NCOA 15A All Study Sets

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question
What is Strategic Communication?
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Strategic communication is a focused United States Government effort to understand and engage key audiences to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of United States Government interests, policies, and objectives through the use of coordinated programs, plans, themes, messages, and products synchronized with the actions of all instruments of national power. Essentially, Strategic Communication is successfully influencing a particular audience.
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What are your 4 roles in Strategic Communication?
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• Know the Air Force message(s) • Tell the Air Force story • Tell what I do and how it supports my wing's mission and priorities • Stay in my lane
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When answering media inquiries, what are 3 questions you should ask yourself about the answer that you give?
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Did I follow OPSEC? Did I stay in my lane? Did I clearly state, \"In my opinion...\"?
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What is the goal of Engagement?
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The goal of engagement is to fulfill your obligation to provide truthful, timely, and accurate information about military activities and personnel, consistent with security guidelines that enhance public trust and support for the Air Force. As such, the Air Force Core Value of Integrity First ensures your communication will always be truthful, credible, and remain within the bounds of security, accuracy, propriety, and policy (SAPP).
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What does the acronym SAPP stand for, and when is it used?
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Security, accuracy, propriety (Politeness, Respect, Decency), and policy, and it should always be used when discussing the military, regardless of what communications medium is being used, or who you are talking to.
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What are the 3 types of interviews?
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• On-the-Record • Background • Off-the-Record
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What are the 4 types of interview techniques?
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• Hooking • Bridging • Flagging • Personal Credibility
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What is Hooking?
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Hooking, takes advantage of opportunities before the interview to get the reporter interested in talking about what you want to. The idea is to entice the interviewer into your agenda.
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What is Bridging, and give 3 examples?
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Bridging is a technique you can use to move from the reporter's agenda to your message. Bridging is also a way to smoothly transition from the reporter's question asked to your message. You are still answering their question, but also delivering your message. Briefly touch upon the reporter's answer and then bridge to your message and agenda. Examples: • The F-22 does cost a lot, but this aircraft delivers... • Fifteen airmen died in combat today; however, they died defending... • This base is not closing, and our mission here will...
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What is Flagging?
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Flagging is a technique used to emphasize your message. Use verbal clues such as tone of voice, non-verbal hand gestures, and facial expressions to emphasize your point. Example: • If you remember one thing today, it should be...
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What is Personal Credibility?
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Personal Credibility means you are the expert! Use your personal authority and experience to establish your professional credentials. Example: • From my 15 years of experience...
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How should you treat the media?
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Treat the media as you would want others to treat you. If you are distant and hostile with the media, you'll get what you give. The media needs and wants information. Spokespeople who are accessible and sensitive to a reporter's need for information will generate credibility and create a good working relationship.
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Who are 6 key audiences you should consider when deciding what information to share about the Air Force?
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• American public • Family and friends • News Media • Potential recruits • Foreign Militaries • Enemy
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Give 6 examples of Air Force Narrative topics.
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• Air Force Mission • Air Force Core Values • Air Force Priorities • Customs and Courtesies • Enlisted Professional Military Education • Airman's Creed
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What is the Online Battlespace?
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Online battlespace includes the environmental factors and conditions that must be understood to successfully apply combat power, protect the force, or complete the mission, including the enemy and friendly forces.
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What does Web 2.0 refer to?
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Web 2.0 refers to user-centered, dynamic Internet based services that emphasize collaboration and sharing.
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What is Social Networking?
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Social networking is described as a social structure made up of individuals (or organizations) called \"nodes\", which are tied (connected) by one or more specific types of interdependency, such as friendship.
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What is Social Media?
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Social media describes the various activities that integrate technology, social interaction, and the construction of words, pictures, videos, and audio.
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What is the Air Force channel on YouTube called?
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Blue Tube - http://www.youtube.com/user/AFBlueTube.com/us
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What are Information Operations (IO)?
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IO is the integrated employment of three operational elements: influence operations (IFO), electronic warfare operations, and network warfare operations. IO aims to influence, disrupt, corrupt, or usurp adversarial human or automated decision-making.
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What is the purpose of OPSEC?
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The purpose of OPSEC is to reduce the vulnerability of Air Force missions from successful adversary collection and exploitation of critical information.
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What is a \"threat\"?
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A threat is an adversary with the capability and intent to undertake any actions detrimental to the success of program activities or operations.
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What is OPSEC vulnerability?
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OPSEC vulnerability is a condition where friendly actions provide indicators that may be obtained and accurately evaluated by an adversary in time to provide a basis for effective adversary decision-making.
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What is an OPSEC risk?
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An OPSEC risk is a measure of the potential degree to which critical information and indicators are subject to loss through adversary exploitation.
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What is the purpose of a Talking Paper?
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A talking paper will help you organize your thoughts and provide an outline to use during your briefing.
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What document covers Air Force Suicide Prevention?
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AFPAM 44-160, Air Force Suicide Prevention Program.
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What does the Wingman concept A.C.E. stand for?
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Ask, Care, and Escort.
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What 7 areas can be positively affected by the Wingman concept?
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Suicide awareness and prevention, sexual assault response and prevention, domestic violence intervention and prevention, workplace violence intervention and prevention, substance abuse intervention, financial management, and responsible decision-making and behavior in all phases of people's lives.
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What are the 4 dimensions of Wellness?
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Physical, Social, Spiritual, and Emotional.
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What are the 5 components of the Physical dimension of Wellness?
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Cardio respiratory endurance, muscular endurance, muscular strength, body composition, and flexibility.
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What does the Spiritual dimension of Wellness address?
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The spiritual dimension of wellness addresses questions such as meaning, purpose, values, self-worth, dignity, and hope.
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Name 3 benefits of the Social dimension of Wellness.
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Having a sense of belonging, increased sense of self-worth, and feeling of security.
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What is Perceived Burdensomeness?
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Perceived burdensomeness is a sense that, \"I am a burden to others, I do not contribute to the group, and I am a liability to the group's well-being or safety.\"
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What is Thwarted Belongingness?
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Thwarted belongingness is a sense that, \"I have no connection to others and those previously meaningful relationships that I did have been strained beyond recovery or lost outright.\"
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What percentage of Air Force deaths are because of suicide?
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Suicide is the second leading cause of death for active duty personnel. It accounts for 24% of the active duty deaths annually and is second only to deaths from unintentional injuries.
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What document covers Suicide and Violence Prevention Education and Training?
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AFI 44-154.
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What is CISM?
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Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM) enables people to understand the normal reactions to traumatic events and to promote use of effective coping skills. CISM teams or services exist on each base.
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What is the definition of Confidential Communication?
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Confidential communication is defined as communication not intended to be disclosed to third persons other than those to whom disclosure is in furtherance of the rendition of professional services to the patient or those reasonably necessary for such transmission of the communication.
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What document covers Confidential Communication?
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AFI 44-109, Mental Health, Confidentiality, and Military Law.
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Who can Confidential Communications be disclosed to?
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Confidential communications will be disclosed to persons or agencies with a proper and legitimate need for the information and who are authorized by law or regulation to receive it, unless the evidentiary privilege applies.
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What are the goals of post-suicide intervention?
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To help friends and colleagues understand and begin the grieving process, to help maintain mission readiness, full functionality and morale, and to identify/refer individuals who are at increased risk for distress.
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What is AFPD 36-27?
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EQUAL OPPORTUNITY (EO).
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What is AFI 44-121?
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Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program.
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What is a Drug?
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Any controlled substance included in schedules I, II, III, IV, and V in Title 21, United States Code, Section 812, including anabolic or androgenic steroids, or any intoxicating substance, other than alcohol, that is inhaled, injected, consumed, or introduced into the body in any manner to alter mood or function.
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How does the Air Force define Substance Abuse?
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The use of any illicit drug, the misuse of any prescribed medication, or the abuse of alcohol. Any substandard behavior or performance in which the consumption of alcohol is a primary contributing factor. Any pattern of unconventional misuse of any substance for nonmedical purposes that produces a known health risk or constitutes a danger to self or others.
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What is the 0-0-1-3 Formula?
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• 0 = Number of underage individuals drinking • 0 = Number of individuals driving under the influence (DUI) of alcohol • 1 = Maximum number of alcoholic drinks per hour • 3 = Maximum number of alcoholic drinks per night
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Name 3 substance abuse prevention steps.
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Educating, de-glamorization, and leading by example.
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With regard to drug or alcohol abuse, when are immediate actions required, such as notifying the Commander and First Sergeant?
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If there has been an incident, such as alcohol-related tardiness to work, DUI, or drunkenness on duty, immediate referral, documentation, and action are required. Any suspected drug abuse requires immediate action by the supervisor.
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What are the 5 methods used by the Air Force to identify substance abuse?
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Self-identification, Commander referrals, Medical identification, Substance-related incidents, and Drug-testing.
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What is Self-identification?
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Members who are not currently under investigation or pending action because of an alcohol-related incident are eligible to self-identify. For drug abuse, members may voluntarily disclose evidence of personal drug use or possession to their leadership or a military medical professional. Commanders will grant limited protection for Air Force members who reveal this information with the intent of entering treatment.
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What are Commander Referrals?
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Commanders shall refer all members for an assessment when substance use could be a contributing factor in an incident. Commanders will coordinate with the staff judge advocate within 24 hours of suspected misconduct and should ensure that blood alcohol tests (BAT) are accomplished as soon after the incident as possible.
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What is Medical Identification?
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Healthcare providers who suspect substance problems must refer the member to the ADAPT program for evaluation.
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What is the overall mission of the ADAPT program?
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The ADAPT program is designed to identify and help individuals before their alcohol or drug problem causes significant damage to their health and career.
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What are some of the negative effects that might be experienced by a member who has an identified substance abuse problem?
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Individual isolation, stereotyping or labeling, gossiping, low self-esteem, and low self-confidence.
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What document covers substance abuse prevention and control?
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AFI 36-810.
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What are effective ways to communicate with a member about suspected substance abuse?
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Private counseling or feedback session, Firm questions, yet sensitive to subordinate's situation and needs, Inquiring with a nonjudgmental, open-minded attitude, Sincerity and genuine concern in actions, and Using observed behaviors and other facts as the basis for discussion.
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What is Stress?
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Stress is defined as the reaction people's bodies experience to an external demand by the continually changing environment. It has physical and emotional effects on people and can create positive or negative feelings or behaviors.
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What are Eustress and Distress?
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Eustress describes positive or healthy stress. Distress describes negative stress.
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What are the 6 categories of organizational stress?
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Task, role, interpersonal demands; organizational structure; organizational leadership; and an organization's life stage.
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What are the 3 symptoms of stress?
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Physiological, Psychological and Behavioral.
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List 4 individual time management techniques to help minimize stress.
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1. Make daily lists of activities to be accomplished. 2. Prioritize activities by importance and urgency. 3. Schedule activities according to the priorities set. 4. Know your daily cycle and handle the most demanding parts of your job during the high part of your cycle when you are most alert and productive.
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What are 4 individual ways to combat stress?
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Time management, physical exercise, relaxation training, and social support.
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What are 5 organizational ways to combat stress?
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Selection and placement, goal setting, job redesign, organizational communication, and wellness programs.
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What is the definition of Combat and Operational Stress?
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The expected and predictable emotional, intellectual, physical, and/or behavioral reactions of Service members who have been exposed to stressful events in war or military operations other than war. Combat stress reactions vary in quality and severity as a function of operational conditions, such as intensity, duration, rules of engagement, leadership, effective communication, unit morale, unit cohesion, and perceived importance of the mission.
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Name 13 combat-related stress risk factors.
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1) Duration of deployment greater than six months 2) Repeat deployments with insufficient time to recover and reset 3) Sleeping less than 6-8 hours per day on average 4) Witnessing death close up, especially of other Airmen or civilian non-combatants 5) Being responsible for the death or serious injury of a non-combatant or allied combatant 6) Being physically injured 7) Handling remains, especially other Airmen 8) History of previous stress injuries, whether sustained during or prior to service 9) Previous mental health problems 10) Lack of mutual trust with other unit members 11)Being impacted by family, relationship, or other home front stressors 12) Being young and inexperienced 13) Potential exposure to nuclear, biological, and chemical agents
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What are Combat Stress Reactions (CSR)?
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Combat Stress Reactions (CSR) are a natural result of exposure to combat conditions.
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What are 4 warning signs of PTSD?
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Reliving the event, avoiding situations that remind you of the event, feeling numb, and hyperarousal.
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What is the AEP?
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The Air Force Affirmative Employment Program (AEP) is designed to facilitate opportunities for the employment and advancement of underrepresented groups in the work force, remove artificial barriers in personnel systems and practices, and eliminate discrimination by act or inference.
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What form is used as a Formal Complaint for the allegation of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment?
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AF Form 1587-1.
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How is an Informal Complaint for the allegation of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment filed?
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Orally or on an AF Form 1587-1 that is not submitted as a formal complaint.
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What 2 documents can be referenced regarding sexual harassment?
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Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, and AFI 36-2706, Military Equal Opportunity Program.
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What are the 5 parts of a Restricted Report of a sexual assault?
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1. Reporting can remain confidential 2. This option applies to ALL military members (to include Guard/Reserve members regardless of duty status) and to dependents 18 years of age or older* 3. A law enforcement investigation will not be triggered 4. The chain of command is not involved, other than being notified that \"an alleged sexual assault\" has occurred. (No names or other personally identifying information are given.) 5. A victim can change their mind and elect to change a Restricted Report to an Unrestricted Report.
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What is a VWAP Liaison?
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VWAP liaisons are individuals (medical or mental health care provider, judge advocate, paralegal, or other appropriate person) who assist a victim during the military justice process. A liaison is also responsible for making contact between victims and service agencies and arranging for those services when appropriate.
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What document covers SAPR Program procedures?
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DoDI 6495.02.
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What is the first type of workplace violence?
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Violent acts by criminals who have no other connection with the workplace but enter to commit robbery or another crime.
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What is the second type of workplace violence?
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Violence directed at employees by customers, clients, patients, students, inmates, or any others for whom an organization provides services.
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What is the third type of workplace violence?
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Violence directed against coworkers, supervisors, or managers by a present or former employee.
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What is the fourth type of workplace violence?
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Violence committed in the workplace by someone who doesn't work there but has a personal relationship with an employee—an abusive spouse or domestic partner.
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What is Assault?
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Assault is a violent physical or verbal attack, an unlawful threat, or an attempt to do violence or harm to somebody else.
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What is Aggravated Assault?
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Aggravated Assault causes serious physical injury to another; using a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument; committing an assault by any means of force that causes temporary but substantial disfigurement, temporary but substantial loss or impairment of any body organ or part or a fracture of any body part; committing an assault while the victim is bound or otherwise physically restrained or while the victim's capacity to resist is substantially impaired.
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What is the Threat Assessment Protocol?
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Threat Assessment Protocol provides a meaningful line of inquiry to help collect information after learning of a possible threat of violence. Use it to guide your assessment of the potential threat and to help predict future violence.
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What is the difference between Source Data and Subject Interview Data?
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Source Data is information about what happened or what might have led up to the incident. Subject Interview Data is information about the perpetrator and potential warning signs displayed recently or in their past history.
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What does the acronym JACA stand for?
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J - Perceived justification. A - Perceived alternatives. C - Perceived consequences. A - Perceived ability.
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What is JACA?
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JACA is a useful tool for predicting the likelihood of future violence. It is a strong indication that future violence is likely whenever one or more of the letters (JACA) in the model describe the subject (threatener).
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With regard to the subject (threatener), what does the J in JACA mean?
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Does the person feel justified in using violence?
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With regard to the subject (threatener), what does the first A in JACA mean?
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Does the person perceive available alternatives to violence?
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With regard to the subject (threatener), what does the C in JACA mean?
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How does the person view the consequences associated with using violence?
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With regard to the subject (threatener), what does the second A in JACA mean?
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Does the person believe he/she can successfully deliver the blow, bullet, or bomb?
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Describe Workplace Bullying.
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Workplace Bullying is, in simple terms, abuse or misuse of power and is considered psychological violence. It includes actions, decisions, and behaviors such as unwarranted or invalid criticism or blame without factual justification, treating some members differently than others, and excluding certain members from events to isolate them socially. It also includes physical intimidation (proximal), shouting, swearing and taking actions that embarrass or humiliate the target.
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Name 4 ways to deal with difficult people.
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1) Be aware of what is going on around you. For example, if you overhear loud, angry, or abusive remarks directed at a member of your team, distract the visitor by asking a question or saying hello. 2) If you know you will be meeting with someone who may become upset or threatening, have your supervisor or a coworker sit in on the meeting or remain within earshot. 3) If a person becomes abusive or threatens you while you are in your work area, especially a closed room, get up and walk to the door while you continue to talk with the individual. 4) If you sincerely feel you face imminent harm, fake illness or a forgotten errand and leave your work area.
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What are four observable behaviors of a potentially violent person?
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Standing history of complaints, feelings of victimization related to a failure to accurately perceive their role, increasing angry or sullen moods, and an individual who has threatened that some violent act or confrontation could happen.
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Name 7 actions supervisors should take following a threat allegation.
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1) Relocate the workstation of threatened employees. 2) Alter the employees work schedule. 3) Provide photographs of stalkers or alleged perpetrators (spouses) to receptionists and security officers/forces. 4) Encourage law enforcement to enforce restraining orders. 5) f threats are recent, provide employees with time off. 6) Deploy security cameras near entrances to employees work areas. 7) Place silent alarms at employee workstations.
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Describe Stage 1 of the crisis reaction following a violent incident.
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Unit members experience emotional reactions characterized by shock, disbelief, denial, or numbness. Physically, members experience shock or a fight-or-flight survival reaction in which the heart rate increases, perceptual senses become heightened or distorted, and adrenaline levels increase to meet a real or perceived threat.
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Describe Stage 2 of the crisis reaction following a violent incident.
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This is the \"impact\" stage where unit members may feel a variety of intense emotion, including anger, rage, fear, terror, grief, sorrow, confusion, helplessness, guilt, depression, or withdrawal. This stage may last a few days, a few weeks, or even a few months.
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Describe Stage 3 of the crisis reaction following a violent incident.
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This is the \"reconciliation stage\" in which unit members try to make sense out of the event, understand its impact, and through trial and error, reach closure of the event so it does not interfere with their ability to function and grow. Understand that this stage may be a long-term process.
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Name 8 proactive ways to avoid violence in the workplace.
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Training, Establish Clear Policies, Give Members a Voice, Stress Management, Marital/Relationship Counseling, Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention, Diversity Training and Conflict Resolution, and Reducing Risk When Taking Disciplinary Action.
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What is the true purpose behind disciplinary action?
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The true purpose of disciplinary action is rehabilitative rather than punitive.
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Name 5 good practices for supervisors when involuntarily separating an employee.
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1) Be sensitive to the fact that involuntary separation is highly stressful to most people 2) Give separation notices at the end-of-the-day 3) Escort individuals from the location of the termination meeting to the exit of the installation 4) If members are allowed to clean out their desk, room, office, etc, ensure they do so in your presence 5) Recommend restriction from the installation when \"probable cause\" indicates terminated members' potential for violence
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What is Anchoring?
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Anchoring is an offer that is at (or slightly more aggressive) than the aspiration point. The expectation is that the anchor pulls agreement close to one's aspiration point. In simple bargaining situations, the stronger one's anchor, the closer the final agreement is to the negotiator's aspiration point.
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What is BATNA?
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Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement (BATNA). Defined as \"an alternative that, should negotiations fail, you are willing and able to execute without the other party's participation or permission.\"
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Describe Convergent thinkers.
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Convergent Thinkers tend to be reliable, rational, and principle-based. They constantly work to reduce uncertainty and ambiguity.
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Describe Divergent thinkers.
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Divergent thinkers' mental processes tend to be creative and spontaneous. They are comfortable with uncertainty and ambiguity.
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Describe a Demand.
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A demand is a statement of terms with no room for adjustment. It is positional and embodies the most precise use of a \"take it or leave it\" option.
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What are Interests?
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Interests are the reason behind your position. It is the \"why\" behind what you want.
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What are the 3 basic types of Interests?
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Procedural, psychological and substantive.
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Describe Procedural interests.
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Procedural interests are those concerning how a process is conducted. Negotiators with procedural interests are not as concerned with the actual details of the outcome as they are with how an outcome is determined.
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Describe Psychological interests.
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Psychological interests (sometimes called relationship interests) are concerned with how people feel, how they are perceived, and how they relate with others.
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Describe Substantive interests.
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Substantive interests, which are perhaps the most important, have to do with things such as schedules, prices, salaries, etc. These make up the bulk of most negotiations.
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What are Interest-based Negotiations (IBN)?
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Interest-Based Negotiations (IBN), also referred to as Interest-based Problem-Solving, is the practice of focusing on the interests, and not the positions of the two negotiating parties. The mediator's challenge is to guide these parties to focus on their interests instead of their positions.
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What is Negotiation?
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Negotiation is a process involving two or more people or groups who have a degree of difference in positions, interests, goals, values, or beliefs and who are striving to reach agreement on issues or courses of action.
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What is Position?
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In negotiating, a position is \"what you want.\" Your position is what you envision as your best possible outcome. This is the stance one takes that is usually founded on his or her underlying interests.
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What is a Reservation point?
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Reservation point is the \"bottom line\" or least favorable option or offer you will accept.
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What is Aspiration point?
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Aspiration point is the best outcome each party hopes to achieve from a negotiated agreement.
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What is the Zone of Possible Agreement?
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The \"bargaining range\" defined as the overlapping (common) area of each party's aspiration point and reservation point. No overlap, no ZOPA.
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What does the TIPO model stand for?
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Trust, Information, Power, and Options.
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What are the 2 main categories of Trust?
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Trust in a Process and Trust in a Person.
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Name 4 examples of Process Trust.
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The Inspector General complaint system, Equal Opportunity policies and programs, Air Force instructions, and the Core Values.
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Name 3 Trust Building measures.
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Providing (or being provided) information in a way that both parties understand, delivering on promises made, and taking a genuine interest in your opposites' interests.
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In negotiating, what is critical to developing options and then making those options possible?
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Information is critical to developing options and power is key to making the options possible.
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What is the People approach to negotiating?
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It centers on the relationship that exists between the individuals or groups involved. In some situations, developing or maintaining the relationship is more important than the task at hand.
