Aviation Resource Management Journeyman – Flashcards
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Which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) would you find the specialty training standard that lists the most common 1C0X2 tasks, knowledge, and technical references?
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Part II Section A.
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Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a
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misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00.
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What form is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay?
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AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
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When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are called
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an application suite.
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Which functional area is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
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Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).
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Within how many days of assignment must a supervisor conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications?
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60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members).
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Which functional area is responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations?
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Current operations.
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All entries to the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 must be done in pencil to
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make it a living document.
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Before a trainee is recommended for the next skill level, the trainee must be fully trained on all
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duty positions and core tasks.
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The specialty training standard (STS) is divided into how many columns?
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4
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One way to validate and assess a trainee's knowledge of the task is by conducting a
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task evaluation.
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Within the Department of Defense (DOD) social security numbers (SSN) must be protected as
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For Official Use Only (FOUO).
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Who is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) database?
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Database administrator.
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What form is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member's flight evaluation?
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AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.
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Which menu is not included in the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
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Deferred Management.
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What Air Force form is used to request system changes to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
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3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document.
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A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other
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by a need to solve common problems.
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The three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities are
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telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment.
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Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
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Commissioning date in the USAF.
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Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date
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they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.
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What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?
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Evaluator.
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Operational support fliers
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are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally.
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The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?
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15 June.
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When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within
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one duty day.
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How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
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180.
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Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?
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11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
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Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?
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12.
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Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?
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4.
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To update a member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), use the
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Flyer Availability window.
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A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of
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pilot and flight surgeon.
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Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge
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after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.
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A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member
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is disqualified due to fear of flying.
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Funding for manpower resources are derived from the
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The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program.
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A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information abouta member's flying
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activity.
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Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?
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Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.
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How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit?
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15.
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A member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 and first flew on 17 Apr 09. What action, if any must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office take on 20 Mar 09.
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Change the member's flying status code (FSC) from "A" to "S".
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The fist character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the
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entitlement status code (ESC).
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You may publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects several members provided
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the action is exactly the same for all members.
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On 12 Oct 08, the commander certified a member's eligibility for non-career aviator flying duties. The member was assigned to an aircrew prefix duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) on 13 Oct 08, started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08, and completed training on 15 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) assigning Aviation Service Code (ASC) "9D?"
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5 Nov 08.
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What effective date would you use when changing a pilot's flying status code (FSC) from "U" to "X" if the member graduates undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying training (UFT) on 25 May, departs for initial qualification training (IQT) on 26 May, completes IQT on 15 Aug, and signs in to the first operational flying unit on 17 Aug?
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25 May.
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A pilot completed undergraduate pilot training (UPT) on 27 Sep 08 and left the next day to a temporary duty (TDY) location to complete initial qualification training (IQT). The member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09; left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09; and signed in to the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronauti
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20 Jan 09.
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In which AFI can you find the list of all the mandatory remarks used for publishing aeronautical orders (AO)?
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11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
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What must be included in the Authority section of the aeronautical order (AO), when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter?
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Organization, office symbol, and date of the letter.
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Suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member
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is offered Article 15 punishment.
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If the medical disqualification is less than one year, a member may obtain medical certification for requalification by
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obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon's office.
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While under suspension, the member's flying incentive pay
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is terminated until the member's status is resolved.
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Aviation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members
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returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.
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When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will
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notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office.
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Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight?
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8.
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Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are
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given to the member.
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When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), ensure all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order by
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effective date.
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Members who are in inactive status are
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not required to complete an annual records review.
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You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as
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Privileged information.
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If you must normalize and make changes to a member's record after it has been outprocessed to the gaining host aviation resource management (HARM) office, you must advise the gaining HARM office to
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delete the record before you resend the updated record.
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No later than how many days after receipt of a member's record must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
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10 calendar days.
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Which of the following Air Force specialty codes (AFSC) is considered jump inherent?
