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Air Force
Bait And Switch
Marketing
Odd Even Pricing
Principles Of Marketing
Skimming Pricing Strategy
Tuition And Fees
FAMU Admission Requirements – Flashcards 64 terms
64 terms
Preview
FAMU Admission Requirements – Flashcards
question
How much is the in-state fees per credit hour?
answer
$151.78
question
How much is the out-of-state fees per credit hour?
answer
$549.80
question
What do you need to be considered a junior/senior level transfer student?
answer
60 transferable semester hours or an AA degree
question
As a junior/senior level transfer student, what's the minimum GPA?
answer
2.0
question
As a freshmen/sophomore level transfer student what college GPA do you need?
answer
2.5
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the minimum GPA?
answer
2.5
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the required REDESIGNED SAT EB reading/writing score?
answer
500
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the required REDESIGNED SAT math score?
answer
500
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the required ACT reading score?
answer
19
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the required ACT math score?
answer
19
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the required OLD SAT reading score?
answer
460
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the required OLD SAT math score?
answer
460
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the required OLD SAT writing score?
answer
440
question
As a first time in college freshmen student what's the total number of academic unit requirements?
answer
18 core units (4 English, math, natural science, and social science credits) (2 international language credits)
question
In regards to admissions, which two programs have limited access?
answer
Pharmacy and Journalism
question
In regards to the application process, how many letters of recommendation letters do you need?
answer
2
question
In regards to the application process, is an essay required?
answer
Yes
question
What's the application fee?
answer
$35
question
What's the deadline to apply for Fall semester?
answer
May 1st
question
What's the deadline to apply for Spring semester?
answer
November 1st
question
What's the deadline to apply for Summer semester?
answer
March 1st
question
Based off of 15 credit hours, what's the total amount for a fall/spring semester as an in-state student?
answer
$16,568.80
question
Based off of 15 credit hours, what's the total amount for a fall/spring semester as an out-of-state student?
answer
$28,509.40
question
Based off of 9 credit hours, what's the total amount for a summer semester as an in-state student?
answer
$3,631.44
question
Based off of 9 credit hours, what's the total amount for a summer semester as an out-of-state student?
answer
$7,213.62
question
What does the gold meal plan entitle?
answer
unlimited meals 7 days a week and $100 flex bucks
question
What does the silver meal plan entitle?
answer
unlimited meals M-F and $150 flex bucks
question
What does the bronze meal plan entitle?
answer
9 meals per week and $200 flex bucks
question
How much is the gold, silver, and bronze meal plan?
answer
$2246
question
List 10 fields of study?
answer
Pharmacy, Pre-Physical Therapy, Nursing, Engineer, Chemistry, Biology, Criminal Justice, Political Science, Accounting, Journalism
question
How many colleges and schools does FAMU have?
answer
14
question
How many degree programs does FAMU offer?
answer
90
question
How many bachelor's degrees does FAMU offer?
answer
54
question
How many master's degrees does FAMU offer?
answer
29
question
How many professional degrees does FAMU offer?
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3
question
How many doctoral degree programs does FAMU offer?
answer
12
question
What's the minimum SAT overall score for a Life Gets Better Scholar?
answer
1440
question
What's the minimum SAT math score for a Life Gets Better Scholar?
answer
700
question
What's the minimum ACT overall score for a Life Gets Better Scholar?
answer
32
question
What's the minimum ACT math score for a Life Gets Better Scholar?
answer
30
question
What's the minimum FAMU recalculated GPA for a Life Gets Better Scholar?
answer
3.5
question
What's the minimum SAT overall score for a Distinguished Scholars Award?
answer
1290
question
What's the minimum SAT math score for a Distinguished Scholars Award? (stem majors only)
answer
650
question
What's the minimum ACT overall score for a Distinguished Scholars Award?
answer
29
question
What's the minimum ACT math score for a Distinguished Scholars Award? (stem majors only)
answer
27
question
What's the minimum FAMU recalculated GPA for a Distinguished Scholars Award?
answer
3.5
question
What's the minimum SAT overall score for a George W. Gore scholarship?
answer
1170
question
What's the minimum SAT math score for a George W. Gore scholarship? (stem majors only)
answer
550
question
What's the minimum ACT overall score for a George W. Gore scholarship?
answer
26
question
What's the minimum ACT overall score for a George W. Gore scholarship? (stem majors only)
answer
26
question
What's the minimum FAMU recalculated GPA for a George W. Gore scholarship with acceptable SAT Math scores?
answer
3.5
question
What's the minimum FAMU recalculated GPA for a George W. Gore scholarship with acceptable ACT Math scores?
answer
3.0
question
What's the award amount per year for a George W. Gore scholarship with acceptable SAT Math scores?
answer
$6,000
question
What's the award amount per year for a George W. Gore scholarship with acceptable ACT Math scores?
answer
$5,000
question
What's the minimum SAT overall score for a Presidential Special Scholar?
answer
1000
question
What's the minimum SAT math score for a Presidential Special Scholar?
answer
500
question
What's the minimum ACT overall and math score for a Presidential Special Scholar?
answer
24
question
What's the minimum FAMU recalculated GPA for a Presidential Special Scholar?
answer
3.0
question
What's the awarded amount per year for a Presidential Special Scholar?
answer
$2,000-$5,000
question
What's the requirement for a Adopted High School scholarship?
answer
high school valedictorian/salutatorian
question
What's the minimum FAMU recalculated GPA for a Adopted High School scholarship?
answer
3.0
question
What's the requirement for a Florida Community College scholarship?
answer
AA or AS degree
question
What's the minimum FAMU recalculated GPA for a Florida Community College scholarship?
answer
2.75
question
What's the awarded amount per year for a Florida Community College scholarship?
answer
$2,000-$5,000
Air Force
Areas
Communications
Limitations
JFO Test – Flashcard 76 terms
76 terms
Preview
JFO Test – Flashcard
question
JFO
answer
A trained and certified Service member who can request, adjust, and control surface-to-surface fires, provide targeting information in support of Type 2 and 3 CAS, and perform TGO.