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What is the Task approach to negotiating?
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Places more importance on reaching an outcome, solution, or resolution than on building or maintaining the relationship.
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What are the 5 Negotiation Styles?
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Evade, Comply, Insist, Settle, and Cooperate.
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What is the difference between Constructive and Destructive conflict?
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Constructive conflict spurs creative thinking which results in more detailed and feasible solutions when negotiating and mediating. Destructive conflict produces hostility between parties which in turn produces barriers to cooperation, destroys morale, and thwarts efforts to solve problems.
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What is CNS?
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The Cooperative Negotiation Strategy (CNS) concentrates on both the task and the relationship. The central idea is for two parties, by working together rather than competitively, to potentially come up with a better solution as a team than either could invent on their own.
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What are the 5 steps of the Cooperative Negotiation Strategy process?
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Step 1 is Positions, Step 2 is Interests, Step 3 is BATNA, Step 4 is (Divergent) Brainstorming, and Step 5 is Solution.
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When brainstorming, why is it essential to list all the options developed without judgment?
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Often the best solution is one that grows out of an initially incomplete or weak option.
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What are the 2 Negotiating Categories?
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Distributive and Integrative.
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What is Distributive Negotiating?
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Also known as value claiming, this category assumes resources are limited. The task of any distributive negotiating process is to divide up a fixed set of resources. Distributive negotiation's objective is to claim a portion of whatever value is on the table. Resources are seen as fixed and limited, so any gain by one side represents a loss for the other. Conflict is seen as inevitable, and competition rather than cooperation guides negotiations.
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Name 7 \"Hardball\" tactics often used during Distributive Negotiating.
answer
Good cop - Bad cop, Highball-Lowball, Exploding offer, Lying, Intimidation/Aggressive Behavior, Snow job, and Nibble.
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Describe the Highball-Lowball negotiating tactic.
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This tactic takes advantage of you being hard-wired for reciprocity. The other side sets a very high anchor and then offers a concession, and you feel obligated to respond with a concession.
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Describe the Nibble negotiating tactic.
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You are about to sign, and then the other party demands a little something extra at the end to close the deal. You should stand ready with a little something extra of your own to demand.
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Describe the Snow Job negotiating tactic.
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This tactic aims to overwhelm you with too many details; one person can only absorb so much. It becomes extremely difficult to determine what is real and/or important and what is and is not a distraction. Wear the opponent down by making him or her explain each element.
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What is Integrative Negotiating?
answer
The integrative category, while still acknowledging that in the end resources must be distributed, does not see resources as necessarily fixed and means that integrative negotiations are not necessarily zero sum. Conflict is not seen as inevitable; there is the possibility for mutually beneficial, \"value creating\" cooperation. Negotiators see the other party as partners in the process, and cooperation has the potential to create new value from existing resources by combining or using them in new or different ways.
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Describe negotiating with a low-context culture.
answer
Low-context cultures are task-oriented, rely on perceived positional power, and believe in the process more than the relationships. They tend to try to satisfy their position, rather than their interests.
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Describe negotiating with a high-context culture.
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High-context cultures are people-oriented, and try to develop trust, assuming they will be trusted as well. If negotiations are not going well, they will resort to either Insisting on their terms, or will assume a more passive negotiation style like Comply, Settle, or Evade.
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With regard to negotiations, what is Readiness?
answer
Readiness is defined as the capacity of parties to decide it is in their best interest to negotiate an agreement rather than to continue a dispute. You must ask yourself, \"Am I ready to be reasonable, has enough time passed that I can put aside my feelings and deal rationally with the issues and decisions that need to be made, am I fundamentally ready to do \"business\" with the other person/party involved, and is the other person/party is ready to be reasonable with me?\"
question
With regard to negotiations, what is Ripeness?
answer
Timing is critical to successful negotiations. Use the concept of ripeness, comparing negotiation to fruit. If fruit is picked too early, it is not ready to eat; however, pick it too late and it's inedible as well. Negotiation works the same way.
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What is a Mutually Hurting Stalemate?
answer
Once all sides realize they cannot win and the status quo is unacceptably damaging the conflict is said to be \"ripe\" for resolution, also known as a mutually hurting stalemate.
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What happens during Mediation?
answer
Parties turn to a neutral third party who uses interest-based problem solving techniques to assist in resolving a dispute. The interest-based problem-solving approach to dispute resolution focuses on interests, not positions, creating options for mutual gain, and using objective criteria to ensure legitimacy of any agreement.
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Why is mediation more effective in the early stages of a dispute?
answer
Disputing parties' harden their positions as time goes by and the dispute escalates.
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What is Evaluative Mediation?
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A subject-matter expert mediator describes the issue, offers an opinion on the strengths and weaknesses of each party's side, and suggests options to resolve the matter.
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What is Facilitative Mediation?
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An active third party who enhances communication and encourages the parties to discuss matters freely and voluntarily. In facilitative mediation, the parties clarify issues, reevaluate positions, and analyze interests. The Air Force has adopted the facilitative style of mediation for all workplace disputes.
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What are Stakeholders?
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Stakeholders are other outside parties who have a vested or personal interest in the initiation, processing, and resolution of an existing dispute. Commanders, first sergeants, supervisors, subordinates, neighbors, family members, as well as legal and other intra-agency representatives are all potential stakeholders of mediation.
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What is a Caucus?
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A caucus is confidential and private meeting between each of the parties and the mediator. Caucuses offer the mediator the \"behind-the-scenes\" perspective from each party to ensure there is a potential zone within which the parties can reach agreement.
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What is a Mediator?
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A mediator facilitates communications, promotes understanding, and focuses negotiating parties on their interests, rather than their positions.
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What is a Impasse?
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This occurs when there is the failure to make progress toward resolution.
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What is Reality Checking?
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This is a process where the mediator gets the parties to understand, typically through a series of questions, the weaknesses of their case, issue, or demand. When parties have a very weak position, no claim for what they seek, no legal basis for the settlement they desire, or unrealistic demands, reality checking is necessary.
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What is Fostering Understanding of Other's Views?
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A mediator helps the parties to use empathy to understand each other's situation, feelings, and motives. Understanding the other side's point of view does not mean the mediator shares, agrees, or even sympathizes with it. Empathy merely provides new perspectives that may open options previously hidden.
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What is a Mediator's Emotional Control?
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For the mediator, it is very important to have no outward reaction to a party's emotional display. A reaction can jeopardize the mediator's all-important neutrality and credibility.
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Should venting be allowed during Mediation?
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While venting should be embraced and not feared, mediators must end joint sessions if it appears that either or both parties are close to losing control of their actions. It always remains the mediator's responsibility to remain calm and maintain the quality of the proceedings.
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What are the 5 Stages of Mediation?
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Mediator opening statement, parties' opening statements, joint discussion, caucus, and closure.
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Describe the Mediator Opening Statement.
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In the first stage, the mediator meets with both parties together for the first time. The mediator begins the session with introductions followed by an opening statement. The purpose of the opening statement is to establish a structure for the mediation session, ensure the parties' understand the mediation process, and gain their commitment to it.
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Describe the Opening Statement of the Parties involved.
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In the second stage, the disputing parties have an opportunity to offer their opening statements. Here, they are given adequate time to speak without interruption regarding the issue at hand and share their side of the issue. Each party should fully explain the issue, their interests, and positions as they see it so that all parties, including the mediator understand. This may be the first time that each party hears the other party's view on the issues.
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Describe the Joint Discussion.
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At the beginning of the third stage, mediation moves into a forum of joint discussion. This is the first opportunity for the parties and the mediator to interact with and assist the parties in focusing less on their positions and more on their interests. Here, the mediator facilitates a conversation between the disputing parties.
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Describe Caucus.
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In stage four, the term caucus means \"private meeting.\" This is an optional stage that can occur at any time during the mediation process but, when needed, usually occurs when joint discussions collapse. These are private, confidential one-on-one discussions between the mediator and each party.
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Describe Closure.
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In stage 5 of the mediation process, not all mediations end in a mutually agreed upon resolution. When settlement no longer seems possible, and the parties and mediator have exhausted all available mediation possibilities, or one or both parties have removed themselves from the mediation...the mediation should end. In most cases, the mediation session will conclude with some form of resolution. For mediations that do end in a mutually satisfying outcome, this stage could become quite lengthy, especially if there is legally binding documentation and administration involved.
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Name 4 guidelines for becoming an attentive negotiator.
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Listen for and observe the speaker's verbal and nonverbal signals, respond accordingly and appropriately to ensure a meaningful and progressive interaction, avoid making predictions as to what the speaker will say next (we typically stop listening when we believe we know what the person will say next), and focus on the message and not the distractions.
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Describe Active Listening.
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Remain constantly aware of the verbal cues such as vocal pauses, interjections like \"uh-huh\", \"oh\", \"wow\", and \"Really?\" as well as nonverbal cues the other party transmits, such as eye contact, facial expressions, hand movements, and body position.
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What are 7 techniques to become an Active Listener?
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Minimal encouragements, paraphrasing, emotion labeling, mirroring/reflecting, open-ended questions, \"I\" messages, and effective pauses.
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What are Minimal Encouragements?
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Minimal encouragements are questions, comments, or sounds that do not interfere with the flow of conversation, but let others know you are there and listening. They build rapport, encourage the speaker to continue, and include statements like Oh?, When?, and Really?
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What is Paraphrasing?
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Paraphrasing demonstrates evidence that you were listening and understand. Usually, paraphrasing begins with the statements like, \"Are you telling me...?\" or \"So what you are saying is...\"
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What is Emotion Labeling?
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This is often the first active listening skill used in a communicated crisis situations. Common phrases include, \"You sound...,\" \"You seem...,\" or \"What I hear is...\" Do not be concerned about making a mistake in labeling emotions. The speaker will correct you and will often appear grateful for your attempt.
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What is Mirroring, or Reflecting?
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This is the technique of repeating the last word or phrase spoken in the form of a question. This asks for more input and elicits information when you do not have enough to ask a pertinent question. Mirroring is useful when you are at a loss for words.
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What are open-ended questions?
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Open-ended questions help the speaker to start talking and encourage a person to say more. They are questions that cannot be answered with a simple yes or no and usually begin with how, what, when, where, and why. However, be careful using the why question as these tend to steer the conversation toward blame and shut down communication.
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What are \"I\" messages?
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\"I\" messages let speakers know how they are making you feel, why you feel that way, and what the speaker can do to remedy the situation. This is a nonthreatening approach that usually does not put the speaker on the defensive.
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What are effective pauses?
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Silence is an extremely effective form of communication. Most people are not comfortable with silence and will speak to fill the uncomfortable void. Silence can also be used to emphasize a point just before or after saying something important.
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According to AFDD1-1, who is an Airman?
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AFDD1-1 states, \"An Airman is any US Air Force member (officer or enlisted; active, reserve, or guard; and Department of the Air Force civilians) who supports and defends the US Constitution and serves our country.\"
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Recite the Oath of Enlistment.
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I, Aaron M. Potts, do solemnly swear (or affirm) that I will support and defend the constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic, that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the same, and that I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to the regulations and the uniform code of military justice, so help me God.
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According to Chapter 4 of the Enlisted Force Structure, AFI 36-2618, what must NCO's do?
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NCO's must clearly meet, and strive to exceed, the standards and expectations levied upon junior enlisted Airmen. Epitomize excellence and lead by example through exhibiting professional behavior, military bearing, respect for authority, and the highest standards of dress and appearance. Instill professional behaviors in subordinates, and correct those who violate standards.
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What is AFPAM 36-2241?
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AFPAM 36-2241 is the Professional Development Guide.
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What is the unlimited liability clause?
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A feature that distinguishes the military profession from other professions in that the level of personal sacrifice required may actually be the most supreme.
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What does DDR stand for?
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Direction, Discipline, and Recognition.
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What are two concepts that support Progressive Professionalism, or P2?
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Direction, Discipline, and Recognition (DDR), and Self-development.
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Recognition is received through what?
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Recognition is received through consistent trends in positive behavior such as seeking self-development and performance.
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What 9 characteristics does Integrity encompass?
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Courage, honesty, responsibility, accountability, justice, openness, self-respect, humility, and honor.
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Service before Self is made up of what 9 ethical characteristics?
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Rule following, faith in the system, duty, respect for others, self-discipline, self-control, appropriate actions or desires, tolerance, and loyalty.
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Service before self does not mean what?
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Service before family.
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What are the 6 aspects of excellence?
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Personal, organizational, resource, operational, product and service, and community. - croopp
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What is the Warrior Ethos?
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The Warrior Ethos is the tenacity to push through, self-discipline, self-control, hardiness of spirit despite physical and mental hardships, moral, and physical courage.
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What is Hardiness of Spirit?
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Hardiness of spirit is the stout internal force that can be used to get through challenging times mentally or physically.
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What are the 2 types of courage?
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Physical courage and Moral courage.
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What is Moral Courage?
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Moral courage is the ability and willingness to expose oneself to inconvenience, suffering, retaliation, resentment, or disapproval to stand up for what one believes to be right.
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What is Resiliency?
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Air Force resiliency is an Airmen's ability to withstand, recover, and/or grow in the face of stressors and changing demands by orchestrating the use of base resources, support activities, peers, and leadership.
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Air Force Resiliency focuses on what 12 Targets to Enhance Resilience and Operational Performance?
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Be a Wingman, Comm check, Lead from the front, Mental rehearsal, Nutrition, Physical fitness, Problem solving, Purpose = Why, Recharge, Situational awareness (SA), Strategic thinking, and Tactical breathing.
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What is the most important weapon system in the Air Force arsenal?
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The human weapon system—you, the Airman.
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How much does excess weight and obesity cost the Department of Defense annually?
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$1.1 billion in medical care costs.
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Nutrients are metabolized and used for fuel in what two ways?
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Aerobic and anaerobic
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Describe Aerobic Metabolism.
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Aerobic Metabolism works by breaking down nutrients for energy in a process that requires oxygen. It releases more energy than anaerobic metabolism, but it takes longer. It supplies most of the energy during low-intensity, endurance type activities, like long distance running and swimming.
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Describe Anaerobic Metabolism.
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Anaerobic metabolism, which does not require oxygen, releases less energy than aerobic metabolism, but does so very quickly. Most energy tends to come from anaerobic pathways during high-intensity short bouts of activity such as sprints and weightlifting.
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Describe oxygen usage during Aerobic metabolism.
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Aerobic Metabolism is the creation of energy through the breakdown of carbohydrates and fats in the presence of oxygen. Its byproducts are carbon dioxide and water.
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Describe oxygen usage during Anaerobic metabolism.
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Anaerobic Metabolism is the creation of energy through the breakdown of carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen. This occurs when there is not enough oxygen in the bloodstream to keep up with the demands from the muscles' activity.
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Describe fat usage during exercise.
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Fats are a long-term, low intensity energy source and are the preferred fuel for aerobic exercise for individuals involved in mild- to moderate-intensity exercise. Sustained training increases the proportion of energy derived from fat and decreases the amount of carbohydrates used.
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Name 3 of the body's sensitive structures that depend on a protective layer of water.
answer
The brain, eyes, and spinal cord.
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What is the measurement of dehydration?
answer
Being more than 2% below normal body weight due to loss of water is dehydration.
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What are the 4 parts of the Harris Benedict formula for estimated needed caloric intake?
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Weight, height, age, and activity level factor.
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What is Functional Training?
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Any type of exercise that has a direct relationship to the activities you perform in your daily life.
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What is pre-habilitation?
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\"Pre-habilitation\" is training to prevent injuries in healthy individuals.
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What is High Intensity Exercise Endurance, or HIEE?
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High Intensity Exercise Endurance (HIEE) is defined as the application of maximal physical effort systematically applied to a technically developed motor skill.
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What does FEI stand for?
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High-intensity exercise integrated with functional training creates what is called Functional Endurance Intensity (FEI) workouts.
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What is the FOSI Principle?
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The FOSI Principle stands for Form Over Speed and Intensity, and will ensure that motor skills are technically developed before speed or intensity is added.
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During high intensity exercise, what should be true?
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You should not have the ability to engage in conversation or any other event while you are participating in the workouts. You should have \"nothing left in your tank\" (no energy left) when you complete the workout.
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What are 3 benefits of the FOSI principle?
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Lessens injury, Focuses on form, and Helps develop core.
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What is Tactical Breathing?
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Tactical breathing is the ability to control your breathing in times when you most need to breathe efficiently.
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What is the best breathing method?
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Breathing through expansion of the abdomen instead of the chest, Diaphragmatic Breathing, is the best breathing method and is a healthier, fuller way to take in oxygen.
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What is Culture?
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Culture is a set of shared attitudes, values, goals, and practices that characterizes a group or an organization.
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What is Heritage?
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Merriam-Webster's Dictionary defines heritage as \"something transmitted by or acquired from a predecessor.\"
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In what year was aerial surveillance first used by the military?
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At the Battle of Fair Oaks in 1861, and then again in 1898 using William Ivy Baldwin's balloon.
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When did the U.S. Army Signal Corps establish its first Aeronautical Division?
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August 1, 1907.
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What were the 3 first Air Force Major Commands?
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The first Air Force Major Commands were Strategic Air Command (SAC), Air Defense Command (ADC), and Tactical Air Command (TAC).
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What were 3 reasons for Operation Desert Storm?
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Iraq invaded Kuwait, Stabilization of the Arabian Peninsula, and Enforcement of United Nations resolutions.
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In what 4 ways was Operation Allied Force important to history?
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It showed U.S. resolve to prevent human suffering, it proved the U.S. could operate under the direction of NATO and with coalition partners, it proved how a phased bombing approach is valuable, and it displayed the fundamental factors of unity and resolve.
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What was the Air Service of the U.S. Army?
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Two agencies under the Secretary of War: the Bureau of Aircraft Production, and the Division of Military Aeronautics.
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What created the Department of the Air Force?
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The National Security Act of 1947, which became law on 26 July 1947.
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What is the Medal of Honor?
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The Medal of Honor is the highest U.S. Military decoration awarded to individuals who, while serving in the U.S. armed services, have distinguished themselves by conspicuous gallantry and courage at the risk of life above and beyond the call of duty.
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What is the Air Force Cross?
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The Air Force Cross is awarded to US and foreign military personnel and civilians who have displayed extraordinary heroism. The Air Force Cross is awarded when the heroic actions fall just short of warranting the Congressional Medal of Honor.
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A professional Airman is not only experienced in their specialty but also understands the roles of what?
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A professional Airman understands the role of heritage in the Profession of Arms and the relationship between Airmanship and enlisted heritage.
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What is AFI 36-2903?
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Dress and Personal Appearance of Air Force Personnel.
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AFI 36-2618 charges all NCOs with doing what?
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Advancing the Profession of Arms.
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What is the backbone of military discipline?
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Drill, which in addition to discipline, teaches and develops teamwork, confidence, pride, alertness, attention to detail, and esprit de corps.
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What document covers Drill and Ceremonies?
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AFMAN 36-2203, Drill and Ceremonies.
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Why is Diversity a military necessity?
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People with different experiences, skill sets, and talents contribute to the Air Force mission through creativity and better problem-solving/decision making.
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What is the definition of Diversity?
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Diversity is defined as a composite of individual characteristics, experiences, and abilities consistent with the Air Force Core Values and the Air Force Mission.
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What are 2 broad dimensions of diversity?
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2 broad dimensions of diversity are primary and secondary.
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What are primary diversity dimensions?
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Primary dimensions are differences \"that are inborn and/or exert an important impact on your early socialization and have an ongoing impact throughout your life.\" Age, language, ethnicity, cultural background, disability, and gender are just a few of the many \"primary dimensions.\" Primary dimensions are differences that you are born with and cannot normally change.
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What are secondary diversity dimensions?
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Secondary dimensions include characteristics about yourself that can change such as: work ethic, income, marital status, experience, religious and philosophical beliefs, personality, educational background, and language abilities. This dimension also includes a person's strengths and temperaments.
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What are some diverse groups in the Air Force?
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Airmen, NCOs, SNCOs, Officers, Civilians, Contractors, Career Fields, Squadrons, Groups, Wings, etc., MAJCOMs, and Joint Assignments
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What is Equal Opportunity?
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Equal Opportunity (EO) refers to legal and regulatory mandates prohibiting discrimination based on race, color, sex, national origin, religion, age, disability, and reprisal.
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What is Affirmative Action?
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Affirmative Action (AA) refers to voluntary or mandated programs developed for the purpose of overcoming imbalances in the workforce that affect designated groups, such as members of minority groups, women, veterans, and people with disabilities.
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What is the relationship between EO, AA, and diversity awareness?
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Both EO and AA help supervisors establish policies and procedures that are legal and fair with an aim toward improving working relationships, productivity, customer satisfaction, and unit and mission effectiveness.
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What are 5 characteristics of a diversity supportive organization?
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Act Proactively, Leadership-Driven, Encourage Ownership of Initiatives, Think Inclusively, and Mainstream Diversity.
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What are Socio-Behavioral Tendencies (SBTs)?
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SBTs are the thought processes you use to help make sense of the world you live in.
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What is a Stereotype?
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Stereotype is a standardized mental picture that one person or group of people holds in common about another person or group of people.
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What is Prejudice?
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Prejudice is \"An adverse or unreasonable opinion about a person or group without all the facts and usually based on deeply held beliefs.\"
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What is the difference between stereotype and prejudice?
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The difference between stereotype and prejudice is that stereotyping can be positive or negative and includes a general opinion about ALL members of the group - ignoring individual differences.
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What are Social Biases?
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Social biases occur when someone unfairly favors or prefers a person, culture group, or race to another.
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What are Perceptions?
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Perceptions are what you experience and observe that becomes your reality.
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What are Perspectives?
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Perspectives are your position on a particular subject. It is how you mentally view a situation.
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What is Collusion?
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Collusion occurs when people cooperate with others, knowingly or unknowingly, to reinforce those behaviors that prevent others from fully entering into the workplace culture.
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What are the 3 forms of collusion?
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Silence, denial, and active participation.
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What is Silent Collusion?
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Silent Collusion is the practice of neither supporting nor defending the rights of others to be fully included in the work place. When someone just stands by and, by his or her own SILENCE, seems to support the negative attitudes and unfair judgments about certain groups.
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What is the Denial form of Collusion?
