |
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NS |
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Ampicillin-sulbactam counteracts _______. |
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Beta lactamase enzyme of bacteria |
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Sulbactam inactivates _____, while ampicillin acts on ____. |
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B-lactamase, bacteria |
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B-lactamase enzymes inactivate _____, including ____. |
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Beta lactam drugs, Amoxicillin |
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Which is resistant to B-lactamase? Amoxicillin or Amoxicillin-Clavulanic Acid? |
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Amoxicillin-Clavulanic Acid |
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BS or NS? Clavamox |
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BS |
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Does Clavamox target anaerobes? |
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Yes |
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Is Clavamox active against Pseudomonas? |
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No |
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Is Clavamox active against Mycoplasma? |
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No |
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What is the structure of tetracyclines? |
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4 Ring structure |
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Is enrofloxacin active against anaerobes? |
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No |
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Name 2 antibacterial drugs that are active against anaerobes. |
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Clindamycin, Metronidazole |
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What bacteria do not require susceptibility testing? |
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Corynebacterium, Erysipelothrix, Bacillus |
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Give an example of a synergistic antibiotic. |
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Sulfa + Trimethoprim |
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What is one application of sulfa + trimithoprim? |
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UTI |
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What is one sporicidal chemical? |
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Formaldehyde |
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What can be used to kill anthrax? For how long? |
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Formalin 5% spray, 4hrs |
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Does Formalin kill spores? |
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Yes |
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Natural habitat is soil |
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Geophilic |
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Animals are the source |
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Zoophilic |
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Do Malassezia form mycelia? |
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No |
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Ring worm fungi |
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Dermatomycoses |
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Do antibodies protect against fungi? |
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Rarely |
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What is a BS antifungal drug? |
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Ketoconazole ("Nizoral") |
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What drug is used to treat Candida inf? |
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Nystatin |
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Is nystatin BS or NS? |
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NS |
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What drug is given for ringworm inf? How is it administered? |
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Griseofulvin, PO |
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Is nystatin effective against ringworm? |
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No |
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What is another name for ringworm? |
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Dermatomycosis |
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How is ringworm diagnosed? |
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Wood's Lamp, KOH Wet mount |
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Is ringworm zoonotic? |
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Yes |
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What fungus fluoresces under Wood's lamp? |
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Ringworm |
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How are samples collected for ringworm Dx? |
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Hair collection, Basal portion/Hair root req'd |
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What is the #1 ringworm causing fungus in dogs & cats? |
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M. canis |
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What is the #2 ringworm causing fungus in dogs? |
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T. mentagrophytes |
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Give an example of a systemic anti-fungal drug, |
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Griseofulvin, Ketoconazole |
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Give an example of an anti-dermatophyte drug. |
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Griseofulvin |