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Multi National Doctrine
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Fundamental principles that guide the employment of forces of 2 or more nations in a coordinated action toward a common objective;
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Joint Doctrine
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Fundamental principles that guide the employment of forces of two or more services of the same nation in coordinated action toward a common objective
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Multi Service doctrine
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Fundamental principles that guide the employment of forces of 2 or more services in coordinated action toward a common objective
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Type 1 Control
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JTAC must visually acquire attacking A/C and target; analyze the nose position and geometry
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Advantages of Type 1
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JTAC can better asses where ordnance will impact thus able to provide real-time abort; reduces fratricide; preferred for TIC
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Disadvantages of Type 1
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JTAC has to be positioned in the right place and time; limits battlespace employment of CAS
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Type 2 Control
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JTAC/FAC(A) desires control of individual attacks; can get timely and accurate targeting data (anyone on the ground can provide) and any or all the following exist: - unable to acquire A/C - unable to acquire TGT - attacking A/C unable to acquire mark/target prior to weapons release
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Advantages of Type 2
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JTAC/FAC(A) not required to see A/C Flexible; able to get targeting data from others while maintaining control of weapons release
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Disadvantages of Type 2
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- TGT verification is difficult - requires good comms and planning
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Type 3 Control
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JTAC/FAC(A) requires ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks w/in a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions "blanket clearance" All targeting data must be coordinated through commander's battle staff
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Advantages of Type 3
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JTAC not req to control each attack; reduces comms reqs and expedites process
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Disadvantages of type 3
answer
limited safeguards to preventing fratricide
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TACP
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The TACP is the principal Air Force liaison unit collocated with Army maneuver units from BN through corps 2 components: ALO - Liaison; senior TACP member; advises ground commander on air assets JTAC - Controls
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ASOC
answer
Air Support Operations Center - the primary control agency component of the TACS for the execution of CAS. Coordinates and directs air support for Army or joint force land component operations. Monitors the JARN
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JARN
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Joint Air Request Net
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AOC
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Air Force air operations center (AOC), which is the senior element of the TACS. Provides C2 of Air Force air and space operations and coordinates with other components and Services. - Provides ATO, Airspace control, senior deployable echelon
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ATO
answer
The ATO contains the JFACC's plan for providing the air support required in the OPLAN/OPORD.
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BCD
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Battlefield Coordination Detachment - The BCD processes Army requests for air support and monitors and interprets the land battle situation. (Army liaison) - 1972 ends up here
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GLO
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primary ground officer assigned to air commander's staffs, such as fighter wings, air operations centers, and related HQ. They provide expert advice, information, and interface on all matters pertaining to ground operations to enable more effective air planning in support of ground operations.
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Sortie
answer
single aircraft takeoff to full stop
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Authenticate
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coded challenge or a response to one
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As Fragged
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Unit or asset will be performing exactly as stated by the ATO/ITO
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Words
answer
request further information or directives pertinent to the mission
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Details
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request for modified 9-line
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Blind
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no visual on contact w/friendly
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Contact
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acknowledges sighting of specified reference
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Captured
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sensor contact at the stated position
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Cleared Hot
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Type 1 & 2 CAS terminal control clearance to release ordnance
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Cleared to engage
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Type 3 CAS terminal control clearance
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In
answer
turning toward known threat
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Rifle
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Friendly A-S missile launch
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Ripple
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2 or more munitions in close succesion
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Thunder
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1 minute until A-S weapons impact
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Shooter
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AC designated to employ ordnance
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Push
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switch to designated frequency
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AF fixed wing CAS
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- A-10 - F15E - F16 - B1 - B52
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USMC/NACY Fixed wing
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- F18 - AV-8B
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A/OA-10 (Thunderbolt II)
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30mm, Mk-82, GBU-12, GBU-51, 2xAGM-65 (Maverick), 7x2.75" rockets - long loiter time - smallest turn radius - susceptible to SAMs
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F-15E Strike Eagle
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20mm, 4xGBU12, 6xMk82, 2xGBU38, 2xGBU31 & 39 - CAS is not primary role - Good for A-A - long loiter time, and combat radius, large payload, targeting pod and sensors
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F-16C Fighting Falcon
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4xGBU12, 20mm - regularly used for CAS - capable of self-designating targets - fast - datalink capabilty - flexible with weather
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F18 Hornet
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CAS comparable to F-16
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AV-8B Harrier
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V/STOL - can operate very close to FLOT - small payload, short loiter time - vulnerable to A-A assets
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B-1 Lancer
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48,000 LBS of Ordnance - coordinate dependent, dont perform pilot visual bombing - All talkons to the WSO who will designate the target
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B-52 Stratofortress
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High altitude employment - visual acquisition is impractical
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FSCL
answer
facilitate the expeditious engagement of targets of opportunity beyond the coordinating measure. A line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination. Applies to all fires of air, land, and sea-based weapon systems using any type of munition against surface targets.