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Denial is another passive approach that simply ignores any evidence of negative behavior. It's similar to putting your head in the sand and pretending that the problem doesn't exist.
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What is the Active Participation form of Collusion?
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Active participation involves \"actions that overtly work to prevent the inclusion of others.\" When someone actively participates in promoting negative stereotypes, other forms of unfair judgments, and disrespectful behavior, he or she is colluding and preventing equality.
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What is Discrimination?
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Discrimination is the treatment or consideration of making a distinction in favor of or against a person or thing based on the group, class, or category to which that person or thing belongs, rather than on individual merit.
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What are the four FAIR techniques for maximizing retention and productivity and maintaining effective working relationships in workplaces?
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Giving Feedback, offering Assistance, assuring Inclusion, and giving Respect.
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What is Feedback?
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Feedback is giving and receiving information on how to meet expectations.
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What does Inclusion involve?
answer
Inclusion involves responding to the needs of all workers so they feel valued and part of the team.
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What is Respect?
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Respect is being able to recognize each person's unique value, contributions, and potential to the organization.
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At its core, Diversity provides what?
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Diversity provides the Air Force a combination of strengths, skills, and capabilities that transcend individual contributions.
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What is Ethical Leadership?
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Ethical leadership is about knowing your core values and having the courage to live by them in all parts of your life in service of the common good.
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What are Ethics?
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Ethics are a set of standards of conduct that guide decisions and actions based on duties derived from core values.
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What are Values?
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Values are the core beliefs you hold regarding what is right and fair in terms of our actions and our interactions with others.
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What are Morals?
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Morals are values that you attribute to a system of beliefs that help us define right from wrong, good versus bad.
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In most cases, when are people considered ethical?
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In most cases, people are characterized as ethical when they act in ways that are consistent with societal moral values.
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What are Military Ethics?
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It is a set of standards of conduct that guide decisions and actions based on duties derived from core values and is designed to put principle above ones' own self interest.
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What are 3 resources for outlining ethical behaviors expected of all Air Force members?
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Joint Ethics Regulation, Standards of Conduct, and the USAF Core Values booklet.
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What is Ethical Relativism?
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Ethical relativism claims there are no ethical absolutes, and social norms determine what is ethical or unethical.
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What is a Categorical Imperative?
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Categorical imperative is a hypothetical imperative that would compel action under a particular circumstance, i.e. - If I wish to satisfy my thirst, then I must drink this lemonade. It is any proposition that declares a certain kind of action (or inaction) to be necessary.
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What is Ethical Relativism?
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Ethical relativism is the belief that nothing is objectively right or wrong and that the definition of right or wrong depends on the prevailing view of a particular individual, culture, or historical period.
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Name 8 ethical guidelines used by the Air Force.
answer
The USAF Core Values, AFI 36-2618, Airman's Creed, Professional Development Guide, Code of Conduct, DOD Joint Staff Guide 5260 (Service Member's Personal Protection Guide), Law of Armed Conflict, and the Uniform Code of Military Justice.
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Recite the Airman's Creed.
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I am an American Airman. I am a Warrior. I have answered my Nation's call. I am an American Airman. My mission is to Fly, Fight, and Win. I am faithful to a Proud Heritage, a Tradition of Honor, and a Legacy of Valor. I am an American Airman. Guardian of Freedom and Justice, My Nation's Sword and Shield, It's Sentry and Avenger. I Defend my Country with my Life. I am an American Airman. Wingman, Leader, Warrior. I will never leave an Airman behind. I will never falter. And I will not fail.
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In what 3 ways should NCOs create and promote an ethical climate and foster ethical behavior?
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No rewards for unethical behavior, forgiveness for mistakes, and appropriate action taken for dereliction of duty.
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What are Ethical Traps?
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Ethical traps are confusion or uncertainly as to what action or behavior should be taken, conflicting opinions/values, all choices have drawbacks.
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Name 4 Ethical Traps.
answer
Ethical relativism, Loyalty syndrome, Worry over image, and Drive for success.
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What is Loyalty Syndrome?
answer
Loyalty Syndrome is making decisions based on respect and/or loyalty to an individual, unit, or organization, etc., rather than on military rules, regulations, and codes of conduct.
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What is Worry over Image?
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Worry Over Image is making decisions based on how the decision will impact one's reputation/standing among peers, subordinates, supervisors, community, etc., rather than on military rules, regulations, and codes of conduct.
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What is Drive for Success?
answer
Drive for Success is making decisions based on a \"win at all costs\" attitude rather than on military rules, regulations, and codes of conduct.
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What is practicing Prudence first, and Justice second?
answer
When practicing prudence first and justice second, a leader should consider all factors to ensure the correction/punishment fits the crime.
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When counseling an NCO during an ethical dilemma, is it better to tell them what to do, or to leave the decision up to them?
answer
The NCO should be reminded of the core values that will be violated if they do the wrong thing, but then told that the decision is ultimately up to them. This helps to build up the NCO's ethical decision-making ability.
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What are the 3 O's of ethics?
answer
Owing, ordering, and oughting.
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What are the 3 P's of ethics?
answer
Principle, purpose, people.
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What are the 3 R's of ethics?
answer
Rules, results, and realities.
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What are the 3 D's of ethics?
answer
Discern, declare, and do.
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What is National Security?
answer
National Security is a collective term encompassing both national defense and foreign relations of the United States.
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When was the National Security Act created, and what did it do?
answer
Congress passed the National Security Act in 1947, which created the National Security Council (NSC) under the chairmanship of the President to coordinate foreign policy and defense policy, and to reconcile diplomatic and military commitments and requirements.
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What are 4 instruments of national power?
answer
Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic.
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All functions in the DoD and its component agencies are performed under whose authority?
answer
All functions in the DoD and its component agencies are performed under the authority, direction, and control of the Secretary of Defense (SecDef).
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The SecDef is responsible to the President for doing what?
answer
The SecDef is responsible to the President for creating, supporting, and employing military capabilities.
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What does the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) consist of?
answer
The Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) consists of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS); the Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (VCJCS); the Chief of Staff, US Army; the Chief of Naval Operations; the Chief of Staff, US Air Force; and the Commandant of the Marine Corps.
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Who is the principal military advisor to the President, the NSC, and the SecDef?
answer
The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) is the principal military advisor to the President, the NSC, and the SecDef.
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What is the chain of command used to employ military forces?
answer
The chain of command used to employ forces runs from the President, through the SecDef, down to the combatant commanders (CCDRs). Orders are normally conveyed to the CCDRs by the CJCS under the authority and direction of SecDef.
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How do Combatant Commanders (CCDRs) report up through military channels?
answer
Reports from Combatant Commanders are normally submitted to the SecDef through the CJCS who acts as the spokesman for the CCDRs.
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What is the chain of command used to recruit, organize, train, and equip military forces?
answer
The second chain of command is used to recruit, organize, train, and equip forces and runs from the President through the SecDef to the Secretaries of the Military Departments.
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What is a Combatant Command?
answer
A combatant command is a command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander and composed of significant assigned components of two or more Military Departments.
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How are Combatant Commands established?
answer
Combatant commands are established in the Unified Command Plan (UCP) by the President, through the SecDef and with the advice and assistance of the CJCS.
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What is the UCP?
answer
The Unified Command Plan is a classified document that sets forth basic guidance to all CCDRs; establishes their missions, responsibilities, and force structure; delineates the general geographical area of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders (GCCs); and specifies functional responsibilities for functional combatant commanders (FCCs).
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What is a Subordinate Unified Command?
answer
Subordinate unified commands are established as geographic or functional commands and have functions and responsibilities similar to combatant commands; however, they fall under those commands.
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When is a Joint Task Force (JTF) established?
answer
A Joint Task Force (JTF) is established when the mission has a specific limited objective.
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What is a Service component command?
answer
A Service component command, assigned to a CCDR, consists of a Service component CDR and the Service forces that have been assigned to that CCDR.
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What is the purpose of a Functional Component Command?
answer
CCDRs and CDRs of subordinate unified commands and JFCs have the authority to establish functional component commands to control specific military operations, resources, information flow, etc.
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What is a Combat Support Agency (CSA) and who has executive authority over them?
answer
DoD agencies that provide combat support or combat service support to joint forces are designated as combat support agencies (CSAs) and the SecDef has executive control over them.
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Name 4 examples of Combat Support Agencies.
answer
The Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA), the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA), the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), and the National Security Agency (NSA).
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How many Combatant Commands are there?
answer
There are currently ten combatant commands: six are geographically organized and four are functionally organized.
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What are the 2 basic assignments of all Geographic Combatant Commands?
answer
Deter attacks against the United States, its territories, possessions and bases, and employ appropriate force should deterrence fail; and carry out assigned missions in support of strategic guidance.
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Describe US Africa Command (USAFRICOM).
answer
US Africa Command (USAFRICOM) is responsible for US military relations with 53 African countries. Through security cooperation programs, the goal is to assist African nations in building their security capacity to enable them to better provide for their own defense.
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Describe US Central Command (USCENTCOM).
answer
US Central Command (USCENTCOM) AOR is the Middle East, Egypt, and Central Asia. USCENTCOM promotes cooperation among nations, responds to crises, deters or defeats aggression, and supports development and, when necessary, reconstruction.
question
Describe US European Command (USEUCOM).
answer
US European Command (USEUCOM) AOR covers almost one-fifth of the planet, including all of Europe, large portions of Asia, parts of the Middle East, and the Arctic and Atlantic Oceans. It is responsible for US military relations with NATO and 51 countries on two continents with a total population of close to a billion people. USEUCOM conducts operation to enhance transatlantic security and defend the United States forward.
question
Describe US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).
answer
US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) conducts homeland defense, civil support, and security cooperation to defend and secure the United States and its interests. USNORTHCOM's AOR includes air, land, and sea approaches and encompasses the continental United States, Alaska, Canada, Mexico and the surrounding water out to approximately 500 nautical miles. The command is assigned forces whenever necessary to execute missions. Also responsible for civil support missions, counter-drug operations, and managing the consequences of a terrorist event.
question
Describe US Pacific Command (USPACOM).
answer
The United States Pacific Command (USPACOM) AOR encompasses about half the earth's surface, stretching from the waters off the west coast of the US to the western border of India, and from Antarctica to the North Pole. Enchances stability in the Asia-Pacific region by promoting security cooperation, encouraging peaceful development, responding to contingencies, deterring aggression, and, when necessary, fighting to win.
question
Describe US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM).
answer
USSOUTHCOM (USSOUTHCOM) is responsible for providing contingency planning, operations, and security cooperation for Central and South America, the Caribbean, and Cuba. SOUTHCOM is also responsible for ensuring the defense of the Panama Canal and canal area.
question
What is NORAD?
answer
The North American Aerospace Defense Command, (NORAD), is a bi-national command responsible for aerospace warning, aerospace control, and maritime warning for Canada, Alaska, and the continental United States.
question
What does the Posse Comitatus Act state?
answer
Per the Posse Comitatus Act, military forces can provide civil support, but cannot become directly involved in law enforcement.
question
What are the 4 Functional Combatant Commands?
answer
USSJFCOM, USSOCOM, USTRANSCOM, and USSTRATCOM.
question
Describe the responsibilities of US Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM).
answer
US Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) is primarily responsible for providing mission-ready joint-capable forces and supporting the development and integration of joint, interagency, and multinational capabilities. USJFCOM was possibly dismantled in 2011.
question
Describe the responsibilities of US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM).
answer
The US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) conducts covert and clandestine missions, and each branch has a Special Operations Command that is unique and capable of running its own operations, or all forces can work together under one command.
question
Describe the responsibilities of US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).
answer
USTRANSCOM is the single manager of America's global defense transportation system, and is tasked with the coordination of people and transportation assets to allow the US to project and sustain forces, whenever, wherever, and for as long as they are needed.
question
Describe the responsibilities of US Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM).
answer
US Strategic Command(USSTRATCOM) is charged with space operations (such as military satellites), information operations (such as information warfare), missile defense, global command and control, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance, global strike and strategic deterrence, and combating weapons of mass destruction.
question
What is the Services role?
answer
To organize, train, equip, and provide forces.
question
Describe the Department of the Army.
answer
The Army is responsible for the preparation of land forces necessary for the effective prosecution of war and military operations short of war.
question
Describe the Department of the Navy.
answer
The Department of the Navy is composed of naval, land, air, space, and cyberspace forces, both combat and support. The Navy and Marine Corps comprise the Nation's principal maritime force. They employ the global reach, and persistent presence through forward-stationed and rotationally-based forces to secure the Nation from direct attack.
question
Describe the Coast Guard.
answer
The Coast Guard is a unique Military Service residing within the Department of Homeland Security while simultaneously providing direct support to the Department of Defense. The Coast Guard shall maintain a state of readiness to function as a specialized Military Service in the Department of the Navy in time of war or national emergency. If specified in a declaration of war by Congress or if directed by the President, the Coast Guard shall operate as a Military Service in the Department of the Navy, and shall continue to do so until the President transfers the Coast Guard back to the Department of Homeland Security.
question
What does the National Security Council (NSC) do?
answer
Coordinates foreign policy and defense policy, and reconciles diplomatic and military commitment requirements.
question
Most units in the Air Force are assigned to what?
answer
Most units of the Air Force are assigned to a specific major command (MAJCOM), led by a general officer.
question
MAJCOMS are divided up into what?
answer
MAJCOMs may be subdivided into numbered air forces (NAFs).
question
What are Numbered Air Force's divided into?
answer
Each Numbered Air Force (NAF) is responsible for one or more wings or independent groups.
question
What are the primary units of the working Air Force?
answer
Wings are the primary units of the working Air Force and are responsible for maintaining an Air Force base or carrying out a specific mission.
question
Wings typically contain what groups?
answer
Wings typically contain an operations group, a maintenance group, a support group and a medical group.
question
Describe the Air Combat Command (ACC).
answer
Langley AFB, Virginia - Air Combat Command (ACC) organizes, trains, equips, and deploys combat ready forces to support combatant commanders around the globe. The command operates fighter; attack; bomber; intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance; combat search and rescue; battle-management; electronic-combat and unmanned aircraft system platforms.
question
Describe the Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
answer
Randolph AFB, Texas - Air Education and Training Command (AETC) develops America's Airmen. The command recruits Airmen and provides basic military training, initial and advanced technical training, flying training, medical training, space and missile training, cyber training, and professional military and degree-granting professional education.
question
Describe the Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC).
answer
Barksdale AFB, Louisiana - Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC) is the Air Force's newest command. AFGSC develops and provides combat-ready forces for nuclear deterrence and global strike operations. AFGSC is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping the Air Force's three intercontinental ballistic missile wings, two B-52 Stratofortress wings, and the only B-2 Spirit wing.
question
Describe the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).
answer
Wright-Patterson AFB, Ohio - Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) delivers technology, acquisition support, sustainment, and expeditionary capabilities. AFMC conducts research, development, and test and evaluation, and provides acquisition management services and logistics support.
question
Describe the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)
answer
Robins AFB, Georgia - Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) provides the Air Force about 20 percent of its capability with only about 4 percent of the total Air Force budget. It conducts fixed-wing aerial spray missions, flies hurricane hunter missions, and is administratively responsible for the Air Force's individual mobilization augmentee program.
question
Describe the Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).
answer
Peterson AFB, Colorado - Air Force Space Command (AFSPC) is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping space and cyberspace forces and capabilities. AFSPC oversees Air Force network operations to provide capabilities in, through, and from cyberspace; manages a global network of satellites, and is responsible for space system development and acquisition. It executes spacelift to launch satellites and provides positioning, navigation, timing, communications, missile warning, weather, and intelligence warfare support.
question
Describe the Air Mobility Command (AMC).
answer
Scott AFB, Illinois - Air Mobility Command (AMC) provides airlift and aerial refueling for all of America's armed forces. They also provide aeromedical evacuation and Global Reach Laydown (GRL). Additionally, AMC has many special-duty and operational support aircraft and plays a crucial role in providing humanitarian support at home and around the world.
question
Describe the Pacific Air Force (PACAF).
answer
Joint Base Pearl Harbor-Hickam, Hawaii - Pacific Air Force (PACAF) provides integrated expeditionary Air Force capabilities to defend the homeland, promote stability, and dissuade/deter aggression. PACAF organizes trains, equips, and maintains resources prepared to conduct a broad spectrum of air operations—from humanitarian relief to decisive combat employment in DoD's largest area of responsibility.
question
Describe the US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).
answer
Ramstein Air Base, Germany - US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE) executes the US European Command mission with forward-based air power to provide forces for global operations, ensure strategic access, assure allies, deter aggression, and build partnerships.
question
Describe Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC).
answer
Hurlburt Field, Florida - Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) is responsible to US Special Operations Command for the readiness of Air Force special operations forces to conduct the war on terrorism and to disrupt, defeat and destroy terrorist networks. Mission areas include shaping and stability operations; battlefield air operations; information operations; intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance; specialized air and space mobility; precision engagement and agile combat support
question
What are the Core Values of the Army?
answer
Loyalty, Duty, Respect, Selfless Service, Honor, Integrity, Personal Courage.
question
What are the Core Values of the Navy/Marines?
answer
Honor, Courage, and Commitment.
question
What are the Core Values of the Coast Guard?
answer
Honor, Respect, Devotion to Duty.
question
What are the Navy/Coast Guard saluting protocols?
answer
For officers O-5 or below, give the greeting of the day to \"Mister Smith\" or \"Miss Smith\". For Commanders or above, the greeting of the day is given to \"Commander Smith\" or \"General Smith\".
question
Where are salutes rendered?
answer
Between 6 and 30 paces, and if you are running, you should stop running, walk during the salute, and then resume.
question
How do you render a salute when overtaking an officer?
answer
When overtaking an officer who is senior to you, tradition dictates that you must render a hand salute and say \"By your leave sir or ma'am.\" The officer who is senior should return your salute and say \"Carry-on.\" You may then drop your salute and proceed.
question
When approaching an officer for a conversation, how is the salute handled?
answer
If officer(s) and enlisted member(s) approach with the intent of conversing, salutes are exchanged before and after the conversation. Forgetting to salute after a conversation is a common mistake.
question
How do you salute a group of approaching officers?
answer
The general rule that applies is that you always salute the senior officer no matter how many other officers are present.
question
If you approach an officer but are in civilian clothes, do you salute?
answer
If you approach someone who is senior to you and you are in civilian attire, do not salute. Instead, say \"Good morning sir or ma'am.\"
question
What are the rules for saluting vehicles?
answer
If you are on a military installation and a vehicle approaches carrying a flag with one or more stars on it, you must stop, face the vehicle, come to the position of attention, and render a hand salute. You may drop your salute once the vehicle passes.
question
How is saluting handled during Reveille or Retreat?
answer
If you are outdoors during Reveille or Retreat, and in uniform, stop what you are doing, face the flag or the direction from which \"To the Colors\" is being sounded, come to the position of parade rest. Upon the first note of the national anthem, come to attention; render a hand salute, hold your salute until the last note of the music; then you may proceed.
question
Do you salute during Reveille or Retreat if you are in civilian clothes?
answer
Face in the direction where Colors are being held and stand at attention (placing the right hand over the heart is optional).
question
When do you salute Colors that are being presented or passing by?
answer
When passing or being passed by Colors that are being presented, paraded, or displayed, salute when the Colors are six paces from you. Hold the salute until the Colors are six paces beyond you.
question
When flying Space-A, who has final say about what happens on the plane?
answer
The Aircraft Commander (pilot) has final authority aboard the aircraft despite the rank of the passengers
question
What is the etiquette for loading vehicles with higher ranking individuals?
answer
When riding in a car with other uniformed service members, the junior ranking enlisted members and officers enter first so the senior officer may enter last. If there are three persons traveling, the junior person will take the middle seat. The place of honor is always to the right, so the senior person will sit on the right. When disembarking the vehicle, the senior person gets out first followed by the next in rank and so on.
question
What is the protocol for walking with members of different ranks?
answer
If you are walking with two or more people (the senior person is always on the right). The junior member is responsible for lining-up on the correct side of the senior member (to the left).
question
What is a good practice when saluting?
answer
Addressing members by their rank i.e. \"Good morning Petty Officer Jones\" or \"Good afternoon 1st Sergeant Smith\" is a show of respect and strengthens the profession of arms.
question
What is JIIM?
answer
Joint Interagency, Intergovernmental, Multinational (JIIM). It is the same term as Joint. When you see Joint, it is also means JIIM and vice versa.
question
What is a full-spectrum of military operations?
answer
A full-spectrum of military operations is a military concept where a joint military structure achieves control over all elements of the battlespace using land, air, maritime, and space-based assets.
question
What is the Physical battlespace?
answer
The physical battlespace includes air, surface, and sub-surface as well as the electromagnetic spectrum and information space.
question
What are the 9 principles of war?
answer
Unity of Command, Objective, Offensive, Mass, Maneuver, Economy of Force, Security, Surprise, and Simplicity.
question
What is Offensive?
answer
This principle is to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative and to do it as soon as possible. Simply stated, it is an action rather than a reaction, and it dictates the time, place, purpose, scope, intensity, and pace of operations.
question
Why is Offensive particularly significant to air and space warfare?
answer
Success in war is generally attained only while on the offensive. Air and space power is best used as an offensive weapon.
question
What is Mass?
answer
The principle of mass concentrates the effects of combat power at a specific time and place that is most advantageous to achieve decisive results.
question
What is Maneuver?
answer
Like the principle of offensive, maneuver forces the enemy to react, allows successful friendly operations, and reduces friendly vulnerabilities. The ability to quickly integrate a force and strike an adversary's strategic or operational centers of gravity is the essence of maneuver.
question
What is Economy of Force?
answer
Economy of force is the careful employment and distribution of forces. Its purpose is to assign the least essential resources to secondary efforts.
question
What is Simplicity?
answer
Simplicity calls for avoiding unnecessary complex organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations. Each part of a plan provides an opportunity for something to go wrong; a plan with many complex interactions stands a much greater chance of failure than one with fewer moving parts.
question
What is Air Force Doctrine?
answer
Air Force Doctrine is a statement of officially sanctioned beliefs, warfare principles, and terminology that describes and guides the proper use of air, space, and cyberspace power in military operations.
question
Is Doctrine authoritative or directive?
answer
Doctrine is authoritative, but not directive.
question
What are the 3 levels of Air and Space Doctrine?
answer
Basic, Operational, and Tactical.