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1C2XX.
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The approving authority authorizing temporary jump status is
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MAJCOM/A3.
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Within how many days must a free fall parachutist perform a free fall jump before being considered non-current?
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180.
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Members who meet the requirements for the award of a parachutist badge must apply by completing an AF IMT
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196, Data for Parachutist Rating.
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Members who meet the requirements for the award of a parachutist badge must apply by completing an AF IMT
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196, Data for Parachutist Rating.
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Who may recommend a member be prohibited from wearing the parachutist badge if the member is disqualified as a result of substantiated drug abuse?
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Commanders at any review level.
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When a parachutist is no longer assigned to an authorized jump position, the member's aviation service code (ASC) will change from
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9E to 06.
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Most dual-coded flying/jumping parachutists are assigned to non-career aviator positions identified by a duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) prefix of
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X, K, or Q.
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The effective date used to assign Aviation Service Code 06, Jump Requirement Terminated, when a member fails to complete the US Army Basic Airborne Course is the
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day after disenrollment.
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What action must you take in the Aviation Resource Management System once a member becomes high altitude low opening (HALO) certified?
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Click "Yes" in the HALO Certification field in the Aircrew Management window.
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Aeronautical orders for enlisted parachutists will have a termination date based on the earliest of the following dates except the
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change to active status date.
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Which of the following statements must be included in the Remarks section of the aeronautical order for a member assigned to a dual-coded flying/jumping position?
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When required for the mission, aircrew duties may be performed on any USAF aircraft.
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How many days can a parachutist be suspended without major command (MAJCOM) approval?
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180.
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Commanders will provide at least 120 calendar days notification before involuntarily terminating members' aviation service who are
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dual-coded flying/jumping.
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Who is responsible for completing and certifying all AF Forms 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Records and AF IMTs 922, Individual Jump Records?
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Jumpmaster.
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Who ensures the following items are correct on the AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record: date, aircraft mission design series, drop zone, jump type and condition, parachute type, jump altitude and the remarks?
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Jumpmaster.
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What does a "T" in the Jump Type option, indicate when updating jump accomplishments?
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Tactical or Operational.
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What standard folder serves as a repository for all approved documents pertaining to a member's jump career?
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Jump record folder.
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When must the Host Aviation Resource Management office conduct a cover to cover audit of the jump record folder?
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Upon PCS.
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What does a periodic review of the jump record folder ensure?
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Accuracy.
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When outprocessing a parachutist, what must you include in the jump record package?
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AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
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Which subcategory of qualification training provides the training necessary to qualify an aircrew member to perform the command or unit mission?
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Mission qualification.
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What percentage of the annual sortie requirements are flight surgeons required to perform in their primary aircraft?
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50.
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The aircrew qualification evaluation is due every
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17 months.
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What document contains a chronological history of a member's aircrew evaluations?
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AF Form 8.
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Which characters of the flight authorization duty code is/are MAJCOM specific?
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The third, fourth, and fifth characters.
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What is the first step in creating a training program in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
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Add the program in the training program list.
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Locally developed training requirements will have task IDs beginning with the letter
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Z.
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When assigning dual-credit criteria in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the type of credit given may include
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accomplishment date and volume ONLY.
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After you are finished assigning training profiles to an aircrew member, audit the transactions using the
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Training Profile Assignment List.
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You may prorate the following training tasks EXCEPT
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small arms.
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You can tailor an individual training task for the purpose of the following EXCEPT
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changing a training cycle.
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When assigning training profiles, thoroughly check the AF Form 4324 for accuracy; particularly
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the ARMS Training Profile Management section.
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Who must certify the AF IMT 1522, ARMS Additional Training Accomplishment Report, when the training was conducted by an outside agency?
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The training instructor.
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After you are finished updating training accomplishments in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), audit the transactions using the
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Training Update Audit List.
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To properly document errors found on the Training Update Audit List,
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line through the error and write the correct information above the line.