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ACA
answer
Three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate ground commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires.
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FFA
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specific designated area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ.
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NFA
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A land area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited.
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RFA
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An area in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires (or the effects of fires) that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing HQ.
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Sparkle
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JTAC marks the TGT w/IR pointer
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Summit
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MAXORD for NSFS
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NSFS limitations
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- Fixing ship's position - Defilade TGTs - Range dispersion - Hydrography (may force ships to operate in undesirable conditions) - Changing GTL - Magazine Capacity - Comms
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IAM
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GBU-39: small diameter bomb; extended range (40+nm); all weather day or night 250 lb GM
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AC 130
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H - 1 x 40mm, 1 x 105mm U - 1 x 25mm, 1 x 40mm, 1x 105mm
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AC 130; 5-line
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1) OBS WARNO 2) Friendly LOC (TRP, Grid) marked by (beacon, IR strobe) 3) TGT Loc 4) TGT description/mark 5) Remarks
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FAC(A)
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specifically trained and qualified aviation officer who exercises control from the air of aircraft and indirect fires engaged in close air support of ground troops. - F-18 Hornet - AH-1W "Cobra" - UH-1N "Huey" - AV-8B - A-10 - F-16
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4 areas of Urban Environment
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1) Airspace: "Urban Canyon" - 2) Surface Areas: streets, roads, parks, and fields 3) Superface Areas: roofs and upper floors; 4) Subsurface Areas: sewer, drainage
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OH-58D Kiowa
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Army recon - Hellfire, STINGER, 2.75" HYDRA, 50 cal machine gun
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AH-64D APACHE
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30mm, Hellfire, 2.75"
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AH-6 Little bird
answer
two seven tube 2.75" rocket launchers 2 X 7.62mm GAU-19 .50cal and/or Hellfire
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MH-60L DAP
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Direct Action Penetrator - 30mm chain gun - 4 Hellfires and 2.75" rockets - 40mm grenade launcher
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AH-1Z super cobra
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20mm turret gun TOW Hellfire Sidewinder 5" or 2.75" rockets
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UH 1Y Super Huey
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70mm rockets M-240D GAU 16&17A
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Hellfire
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AGM 114K
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Aircraft Weapons
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20mm - M61 Vulcan Cannon 25mm - GAU-12 30mm - GAU-8 Avenger gatling gun 40mm - M2A1 cannon 105mm - M102 cannon
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Rockets
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2.75" HYDRA 70 5" Zuni
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GP Bombs
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Mk-82 500lb Mk-83 1000lb Mk-84 2000lb M-117 750lb
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JDAM
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GBU-38: 500 GBU-32: 1000 GBU-31 A/B: 2000
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Laser Guided Bomb
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GBU-16: Mk 83 1000lb GBU-12: Mk-82 500lb GBU-10: Mk-84 2000lb
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Strategic ADA
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designed to protect large amounts of airspace; deny/defeat enemy AC ability to range key infrastructures
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Tactical ADA
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designed to protect smaller areas; deny attack of localized infrastructures
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Point defense
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short range designed to protect single point, or small area
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Area defense
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medium range weapons; designed to protect relatively large areas
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Podium effect
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angular target may not be able to catch the reflection
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Attenuation
answer
dust or water in the air scatter laser energy
Air Force
Educational Technology
Pronouns
Security And Privacy
Knowledge Operations Management 3D0X1 – Flashcards 165 terms
165 terms
Preview
Knowledge Operations Management 3D0X1 – Flashcards
question
The Air Force Portal provides essential online resources for the Air Force at a single location, and it also does the following except?
answer
Provide faster, reliable service.
question
Who is the approval authority for the public Web pages?
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Unit commander.
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What information is required for all top-level private Web pages?
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Web page maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and e-mail.
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Who is the approval authority for the private Web pages?
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Unit commander.
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What is the primary purpose of managing Air Force information?
answer
Effectively and efficiently enhance the Air Force mission
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Which of the following are ways we manage information in support of information resources management?
answer
Security and privacy.
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What stage of the life cycle management provides preservation?
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Storage.
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What is the objective of the electronic communications program?
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Create clear, efficient, and effective communications.
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Which plain language element emphasizes the need to put your main message up front?
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Logical organization.
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Which plain language element reinforces the message that the document is intended for the reader?
answer
Pronouns.
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On the average, about what percentage of communication do you write in the active voice to communicate effectively?
answer
75.
question
Which is not a Form Memorandum?
answer
Fill-out.
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What type of Air Force correspondence receives the most endorsements?
answer
Memorandums.
question
What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?
answer
Separate page.
question
Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are
answer
bullet background papers.
question
Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver receives the tasking?
answer
Sender.
question
When an AutoArchive storage process is used what type of folder is created?
answer
Personal.
question
Once an item is archived how is it deleted?
answer
Manually.
question
What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD" that remain in action offices at the close of business?
answer
Store in a classified storage container.
question
Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?
answer
Periodicals.
question
When should you use certified mail?
answer
When required by law or Department of Defense (DOD) or Air Force directives.
question
What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on to the receiver?
answer
Container numbers and DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt.
question
Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number?
answer
UUB-08-058
question
The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them
answer
Registered.
question
What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information occurred?
answer
Exceptionally grave.
question
What type of classification decision involves information that is paraphrased or restated?
answer
Derivative.
question
What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action contrary to the requirements of Executive Order 12958 that is not a security violation?
answer
Infraction.
question
What must you do when you find classified material out of proper control?
answer
Take custody of the material and safeguard it.
question
What is not a factor in releasing classified information?
answer
Rank.