question
Describe Basic Doctrine.
answer
Air Force Doctrine Document 1 or \"AFDD-1\" is the Airman's basic doctrine. It is the foundation of all other doctrines and sets the tone and vision for future doctrine development. Basic doctrine is broad and expresses fundamental guidance.
question
Describe Operational Doctrine.
answer
Operational doctrine is contained in Air Force Doctrine 2- series publications. It describes a more detailed organization of forces. Through operational doctrine, the Air Force achieves the focus for developing missions and tasks that will be executed through tactical doctrine.
question
Describe Tactical Doctrine.
answer
Tactical doctrine considers particular objectives (stopping the advance of an armored column) and conditions (threats, weather, and terrain) and describes how Air Force assets are employed to accomplish the tactical objective. It is codified as tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTP).
question
As an NCO, how should you look at Doctrine?
answer
As an NCO you should look at doctrine as a snapshot in time, a reflection of the thinking at the time of its creation. Doctrine will evolve as new experiences and advances in technology point the way to the operations of the future.
question
What are the 3 parts of today's US strategy?
answer
The National Security Strategy, The National Defense Strategy, and The National Military Strategy.
question
What is the US National Security Strategy?
answer
The National Security Strategy is the policy of the U.S. that seeks and supports democratic movements and institutions in every nation and culture with the ultimate goal of ending tyranny in the world.
question
What are 4 enduring US national interests?
answer
Security, Prosperity, Values, and International Order
question
What is the US National Defense Strategy?
answer
It provides a framework for U.S. Armed Forces to work with and through partner nations to shape opportunities in the international environment to enhance security and prevent conflict.
question
To support the National Security Strategy, what are the 5 key DoD objectives?
answer
Defend the Homeland, Win the Long War, Promote Security, Deter Conflict, and Win the Nation's Wars.
question
What is the US National Military Strategy?
answer
The National Military Strategy is the strategic direction for U.S. Armed Forces, and provides focus for military activities. It defines a set of military objectives for joint operating concepts that the Service Chiefs and combatant commanders use to identify capabilities and risks.
question
What are the 4 military objectives of the National Military Strategy that support the National Security Strategy?
answer
Counter Violent Extremism, Deter and Defeat Aggression, Strengthen International and Regional Security, and Shape the Future Force.
question
According to Joint Publication 3, Joint Operations, what is a crisis?
answer
A crisis is an incident or situation involving a threat to a nation, its territories, citizens, military forces, possessions, or vital interests that creates a condition where the commitment of military forces and resources are contemplated to achieve national objectives.
question
What is the difference between a crisis and war?
answer
Crisis/contingencies are smaller than war and the purpose may be to assist versus fight.
question
What is a Contingency?
answer
Contingency is a situation requiring military operations in response to natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or as otherwise directed by appropriate authority to protect U.S. interests.
question
Describe Adversarial Crisis Response/Contingency Operations.
answer
In an adversarial crisis response operation, there is an enemy that our energies are being directed toward. During such periods, the general goals of U.S. Military operations are to support national objectives, deter war, and return to a state of peace.
question
Describe Non-Adversarial Crisis Response/Contingency Operations.
answer
Non-adversarial crisis responses or contingency operations (NACR) is a how operational Airmen accomplish missions that are not war, but rather responses to a crisis or contingency. In these situations there is no enemy per se, and your actions may be needed to assist, not necessarily to fight. These types of operations are inherently \"joint\" in nature.
question
What is Homeland Security?
answer
Homeland Security is a concerted national effort to prevent terrorist attacks within the US, reduce America's vulnerability to terrorism, and minimize the damage and recover from attacks that do occur.
question
What is Homeland Defense?
answer
Homeland Defense is the protection of US sovereignty, territory, domestic population, and critical defense infrastructure against threats and aggression.
question
What is Civil Support?
answer
Civil Support is DoD support to US civil authorities for domestic emergencies and for designated law enforcement and other activities.
question
What is Emergency Preparedness?
answer
Emergency Preparedness is those planning activities undertaken to ensure DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place for designated National Security Emergencies.
question
What are the 9 key operational functions of airpower?
answer
Strategic attacks, Counterair, Counterland, Countersea, Combat support, Airlift, Air refueling, Special operations, and Surveillance and Reconnaissance.
question
What are Strategic Attacks?
answer
Strategic Attacks are offensive actions conducted by command authorities aimed at generating effects that most directly achieve the national security objectives. A strategic attack concept builds on the idea that it is possible to directly affect an adversary's sources of strength and will to fight without first having to engage and defeat their military forces.
question
What are Counterair operations?
answer
Counterair consists of operations to attain and maintain a desired degree of air superiority by the destruction, degradation, or disruption of enemy forces. Counterair's two elements are offensive counterair (OCA) and defensive counterair (DCA).
question
What is Offensive Counterair?
answer
Offensive counterair consists of operations to destroy, degrade, or disrupt enemy air and missile power as close to its source as possible. OCA is often the most effective and efficient method of achieving air superiority.
question
What is Defensive Counterair?
answer
Defensive counterair includes detection, identification, interception, and destruction of attacking enemy air and missiles and normally takes place over or close to friendly territory.
question
What is the main objective of Counterland strategy?
answer
Counterland's main objectives are to dominate the surface environment and prevent the opponent from doing the same.
question
What is Air Interdiction?
answer
Air interdiction is a form of aerial maneuver that destroys, disrupts, diverts, or delays the enemy's surface military.
question
What is Close Air Support?
answer
Close Air Support (CAS) provides direct support to help friendly surface forces. CAS can halt attacks, help create breakthroughs, cover retreats, and guard flanks.
question
What are Countersea activities?
answer
Countersea activities are sea surveillance, anti-ship warfare, protection of sea lines of communications through antisubmarine and anti-air warfare, aerial mine laying, and air refueling.
question
What is Agile Combat Support (ACS)?
answer
Agile Combat Support (ACS) is the use of U.S. Military power at the initiative, speed, and tempo that adversaries cannot match.
question
What are Special Operations?
answer
Special Operations are the use of special airpower operations to conduct unconventional warfare, direct action, special reconnaissance, counterterrorism, foreign internal defense, psychological operations, and counter proliferation.
question
What is the difference between special operations and conventional operations?
answer
The difference between special operations and conventional operations lies in the degree of physical and political risk, degree of overt actions, operational techniques, mode of employment, independence from friendly support, and dependence on detailed operational intelligence and indigenous assets.
question
What are the 3 elements of Space Power?
answer
Space consists of three elements: space, terrestrial, and link.
question
What does the Space element of Space Power consist of?
answer
The space element consists of astrodynamics or the study of the effects gravity has on space. Examples include satellites, space stations, or the space shuttle.
question
What does the Terrestrial-based element of Space Power consist of?
answer
The terrestrial-based element consists of the land, sea, or airborne equipment used to communicate with and control the space element. The terrestrial-based element also includes the personnel required to operate and maintain equipment.
question
What is the Link element of Space Power?
answer
The link element is the communication between the space element and the terrestrial element. Examples of the link element include data link signals.
question
What is Space Control?
answer
Space Control is the means by which space superiority is gained and maintained; assuring friendly forces can use it while denying its use to the enemy.
question
What is Counterspace?
answer
Counterspace is carried out by gaining and maintaining control of activities conducted by land, sea, air, space, information, and/or special operation forces. Counterspace includes offensive and defensive operations.
question
What is Offensive Counterspace?
answer
Offensive Counterspace operations use lethal or nonlethal means to achieve five major purposes: deception, disruption, denial, degradation, and destruction.
question
Describe deception, disruption, denial, degradation, and destruction with regard to Space Control.
answer
Deception is those measures designed to mislead the adversary by manipulation, distortion, or falsification of evidence to induce the adversary to react in a manner prejudicial to their interests. Disruption is the temporary impairment of the unity of space systems, usually without physical damage to the space segments. Denial is the temporary elimination of the utility of the space systems, usually without physical damage. Degradation is the permanent impairment of the utility of space systems, usually with physical damage. Destruction is the permanent elimination of the utility of space systems, usually with physical damage.
question
What is Active Defense?
answer
Active Defense is to detect, track, identify, intercept, and destroy or neutralize enemy space and missile forces.
question
What is Passive Defense?
answer
Passive Defense reduces the vulnerabilities to protect and increase the survivability of friendly space forces and the information they provide.
question
Describe Space Environment Operations.
answer
Knowledge about the space environment helps warfighters avoid operations during times when disturbances in the space environment degrade space-based information; helps communicators choose the best frequencies, antenna angles, and transmission schedules; and allows spacecraft operators advanced notice of effects which may impact satellite and surveillance operations.
question
What are 5 attributes of Space Power?
answer
Global coverage, Flexibility, Economy, Effectiveness, and Robustness.
question
What is IW?
answer
Irregular Warfare.
question
What are some of the asymmetric capabilities used by IW adversaries?
answer
Suicide bombers, improvised explosive devices (IEDs), and the cover of civilian populations.
question
What is Irregular Warfare?
answer
Irregular warfare is warfare in which one or more combatants are irregular military rather than regular forces. It is a violent struggle for legitimacy and influence over the relevant populations. Guerrilla warfare is a form of irregular warfare, and so is asymmetric warfare. Irregular warfare favors indirect and asymmetric warfare approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capabilities in order to erode an adversary's power, influence, and will.
question
The Air Force must be prepared to simultaneously conduct what?
answer
Conventional as well as Irregular warfare.
question
What is Culture?
answer
Culture is defined as a shared set of traditions, belief systems, and behaviors.
question
What factors help to shape Culture?
answer
Culture is shaped by many factors including history, religion, politics, resources, and economic environment.
question
What are 12 factors that define Culture?
answer
Family and Kinship, Religion and Spirituality, Sex and Gender, Political and Social Relations, Economics and Resources, Time and Space, Language and Communication, Technology and Material, History and Myth, Sustenance and Health, Aesthetics and Recreation, and Learning and Knowledge.
question
Essentially, what is Culture?
answer
Essentially, culture is the mechanism people use to adapt to the world around them and to interact with others. Culture is also the filter through which people view reality to make sense of events.
question
What is Ethnocentrism?
answer
Ethnocentrism is the belief or assumption that the particular social or cultural group a person belongs to is superior.
question
What is Relativism?
answer
Relativism is the belief that morals depend on a particular situation and truth, and morals change depending on a particular culture or situation. Relativism allows you to temporarily suspend judgment in order to understand things from another's point of view.
question
What is Mirror Imaging?
answer
Mirror imaging is initially drawing conclusions about a culture based on your own cultural frame of reference.
question
What does the term \"joint\" mean?
answer
The term joint involves activities, operations, organizations, etc., in which elements of two or more military departments participate.
question
What is Cultural Diversity?
answer
Cultural diversity is the variety of human societies or cultures in a specific region or in the world as a whole.
question
What is Universalism?
answer
Universalism is understanding, appreciation, tolerance, and protection for the welfare of people and nature.
question
What is Achievement?
answer
Achievement is success through competence according to social standards.
question
Cultural Diversity is an asset for what?
answer
Cultural diversity is an asset that is indispensable for poverty reduction and the achievement of sustainable development.
question
What are World Views?
answer
Worldviews are ways that someone sees and understands world events, especially in relation to their religious or political beliefs and ideas.
question
What is a High Context culture?
answer
High context refers to societies or groups where people have close connections over a long period of time. Most members know what to do and what to think from years of interaction with each other, such as with your immediate family.
question
What is a Low Context culture?
answer
Low context refers to societies where people tend to have many connections but of shorter duration or for some specific reason. In these societies, cultural behavior and beliefs may need to be spelled out explicitly so that those coming into the cultural environment know how to behave.
question
What is the purpose of the Air Force Cross Cultural Competence (3C) Model?
answer
To develop Airmen who can operate effectively in culturally complex environments with no particular skill in a specific culture, region, or language.
question
What are the 4 components of the Air Force Cross Cultural Competence (3C) Model?
answer
Culture general conceptual knowledge, Cross-cultural skills, Positive attitudes, and Application.
question
What is one of the ways that having a positive attitude about cross-cultural competence can be demonstrated?
answer
By using relativism, which is the conviction that the beliefs and practices of others are best understood in light of the particular cultures in which they are found.
question
What are 3 important cross cultural skills?
answer
Communicate, relate, and negotiate.
question
What is is the most essential component of cross-cultural competence?
answer
Motivation, because it requires Airmen to have a set of positive attitudes toward cultural differences.
question
When did the U.S. first research atomic energy?
answer
By early 1942, after suffering a series of military defeats in the Pacific, the United States, prompted by top Washington officials, researched and developed their own atomic energy and the creation of the world's first atomic bomb.
question
What was the Manhattan Project?
answer
As part of the infamous \"Manhattan Project,\" scientific teams were instructed to produce nuclear bombs in time to affect the outcome of World War II.
question
When was the first nuclear device detonated?
answer
On 16 July 1945, Manhattan Project scientists successfully detonated the first nuclear explosive device at the Trinity Site near Alamogordo, New Mexico.
question
When did America drop the first atomic bomb?
answer
On 6 August 1945, the Army Air Corp dropped the first atomic bomb, dubbed Little Boy, on Hiroshima, Japan using a B-29 bomber named the Enola Gay.
question
When did the U.S. drop the second atomic bomb?
answer
When the Japanese failed to respond to President Truman's call for surrender, another B-29 bomber, nicknamed Bockscar, dropped a second bomb, known as Fat Man, on the city of Nagasaki on 9 August 1945,
question
When did the Japanese surrender, ending WW II?
answer
On 14 August 1945, Japan finally surrendered thus ending WWII.
question
What was the Cold War?
answer
\"Cold War\" is a term used to describe the period of political conflict, military tension, and rivalry between the United States and the Soviet Union after WWII. It began with the Berlin Airlift in June 1948.
question
What was the Berlin Airlift?
answer
In 1948, in a joint American and British operation, a massive air campaign known as the \"Berlin Airlift\" began delivering at least 2,000 tons of supplies per day to satisfy the most basic needs of the Berlin people.
question
When did the Soviet Union join the Cold War?
answer
On 29 August 1949, the Soviets conducted their first nuclear test, ending the United States' monopoly of nuclear capabilities. By the late 1950s, the Soviet Union had assembled a nuclear arsenal of their own that could reach US soil, increasing tensions between the two superpowers.
question
Briefly describe the Cuban Missile Crisis.
answer
When the Soviet Union's leader, Premier Nikita Khrushchev, installed medium-range nuclear missiles in Cuba, US President John Kennedy imposed a naval blockade to force their removal. In the end, the Soviet Union backed down on the missiles, and the United States promised not to invade Cuba in the future.
question
What role did the Strategic Air Command play in the Cold War?
answer
In 1946, one year before the Air Force became a separate service, Strategic Air Command (SAC) was created. Its mission was to be the one command to provide guardianship and control of all nuclear-capable bombers and Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles. This command controlled the majority of nuclear assets throughout the Cold War—from 1946 through 1992.
question
When did the Cold War end?
answer
The Cold War lasted over 40 years, ending in 1991 with the fall of the Berlin Wall and without the use of a single nuclear weapon.
question
What is the ACC?
answer
In 1992, SAC and Tactical Air Command (TAC) combined to become Air Combat Command (ACC). The nuclear-capable bombers and fighters were assigned to ACC. The ICBMs were initially assigned to ACC as well but were later transferred to Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).
question
Deterrence can be viewed as what?
answer
Deterrence can be viewed as a product of three inter-related factors: a nation's capability multiplied by its will, multiplied by others' perceptions of that capability and will.
question
What are the 4 instruments of National Power?
answer
Diplomatic, Information, Military powers, and Economic (DIME).
question
What is the Nuclear Umbrella, and how many countries does it protect?
answer
Extended deterrence is less about retaliation and more about posturing to convince an enemy that they are unlikely to achieve political and military objectives by attacking the United States or its allies. Currently, 17 countries depend on the United States' nuclear umbrella.
question
What is the NPT?
answer
The Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty. It is a term used to describe the spread of nuclear weapons to nations that are not recognized as \"Nuclear Weapon States\" (NWS) by the NPT. It was open for signature on 1 July 1968.
question
According to the NPT, what is a Nuclear Weapons State?
answer
A Nuclear Weapons State is \"one which has manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967.\"
question
How many Nuclear Weapons States are there, and what are they?
answer
There are only 5 Nuclear Weapons States. the United States, the United Kingdom, France, Russia, and the People's Republic of China.
question
What are Nuclear Weapons States obligated to do?
answer
NWS are obligated not to transfer nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, or any nuclear weapon technologies to any non-nuclear weapon state.
question
How many recognized sovereign states are not part of the Nuclear Proliferation Treaty, and what are they?
answer
Only four recognized sovereign states are not part of the NPT: India, Israel, Pakistan, and North Korea.
question
What is Nuclear Surety?
answer
Nuclear surety refers to materiel, personnel, and procedures that contribute to the security, safety, and reliability of nuclear weapons and to the assurance that there will be no nuclear weapon accidents, incidents, unauthorized weapon detonations, or degradation in performance at the target.
question
What is the primary purpose of Nuclear Surety?
answer
The primary purpose of the Nuclear Surety Program is to ensure all associated materiel, personnel, and procedures related to nuclear weapons are safe, secure, and that personnel and weapon systems remain reliable.
question
What are the 3 key elements of nuclear surety?
answer
Safety, security, and reliability.
question
What is Safety in Nuclear Surety?
answer
Safety is protecting nuclear weapons against the risks and threats inherent in their environments within the constraints of operational effectiveness, time, and cost throughout all phases of their life cycle.
question
What are Positive Measures in Nuclear Surety?
answer
Positive measures are controls such as physical security and coded control systems used collectively or individually to enhance safety and to reduce the likelihood, severity, or consequences of an accident, unauthorized act, or deliberate threat.
question
What is Security in Nuclear Surety?
answer
Security is the total spectrum of procedures, facilities, equipment, and personnel used to provide the protection against loss of custody, theft, or diversion of a nuclear weapon system; the protection against unauthorized access; and the protection against unauthorized actions, vandalism, sabotage, and malicious damage. Security involves active and passive protective measures.
question
What are the 2 types of Reliability in Nuclear Surety?
answer
Reliability has two key components: nuclear weapons system reliability and individual reliability.
question
What are the 2 parts of Individual Reliability in Nuclear Surety?
answer
The Personnel Reliability Program (PRP), and the 2-person concept.
question
What 3 personal responsibilities to all Airman in the PRP have?
answer
They must reconcile all legal issues, manage a sound financial plan, and maintain required security clearances.
question
What is Process Discipline?
answer
Process discipline requires following standard operating procedures to accomplish routine missions.
question
What AFI covers Nuclear Weapons-Related Materiel Management?
answer
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 20-110, Nuclear Weapons-Related Materiel Management.
question
Why are India and Pakistan considered present-day nuclear threats?
answer
There have been generations of outstanding India-Pakistan disputes of conflict and confrontation, and even after the UN Security Council resolution 6 June 1998, both India and then Pakistan adopted nuclear testing.
question
What are the Air Force's Nuclear Weapons Systems?
answer
US Air Force nuclear weapons systems include ICBM and nuclear-capable bombers. The ICBMs are Minuteman III, and the nuclear capable strategic bombers are the B-52 and B-2 aircraft. Additionally, there are dual capable aircraft: the F-15E and F-16.
question
How does the Air Force define Nuclear Weapons-Related Material?
answer
The US Air Force defines NWRM as: \"Select nuclear combat delivery system components control equipment that are designated sensitive; needed to authorize, pre-arm, arm, launch, release or target a nuclear weapon; or needed to maintain and protect system integrity.\"
question
What are WSA's?
answer
Weapons Storage Areass are heavily secured areas inside the perimeter of a base where nuclear weapons are stored and maintained in weapon (igloo) bunkers. The US Air Force has six above ground and one underground WSA.
question
Name 7 Nuclear Weapons-Related Materials.
answer
Certain Circuit Card Assemblies, Nuclear Training Bombs, Printed Wiring Boards, Power Supplies, Cable Assemblies, Nuclear Training Warheads, and Fuse Assemblies.
question
Name 6 examples of Nuclear Mission Areas.
answer
Weapons Storage Areas (WSAs), Flight lines with nuclear bombers and Missile Alert Facilities, Weapons Storage Security System (WS3), Convoys, Underground Facilities (Launch Control Centers (LCC) and Missile Silos), and Prime Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF).
question
What is a MAF?
answer
A Missile Alert Facility (MAF) that is above ground and houses security teams and other support functions for the missile crew.
question
What is an LCC?
answer
The missile launch crew resides in the Launch Control Center. The two-person crew has the ability to execute the launch of missiles from this location.
question
What is a WS3?
answer
WS3 is a system including electronic controls and vaults built into the floors of Protective Aircraft Shelters (PAS). It consists of a Weapons Storage Vault, and monitoring and control systems. The vault can hold up to four nuclear weapons, and in the lowered position, provides ballistic protection through its hardened lid and reinforced walls. The WS3 system allows storage directly underneath the aircraft intended to carry the bombs to reduce the need for convoys and to eliminate exposure.
question
What is a PNAF?
answer
Prime Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) is any aircrew, aircraft, flight line, or other function that provides peacetime support of logistical airlift for nuclear weapons. In other words, a PNAF is an airlift mission that moves nuclear weapons from one location to another.
question
What is the AFGSC?
answer
In 2009, Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC) was created to ensure oversight of the nuclear-capable bombers and ICBMs.
question
What organizations make up the Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC)?
answer
Global Strike Command encompasses two numbered Air Forces: 8th Air Force is responsible for all nuclear-capable bombers and 20th Air Force is responsible for all ICBMs.
question
What 3 things make up the present day Nuclear Triad?
answer
The new triad consists of strategic offensive and defensive capabilities that include nuclear and non-nuclear strike capabilities; active and passive defenses; and a robust research, development, and industrial infrastructure to develop, build, and maintain offensive forces and defensive systems.
question
How is a nuclear execution order issued?
answer
The President will issue the execution order through the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) to the combatant commander and, ultimately, to the forces in the field exercising direct control over the weapons.
question
One of the difficulties in enforcing the NPT involves the use of what?
answer
Nuclear energy as a source of electrical power.
question
Concerns regarding the development of nuclear energy by Non-Nuclear Weapons States (NNWS) come from what?
answer
The first two steps of the nuclear fuel cycle.