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Crew rest includes at least how many hours of uninterrupted sleep?
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8.
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When forecasting air refueling (AR) requirements, the requesting unit must make allowances for attrition to include the following EXCEPT
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aircrew availability.
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As a ground scheduler, you must
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determine which task takes priority and resolve scheduling issues as they arise.
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Which scheduling plan includes aircrew names and aircraft tail numbers?
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Weekly.
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Who may log primary flight time?
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A flight surgeon on a medical evacuation mission.
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Who is responsible for completing the mission design series (MDS), serial number, unit charged for flying hours, and Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) location blocks (blocks 2 through 5) of the AFTO Form 781?
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Maintenance crew chief.
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In order to make changes to an AFTO Form 781 that has already been turned in to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office,
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the pilot in command must contact the HARM office.
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Which format would you use in the Flight Date field when updating flying hours in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
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DD MMM YYYY.
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On the flying history report (FHR) which flight time is not included in a member's total time?
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student.
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When a member finds an error on his or her flying hour totals, you must
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not make any adjustments until a source document is produced.
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When auditing the aircraft utilization report (AUR), you must
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perform a line by line comparison of each entry against the AFTO Form 781.
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Which outprocessing procedure is not a responsibility of the Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM) office?
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Transferring the member's electronic record to the gaining Host Aviation ResourceManagement (HARM) office.
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Which AFI requires the Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM) office to develop and maintain a continuity book that includes opening and closing checklists?
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AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
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A supervisor of flying (SOF) is a commissioned officer
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designated to supervise the daily flying activities.
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If a member's duty code on the flight authorization does not match the AFTO Form 781
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the aircraft commander must explain the reason in the Remarks section of the AFTO Form 781.
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When deployed, all original flight documentation must
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be forwarded to the unit that owns the aircraft.
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To receive aviation career incentive pay (ACIP), a rated officer must be entitled to basic pay,
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hold an aeronautical rating, and be qualified for aviation service.
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Which of the following pay was established under the Fiscal Year (FY) 2000 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)?
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Career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP).
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How many flight hours are required for a member that was on flying status for 15 days in a month?
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2.0
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Banked time is a combination of
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excess and insufficient time.
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What is the pay stop date for a career enlisted aviator (CEA) who was placed on active flying on 1 January 2009 and was placed in a duty not involving flying (DNIF) status on 13 April 2009?
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12 April 2010.
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When does the three month grace period begin, for a member in conditional pay status, who was injured in a duty-related accident on 12 November if the member has met the flight requirement for that month?
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1 December.
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When an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member performs both active and inactive duty in the same month, the flight time flown may be combined to satisfy the
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both active and inactive duty requirements.
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A parachutist was placed on an aeronautical order to perform high altitude low opening (HALO) jump duties effective 1 April. The member performed a static line jump and a HALO jump in May. What type of pay will the member receive for May?
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Type 2 ONLY.
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How many jumps, in what time period, qualifies a parachutist for hazardous duty incentive pay for 12 consecutive months if a member is unable to perform due to military operations, no jump equipment or no aircraft?
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Four jumps in a 9-month period following a 3-month period of no jumps.
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Which form is used to track a member's entitlement to static line and high altitude low opening (HALO) jump incentive pay?
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AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
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If the military pay order (MPO) action is to stop a member's pay, the pay termination date will always be
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one day prior to the effective date of the AO.
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How many certified copies of the entitlement verification report must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office maintain?
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The last four reports.
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A filter created on an item that restricts which values to return is a (an)
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condition.
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Which default option allows you to determine the number of query documents that are listed in your "Most Recently Used List?"
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General tab.
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Why is it necessary to validate a query when using calculations?
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The data elements requested might merge in the resulting query.
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Who is responsible for completing the AF Form 4324 when assigning training profiles?
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The aircrew training office.
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Which type of mission provides air interdiction (AI) and close air support (CAS)?
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Counterland.