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Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?
answer
Possessor.
question
Top Secret material should never be sent
answer
through the base information transfer system.
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When is an outer container not required for the transfer of classified information?
answer
Secret and below being entered into the base information transfer system.
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What must you do when you mail materials of different classifications in one package?
answer
Place all material in a single inner container.
question
When you mail classified material, address containers to the
answer
office that is to take action on it.
question
Air Force units at what level must document their organization, function, and activities and preserve their records by implementing effective lifecycle management procedures within their areas of responsibility?
answer
Every.
question
Which of the following is not an example of an Air Force record?
answer
Museum material.
question
What type of record is created when the Air National Guard (ANG) is creating the records and the federal emergency management agency gets involved and federal dollars are put towards the emergency?
answer
Federal only.
question
Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained within
answer
3 months.
question
Who appoints a records custodian?
answer
Chief of the Office of Record (COR).
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Who should know and implement the records maintenance, use, and disposition policies and procedures for records maintained?
answer
Records custodian (RC).
question
By filling out summary information for documents you create, your final records will be
answer
easier to manage and retrieve.
question
How does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series?
answer
Ensuring offices Air Force-wide use the same disposition instructions for records.
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What type of labels does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) print?
answer
Subdivision.
question
The Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) generates a file disposition control label for
answer
each item listed on the file plan.
question
How many disposition authorities (table and rule) are allowed per records series?
answer
One.
question
What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?
answer
Disposition guide cards.
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Where are labels placed on the file folders?
answer
Placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent.
question
What information does not appear on a subdivision label?
answer
Cutoff.
question
What is reviewed when files expand to more than one drawer or files are filed in other locations to determine the inclusive series numbers to be placed on the drawer label?
answer
File plan.
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What should you remove from a document prior to filing?
answer
Envelopes.
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Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?
answer
To help retrieve filed documents efficiently.
question
What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?
answer
Cross-reference sheet.
question
When using additional copies of a record for cross-referencing, how is the cross-reference location identified?
answer
Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed.
question
Cross-referencing provides more reliable files service as long as
answer
excessive cross-referencing is avoided.
question
What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?
answer
Period of time the record is needed.
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What is "disposition," when dealing with Air Force records?
answer
Actions taken with inactive records.
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What is disposition based when dealing with Air Force records?
answer
Time period or event.
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How does the records disposition program play a key role in the management of Air Force records?
answer
Economic and efficient management.
question
How are long-term paper records 10 years or older handled?
answer
Retired to authorized federal records centers.
question
Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?
answer
Archivist of the United States.
question
When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are
answer
continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred.
question
The emergency disposal of records, without regard to tables and rules, is applied when the records
answer
do not protect the legal or financial rights of individuals or the Air Force.
question
What is the first part of the plan when developing a vital records plan?
answer
Description of the records.
question
Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except
answer
EXCEMPT
question
Which of the following is not a cutoff period?
answer
Quarterly.
question
At least how many years remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?
answer
Three.
question
What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?
answer
Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization.
question
What type of records does the staging area store?
answer
Permanent and temporary
question
Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2- to 8-year retention records in the current files area?
answer
Base records manager (BRM).
question
What does the staging area review to determine what records are eligible for disposal and when?
answer
EXCEMPT
question
To recycle Privacy Act (PA) material, what must recycling contracts include?
answer
Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction.
question
Who does the office of primary responsibility (OPR) submit an AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation to?
answer
Records manager (RM).
question
Which of the following is an objective for determining retention?
answer
How much Air Force documentation is really essential.
question
What is the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, and other presidential documents?
answer
The Federal Register.
question
What is one of the duties of the Air Force Federal Register Liaison Office (AFFRLO)?
answer
Provide advice/guidance to Air Force personnel on publishing rules and notices.
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The Department of Defense's (DOD) policy on providing information on its activities in an open manner to the general public is to provide
answer
a maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities.
question
Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all proposed replies to a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requestor?
answer
Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager.
question
Who is the focal point for the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) portion of the installation web site?
answer
FOIA manager.
question
Who finds and provides the requested records and helps to determine whether to release the records?
answer
Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
question
Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates the release or denial of records?
answer
Office of primary responsibility (OPR).
question
Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests categorized as simple involve records that are
answer
small in volume.
question
Who does a requester submit an appeal to, when a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or more of the exemptions?
answer
Secretary of the Air Force.
question
An official system of records must be
answer
authorized by law or executive order.
question
Who is the focal point in a functional area for general Privacy Act (PA) questions?
answer
PA monitor.
question
What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act (PA) records?
answer
Functional.
question
To avoid conflicts or discrepancies, the best possible source for collecting personal data is
answer
the subject of the record.
question
When working with Privacy Act (PA) information, if more protection is needed for a system of records, be sure to balance the
answer
additional protection measures against risk and cost.
question
What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act (PA) records?
answer
Records retention schedule.
question
Which element of a Privacy Act (PA) statement shows the reason you are collecting the information?
answer
Purpose.
question
What type of information should be considered and protected as For Official Use Only (FOUO)?
answer
Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an interest protected by the freedom of information act.
question
What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of For Official Use Only (FOUO) records occurs?