question
What substance is created in the early stages of the nuclear fuel cycle can be used to make weapons?
answer
Highly-Enriched Uranium (HEU) resulting from the uranium enhancement process that occurs in the early stages of the nuclear fuel cycle. HEU is classified as weapons-grade and is commonly used for bombs and warheads. HEU is not required to generate energy. Low-Enriched Uranium (LEU) can be used to generate energy and cannot be used in nuclear weapons.
question
What substance is created in the later stages of the nuclear fuel cycle that can be used to make weapons?
answer
In the later stages of the nuclear fuel cycle, a small amount of the input fuel decays into plutonium as a natural product of the nuclear reaction. If the plutonium was skimmed off, it could be accumulated to build an implosive or violent bomb.
question
What are 2 ways the NPT can be enforced during the creation of nuclear power?
answer
Selling fabricated fuel assemblies (nuclear fuel rods) to NNWS desiring nuclear power, thus removing the uranium enrichment process from the fuel cycle. Develop nuclear reactors that are \"proliferation proof.\" This basically means that in order to recover the plutonium at the end of the fuel cycle, the reactor must be shut down; this would be visible and allow NPT enforcement.
question
Why is Iran considered a present-day threat?
answer
In addition to its illicit nuclear program, it continues to support terrorism, undermine peace between Israelis and Palestinians, and deny its people their rights.
question
What Air Force Doctrine covers Nuclear Operations?
answer
Air Force Doctrine Document 3-72, Nuclear Operations.
question
Why is North Korea considered a present-day threat?
answer
North Korea has continued to defy the international community with more nuclear device and missile tests. The possibility of a regional arms race increases as North Korean defiance continues to unsettle regional stability. As Japan and South Korea still consider developing their own nuclear deterrent and missile defense systems, China will naturally regard itself as the real target.
question
What AFI covers the Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program?
answer
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-101, Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program.
question
According to Dwight D. Eisenhower, what is Leadership?
answer
\"Leadership is the art of getting someone else to do something you want done because he wants to do it.\"
question
Name 8 things Unit Managers do.
answer
They are committed to the profession of arms, apply management concepts in all situations, provide ethical guidance, manage human and physical resources, adhere to core values, understand human behavior, mold their Airmen into a cohesive team, and oversee numerous programs.
question
What is the difference between a group and a team?
answer
A group is an assemblage of persons (or objects) located or gathered together. A team is a group organized to work together.
question
What are 6 words that could describe teams?
answer
Unified, cohesive, collaborative, solidarity, joint, and coalition.
question
In order to work together, a group must first be what?
answer
Organized.
question
Teams adopt and work towards what?
answer
A common objective.
question
Members of a team appreciate that their own (individual) success is determined by what?
answer
The collective performance of everyone on the team.
question
What 5 things can indicate team spirit?
answer
Increased productivity, High morale during high ops tempo, Willingness to help fellow teammates, Strong identity/camaraderie, Little to no negative conflict, and Differences resolved through compromise or collaboration.
question
Regarding teams, what does AFI 36-2618 say that NCO's must do?
answer
The Enlisted Force Structure states that NCOs must \"Lead and develop subordinates and exercise effective followership in mission accomplishment.They must \"lead and manage teams while maintaining the highest level of readiness to ensure mission success.\"
question
What is the Air Force Mission?
answer
\"Fly, fight and win...in air, space, and cyberspace.\"
question
What is a Mission?
answer
Mission is the task, together with the purpose, that clearly indicates the action to be taken and the reason therefore... duty assigned to an individual or unit; a task.
question
What is a Mission Statement?
answer
One method used to assist in guiding personnel
question
What are the 4 roles that are typically found on teams?
answer
CARE - Creator, Advancer, Refiner, and Executor.
question
Describe the Creator role on a team.
answer
Creators focus on the possibilities. They generate new ideas and fresh concepts. They prefer to live in a world of possibilities. Creators look for activities that are unstructured or abstract, and they thrive on innovation and unique solutions. Creators are good at reframing a problem and looking for outside the box solutions.
question
What are 5 things that describe Creators?
answer
Spontaneous, enthusiastic, optimistic, able to see the \"big picture\", and willing to solve problems.
question
Describe the Advancer role on a team.
answer
Advancers focus on the interaction. They communicate new ideas and carry them forward. Advancers manage the human component of any solution and enjoy whipping up enthusiasm for a project. Advancers recognize ideas and new directions in their early stages and develop ways to promote them. Advancers use insightful planning based on past experiences and successful methods to \"advance\" ideas towards implementation.
question
What are 5 things that describe Advancers?
answer
Positive, self-confident, energetic support of team goals, persistent, and not easily discouraged.
question
Describe the Refiner role on a team.
answer
Refiners focus on the analysis, and challenge all concepts. Refiners use a methodical process to analyze things to detect possible flaws and identify potential problems. Refiners are good at reviewing and modifying ideas, or coming up with new ideas to ensure successful implementation. Refiners use logic and a systematic approach to redesign a solution.
question
What are 5 things that describe Refiners?
answer
Analytical, detail-oriented, able to identify and clarify problems, experts in specifics, and act as practical \"sounding boards\" to validate ideas.
question
Describe the Executor role on a team.
answer
Executors focus on the realization. They follow up on team objectives and implement ideas and solutions. Executors deliver results. The Executor focuses on ensuring the implementation process proceeds in an orderly manner, based on a well-thought-out plan, and strives for achieving high-quality results. Executors enjoy the task and responsibility of final implementation, and pride themselves on their ability.
question
What are 5 things that describe Executors?
answer
Assertive, independent, keepers of high standards, meticulous in following directions, and willing to implement ideas.
question
What is one role that MAY be present on teams?
answer
Flexers can focus on everything. They are a combination of the other four roles, and have an equal preference for most or all of the roles.
question
What are 4 things that describe Flexers.
answer
Able to connect and negotiate with all types of people, tolerant and understand different members of the team, able to identify what is missing in the process, and willing to offer suggestions to improve the process.
question
What happens where there are no Creators? Advancers? Refiners? Executors? Flexers?
answer
No Creators, no new concepts. No advancers, ideas stall or don't come to light. No refiners, ideas are not thought through properly. No Executors, no implementation. No Flexers, there are gaps in the team.
question
Should team leadership be given to someone because of their unique role on the team?
answer
No, even if their role keeps them in the forefront, that does not make them the leader.
question
Define and describe the P.E.P. cycle.
answer
The P.E.P Cycle is a Panic-Elation-Panic cycle. Panic happens when a new idea is needed, Elation happens when a good idea is thought of, and Panic again happens when it looks like the idea might not work out.
question
What is the \"Z\" Process?
answer
Ideas often bounce back and forth among the Creators, Advancers, and Refiners in what's called the \"Z\" Process.
question
What is the definition of Team Dynamics?
answer
Team Dynamics is an ongoing process involving interaction of individuals within a team to move toward or away from achieving the desired objective.
question
What are the 5 C's of a team?
answer
Community, Cooperation, Coordination, Communication, and Coaching.
question
What are the 5 common dysfunctions of a team?
answer
Absence of trust, Fear of conflict, Lack of commitment, Avoidance of accountability, and Inattention to results.
question
What are the 5 stages of team progression?
answer
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.
question
Describe the Forming stage of team progression.
answer
When teams begin forming, members will cautiously explore the boundaries of acceptable group behavior. This stage transitions people from individual to member status. Establishing (Forming) a team usually appears unstructured and quite chaotic. During this stage, everyone is polite and on their best behavior as group members become acquainted with one other. Conflict usually does not occur during the Forming stage.
question
Describe the Storming stage of team progression.
answer
Storming is considered the most difficult stage for a team. Members acknowledge what the intent or goal is, and also when members realize the difficulty of the task. Members begin to argue and debate about what the team should do next. Some team members may attempt to convince others to \"side\" with them. Conflict escalates, and team leads are encouraged to clearly define the team's goals and objectives.
question
Describe the Norming stage of team progression.
answer
Members reconcile disputes, \"agree to disagree,\" and abandon negative and unproductive energy. They accept the team, and emotional conflict is held to a minimum. Previously competitive relationships become more cooperative, and team members now have more time to work the task at hand. Productivity is high in the Norming stage.
question
Describe the Performing stage of team progression.
answer
There is heightened morale and loyalty to the team, and members work together to diagnose problems. Creativity is high as members are willing to share ideas without fear of negative criticism and reprisal. Productivity remains high as the team makes steady progress.
question
Describe the Adjourning and Transforming stage of team progression.
answer
Adjourning teams break apart once the task has been accomplished, while Transforming teams just move on to the next objective.
question
What are 4 possible causes of team regression?
answer
A new team member, a new goal, change in the team schedule, and unresolved conflict.
question
What 4 things should be considered when creating a team performance assessment?
answer
T.E.A.M. - Talents, Expertise, Assessments, and Means.
question
What are the 3 basic components of leadership?
answer
A leader, follower(s) and a situation.
question
What is Followership?
answer
Followership is one in the service of another; one that follows the opinions or teachings of another; one that imitates another. Proper followership is proactive without diminishing the authority of leadership.
question
What are two very important components of followership?
answer
The ability to provide feedback and give advice to leaders.
question
What are the 5 Essential Qualities of Effective Followership?
answer
Self-management, Committed, Competent, Integrity, and Initiative.
question
Describe effective feedback?
answer
Effective feedback is consistent, objective, and sensitive to the stated purpose. Feedback can be positive or negative, and good followers speak up even when they disagree with their leaders.
question
What is the difference between feedback and advice?
answer
Feedback is in regard to a decision or course of action that has already happened. Advice is given about a decision that is still being made.
question
How can you increase your chances of success as a Follower?
answer
Control your emotions, Offer solutions to problems, Recognize the importance of timing, and Use the chain of command.
question
What are the 5 areas essential for personal and professional leadership development?
answer
Self-awareness, values and principles, motivations, support team, and integrated life.
question
What 3 concepts can you use to ensure mission accomplishment and to develop and inspire others within the unit?
answer
Diagnose, Adapt, and Communicate (DAC).
question
What is more important, the needs of the unit, or the needs of the Airmen?
answer
The needs of the unit and the Air Force will always take precedence over the needs of the Airmen. This is not to imply that we shouldn't take care of our Airmen, but rather that we should push them fill roles/responsibilities in the unit, even if it isn't their personal preference.
question
As a leader assessing a unit, what should you be diagnosing?
answer
Is the organization healthy? Does it have an ethical climate? Are the right people with the right knowledge, skills, and abilities filling positions? Also, you should assess your followers to determine developmental needs and match those needs to needs of the unit.
question
When diagnosing a unit, what 2 things should be looked at?
answer
The status of the people and the status of the environment/situation.
question
What are 4 things you can look at when diagnosing a unit?
answer
Moral, Esprit de Corps, Discipline, and Proficiency.
question
Name 4 leadership styles that a Unit Manager may use as their \"default\" style.
answer
Authoritarian, Country Club, Impoverished, and Team.
question
Describe an Authoritarian Leader.
answer
High-task, low-relationship leaders who are very hard on their subordinates. They do not allow for much collaboration or cooperation, and expect people to do what they're told without debate. They are intolerant of dissent, make it difficult for subordinates to contribute, and focus on who is to blame when something goes wrong.
question
When is Authoritarian leadership used?
answer
In an emergency situation, or when needing to accomplish a very critical and time sensitive task.
question
Describe a Country Club leader.
answer
Low-task, high-relationship leaders who rely upon reward power to maintain discipline and to encourage goal accomplishment. Almost incapable of employing coercive and legitimate powers because they fear jeopardizing relationships with the team members.
question
When is Country Club leadership used?
answer
In a highly efficient and disciplined work center that isn't rewarded properly or motivated by rewards.
question
Describe an Impoverished leader.
answer
Low-task, low-relationship leadership that relies upon a \"delegate and disappear\" management style. No commitment to task accomplishment or maintenance, and allows teams to do whatever they wish. Prefers to be detached from the team process by allowing it to suffer from a series of power struggles.
question
When is Impoverished leadership used?
answer
In a self-sufficient work center where the people are very independent and don't require a lot of supervision.
question
Describe a Team leader.
answer
High-task, high-relationship leadership that leads by a positive example. Fosters a team environment for everyone to reach their highest potential and encourages the team to reach team goals. Works to strengthen the bonds of the team.
question
When is Team leadership used?
answer
In a team where there are a mixture of different situations and different people with different skills and abilities.
question
What is Approach?
answer
Approach is the method(s) or procedure(s) necessary to move the organization in the right direction based on your diagnosis.
question
What are 5 factors to consider when diagnosing the developmental needs of Airmen?
answer
Their aspirations, their personality, their self-concept, self-efficacy, and their attitudes and values.
question
What is Self-efficacy?
answer
Self-efficacy is how much confidence someone has in performing a particular task.
question
What is a Deliberate Development Plan?
answer
To carefully think about and discuss strengths, areas of improvement, current and future roles, and responsibilities with followers for the purpose of creating a detailed plan (or expanding an existing one) that intentionally and methodically develops personal and professional growth over time.
question
If an Airman needs a specific trait or skill, what should you do?
answer
Put that Airman in a situation where he/she will be forced to hone that trait or skill, and encourage the Airman along the way.
question
What should Deliberate Development Plans include?
answer
Deliberate development plans should include things that will help Airmen fill current and future job/roles and responsibilities and that help Airmen in gaining desired skills.
question
A leader's ability to influence others is only as strong as what?
answer
Other people's perception of his or her power.
question
What is Position power?
answer
Position power provides you with the authority to make decisions and requests based on your position within the organization.
question
What are the 4 types of Position power?
answer
Coercive, connection, reward and legitimate.
question
What is Coercive power?
answer
Coercive power deals with the leader's perceived ability to provide sanctions, punishment, or consequences for not performing.
question
What is Connection power?
answer
Connection power comes from the perception of your association with people of influence inside or outside of the organization. This power source falls under the \"who you know\" category.
question
What is Reward power, and what is one drawback to using it?
answer
Rewards can range from pats on the back or days off, to formal recognition within the organization. The problem with power derived from rewards is that rewards will often run their course.
question
What is Legitimate power?
answer
Legitimate power comes from your title, role, or position within the organization itself. This type of power provides you with the authority to make decisions and requests based on your position within the organization. Because legitimate power comes from a leader's title, role, or position within the organization, it does not increase or decrease based on use.
question
What is Personal power?
answer
Personal Power is the extent to which followers respect, feel good about, are committed to their leader; and see their own goals being satisfied by the goals of their leader.
question
What are the 3 forms of Personal power?
answer
Referent power, information power, and expert power.
question
What is Referent power?
answer
Referent power is based largely on a leader's personal traits. Leaders seen as likeable, or charismatic, or who inspire trust and confidence can often evoke referent power.
question
What is Information power?
answer
Information power is based on a leader's access to data and information that is important to others. This power is based on a leader having information that others want or need to know.
question
What is Expert power?
answer
Expert power suggests that leaders gain power and the ability to influence through their education, experience, and job knowledge. By knowing your job inside and out, you gain the trust of your followers and work effectively from expert power.
question
List the 5 Motivational Theories.
answer
ABC's of Behavior, X & Y Theory, Hierarchy of Needs, Expectation Theory, and Motivational Profile Theory.
question
Describe the ABC's of Behavior theory.
answer
ABC's\" of behavior stands for antecedents (prior events), behavior (observable behavior), and consequences (rewards or punishments resulting from prior events). A person will tend to change their behavior based on consequences, resulting from prior behavior.
question
Describe the X & Y theory.
answer
The Theory X manager assumes that most people prefer to be directed, and are not interested in assuming responsibility. Theory Y managers assumes that people are not lazy by nature and can be self-directed and creative if properly motivated.
question
Describe the Hierarchy of Needs theory.
answer
An individual's most basic needs must be filled before that individual can move on to higher needs or ambitions.
question
Describe the Expectation Theory.
answer
A person expects certain things when they work, such as money, training, safety and supervision. If people do not get these expected items, they will become dissatisfied and their motivation will drop.
question
Describe the Motivational Profile theory.
answer
People are motivated by achievement, power, or affiliation.
question
What is the Contemporary Motivation model?
answer
People can be in one of three levels of commitment to an organization. The three levels are membership (the lowest end), performance level (mid-level), and the involvement level (highest level) of commitment.
question
In the Contemporary Motivation model, what external motivators motivate someone at the Membership level?
answer
Pay, medical benefits, leave, basic benefits - things people get just for being there.
question
In the Contemporary Motivation model, what external motivators motivate someone at the Performance level?
answer
Rewards, recognition, time off, advanced positions - things given to them that they have earned by performing.
question
In the Contemporary Motivation model, what internal motivators motivate someone at the Involvement level?
answer
Satisfaction, self-worth, gratification - things a person receives via their efforts, but that are not given to them by others.
question
Can supervisors move people to the Involvement level of motivation?
answer
No, supervisors cannot motivate followers to move to the involvement level; operating at this level can only come from internal motivation.
question
What is Resource Stewardship?
answer
The efficient and effective use of assigned personnel, material, information and technology, energy, warfare and financial resources to ensure mission success.
question
In what 6 areas are NCO's responsible for maintaining Resource Stewardship?
answer
Personnel, financial, material, warfare, information and technology, and energy.
question
What is Appropriation?
answer
Appropriation is a term that means setting aside money for a specific purpose.
question
What are O & M Funds?
answer
Operations and Maintenance.
question
What are Antideficiency Action Violations?
answer
An act that results in exceeding limitations (misuse) of funds authorized and appropriated by Congress in support of contract obligations.
question
What is a Budget Allocation?
answer
Funding document that represents cash for commitment or obligation that is issued by the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Budget (SAF/FMB) to a major command or field operating agency.
question
What is a Budget Allotment?
answer
Similar to a budget allocation except that it is issued by major commands or field operating agencies to subordinate units.
question
What is Continuing Resolution Authority?
answer
Fiscal law authority that allows the government to continue operations at a minimum level for a specific amount of time, usually a few days to a few weeks. During CRA, units typically receive funding authority for approximately 80% of the previous year's budget amount to prevent agencies from shutting down.
question
What is a Cost Center?
answer
The organization that gathers and distributes cost data. The cost center refers to the basic production flight or work center.
question
What does the Financial Management Board (FMB) do?
answer
The FMB distributes the annual funding, establishes priorities, and ensures consistency with programs and missions. FMB approval represents the final, approved installation or command budget submitted to higher command and the final distribution of funds received from higher command.
question
What does the Financial Working Group (FWG) do?
answer
Reviews program and cost factors, compares actual with prior year costs, reviews justifications, periodically evaluates performance against estimates, and submits a recommended financial plan to the FMB.
question
What is the Program Objective Memorandum?
answer
Biennial memorandum submitted to the Secretary of Defense from each Military Department and Defense agency. It proposes total program requirements for the next six years.
question
Who is the Responsibility Center Manager?
answer
The RCM normally heads an organization that plans, organizes, directs, and coordinates activities of subordinate organizations and functions. RCMs are the principal level that manages financial resources.
question
Who is the Resource Advisor?
answer
The budget representative for an organization. The RA participates in resource management, including the planning, programming, budgeting, acquiring, consuming, storing, and disposing of resources. The RA is directly responsible to the RCM.
question
Describe the Budget Execution Review process.
answer
The first part of the BER process requires every level of command to identify and prioritize its unfunded requirements and then submit them to higher headquarters for funding consideration. The second part requires each level of command to review and prioritize (rack and stack) all subordinate command unfunded requirements. This allows all levels of command to move funds around to cover funding shortfalls deemed top priority.
question
How often does the Budget Execution Review process happen?
answer
The Budget Execution Review (BER) is a two-part process that occurs twice within each budget cycle.
question
What is the Financial Execution Plan (FEP)?
answer
An Air Force product used to balance available funding while delivering goods and services to customers within the Operations and Maintenance (O&M) appropriation. In simpler terms, it ensures funds provided in the President's Budget (PB) are distributed in a manner to ensure Air Force objectives can be accomplished.
question
What 4 sections should be included in a Financial Execution Plan?
answer
1. Mission-Critical Requirements, including the element of expense investment code (EEIC) associated with each requirement. 2. Justification, a short narrative justifying each requirement. 3. Unfunded Requirements: Another list identifying mission-essential requirements that exceed projected funding. 4. Spend Plan: Illustrates how projected funds will be spent over a 12-month fiscal year period.
question
What is Fallout Money?
answer
Unobligated and unspent funds discovered between mid-Aug and 30 Sep. Fallout money is typically used to purchase items that may or may not be in direct support of the mission and are usually nice to have (e.g. furniture, carpet, etc).
question
What AFI covers Financial Management?
answer
AFI 65-601, which includes an Air Force directive to report excess funds to the wing.
question
What is the Antideficiency Act (ADA)?
answer
A law where Congress exercises its constitutional control over the public purse. The act is a law that prohibits agencies from involving the government in a contract or obligation for the payment of money before an appropriation is made unless authorized by law.
question
What are the 4 Air Force manpower competencies?
answer
Organization Structure, Program Allocation and Control, Requirements Determination, and Performance Management.
question
What is an Authorization Change Request (ACR)?
answer
A multi-purpose instrument used to propose adjustments to a UMD. ACRs are commonly used to request increases, decreases, or realignments of manpower requirements and/or to change attributes on the UMD.
question
What is the Productivity Enhancement Capital Investment (PECI) program?
answer
This program provides expedient funding for capital acquisition projects, productivity improvement projects, and investment opportunities that provide measurable benefits, real savings, and produce a return on investment (ROI) for the Air Force within a 2 to 4 year period.
question
Describe the PECI category of Fast Payback Capital Investment (FASCAP).
answer
The project costs under $250,000, program payback within 2 years, and approved at MAJCOM level.
question
Describe the PECI category of Productivity Investment Fund (PIF).
answer
The project costs over $250,000, program payback within 4 years, and approved at Air Staff level.
question
What is the IDEA program?
answer
The Innovative Development Through Employee Awareness (IDEA) program promotes process improvement and resource conservation through a participative approach where ideas are submitted by military and civilian employees. Monetary awards are paid upon validation of tangible savings and/or intangible benefits.
question
Air Force resources should be used in what way?
answer
Appropriate use requires using resources as available and as directed.
question
What are Standards?
answer
Standards are morals, ethics, or habits established by an authority, custom, or an individual as acceptable behavior.