answer
Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization.
question
When should For Official Use Only (FOUO) markings on a file or document be terminated?
answer
When circumstances indicate the information no longer requires protection from public disclosure.
question
Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products?
answer
Producing.
question
Who is authorized to serve as the point of contact for, provide coordination on, certify, and/or approve official Air Force publications and forms?
answer
Only civilian employees or military members of the Air Force.
question
A special review of a publication or form is conducted when the
answer
OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review.
question
When should you establish a formal paper version requirement for publications?
answer
Mission-related need only.
question
Administrative changes to publications do not affect subject matter
answer
content, authority, purpose, and application.
question
Up to what amount is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act (PA) record system that has not been published in the Federal Register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?
answer
$5,000.00.
question
To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collection and reports management programs
answer
purpose.
question
What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?
answer
Reports control symbol.
question
In the context of cognitive hierarchy what information is analyzed to provide meaning and value, or evaluated as to implications for the operation?
answer
Knowledge.
question
In the context of cognitive hierarchy, what is knowledge that has been synthesized and judgment applied to it in a specific situation to comprehend the situation's inner relationships?
answer
Understanding.
question
Data analyzed describes what level of the cognitive hierarchy?
answer
Information.
question
Knowledge combined with judgment and experience describes what level of the cognitive hierarchy?
answer
Information.
question
What objectives will the maturation of the services oriented architecture directly support?
answer
Secretary of the Air Force.
question
What is a data element?
answer
Physical representation of data entity attribute.
question
What term is a structured description of records used to describe database objects representations, and the relationships among them?
answer
Schema.
question
When storing data structures a group of ordered data items or elements defines what type of list?
answer
Linked.
question
What term do you used to address the data item instead of addressing the entire size of the data item?
answer
Pointer.
question
What term describes a set of data elements or values organized by using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns?
answer
Database Table.
question
A tree structure within a hierarchical data structure is best used to display database records that have what type of fields?
answer
Repeated.
question
Another data structure name for a network that is similar to a tree structure is called a
answer
Plex.
question
Who must test and certify user-developed software before installing it on an automated information system?
answer
Local security officials.
question
One method to provide protection of critical data against tampering is to control the physical access to the automated information system itself by
answer
installing keyboard locks.
question
One method a database administrator can maintain database access control is to limit a user access to
answer
use the least privilege concept.
question
The main purpose of a database is to
answer
make data independent of its programs
question
What term best describes the process of organizing data into tables that result in the database being unambiguous as intended?
answer
Normalization.
question
What database normalization form has a type of entity dependency called transitive dependency?
answer
Third.
question
What term best describes the redundant storing of the customer name in the purchase order entity?
answer
Data denormalization.
question
What method is used by a database administrator to manage the updating of information on an enterprise's computer system?
answer
EXCEPT
question
The database maintenance responsibility that addresses disk fragmentation is
answer
the DBMS.
question
What causes database fragmentation?
answer
EXCEMPT
question
The database maintenance responsibility that maintains a collection of metadata, DBMS, software, code libraries, and editing tools is managing
answer
a data respitory.
question
What option is not a key element in the Air Force enterprise architecture of the Air Force Portal?
answer
means for faster reliable service.
question
Who is the most important part of the Air Force Portal initiative?
answer
User.
question
Who oversees organization's implementation of the Air Force Portal program?
answer
Content manager.
question
Who ensures the links in your web site are maintained and in working order?
answer
Content publisher.
question
Which content publishing form is used to complete other forms as well as for its own uses?
answer
Editorial.
question
What environment do you use to enter or edit content into in-line publishing forms?
answer
Publishing center portal.
question
What environment does all Air Force users see when they sign on to the Air Force Portal?
answer
Air Force Portal production.
question
Content must be entered into what environment before it can be deployed?
answer
Publishing center portal.
question
When you click the "Insert" button to import graphics the
answer
insert/edit image widget closes.
question
What is the highest-level element in a basic web document?
answer
HTML
question
What must you do as a Content Publisher for a user to use images from the Air Force Portal directory?
answer
The images must have been uploaded to the Air Force Portal directory prior to creating the document.
question
What section is where all content to include text and more HTML code for formatting is placed in a basic web document?
answer
Body
question
What does the Privacy Advisory on public web sites inform users about?
answer
Why the information is solicited and how it will be used.
question
When may For Official Use Only material be placed on an Internet web site?
answer
Only if access to the site is limited to a specific target audience and the information is encrypted or password protected.
question
Knowledge Information implementation lead to all the following except
answer
restricting that knowledge across your organization.
question
"Knowledge results when information is organized and abstracted to produce something that is useful, predictive and expository to the decision-maker," describes which phase of knowledge management?
answer
I.
question
"To use and exploit tacit information, the objective is not to explicitly capture knowledge for the purpose of managing it, but to provide capabilities which allow airmen to reach knowledge experts or centers of professional expertise," describes which phase of knowledge management?
answer
II.
question
"Technologies and processes enable efficient and targeted workflows, dynamic subscription, proactive push, smart pull, and cross-mission collaboration," describes which phase of knowledge management?
answer
III.
question
When Communities of Interest are formed, they will not initially focus on developing
answer
locations for implementation.
question
Which information using assets do knowledge based operations manage in an integrated environment?
answer
People, processes, and tools.
question
What goal is not one of Knowledge Based Operations?
answer
Increase the creation of official Air Force information assets on paper.
question
What is the vision of Enterprise Information Management?
answer
Provide tools to empower users to exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
question
What type of Community of Practice workspace allows you to view its home page as well as all of its contents?
answer
Open.
question
What type of Community of Practice workspace allows you to view the home page, but not its content; as well as allowing you to check out the membership and purpose statement before applying for membership?
answer
Restricted.
question
A link class is a
answer
logical grouping of similar or related links.
question
To keep a Community of Practice working smoothly you should not
answer
approve new members to keep certain topics or areas up to date.
question
Knowledge owners can maintain interest in a Community of Practice (COP) by doing all of the following except
answer
make all content available and do not delete old content.
question
If you do not have a graphic or image uploaded to a SharePoint picture library and you want to load one, what is the next step?
answer
On the site page, click the site actions menu, and then click the create link.
question
Sharepoint Central administrators will set-up workflows, but are not capable of
answer
reassigning approvers.
question
Who has full control over the Sharepoint site when establishing a collaborative site?
answer
Owners.
question
What information architecture goal provides a corporate portal interface with the necessary breadth of information sources required without overwhelming the user with an overly complicated environment?
answer
Taxonomy.
question
Which Windows server special group contains only members who have logged on using an ordinary user account?
answer
Authenticated.
question
What SharePoint features are activated by default for all information stored in the central administration level of SharePoint?
answer
Indexing and search.
question
What collaboration services are available for electronic communications?
answer
(1) Web conferencing. (2) Instant messaging. (3) Collaborative workspaces. (4) Application sharing.
question
What enables users to communicate and interact with groups large and small, in real-time, using high-impact presentations and essential collaboration tools?
answer
Defense Connect Online.
question
What collaborative tool provides comprehensive content management and enterprise searches?
answer
Microsoft Office SharePoint.
question
What is the Air Force goal concerning accessibility to Internet resources?
answer
Within acceptable risk, the goal provides personnel requiring access for official business maximum accessibility to Internet resources.
question
What continues to increase as a technique for obtaining and disseminating information worldwide?
answer
Use of the Web or Web technologies.
question
Who is the final approval authority for the Internet release package?
answer
Unit commander.
question
What continues to increase as a technique for obtaining and disseminating information worldwide?
answer
Use of the Web or Web Technologies
question
Who is the final approval authority for the Internet release package?
answer
Unit commander.
question
What is the primary purpose of managing information effectively and efficiently?
answer
To enhance the Air Force Mission
Air Force
Career Development
Long Range Planning
Meet The Requirements
Social Security Numbers
Subject Matter Experts
Training
Aviation Resource Management Journeyman – Flashcards 125 terms
125 terms
Preview
Aviation Resource Management Journeyman – Flashcards
question
Which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) would you find the specialty training standard that lists the most common 1C0X2 tasks, knowledge, and technical references?
answer
Part II Section A.
question
Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a
answer
misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00.
question
What form is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay?
answer
AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
question
When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are called
answer
an application suite.
question
Which functional area is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
answer
Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).
question
Within how many days of assignment must a supervisor conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications?
answer
60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members).
question
Which functional area is responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations?
answer
Current operations.
question
All entries to the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 must be done in pencil to
answer
make it a living document.
question
Before a trainee is recommended for the next skill level, the trainee must be fully trained on all
answer
duty positions and core tasks.
question
The specialty training standard (STS) is divided into how many columns?
answer
4
question
One way to validate and assess a trainee's knowledge of the task is by conducting a
answer
task evaluation.
question
Within the Department of Defense (DOD) social security numbers (SSN) must be protected as
answer
For Official Use Only (FOUO).
question
Who is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) database?
answer
Database administrator.
question
What form is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member's flight evaluation?
answer
AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.
question
Which menu is not included in the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
answer
Deferred Management.
question
What Air Force form is used to request system changes to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
answer
3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document.
question
A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other
answer
by a need to solve common problems.
question
The three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities are
answer
telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment.
question
Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
answer
Commissioning date in the USAF.
question
Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date
answer
they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.
question
What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?
answer
Evaluator.
question
Operational support fliers
answer
are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally.
question
The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?
answer
15 June.
question
When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within
answer
one duty day.
question
How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
answer
180.
question
Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?
answer
11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
question
Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?
answer
12.
question
Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?
answer
4.
question
To update a member's physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), use the
answer
Flyer Availability window.
question
A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of
answer
pilot and flight surgeon.
question
Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge
answer
after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification.
question
A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member
answer
is disqualified due to fear of flying.
question
Funding for manpower resources are derived from the
answer
The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program.
question
A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information abouta member's flying
answer
activity.
question
Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?
answer
Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974.
question
How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit?
answer
15.
question
A member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 and first flew on 17 Apr 09. What action, if any must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office take on 20 Mar 09.
answer
Change the member's flying status code (FSC) from "A" to "S".
question
The fist character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the
answer
entitlement status code (ESC).
question
You may publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects several members provided
answer
the action is exactly the same for all members.
question
On 12 Oct 08, the commander certified a member's eligibility for non-career aviator flying duties. The member was assigned to an aircrew prefix duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) on 13 Oct 08, started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08, and completed training on 15 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) assigning Aviation Service Code (ASC) "9D?"
answer
5 Nov 08.
question
What effective date would you use when changing a pilot's flying status code (FSC) from "U" to "X" if the member graduates undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying training (UFT) on 25 May, departs for initial qualification training (IQT) on 26 May, completes IQT on 15 Aug, and signs in to the first operational flying unit on 17 Aug?