question
At the unit level, what 2 things does discipline do?
answer
Unit discipline allows units to operate faster than the enemy, gaining advantage, generating decisive force, and achieving decisive results. It also enables unit leadership to stop undesirable behavior quickly and to maintain or increase the unit's mission effectiveness.
question
What is the definition of Discipline?
answer
Training expected to produce a specific character or pattern of behavior, especially training that produces moral or mental improvement. It is a state of training, resulting in orderly conduct.
question
Is discipline meant to be negative?
answer
Discipline is not meant to be negative; instead, it is designed to train and guide an individual toward improving performance or behavior.
question
What is Military Discipline?
answer
Founded upon respect for and loyalty to properly constituted authority; it is that mental attitude and state of training which renders obedience instinctive under all conditions.
question
What is Imposed Discipline?
answer
Imposed discipline refers to the enforced obedience to legal orders and regulations. It is essential in combat or in emergencies when there is no time to explain or discuss an order.
question
What is Task Discipline?
answer
Task discipline requires a strong sense of responsibility in performing your job to the best of your abilities, volunteering for the tough jobs, and working overtime, if necessary, to accomplish your mission as it relates to the Air Force mission.
question
What is Group Discipline?
answer
Just as you must have a sense of responsibility to your job, you should also have a sense of group responsibility and effective team membership. You must \"pull your own weight,\" and at times you may have to deny some personal preferences for the good of your group,
question
What is Unit Discipline?
answer
A state of order and obedience existing within a unit that involves the ready subordination of an individual's will for the good of the unit; it demands habitual but reasoned obedience that preserves initiative and functions even in the absence of the commander.
question
What is the purpose of Adverse Administrative and Punitive Actions?
answer
These are quality force management tools available to supervisors, superiors, and commanders. These management tools help instruct, correct, and improve those who depart from standards of performance, conduct, bearing, integrity, and whose actions degrade the individual and unit's mission. Administrative tools are corrective in nature, not punitive.
question
What are the 3 arenas of the Discipline Model?
answer
Prevention, Correction, and Punishment and are intended to build upon one another. If taken seriously, each preceding Arena can serve to preclude the following Arena.
question
Of the the 3 arenas of the Discipline Model, which is the first and most important?
answer
Prevention is the first and most important. The goal of Prevention is to \"Prevent\" or stop problems before they occur.
question
What are the 3 actions of Prevention in a work center?
answer
Prevention is all about setting clear standards, establishing rapport, and establishing a climate of accountability.
question
What are the 3 specified times the Air Force requires supervisors to provide formal, written feedback to all subordinates?
answer
Within 60 days of assuming supervision, mid-way through the rating period, and within 60 days of the close out of a performance report.
question
When is the only time Prevention is effective?
answer
Prevention is only effective when subordinates are convinced that you are observing them and you are willing to correct and reward their behavior.
question
What is the purpose behind Corrective Actions?
answer
Correction is the second Arena of the Discipline Model and is designed to address inappropriate behavior, and to bring subordinates' behavior back within acceptable boundaries using the least amount of force necessary.
question
Name 8 Administrative tools that can be used to maintain discipline.
answer
1) Feedback (formal and informal) 2) Verbal and written counseling 3) Recommendation to the commander to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF) 4) Recommendation to commander to place a member on the control rosters 5) Administrative demotions (used when one cannot achieve grade appropriate skill level, not fulfilling AFI 36-2618 responsibilities, not being fit) 6) Non-recommendation for reenlistment 7) Referral performance reports 8) Recommendation for administrative discharge/separation
question
Are Administrative tools corrective or punitive?
answer
Administrative tools are corrective in nature, not punitive. This is where you cross the line from correction to punishment, the \"Commanders Only\" zone.
question
Describe Punishment.
answer
Punishment is the third Arena in the Discipline Model. Its purpose is to correct and rehabilitate those who repeatedly or grievously violate standards. Only officers on G-series orders can punish enlisted members and only through Article 15 or courts-martial process.
question
Name 4 things that are commonly thought of as punishments, but are actually Adverse Administrative Actions.
answer
LOCs, LOAs, LORs, and UIFs. These are administrative actions only and NCOs should NEVER refer to them as punishment.
question
Name 8 things that can be the result of Command-level punishment on an individual.
answer
Articles 15's, courts-martial, administrative demotions, less than honorable and dishonorable discharges, extra duties, loss of money, loss of freedom, and reduction in rank.
question
Should punishment recommendations come from a Commander?
answer
No. NCOs should never tell commanders to take whatever action they deem appropriate. NCOs are duty-bound to know subordinates well enough to be able to provide commanders and advise them of the information they need to make fair and equitable punishment decisions.
question
When discussing discipline, what is an LOA?
answer
Line of Acceptability (LOA). Use this LOA when measuring compliance with standards. This \"line\" does not move.
question
What are the 3 parts of the Progressive Discipline Process (PDP)?
answer
Establish standards, Monitor, and apply the PDP.
question
What are the 2 parts of applying the Progressive Discipline Process?
answer
Determine the infraction's distance from the Line of Acceptability, and use the discipline tool with the least force necessary to address the infraction.
question
What is the official Air Force policy for Commanders and supervisors to follow when correcting behavior?
answer
Use the least amount of action necessary to correct behavior and then progress from there.
question
What AFI covers an Unfavorable Information File?
answer
AFI 36-2907.
question
When is 2-way communication appropriate for verbal or written counseling?
answer
Two-way communication is both appropriate and very effective at helping subordinates understand the reasons for and importance of meeting all standards.
question
When is 1-way communication appropriate for verbal or written counseling?
answer
When correcting recurring unacceptable behavior and stopping/correcting violations. One-way communication can be in verbal or written form and typically used to admonish or reprimand.
question
Written administrative actions, counseling, admonition, and reprimand are subject to what?
answer
The rules of access, protection, and disclosure outlined in the Privacy Act of 1974.
question
Counseling can sometimes be used in addition to what?
answer
Consider counseling when an individual receives harsher treatment for misconduct (e.g., Article 15). A supervisor can effectively use formal or informal counseling to inform the person of the reason for the punishment and expected behavior in the future.
question
What are the 3 forms of counseling?
answer
Informal, formal, and referral.
question
When is Informal Counseling a good tool to use?
answer
With minor mis-conduct and first-time offenses.
question
When using Verbal Counseling, what should you do afterward?
answer
It is a good idea to document verbal counseling sessions with a \"Memo for Record (MFR)\" that provides a brief description of matters discussed, then sign and place in the member's Personnel Information File (PIF).
question
What is a good rule of thumb about when to use MFR's?
answer
A good rule of thumb is to write an MFR anytime you have to correct the same subordinate for the same infraction more than once.
question
What 2 important functions do MFR's serve?
answer
As memory joggers to see what actions have been taken in the past, and as a paper trail if further administrative, punitive, or separation actions are needed.
question
When writing an MFR for a verbal counseling, what should it begin with?
answer
\"I verbally counseled...,\" \"I verbally admonished...\" or I verbally reprimanded...\".
question
What is an AF Form 174?
answer
Record of Individual Counseling (RIC).
question
Does an Airman who was counseled have to see and sign an MFR?
answer
No, there is no requirement for the counselee to sign or even see the MFR; however, you should always sign and date it.
question
After verbal counseling, in what order should the next Adverse Administrative Actions take?
answer
Letters of counseling, admonishment, and reprimand, in that order.
question
What document would you use to fill out a Record of Individual Counseling (RIC).
answer
The RIC, AF Form 174, should be filled out IAW AFI 36-2907, Unfavorable Information File.
question
What 3 things should always be included in a member's formal counseling?
answer
The date the individual actually received the letter of administrative action and the specifics of the incident and date of occurrence. The acknowledgement should also include a statement indicating the individual understands his or her right to submit matters for consideration within three duty days. It is important for members to acknowledge this right, which preserves the usefulness of the documentation, should subsequent disciplinary actions become necessary.
question
What should you do if an individual refuses to acknowledge receipt of written counseling?
answer
Annotate above their signature block, \"Member refused to acknowledge.\" initial, and date the entry.
question
What 3 signatures are needed on written counseling?
answer
The person issuing the letter should sign first, as the issuer. The 1st Ind. should have the member sign for receipt of the letter, within three duty days, a second signature (2nd Ind.) by the member stating if they waive the right to respond, and then the final signature is the person issuing the letter.
question
What is the time frame for filing written counseling?
answer
Since individuals have 3 duty days to respond, you must wait the 3 duty days before taking additional actions or forwarding the documentation for filing in the PIF. If members do not respond within three duty days, indicate that on the document and forward for filing in the member's PIF.
question
If a member has an Unfavorable Information File (UIF) or is on a Control Roster, what should be done with their written counseling?
answer
Forward it to the first sergeant for appropriate actions associated with adding documents to one's UIF/Control Roster.
question
What must happen if documents are added to a member's UIF/Control Roster?
answer
Commanders are required to notify members in writing when adding or removing documents to an UIF/Control Roster.
question
What Article 31 requirements must be met during a counseling session?
answer
If the counseling session involves a suspect in a criminal matter, you must advise the service member of his or her rights under Article 31 of the UCMJ before questioning. Failure to do so will prevent use of the individual's statements or admissions in subsequent judicial actions.
question
When is Referral Counseling used?
answer
When a supervisor is aware of a problem a subordinate is experiencing that goes beyond the scope of the subordinate's and the supervisor's abilities.
question
After the Counseling stage has been used, what is the next step in the Progressive Discipline Process?
answer
Admonitions and Reprimands.
question
What is an Admonition?
answer
An admonition (also known as an admonishment), either verbal or written, is more severe than counseling. Use it for infractions serious enough to warrant admonishment but not serious enough to warrant reprimand.
question
When is a Letter of Admonition or a Letter of Reprimand used?
answer
A letter of admonition (LOA) or letter of reprimand (LOR) is appropriate when a letter of counseling has failed to correct a problem or when the misconduct is too serious for mere counseling.
question
What is a Letter of Reprimand used for?
answer
Use an LOR for those acts not severe enough for non judicial punishment, but in situations where verbal or written counseling or admonishment would not sufficiently address the misconduct.
question
What does an LOR indicate, and how is it presented?
answer
An LOR is a one-way communication, and it indicates the highest degree of written censure for the most serious infractions and/or repeat infractions, and is always presented in a formal setting.
question
In order, what are the degrees of written counseling?
answer
Letter of Counseling (LOC), Letter of Admonishment (LOA), and Letter of Reprimand (LOR).
question
What 5 details must all LOC's, LOA's, and LOR's contain?
answer
They each must contain a privacy act statement, must clearly state what the member did or failed to do, where and when the infraction occurred, expected future behavior, and the consequences of future infractions.
question
What 3 pieces of information about the receipt of an LOC, LOA, or LOR must be included?
answer
These letters must include a place for the counselee to acknowledge receipt of the letter, indicate that the counselee has three duty days to respond, and the letters must contain a statement indicating whether the counselee responded.
question
How does a unit Commander use a member's Unfavorable Information File?
answer
The Unfavorable Information File (UIF) provides commanders with an official repository of substantiated derogatory data concerning an Air Force member's personal conduct and duty performance.
question
How long do UIF's exist?
answer
UIFs can exist for only one year or as long as several years depending on the type of documents it contains and when documents were placed in the folder.
question
Describe the Control Roster.
answer
Placement on the Control Roster is the most serious of all administrative actions. It establishes a 6-month observation period for individuals whose duty performance is substandard or who fail to meet or maintain Air Force standards. Members may only remain on the control roster for six consecutive months. Commanders initiate more severe action for members not rehabilitated in this time.
question
What does \"Prudence first, Justice second\" mean?
answer
\"Prudence first, Justice second\" means to always consider the facts and extenuating circumstances surrounding a situation. This will ensure we treat people in a fair and equitable manner while still ensuring the correction/ punishment fits the crime.
question
How should unit members treat someone undergoing punishment?
answer
NCOs must ensure other members of the unit DO NOT treat members undergoing punishment unprofessionally. Because of the focus on rehabilitation, it is unprofessional to continuously remind members of their infraction or offense.
question
Once a punishment period starts, how should an NCO treat that individual?
answer
NCOs should take the high road and consider the first day of a member's punishment as the first day of the member's journey toward full recovery.
question
Who is the ADC?
answer
The Area Defense Council (ADC) is a certified judge advocate performing defense counsel duties. They are assigned outside the local chain of command with the responsibility of vigorously and ethically representing their client.
question
What makes the Correction Arena of the DM actually work?
answer
The Progressive Discipline Process. The key to both is using the least force necessary to change the behavior and then progressing as needed.
question
What is Article 91 of the UCMJ?
answer
One of the three legal sources of your NCO Authority is Article 91 of the UCMJ, \"Insubordinate conduct toward a warrant officer, noncommissioned officer, or petty officer.\" This article ensures others obey NCOs' orders and protects NCOs from assault, insult, or disrespect.
question
What is Article 92 of the UCMJ?
answer
The second source of your legal authority from the UCMJ is Article 92 is entitled, \"Failure to obey an order or regulation.\" This article covers anyone who 1) has a duty to obey an order; 2) has knowledge of the order and 3) violates or fails to obey the lawful order or regulation.
question
Are verbal orders official orders?
answer
An NCO's spoken directions are orders, even if you don't say \"This is a direct order.\"
question
What is Article 7 of the UCMJ?
answer
One more article that will provide you legal authority as an NCO is Article 7, \"Apprehension.\" The UCMJ authorizes you to apprehend individuals in certain situations. If you truly believe a crime is about to happen, try and stop it from happening without placing yourself into jeopardy. Using your rank/authority, order the individual to cease the behavior. If the Airmen disobey your direct order, you have the authority to \"quell quarrels, frays, and disorders among persons subject to [the UCMJ] and to apprehend persons subject to [the UCMJ] who take part therein.
question
To apprehend someone, what must you do?
answer
To apprehend someone, you must verbally inform the person you are apprehending him or her, and clearly inform the individual why you are doing so.
question
What is \"earned authority\"?
answer
While legal authority holds airmen accountable when they fail to meet standards, earned authority encourages airmen to trust you and want to follow you, based on your referent power.
question
In ORDER, what are the 7 Basic Rights of the Accused?
answer
1. presumption of innocence 2. protection from compulsory self-incrimination 3. pretrial investigation 4. representation by counsel 5. fair and impartial trial 6. right of appeal 7. protection from double (former) jeopardy
question
What 4 things should you tell someone before questioning them about a suspected offense?
answer
1) Advising them of their rights (similar to civilian Miranda Warning) 2) Telling them what the offense is 3) Advising them that they DO NOT have to make any statements 4) Advising them that any statements they make, oral or written, may be used as evidence in a court-martial.
question
What is Article 31 of the UCMJ?
answer
Article 31, Rights Advisement, is the military version of the civilian Miranda Warning.
question
What is the Rights Advisement form?
answer
AF IMT 1168, Statement of Suspect/ Witness/Complainant
question
What is Article 32 of the UCMJ?
answer
The Pretrial Investigation is the third basic right and is covered by Article 32 of the UCMJ. Article 32 entitles the accused to full participation during the pre-trial investigation.
question
Describe Representation by Counsel.
answer
The fourth Basic Right of the Accused is for the individual to have Representation by Counsel. Military Counsel is ALWAYS FREE, but the member does have the option to hire a civilian attorney at his or her own expense. If the accused elects to hire a civilian counsel, the military counsel acts as \"associate counsel\" unless excused by the accused.
question
If an accused person gets convicted of a crime, what 2 rights do they still have?
answer
Right of Appeal and protection from Former Jeopardy.
question
Can an Article 15 be appealed?
answer
Yes, but members who accept non-judicial (Article 15) proceedings have the Right to Appeal the punishment only, not the Article 15 itself.
question
Can members submit rebuttal documents against Adverse Administrative Actions?
answer
Yes, members have three duty days to submit rebuttal documents for consideration.
question
If supervisors or Commanders receive rebuttal documents within 3 duty days, what are the 3 actions they can take?
answer
They can let the adverse administrative action stand, reduce the adverse administrative actions, or remove the adverse administrative action altogether.
question
What is meant by Former Jeopardy?
answer
Former Jeopardy is commonly referred to as Double Jeopardy and is covered under the Fifth Amendment and Article 44 of the UCMJ. Both prohibit any person from being tried twice for the same offense; however, constitutional law has been interpreted by the courts to mean that no person can be tried more than once by the same jurisdiction. Therefore, members can be tried twice for the same offense, but only if the trial is by a higher jurisdiction.
question
Does the Air Force normally use the higher jurisdiction option in order to prosecute members?
answer
Although trial and prosecution by higher jurisdiction is possible, such dual prosecutions rarely serve good order and discipline or serve justice; therefore, the Air Force does not pursue court-martial or Article 15 action for the same act or omission for members tried and convicted in state court. Only the Secretary of the Air Force can authorize exceptions to this policy.
question
Do Adverse Administrative actions follow punitive actions imposed by a civilian court against an Air Force member?
answer
Although the Air Force does not pursue judicial or non-judicial actions against members convicted in civilian court, ALL administrative actions remain an option and their use is highly encouraged.
question
What do your personal values and beliefs have to do with the Rights of the Accused?
answer
If your values and beliefs conflict with that of the person accused, you may not be able to handle the situation in an objective manner. You may even advocate for justice without considering prudence. If personal values or beliefs interfere with your ability to protect the Rights of the Accused, you must immediately inform your chain of command.
question
Should treatment of the accused depend on the type of crime they are accused of?
answer
No. Treatment of the Accused should not depend on the nature of the crime; you must presume people are innocent until proven guilty. As an NCO, you must kill rumors to protect the accused and the unit, ensure the accused is treated with respect, and stop conversations about the incident from happening at the unit.
question
What is Adaptability?
answer
Adaptability is the ability to adjust to changed, unexpected, or ambiguous situations by actively seeking information and by demonstrating openness and support of different and innovative change ideas.
question
What are the 3 elements of Adaptability?
answer
Cognitive flexibility, Emotional flexibility, and Dispositional flexibility.
question
Describe Cognitive flexibility.
answer
The ability to use different thinking strategies and mental frameworks.
question
Describe Emotional flexibility.
answer
The ability to vary your approach to dealing with your own emotions and those of others.
question
Describe Dispositional flexibility.
answer
The ability to remain optimistic and at the same time realistic.
question
How many Elements of Adaptability must you have to have an effective level of adaptability?
answer
You must have at least 2 of the 3 elements of adaptability.
question
NCOs with cognitive flexibility do what three things habitually?
answer
1) They scan the environment 2) They develop an understanding, and 3) They create strategies.
question
What does \"scanning the environment\" refer to?
answer
Scanning the environment refers to the ability to identify changes as they occur and to see the changes coming.
question
What does \"developing an understanding\" refer to?
answer
\"Making sense\" out of a situation. This process may include opposing thinking, or contemplating a totally new direction that turns obstacles into opportunities and ideas into innovative practices.
question
What does it mean to \"create strategies\"?
answer
Creating strategies involves developing several possible plans for responding to change. NCOs who possess adaptability develop several strategies because they recognize the impracticality of predicting exactly how any given situation will play out.
question
Name 4 habits of NCO's with Emotional Flexibility.
answer
Understand and manage emotions, connect and address the emotions of others, emotional engagement, and balance emotions and actions.
question
Describe the difference between NCO's who have and do not have emotional flexibility.
answer
Leaders who do not possess emotional flexibility are dismissive of others' concerns and emotions, and shut down such discussions. Leaders who possess emotional flexibility deal effectively with emotions and concerns in order to move the change agenda forward.
question
Should a supervisor allow the expression of negative emotions?
answer
Yes, but should discourage wallowing in those emotions. A more effective message is one that recognizes the emotion while at the same time offers optimism grounded in realism and openness.
question
Dispositional flexibility can be seen in what?
answer
Optimism, support, and self identification of tendencies.
question
A leader who displays dispositional flexibility operates from where?
answer
A place of optimism grounded in realism and openness. They acknowledge bad situations while imaging a better future, at the same time.
question
Name 6 steps to Cognitive Development.
answer
Be curious, Accept the difference, Observe, Have a plan, Be resilient, and Keep learning.
question
Name 3 negative reactions to change.
answer
Grieving, complaining, and resistance.
question
Name 10 steps to Emotional Development.
answer
Support systems, feedback, decisiveness, Avoid bulldozing change, motivation, triage, listen, collaborate, change your approach, and face reality.
question
What does it mean to \"avoid bulldozing change\"?
answer
Effectively manage others' resistance to change by explaining, answering questions, and patiently listening to concerns.
question
Name 9 steps to Dispositional Development.
answer
Be genuine, accept change as positive, adapt your plans, cast a wide net, rehearse, immerse yourself in the new environment, be a mentor or coach, pay attention to life beyond work, and seek feedback.
question
What is the definition of Change Management?
answer
Change Management is a proactively coordinated and structured period of transition from situation A to situation B using a systematic approach that addresses planning for the change; implementing, monitoring, and controlling the change effort; and effecting the change by minimizing resistance through the involvement of key players and stakeholders...resulting in lasting change within an organization
question
What are the 3 Roles of Change Management?
answer
Change Sponsor, Change Agent, and Change Target.
question
Who are Change Sponsors?
answer
Change Sponsors are the people responsible for initiating change within an organization.
question
Who are Change Agents?
answer
Change Agents are responsible for implementation of change in an organization
question
Who are Change Targets?
answer
Change Targets are those individuals or groups who actually undergo the change.
question
What are the 4 stages of Janssen's Model of Change?
answer
Comfort, denial, confusion, and renewal.
question
Briefly describe the 4 stages of Janssen's Model of Change.
answer
Comfort (Stage 1) where things are routine. Denial (Stage 2). When you're forced to confront external change, you go through a state of resistance where you'd just as soon not deal with the new, but stay with the old. Confusion (Stage 3). Where one accepts the change and begins to grapple for ways to proceed from the known to the unknown. Renewal (Stage 4), where you accept the change. You may not like the change, but you've accepted it.
question
What are Mayo's 4 Levels of Change that are present in people?
answer
Knowledge changes, attitudinal changes, individual behavioral changes, and group or organizational behavioral changes.
question
Compare self-imposed change to forced change.
answer
Change that is not of your own choosing is more difficult to deal with. Your reaction to imposed change is typically resistance. You choose to see only the disadvantages while ignoring the advantages.
question
What are the 2 change cycles called?
answer
Directive Change Cycle and the Participative Change Cycle.
question
Define and give 6 examples of Directive Change.
answer
Directive Change is change that's implemented by an authority figure (i.e., commander, superintendent, or supervisor). Examples include Uniform changes, dress and appearance standards, career field reorganizations, tri-care for healthcare, APRs to EPRs, and the Use of seat belts.
question
What is Participative Change?
answer
Participative Change is change that's implemented when new knowledge is made available to the group. It comes from the bottom up and actively seeks input from the change target.
question
Give 6 examples of Participative Change.
answer
New uniform styles, re-accomplishing operating instructions, adjusting shop/office policies, improving communication lines, any process improvement effort, and reorganization.
question
What are the 3 Phases in the Change Process?
answer
Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.
question
What is the purpose of the Unfreezing Phase, and what are the 2 parts of it?
answer
The unfreezing phase is intended to motivate your subordinates and help get them ready for change. It is made up of creating a felt need for the change, and dealing with resistance to the change.
question
What happens during the Changing Phase, and what are the 3 NCO responsibilities during this phase?
answer
The changing phase is the movement from the old way of doing things to the new way of doing business. NCO's monitor the change as it occurs, pay close attention to those most affected by it, and adjust as necessary to keep the change moving forward.
question
What happens during the Refreezing Phase, and is it permanent?
answer
The refreezing phase is the locking in of the new procedures until they're a permanent part of daily operations. It is not permanent because change happens frequently in the military, so a state of \"slushiness\" is sometimes in place in order to make future unfreezing easier.
question
Name 5 Refreezing techniques.
answer
Evidence stream that the change has happened, Institutionalization by making the change part of the organization's norm, New challenges by giving Airmen challenges related to the change, Rationalization by helping people understand why the change happened, and Socializing by making the change part of the culture of the unit.
question
What is the Diffusion of Innovation?
answer
The 5 levels or reactions to change.
question
In order of their acceptance to change, what are the 5 Individual Levels or Reaction to Change?
answer
Innovators, Early adopters, Early majority, Late majority, and Laggards.
question
What are 2 important things to remember about the Early Majority?
answer
They tend to represent mainstream thinking as one of the largest groups, and they tend to get involved only AFTER something has become big or successful.
question
What is Continuous Improvement (CI)?
answer
Continuous Improvement (CI) is the strategic, never-ending, incremental refinement of the way you perform tasks. CI employs a collection of methodologies including Lean, Six Sigma, Theory of Constraints, and Business Process.