answer
25 May.
question
A pilot completed undergraduate pilot training (UPT) on 27 Sep 08 and left the next day to a temporary duty (TDY) location to complete initial qualification training (IQT). The member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09; left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09; and signed in to the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronauti
answer
20 Jan 09.
question
In which AFI can you find the list of all the mandatory remarks used for publishing aeronautical orders (AO)?
answer
11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
question
What must be included in the Authority section of the aeronautical order (AO), when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter?
answer
Organization, office symbol, and date of the letter.
question
Suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member
answer
is offered Article 15 punishment.
question
If the medical disqualification is less than one year, a member may obtain medical certification for requalification by
answer
obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon's office.
question
While under suspension, the member's flying incentive pay
answer
is terminated until the member's status is resolved.
question
Aviation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members
answer
returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.
question
When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will
answer
notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office.
question
Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight?
answer
8.
question
Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are
answer
given to the member.
question
When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), ensure all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order by
answer
effective date.
question
Members who are in inactive status are
answer
not required to complete an annual records review.
question
You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as
answer
Privileged information.
question
If you must normalize and make changes to a member's record after it has been outprocessed to the gaining host aviation resource management (HARM) office, you must advise the gaining HARM office to
answer
delete the record before you resend the updated record.
question
No later than how many days after receipt of a member's record must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
answer
10 calendar days.
question
Which of the following Air Force specialty codes (AFSC) is considered jump inherent?
answer
1C2XX.
question
The approving authority authorizing temporary jump status is
answer
MAJCOM/A3.
question
Within how many days must a free fall parachutist perform a free fall jump before being considered non-current?
answer
180.
question
Members who meet the requirements for the award of a parachutist badge must apply by completing an AF IMT
answer
196, Data for Parachutist Rating.
question
Members who meet the requirements for the award of a parachutist badge must apply by completing an AF IMT
answer
196, Data for Parachutist Rating.
question
Who may recommend a member be prohibited from wearing the parachutist badge if the member is disqualified as a result of substantiated drug abuse?
answer
Commanders at any review level.
question
When a parachutist is no longer assigned to an authorized jump position, the member's aviation service code (ASC) will change from
answer
9E to 06.
question
Most dual-coded flying/jumping parachutists are assigned to non-career aviator positions identified by a duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) prefix of
answer
X, K, or Q.
question
The effective date used to assign Aviation Service Code 06, Jump Requirement Terminated, when a member fails to complete the US Army Basic Airborne Course is the
answer
day after disenrollment.
question
What action must you take in the Aviation Resource Management System once a member becomes high altitude low opening (HALO) certified?
answer
Click "Yes" in the HALO Certification field in the Aircrew Management window.
question
Aeronautical orders for enlisted parachutists will have a termination date based on the earliest of the following dates except the
answer
change to active status date.
question
Which of the following statements must be included in the Remarks section of the aeronautical order for a member assigned to a dual-coded flying/jumping position?
answer
When required for the mission, aircrew duties may be performed on any USAF aircraft.
question
How many days can a parachutist be suspended without major command (MAJCOM) approval?
answer
180.
question
Commanders will provide at least 120 calendar days notification before involuntarily terminating members' aviation service who are
answer
dual-coded flying/jumping.
question
Who is responsible for completing and certifying all AF Forms 4323, ARMS Multi-Crew Jump Records and AF IMTs 922, Individual Jump Records?
answer
Jumpmaster.
question
Who ensures the following items are correct on the AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record: date, aircraft mission design series, drop zone, jump type and condition, parachute type, jump altitude and the remarks?
answer
Jumpmaster.
question
What does a "T" in the Jump Type option, indicate when updating jump accomplishments?
answer
Tactical or Operational.
question
What standard folder serves as a repository for all approved documents pertaining to a member's jump career?
answer
Jump record folder.
question
When must the Host Aviation Resource Management office conduct a cover to cover audit of the jump record folder?
answer
Upon PCS.
question
What does a periodic review of the jump record folder ensure?
answer
Accuracy.
question
When outprocessing a parachutist, what must you include in the jump record package?
answer
AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
question
Which subcategory of qualification training provides the training necessary to qualify an aircrew member to perform the command or unit mission?
answer
Mission qualification.
question
What percentage of the annual sortie requirements are flight surgeons required to perform in their primary aircraft?
answer
50.
question
The aircrew qualification evaluation is due every
answer
17 months.
question
What document contains a chronological history of a member's aircrew evaluations?
answer
AF Form 8.
question
Which characters of the flight authorization duty code is/are MAJCOM specific?
answer
The third, fourth, and fifth characters.
question
What is the first step in creating a training program in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
answer
Add the program in the training program list.
question
Locally developed training requirements will have task IDs beginning with the letter
answer
Z.
question
When assigning dual-credit criteria in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the type of credit given may include
answer
accomplishment date and volume ONLY.
question
After you are finished assigning training profiles to an aircrew member, audit the transactions using the
answer
Training Profile Assignment List.
question
You may prorate the following training tasks EXCEPT
answer
small arms.
question
You can tailor an individual training task for the purpose of the following EXCEPT
answer
changing a training cycle.
question
When assigning training profiles, thoroughly check the AF Form 4324 for accuracy; particularly
answer
the ARMS Training Profile Management section.