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Name 4 reasons why NCO's should actively support continuous improvement?
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It requires Airmen to maintain the highest level of readiness to meet mission requirements, it promotes a culture of Airmen who are capable of mastering multiple tasks, it allows Airmen to take a leadership role by staying involved with fellow Airmen and subordinates on a regular basis, and it forces all Airmen to abide by the Core Values.
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What is AFSO 21, and what does it do?
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Air Force Smart Operations 21 is a continuous improvement CULTURE that focuses on generating efficiencies and improving combat capabilities across the Air Force, and applies to all processes associated with the Air Force mission.
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What is the key to AFSO 21 success?
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A culture where every Airman thinks about improvement and is empowered to communicate with his or her supervisor, commander, or a change agent.
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What are AFSO 21's Five Desired Effects?
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Increase productivity of your people, Increase critical equipment availability rates, Improve response time and agility, Sustain safe and reliable operations, and Improve energy efficiency.
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What are AFSO 21's Three Levels of Priorities?
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1. Just Do It 2. Rapid Improvement Events (RIE) 3. High Value Initiative (HVI)
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What does AFSO 21's \"Just Do It\" priority mean?
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Just do it is a quick fix to a process irritant; a simple answer to an obstacle in an individual process. A \"Just Do It\" typically does not involve formal process reviews, teams, or an improvement event. It is an improvement that, when implemented, yields immediate results.
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What are AFSO 21's \"Rapid Improvement Events\"?
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Rapid Improvement Events usually last a week and apply a series of problem solving steps to determine root causes of problems, eliminate waste, set improvement targets, and establish clear performance measures to reach desired effects.
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What are the 4 components of a successful Rapid Improvement Event?
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Strong leadership buy-in, knowledgeable and open-minded participants, a tightly focused event scope, and an implementation plan and metrics to track results.
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What are AFSO 21's \"High Value Initatives\"?
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High value initiatives produce significant returns against key Air Force challenges. HVIs typically require four to six months in order to successfully define and implement the required process changes.
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What are the 2 Systems of Thinking?
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System 1 - Reactive Thinking and System 2 - Reflective Thinking.
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What is System 1, Reactive Thinking?
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Reactive Thinking (System 1) relies heavily on situational cues, prominent memories, trial and error, and heuristic thinking (discovering solutions for self) to arrive quickly and confidently at judgments, particularly when situations are familiar and immediate action is required. Many of the judgments that you make every day are automatic or reactive, rather than reflective.
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Give 3 examples of System 1, Reactive Thinking.
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Routine duties/paperwork, Assigning tasks, and Driving.
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Name 6 positive impacts that System 1 Reactive Thinking has on NCO effectiveness.
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Decisiveness, Time management, Routine decisions made quickly, Perceived as credible/reliable, Helps balance System 2 thinking (over thinking), and Provides you with intuition or \"gut feeling\"
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Name 8 negative impacts that System 1 Reactive Thinking has on NCO effectiveness.
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Mistakes, Overlook details, Miss improvement opportunities, Perceived as poor judgment/unreliable, Impacts others, Sometimes misinterpret, or estimate/underestimate chances of success, Trusts feelings and hunches, and Judges things credible when they are not.
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What is System 2, Reflective Thinking?
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Reflective Thinking (System 2) is broad and informed problem-solving and deliberate decision making. It is useful for judgments in unfamiliar situations, for processing abstract concepts, and for deliberating when there is time for planning and more comprehensive consideration.
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Is Critical Thinking considered System 1 or System 2 thinking?
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Critical thinking is considered System 2 (Reflective) thinking because it is often focused on resolving the problem at hand and at the same time monitoring and self-correcting the process of the situation or problem.
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Give 4 examples of System 2, Reflective Thinking.
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Complex tasks, New situations, Processing abstract concepts, and When time allows for planning and more comprehensive consideration.
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Name 3 positive impacts that System 2 Reflective Thinking has on NCO effectiveness.
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Improves critical thinking and problem solving skills, Forces consideration of logical arguments, and Allows time to monitor and process your system of thinking.
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Name 2 Negative impacts that System 2 Reflective Thinking has on NCO effectiveness.
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If people take too long, they could appear reluctant to make decisions, and Possibility of \"over thinking\" simple tasks.
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What is System Thinking?
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In essence, system thinking is a discipline of seeing the \"whole\", recognizing patterns and interrelationships, and learning how to structure more effective, efficient decisions.
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What are the 4 distinct processes of the Kepner-Tregoe Problem Solving and Decision Making Process?
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Situation Appraisal, Problem Analysis, Decision Analysis, and Potential Problem Analysis.
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What is the Situation Appraisal process of the KT Problem solving and Decision making Process, and when is it used?
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Situation Appraisal separates, clarifies, and prioritizes concerns. When to use: When confusion is mounting, the correct approach is unclear, or priorities overwhelm plans.
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What is the Problem Analysis process of the KT Problem solving and Decision making Process, and when is it used?
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Problem Analysis identifies the cause of a positive or negative deviation. When to use: Through this analysis, you may find people, machinery, systems, or processes that are not performing as expected. Problem Analysis points to the relevant information and leads the way to the root cause.
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What is the Decision Analysis process of the KT Problem solving and Decision making Process, and when is it used?
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Decision Analysis is used for making a choice by standing back and looking at \"the whole picture\". When to use: When the path ahead is uncertain, when there are too many choices, or the risk of making the wrong choice is high, Decision Analysis clarifies the purpose and balances risks and benefits to arrive at a solid and supported choice.
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What is the Potential Problem Analysis process of the KT Problem solving and Decision making Process, and when is it used?
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Potential Problem Analysis - protects actions or plans. When to use: When a project simply must go well, risk is high, or myriad things could go wrong, a Potential Problem Analysis reveals the driving factors and identifies ways to lower risk.
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What are the 4 components of Decision Analysis.
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Decision Statement, Determine Objectives, Locate Alternatives, and Risk Analysis.
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What are the 2 parts of a Decision Statement?
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The specific objective, and a specific level of success, or resolution, i.e. - \"I want to buy a new care for less than $15,000.\"
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What does the Decision Statement accomplish?
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Determines your objective and Provides a specific level of success or resolution.
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Name 4 ways to find alternative to solving a problem.
answer
Brainstorming with end users, Research, Your own creative thinking, and Subject matter experts.
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Name the 4 steps of Risk Analysis.
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1) Is there anything I overlooked? 2) Are there any potential issues as a result of a Must? 3) Is there a possibility that my choice is invalid (if so, how severe are the implications)? 4) Is there anything that might prevent me from being comfortable with my choice?
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What is the purpose of the OODA Loop?
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The OODA Loop provides NCOs with a systematic and deliberate method for looking at the current situation, determining what problems exists, and then deciding an appropriate and/or effective action.
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What are the 4 steps of the OODA Loop?
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1) Observe - Look at the current situation and form theories about the problem. 2) Orient - Gather data and information to substantiate theories. 3) Decide - Develop solutions to address the problem. 4) Act - Implement and evaluate solutions.
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When would you use the OODA Loop?
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When you encounter a familiar situation, you use System 1 Thinking to quickly run through all four steps of the OODA Loop.
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When would you use Systematic Problem Solving, such as with System 2 Thinking?
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Systematic problem solving helps you focus on fixing big issues that affect your mission, your work center, and your people.
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What is the 8-Step Problem Solving Process?
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The Eight-Step Problem Solving Process is a team-centered, systematic, common-sense problem solving approach aimed at increasing combat capability, making Air Force units more effective and efficient, and enhancing and enabling the Warfighter.
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What are the steps of the 8-Step Problem Solving Process?
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1) Clarify and validate the problem. 2) Breakdown the problem, Review key process indicators, and identify performance gaps 3) Set improvement target 4) Determine root cause 5) Develop countermeasures 6) See countermeasures through 7) Confirm results and process 8) Standardize successful processes
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What is an important general rule to remember about problem solving?
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\"A problem well stated is a problem half solved.\"
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What are 3 aspects of a good Problem Statement?
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It is written down, factual, and agreed to by all parties.
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What 4 questions should be answered by a good Problem Statement?
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What is the problem (2 or 3 words)? Where did the problem happen? When did the problem happen? What is the significance of the problem?
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What are metrics?
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Metrics are the means to measure results that must complement your organization's operations and determine whether you have achieved the desired goal(s)/ objective(s).
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What are the 2 types of Metrics?
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Leading and lagging.
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What is the difference between Leading Metrics and Lagging Metrics?
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Leading metrics (outcome-based) make future predictions about a likely occurrence, thus allowing you to predict or forecast potential problems and neutralize or avoid them. 2. Lagging metrics (results-oriented) track overall performance trends that are collected and reported after-the-fact.
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What are 8 types of Waste?
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Defects, over-production, waiting, nonstandard over-processing, transportation, intellect, motion, and excess inventory.
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What is Nonstandard over-processing?
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Efforts that create no value from the customer's viewpoint.
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When can Intellect be a waste?
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When it results in any failure to fully utilize the time and talents of people.
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What is the purpose of a Performance Gap Analysis?
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Performance Gap Analysis identifies the difference between the current level of performance and the desired level of performance.
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What is Strategic Vision?
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Strategic vision is a view into the future that describes how an organization will strategically perform or conduct business. It implies a gap between the current performance and a better future performance.
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What are Tactical Targets?
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Tactical targets define the performance levels required to make the goal a reality. Targets should be challenging but achievable and have B-SMART characteristics.
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What does B-SMART stand for?
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Balanced, Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Results-oriented, and Timely.
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When problem solving, what is the Root Cause Analysis Tradeoff?
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Root Cause Analysis is a tradeoff between digging as deeply as possible, and finding the deepest point that is still within your sphere of influence.
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Why is the Five-Why method of determining root cause so effective?
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By repeatedly asking the question, 'Why?' we are able to peel away the more obvious layers of an issue (the symptoms), thus revealing the true, root cause.
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Give an example of the Five-Why method.
answer
1. Why did the car break down? Because the battery was dead. 2. Why was the battery dead? Because the alternator belt broke. 3. Why did the alternator belt break? Because the driver could not afford to replace the belt at this time. 4. Why was the driver out of money? Because he/she was fired by employer two weeks ago. 5. Why was the driver fired? Because he/she was deemed unreliable.
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What is Brainstorming?
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A technique designed to stimulate a chain reaction of ideas relating to a problem.
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What are the 4 rules of Brainstorming?
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Withhold judgment, Encourage freewheeling, Aim for quantity - not quality, and Hitchhike (piggyback) ideas.
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What are 4 techniques for conducting a brainstorming session.
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Structured approach, Unstructured approach, Silent approach, and Fish Bone Diagram.
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What is the difference between the structured and unstructured approach to brainstorming?
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Structured approach means soliciting one idea at a time from each person on the team. Participants only comment when it is their turn. If they have no comment, they say, \"Pass.\" The session ends when everyone says, \"Pass.\" Unstructured approach (also called free-form brainstorming) includes team members call out ideas as they come to mind.
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What is the Silent Approach to brainstorming?
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This is used when you want team members to write ideas on small slips of paper. You then collect the papers and jot down the ideas for all to see.
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What is a brainstorming Fish Bone Diagram?
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This cause and effect diagram diagram is used to depict the relationship between specific categories of process inputs and the undesirable output. This technique helps to identify potential causes to a problem.
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What is done during Step 5, Develop Countermeasures?
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Analysis of Alternatives
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What are the 3 things you should do to test possible countermeasures for workability?
answer
Look for effectiveness, feasibility, and impact.
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What is the equation to determine the Impact of countermeasures?
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(Quality of solution) x (Acceptance) = Impact.
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What are the steps of the Six \"S\" system to improve profitability, efficiency, and service?
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1. Sort - clean and organize 2. Straighten - identify, organize, and arrange 3. Shine - routine cleaning and maintenance 4. Standardize - simplify and standardize 5. Sustain - continue training and maintaining standards 6. Safety - priority in all improvement areas
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What is meant by \"Standard Work\"?
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This represents the best known approach to complete a task by ensuring consistency throughout the working process. The same work will take the same amount of resources to achieve the same results every time.
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What is the most common mistake in problem solving?
answer
Incorrect root cause determination is the most common mistake in problem solving.
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What are the 6 Principles of Recognition Efforts?
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1. Timely - Given as soon as possible (immediately if possible) after the desired performance 2. Proportional - Don't overdo for average or mediocre performance 3. Sincere - Honest and open appreciation of effort 4. Specific - Recognize notable efforts in detail 5. Individual - Recognize personal contributions 6. Personal - Recognition should fit the individual's desires
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What is the most commonly skipped and most under completed step of the entire problem solving process?
answer
Standardizing Successful Processes.
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What is needed to standardize the improvements?
answer
1. Changes to: a. Technical orders b. Air Force Instructions c. Other official policies or procedures d. Equipment e. Material f. Vendors or Suppliers 2. Communicate improvements and lessons learned: a. Key Meetings b. Air Force Publications, message traffic, chain of command c. Communities of Practice (Air Force Knowledge Now) 3. What other opportunities (problems) were identified by the problem solving process?
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What should you take into consideration to create effective writing and speaking?
answer
The experience, background, and expectations of your audience.
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What 6 things can effective speaking and writing skills provide?
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1) Clear instructions 2) Clear policies and procedures 3) Help to articulate mission and goals 4) Effective subordinate performance (EPRs, Awards, Decs, Admin Actions, etc.) 5) How others perceive your knowledge and intelligence 6) Positive viewpoints of your work center (unit, organization, service, etc.)
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What are the 4 Basic Communication Process elements?
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Sender, message, receiver, and feedback.
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What is the process of selecting and arranging symbols called?
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Encoding.
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What is the process of deciphering a sender's message called?
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Decoding.
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In Air Force organizations, communication flows in what directions?
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Upward, downward, and laterally.
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What is Upward Communication?
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The flow of communication through the chain of command from the lowest organizational position to the highest. Upward communication is important to the survival of any organization. It provides feedback on the effectiveness of downward communication.
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What is Downward Communication?
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Downward communication normally begins with the organization's upper level of management and filters down through the chain of command. There are many different ways you can communicate information down the chain: memos, letters, meetings, phone calls, etc. The difficulty is in knowing which channel and how much information to use to converse without causing information overload.
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What is Lateral Communication?
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With lateral communication, information across organizational channels. In the Air Force, each organization depends on another to carry out its respective mission. Lateral communication allows for coordination or integration of all diverse functions within and outside an organization.
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What are the 3 broad phases of effective communication?
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Diagnose communication needs, prepare the communication, and deliver the message.
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What are the 5 basics steps for diagnosing the communication needs of any given situation?
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Defining the general purpose, selecting and narrowing the topic, defining the specific objective, analyzing the audience, and defining parameters.
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According to The Tongue and Quill, all Air Force writing or speaking falls under one or a combination of what 4 general purposes?
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To direct, inform, persuade, and inspire.
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What is Directive Communication?
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Directive communication is generally used to pass on information describing actions you expect to be carried out by your audience.
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What is Informative Communication?
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Informative communication passes on information to the audience. The communication is successful if the audience understands the message exactly the way the speaker or writer intended. The emphasis in informative communication is clear, direct communication with accurate and adequate information tailored to the education and skill levels of the audience.
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What is Persuasive Communication?
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Persuasive communication is typically used when you are trying to \"sell\" your audience on a new idea, new policy, new product, or change in current operations. Though emotions are one tool of persuasion, most persuasive communication in the workplace requires convincing evidence put together in a logical way.
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What is the purpose of Inspirational Communication?
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Retirements, promotions, commander's calls, etc., present opportunities where you will want to inspire the audience with your profound insight on someone's career or possibly your philosophy on leadership.
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What is the \"sending audience\" and why is that relevant?
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The sending audience is the person responsible for the message, such as a supervisor, commander, etc. Analyzing your sending audience will help you understand the sender's intentions, expected responses from the receiving audience, communication style, deadlines, etc. Determine what information you might need from your sending audience before you can proceed.
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Why is information about your \"receiving audience\" important?
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So you can tailor your message to best accomplish the specific objective of your message.
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What type of parameters might be defined for a message that you want to send out?
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The amount of product to complete (quantity), the amount of time to prepare the communication (timeliness), the specific form of communication needed (type), the desired level of formality, the tone of the communication, and the amount of time allowed for delivering the message.
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When preparing communication, what sequence of events is recommended by the Tongue and Quill?
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Doing your research first, then gathering support, then organizing your data.
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In what order should you include your research sources?
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Yourself, others who are familiar with your subject, and then reference sources.
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What does it mean to develop support for your message?
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Referring to factual information provides an effective motivator for the listener, especially if they are hostile to the message. Not all people interpret things the same way, so providing different perspectives helps the listener understand the concepts.
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What are the 4 primary purposes for using support material?
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To clarify, amplify, reinforce, or emphasize your ideas or prove your assertions.
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What are the 2 types of support?
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Clarification support and proof support.
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Do you need to acknowledge yourself as a source during communications?
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If all of the information you share is obviously your own knowledge, experience, and research, there is no requirement to formally acknowledge yourself as the source.
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Do you need to acknowledge Common Knowledge as a source during communications?
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No. Some examples of common knowledge include: • There are four seasons in the year. • There 365 days in a year. • The United States entered World War II after the bombing of Pearl Harbor. • The state bird of Georgia is the brown thrasher.
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What is AFH 33-337?
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The Tongue and Quill - guidance on written and spoken communication.
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What is Clarification Support?
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Clarification support presents a clearer message to the audience and gives variety to your communication. When you use clarification support, you're able to provide examples and additional descriptive details and emphasize the ideas.
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Why is Proof Support so important?
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Statistics are considered the most powerful proof support you can use. Always remember to consider how recent the statistics are; old statistics can hurt your credibility.
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When quoting or paraphrasing, do you need to give credit to the original author?
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When quoting or paraphrasing, you must give credit to the original author for his or her work. Otherwise, you could be in danger of plagiarizing.
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What does Integration mean?
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Integration means the source is incorporated into the text, paper, or speech; it allows the reader or listener to know where the information came from simply by reading or listening. Example: Dr. Green said that stress accounts for over 60% of heart attacks.
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What is a Citation?
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Citation is a method used to verify the source's credibility on a book, article, webpage, or other published item.
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What should you do when using material word for word from a source?
answer
Use quotation marks around the entire statement.
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How do you do a verbal citation during spoken projects?
answer
Qualify the information as part of the statement, such as \"Dr. Green, a heart specialist at the Mayo Clinic, says stress accounts for over 60% of all heart attacks.\"\".
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When should you use integration and citation vs integration and qualification?
answer
Always integrate and cite source support in papers and integrate and qualify source support in speeches and briefings.
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Do you have to fully integrate and qualify a source each time you cite them in a speech or a briefing?
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You do not have to fully integrate and qualify the source each time. Instead, once you have qualified the source in your presentation, simply reintroduce the name of the author, book, etc. to communicate the source information.
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What are the 4 sub-steps to organizing communication?
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Selecting a suitable pattern, defining main and support points, constructing an outline, and transitioning between main points.
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Name 6 examples of communication patterns.
answer
Topical, time/chronological, spatial/geographical, reason, problem/solution, and cause/effect.
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When is the Reasoning Pattern used?
answer
When trying to convince someone of facts or a needed course of action.
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When is the Problem/Solution Pattern used?
answer
For any communication that details a process like problem-solving or step-by-step course of action.
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What is the key to selecting which Communication Patterns to use?
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The key to selecting patterns is to choose the one that logically develops your ideas from start to finish, and you can combine patterns as well.
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How can you begin to organize your ideas into main and sub-points?
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Begin by listing all ideas about the subject, combine related ideas into groups, and complete an outline to see where everything fits.
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What is the formula for handling transitions?
answer
Restate, relate, and introduce. Begin your transition by restating the main point or idea you just covered, then describe its relationship to your next main point, and finally introduce the next main point or idea you'll be covering.