question
Who must certify the AF IMT 1522, ARMS Additional Training Accomplishment Report, when the training was conducted by an outside agency?
answer
The training instructor.
question
After you are finished updating training accomplishments in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), audit the transactions using the
answer
Training Update Audit List.
question
To properly document errors found on the Training Update Audit List,
answer
line through the error and write the correct information above the line.
question
Crew rest includes at least how many hours of uninterrupted sleep?
answer
8.
question
When forecasting air refueling (AR) requirements, the requesting unit must make allowances for attrition to include the following EXCEPT
answer
aircrew availability.
question
As a ground scheduler, you must
answer
determine which task takes priority and resolve scheduling issues as they arise.
question
Which scheduling plan includes aircrew names and aircraft tail numbers?
answer
Weekly.
question
Who may log primary flight time?
answer
A flight surgeon on a medical evacuation mission.
question
Who is responsible for completing the mission design series (MDS), serial number, unit charged for flying hours, and Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) location blocks (blocks 2 through 5) of the AFTO Form 781?
answer
Maintenance crew chief.
question
In order to make changes to an AFTO Form 781 that has already been turned in to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office,
answer
the pilot in command must contact the HARM office.
question
Which format would you use in the Flight Date field when updating flying hours in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?
answer
DD MMM YYYY.
question
On the flying history report (FHR) which flight time is not included in a member's total time?
answer
student.
question
When a member finds an error on his or her flying hour totals, you must
answer
not make any adjustments until a source document is produced.
question
When auditing the aircraft utilization report (AUR), you must
answer
perform a line by line comparison of each entry against the AFTO Form 781.
question
Which outprocessing procedure is not a responsibility of the Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM) office?
answer
Transferring the member's electronic record to the gaining Host Aviation ResourceManagement (HARM) office.
question
Which AFI requires the Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM) office to develop and maintain a continuity book that includes opening and closing checklists?
answer
AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management.
question
A supervisor of flying (SOF) is a commissioned officer
answer
designated to supervise the daily flying activities.
question
If a member's duty code on the flight authorization does not match the AFTO Form 781
answer
the aircraft commander must explain the reason in the Remarks section of the AFTO Form 781.
question
When deployed, all original flight documentation must
answer
be forwarded to the unit that owns the aircraft.
question
To receive aviation career incentive pay (ACIP), a rated officer must be entitled to basic pay,
answer
hold an aeronautical rating, and be qualified for aviation service.
question
Which of the following pay was established under the Fiscal Year (FY) 2000 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)?
answer
Career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP).
question
How many flight hours are required for a member that was on flying status for 15 days in a month?
answer
2.0
question
Banked time is a combination of
answer
excess and insufficient time.
question
What is the pay stop date for a career enlisted aviator (CEA) who was placed on active flying on 1 January 2009 and was placed in a duty not involving flying (DNIF) status on 13 April 2009?
answer
12 April 2010.
question
When does the three month grace period begin, for a member in conditional pay status, who was injured in a duty-related accident on 12 November if the member has met the flight requirement for that month?
answer
1 December.
question
When an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member performs both active and inactive duty in the same month, the flight time flown may be combined to satisfy the
answer
both active and inactive duty requirements.
question
A parachutist was placed on an aeronautical order to perform high altitude low opening (HALO) jump duties effective 1 April. The member performed a static line jump and a HALO jump in May. What type of pay will the member receive for May?
answer
Type 2 ONLY.
question
How many jumps, in what time period, qualifies a parachutist for hazardous duty incentive pay for 12 consecutive months if a member is unable to perform due to military operations, no jump equipment or no aircraft?
answer
Four jumps in a 9-month period following a 3-month period of no jumps.
question
Which form is used to track a member's entitlement to static line and high altitude low opening (HALO) jump incentive pay?
answer
AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
question
If the military pay order (MPO) action is to stop a member's pay, the pay termination date will always be
answer
one day prior to the effective date of the AO.
question
How many certified copies of the entitlement verification report must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office maintain?
answer
The last four reports.
question
A filter created on an item that restricts which values to return is a (an)
answer
condition.
question
Which default option allows you to determine the number of query documents that are listed in your "Most Recently Used List?"
answer
General tab.
question
Why is it necessary to validate a query when using calculations?
answer
The data elements requested might merge in the resulting query.
question
Who is responsible for completing the AF Form 4324 when assigning training profiles?
answer
The aircrew training office.
question
Which type of mission provides air interdiction (AI) and close air support (CAS)?
answer
Counterland.
Air Force
Honesty And Integrity
Personal And Professional
ATF General Orders – Flashcards 10 terms
10 terms
Preview
ATF General Orders – Flashcards
question
Do not lie, cheat, or steal nor tolerate those who do in the performance if your official duties.
answer
# 1
question
Keep your immediate supervisor informed of where you are, what you are doing, and if anything significant occurs while on or off duty (i.e. use of force, car accident, etc.)
answer
# 2
question
Maintain, account for, and use ATF-issued property ONLY for official business
answer
# 3
question
Do not drink any alcohol while carrying a firearm or operating a GOV
answer
# 4
question
Do not tell anyone about an ATF investigation or operation unless they have a need to know
answer
# 5
question
Document your investigative activity within 7 days
answer
# 6
question
Protect, preserve, record and properly store all evidence
answer
# 7
question
Control your confidential informants Do not let them control you!
answer
# 8
question
Do not talk to the media unless authorized to do so
answer
# 9
question
Go home safe
answer
# 10