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What is the purpose behind a rough draft?
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In the first draft, your main objective is to get your ideas down on paper. Develop your three-part structure containing an introduction, body, and a conclusion.
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Describe the 3 parts of a communications project.
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The introduction must capture your audience's attention, establish rapport, and announce your purpose. The body must be an effective sequence of ideas that flow logically in a series of paragraphs. The conclusion must summarize the main points stated in the body and close smoothly.
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Describe a good Introduction.
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A good introduction includes an Attention Step, Purpose Statement, Motivation/Hook, and Overview. These elements capture the audience's attention and inform them of the purpose of the communication. A good introduction also provides a roadmap so the audience knows where your communication is headed.
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Name 6 attention-getting techniques you can use at the beginning of a speech to get your audience's attention.
answer
• Rhetorical Questions are used to prompt listeners or readers to seek answers in their own minds and to stimulate them to think about the matters that you want them to deal with. • Quotations are also an excellent way to begin a speech or paper as long as it is relevant to what follows. • Jokes must be appropriate for your audience and relevant to what follows. • Startling Statement can be used to jar the audience into paying attention. • Gimmicks can quickly gain the audience's attention. • Common Grounds help audiences pay more attention when they have something in common with the speaker.
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What 3 things should be included in a well-developed purpose statement?
answer
First, it narrows the subject. Second, it makes an assertion or states a precise opinion about the subject. Third, it lets the reader or audience know your reason for the communication—to inform, to persuade or to motivate.
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What are 3 questions you can ask yourself when developing a purpose statement?
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• What is the real reason I am writing this? • What is the main idea I want to convey? • What response do I desire to elicit from the reader?
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What is the Little Brown Handbook?
answer
The Little Brown Handbook is an easy-to-use reference book that will answer your questions about grammar, writing, or research.
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What makes an effective Motivation/Hook?
answer
An effective motivation/hook tells Why the audience needs to listen, How they can use the information, and what makes them Want to listen.
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What makes a good Overview?
answer
A good overview provides a road map for your audience. It gives clues to the structure of the communication (main points), tells the audience where you will begin (main point 1) and end (main point X), and tells how you're going to accomplish your purpose.
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Where should you place the topic sentence in a paragraph?
answer
By placing the topic sentence up front, you save your readers the trouble of sorting through all the details before they decide that the information you included doesn't really apply to them.
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What 4 things should a topic sentence do?
answer
1. express the main ideas of each paragraph; 2. serve as the focal point for supporting details, facts, figures, and examples; 3. prepare readers for supporting information; and 4. normally be the first sentence; it sets the mood and catches the reader's interest.
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What is Unity, and what is a good test to ensure Unity?
answer
Unity means all sentences support the topic sentence, which, in turn, supports the main point. One of the most effective methods for checking unity is called the \"because test.\" Simply place the word \"because\" at the end of each supporting sentence, to see if it supports the topic sentence. Likewise, place \"because\" at the end of the topic sentence to see if it supports your purpose.
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What are External Transitions?
answer
External transitions are sentences used to provide a link between paragraphs within your communication.
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Name the 3 elements of a good conclusion.
answer
Summary, restatement of purpose and/or re-motivation, and closure.
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How is a Conclusion related to an Introduction?
answer
Your introduction and conclusion should balance each other without being identical.
question
Name 2 brainstorming tools.
answer
Mind-mapping and Free writing.
question
Name 5 types of support materials.
answer
Examples, statistics, testimony, comparisons, and explanations.
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Name 2 types of examples.
answer
Real-life examples and brief examples.
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Name 3 types of brief examples.
answer
Citation support, proof support, and narrative.
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What are 2 types of testimony?
answer
Direct quote and paraphrase.
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What should you do if a quote you want to use contains an error?
answer
If your quote contains an error (incorrect date, grammatical error, etc.), put the letters sic in brackets, for example [sic], after the error. This is Latin and means \"thus\" to indicate that you are copying the quote as written although you recognize the error. Example: \"...and George Washington, the vice president [sic] was...\"
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What does it mean to Analyze?
answer
When you Analyze, you are making sure you separate the reading into parts or elements. Ask yourself why you are reading the material and what question are you trying to answer?
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What does it mean to Synthesize?
answer
Synthesize means to put different elements together to form a new whole; to draw conclusions about the relationships and implication.
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What are the 2 types of explanations?
answer
Analysis and description.
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What is the difference between a Description and a Definition?
answer
A Description is similar to a definition but adds more adjectives or adverbs and lets the audience see, hear, or feel the expanded definition.
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Why is it hard to judge the Reliability of a source?
answer
To judge reliability you have to dig deep and you must research the background of the material's author. It is important to determine if the author has sufficient expertise in the area to be considered reliable. You must also determine if the author is biased.
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When using Folk Literature, do you have to cite the source?
answer
No, Folk literature does not require the author to acknowledge the source, but published literature belonging to an author does.
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Do you need to cite common sense observations?
answer
No, it is not necessary to acknowledge commonsense observations. As The Little Brown Handbook states, \"Commonsense observations\" are something most people know, such as \"inflation is most troublesome for people with low and fixed incomes.\"
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What is a Pronoun?
answer
A pronoun is a word used in place of a noun. In the sentence, 'Everyone here edits over 12 pages a day', the word everyone is a pronoun. The word everyone is also an Indefinite Pronoun.
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What do Adverbs do?
answer
Adverbs describe verbs, and they are usually directly before the verb they describe.
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What is a Subject in a sentence?
answer
The subject is that part of the sentence containing all the words identifying the person, place, object, idea, or quality that the rest of the sentence is talking about.
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What is a Predicate?
answer
The predicate consists of words stating what the subject is doing, or what is being done to the subject. All the words after the verb in a sentence (including the verb) make up the predicate
question
What is a trick to remember subject-verb agreement?
answer
If the noun ends with an \"s,\" then the verb will not end with an \"s.\" Likewise, if the noun does not end with an \"s,\" then the verb will end with an \"s.\" The dog plays. The dogs play. Sarah always jumps rope at lunchtime. The girls jump rope at lunchtime.
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What are Clauses?
answer
A clause is a group of words with a subject and a predicate that can function either as a complete sentence or as part of a sentence.
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What is an Independent Clause?
answer
The independent clause is also known as a main clause. It expresses a complete thought and can function either as a separate sentence or as an integral part of a sentence.
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What is a Dependent Clause?
answer
The dependent clause is also known as a subordinate clause. It doesn't make sense if placed alone. This type of clause \"depends\" upon the independent clause for its meaning.
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What are the 2 voices of verbs?
answer
A verb has two voices, active or passive. In the active voice, the subject is performing an action; in the passive voice, the subject is being acted upon.
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What type of voice is preferred in Air Force writing?
answer
Active voice is preferred over passive voice.
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What are Modifiers?
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Modifiers will usually provide an answer to the questions commonly referred to as the six W's or five W's and one H: Who?, What?, Where?, When?, Why?, and How?. In addition, modifiers can clarify additional, frequently asked questions such as, What kind? How many? To what extent? Under what conditions?.
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What are 2 types of modifiers?
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Adjectives and Adverbs.
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Can nouns modify other nouns?
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Yes, A noun may modify another noun. In the following examples, the first noun modifies a second noun: stage play, Christmas dinner, and fire drill.
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What is the difference between open and closed punctuation?
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Open punctuation involves using only what's necessary to prevent misreading. Closed punctuation involves using what the material grammatically requires. The Air Force prefers open punctuation.
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Do you capitalize quotations used in context?
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Always capitalize the first word of a direct quotation because it's the first word of someone's sentence.
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When using quotation marks, where are commas and periods placed vs where colons and semi-colons are placed?
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Commas and periods are placed inside quotation marks while colons and semicolons are placed outside the quotation marks.
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Where are dashes, question marks, and exclamation points placed when using quotations?
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Dashes, question marks, and exclamation points are placed inside quotation marks only if they belong to the quotation. Otherwise, place them outside the quotation marks.
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Name 5 benefits of Reflective Thinking.
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• Enables self-awareness. • Enables personal and professional growth. • Helps you realize why your successes were successful and why your failures occurred. • Helps you reformulate personal goals and beliefs. • Helps you make life choices consistent with your beliefs.
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What are 3 benefits of conducting Air Force Strategic Initiative Briefings?
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Exposes your audience to USAF Strategic Initiatives they might not know about or fully understand; become proficient at conducting research that helps expand the your worldview; and provides you with an opportunity to be prepared to speak publically about a key Air Force topic.
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What is the purpose of Key Air Force Leadership Message Briefings?
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They inform your work center of leadership messages from various levels of command and leaders.
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What is a Personal Air Force Narrative Briefing?
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An Air Force Narrative focuses on you responding to questions from key audiences that want to know what you do for the Air Force, why you joined, why you are still a member, and so forth.
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What is Interpersonal Communication?
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Interpersonal communication is a face-to-face, multidirectional exchange of verbal messages and nonverbal signals between two or more people, for the purpose of gaining a shared meaning.
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What are the 3 key attributes of interpersonal communication?
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Face-to-face, multidirectional, and verbal/nonverbal.
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Other than physical face-to-face conversations, what are 3 other mediums that are considered face-to-face interpersonal communication?
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Telephone, E-mail, and text message conversations.
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What is a Multidirectional Exchange?
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Multidirectional exchange happens when all parties involved have both permission and freedom to express themselves freely and openly about the issue under discussion.
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What carries the greatest amount of the communication burden?
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Nonverbal signals.
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Why are effective self-monitors more effective in cross-cultural situations?
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Individuals who are high self-monitors tend to be more effective in cross-cultural situations because a high self-monitor tends to read the social situation first and then present an appropriate response as opposed to simply presenting a consistent image of self in every situation. A high self-monitor asks, \"Who does this situation want me to be and how can I be that person?\"
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How can you check to make sure your messages were understood as you intended?
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Ask people to tell you what you said in their own words.
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Describe the \"message\" that is sent during interpersonal communications.
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The message focuses on what you say and how you say it. It consists of verbal and nonverbal messages sent back and forth between a sender and receiver.
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What is Paralanguage?
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Paralanguage is the characteristics of the voice - how you say something. Paralanguage is often just as important as, if not more important than, the actual words you speak.
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What is Diction?
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Diction is the combination of articulation (precise use of lips, tongue, and teeth to form sounds), pronunciation, and choice of words.
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What 7 things make up Paralanguage?
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• Rate • Diction • Tone • Rhythm • Fluency • Volume • Quality
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What is Fluency?
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Fluency uses pauses effectively to provide desired flow and effect. Pauses are typically described in 3 dimensions: length (milliseconds to minutes), filled (vocalized) and unfilled (silent), and location (ending of a thought, beginning of a thought, etc.).
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Name 4 unpleasant types of voice qualities.
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Hypernasality (speaking largely through the nose), Denasality (\"head cold\" sound), Hoarseness (laryngitis-like sound), and Huskiness (excessive exhalation of breath when expressing words).
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What are two common communication barriers you should become aware of and practice to correct?
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Competitive interrupting and overusing the content-only response.
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What are back-channeling cues?
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You may lean forward, nod your head, point, pause, or look away in an attempt to direct the conversation. Used to communicate various types of information back to the speaker without your assuming the role of the speaker.
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What is a content-only response?
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A content-only response focuses only on the literal meaning of a message without taking into account the emotions or cultural message behind what is being said.
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What are 2 practical ways to manage content-only responses?
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Recall the power of paralanguage, and be mindful of distinctions in others' behaviors.
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What is the difference between interpreting and translating?
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Interpreting is about representing ideas in understandable terms as opposed to word-by-word translation.
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Other than speech, what is the next most primary source of information in human interaction?
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The face is probably the primary source of information in human interaction. It is the primary site for communication of emotional states, interpersonal attitudes, and feedback to others
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What are the three most critical factors to consider in selecting or preparing the setting for interpersonal communications?
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Location, space, and time.
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Describe the 3 spaces used in interpersonal communication.
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Intimate space is the closest \"bubble\" of space surrounding a person. Entry into this space is acceptable only for the closest friends and intimates. Social and consultative spaces are the spaces in which people feel comfortable conducting routine social interactions with acquaintances as well as strangers, and Public space is the area of space beyond which people will perceive interactions as impersonal and relatively anonymous.
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What 3 things must be considered regarding the time used for interpersonal communications?
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Consideration must be given to the planning needed to prepare for the interactions (pre-session), the time spent actually in the session, and the time following up on proposed actions or promises after the session has closed (post-session).
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Name 6 examples of interpersonal challenges.
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Resistance to change, closed-mindedness, negative nonverbal, mixed messages, personality conflicts, and distractions.
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What is Preventive Feedback?
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Preventive feedback focuses on preventing the development of negative behaviors by letting people know upfront what is expected and the consequences for not meeting work place standards.
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What 3 times are appropriate for Preventive Feedback to be used?
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• Initial/mid-term feedback sessions • To establish goals or adjust existing ones • To reinforce good actions, decisions, and behaviors in order to prompt subordinates to repeat the behavior
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What is Rehabilitative Feedback?
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Rehabilitative feedback is aimed at correcting inappropriate or unacceptable actions, decisions, and behaviors. It is important to use this type of feedback when the quality and quantity of work performance is poor and/or related to personal problems that affect others and mission accomplishment.
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What 4 times are appropriate for Rehabilitative Feedback to be used?
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• Poor quality/quantity of work • Interpersonal problems that affect others and mission accomplishment • Personal problems that affect others or work performance • Individual behaviors that detract from self, unit, and organizational effectiveness
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Describe Counseling.
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Counseling is a type of communication used to empower subordinates to achieve goals. It is more than simply telling subordinates how they are doing, that is feedback. Good counseling focuses on developing subordinates' abilities to achieve individual and unit goals, and when performed correctly, it guides subordinates toward appropriate changes in behavior.
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Name 6 common counseling mistakes.
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• Operating based on personal likes and dislikes. • Using stereotypes, personal biases, and prejudices to counsel. • Making rash judgments. • Loss of emotional control. • Using an inflexible approach. • Improper (or no) follow-up.
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What is the difference between counseling and feedback?
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Counseling is much more than telling a subordinate how they are doing - that is feedback. Performed correctly, counseling guides the subordinate in a change of behavior.
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What are the 3 major categories of counseling?
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Personal situation counseling and Performance/Professional growth counseling.
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What is Personal Situation Counseling?
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Event-oriented, this counseling is reactive in nature, it occurs during or after a situation.
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What is Performance/Professional Growth Counseling?
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Proactive in nature, it occurs in preparation for or anticipation of future events. It includes planning for the accomplishment of individual and professional short- and long-term goals based on an established timeline.
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What is an important thing to use during a counseling session?
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Using an outline to conduct counseling sessions makes them easier to conduct and more productive. A good outline forces you to think, thoroughly and intentionally, about a pending counseling session, and it improves the effectiveness of your counseling.
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Describe the ideal counseling environment.
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Counsel in an environment free from distractions and in a location where all parties can communicate freely. Whenever possible, counsel during the duty day. After-hour sessions are often rushed and usually perceived as unfavorable. The length of the session depends on the complexity of the issue; however, a good rule of thumb is to keep sessions to 60 minutes or less.
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At a minimum, what 2 things should be done at the end of a counseling session?
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Ensure the session results in a plan of action with clear and obtainable goals. Always schedule a follow-up to close the loop.
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What are the 3 main approaches to counseling?
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Directive, non-directive, and combined. The major difference is the degree to which subordinates participate and interact during the counseling session.
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Describe a Directive or Supervisor-centered counseling session.
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In this approach, you do most of the talking and tell the subordinate what needs to be done. You determine the content of and assume the responsibility for the session.
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Describe a Non-directive or Subordinate-centered counseling session.
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In this approach, your primary role will be to help the subordinate by providing the information he or she needs to make an informed choice about how to behave in the future. This approach puts the responsibility squarely on the subordinate, and it encourages maturity and open communication. Many see this as the preferred approach.
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Describe a Combined approach counseling session.
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Both the unit manager and subordinate share the responsibility for the session's success. This combined approach has a lot of positive impact on the relationship by creating trust. In the combined approach, you use portions of the directive and nondirective approaches. The combined approach emphasizes that the subordinate must be responsible for planning and decision making.
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Regardless of which counseling approach is used, what should always be the case?
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The counseling session should always be centered on the subordinate.
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What are 4 good skills to use during a counseling session?
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Active listening, responding (verbal and non-verbal), questioning (open-ended), and silence (to try to get the counselee to open up).
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Briefly describe 6 pre-session counseling activities.
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• Select and narrow the individual topics you intend to address • Clearly define what you hope the session will accomplish for both you and your subordinate(s). • Analyze your audience—in this case, the subordinate; this will be important in formulating your approach and choosing the terms to use (or avoid) in the session. • Determine if there are any limiting factors such as time, place, and legal confidentiality. Check with the JAG or first sergeant if you believe there may be legal ramifications (e.g., violating one's rights). • Do research on the reasons for the session, including looking up regulations, AFI's, interviewing others, etc. • Create an outline for the counseling session.
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Name the 5 steps of properly opening a counseling session.
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1. Properly greet all participants 2. Establish rapport, usually, a simple but sincere greeting and a quick inquiry about their well-being is sufficient. 3. State the purpose for your meeting. 4. Start the session by reviewing the status of any previous plan of action (if applicable). 5. Once you are certain all participants fully understand the purpose, set the proper tone for the rest of the meeting by expressing your desire to help the participants work through the issue(s).
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What are Attending Skills?
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Attending refers to a combination of watching for nonverbal communication with your eyes and listening to words with your ears.
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What are the 3 parts of Attending during a counseling session?
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1. Continually monitor all participants' gestures, body posturing, and other nonverbal cues. 2. Listen closely for verbal messages: specific words spoken, changes in voice, etc. 3. While listening and watching, convey acceptance and receptivity to encourage the participants to continue.
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What are Responding Skills?
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Responding refers to what you say, how you say it, and how you behave in response to the participants' verbal and nonverbal messages. There is a difference between reacting and responding.
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What is the difference between Responding and Reacting?
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Reacting implies you are less in control of your words and behavior than when you make a conscious effort to respond in a manner that facilitates continued communication and fosters a developing relationship.
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What type of questions should you ask during the counseling session?
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Use open-ended questions (especially how and why questions) to get participants to open up and share information with you.
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What is Reflective Listening?
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When you ask a question, listen for the content and the feeling of the answer, and then respond to it by making a statement about what you have heard.
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Give 2 examples of questions to ask when practicing Reflective Listening.
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What I hear you saying is...\" (Statement of content), or \"You seem to be ...\" (statement of feeling).
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What are Resolving Skills, and give 2 important aspects of good resolving skills?
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Resolving refers to your ability to help participants identify and resolve problems and reach goals. 1. All parties should only agree to solutions that are within the ability of both the supervisor and the participants. 2. Solutions should be appropriate to the situation; feasible with respect to money, time, and ability; and comprehensive enough to solve the problem, rather than treat symptoms.
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What should you do if you realize during a counseling session that you do not have the skills, expertise or resources to assist in developing the plan of action, or to help the subordinate achieve the established goals?
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Stop the session and refer the individual(s) to the proper person or agency.
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When should you refer a counselee, rather than continuing the counseling session?
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You should refer situations that are beyond your level of confidence and/or competence (e.g. suicide, sexual assault, substance abuse, etc.), if the supervisor-to-subordinate relationship can't be resolved, if the subordinate refuses to discuss the issue with you, and/or if past efforts to resolve the issue have failed.
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What should you do after referring a counselee to another individual or another agency?
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As an NCO, you still have the responsibility to stay involved. First, you should help your people set up an appointment with the right person or agency. Then, you must monitor the situation to be sure the referral worked and the issue gets resolved.
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What are the 4 things you should do when closing a counseling session?
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1. Summarize the highlights of the session. 2. Restate solutions to reinforce the agreement. 3. Motivate/inspire a positive outcome as you close the session by encouraging participant(s) to take the agreed upon actions. 4. Refrain from introducing new material while closing the session.
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Name 5 must-happen follow-up actions after a counseling session.
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1. Focus on key issues identified in the session. 2. Be appropriate for the person and the situation. 3. Be feasible with regard to the number of actions required as well as time, money, and personal ability. 4. Be placed in supervisor's and participants' schedule. 5. Include the paperwork: Even when participants indicate their desire to resolve the issue, always document the session and the plan of action.
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What can you do to help a counselee prepare for a counseling session?
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Be sure to inform counselees why, where, and when counseling is to take place and what the counselees must do to prepare for the session. Ask counselees to provide pertinent information two or three days before the scheduled session to allow you to review and prepare to discuss it.
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Give 4 examples of formal interpersonal sessions.
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• Counseling sessions • Mentoring sessions • Performance feedback sessions • Training
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Give 5 examples of informal interpersonal sessions.
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• Providing encouragement • Verbal warnings • Giving advice • Feedback from your subordinates • Telling subordinates what to do
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When conducting group interpersonal communications, what is a good practice in the beginning.
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Set ground rules to keep the conversation from getting out of control, i.e. - no interrupting, keep voices within reason, give everyone their chance to speak, etc.
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Give 7 examples of situations when you might use managerial one-on-one communication sessions.
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• Initial, midterm, and follow-up performance feedback sessions • Formal counseling sessions • Mentoring sessions • Training sessions • Day-to-day interactions on the job • Transactions with on- and off-base agencies • Cross-culturally diverse interaction
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Describe what it means to be assertive.
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Being self-assured, confident, and respectful of others characterizes assertiveness. Being assertive is about having self-esteem, accepting your own feelings and opinions as valid, and having the self-confidence to express them.
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What is the Conversational Constraint Theory?
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Conversational Constraint Theory suggests that cultural differences play a role in how you select communication strategies to keep your conversations running smoothly. The theory isolates two main types of conversational constraints: social-relational and task-oriented.
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What is the difference between social-relational and task-oriented communication strategies.
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People who emphasize social-relational concerns want to maintain harmony in their conversations and be on good terms with others—even if it means forgoing the task at hand. On the other hand, those with task-oriented concerns prefer the discussion of tasks in the conversation over the relationship. In other words, being more concerned about either the feelings of those involved, or in accomplishing the tasks at hand.
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What are the 3 climates that help you see how interpersonal communication affects work center climate?
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(1) Dehumanized climate, (2) Over humanized climate (3) Situational climate.
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What is a dehumanized climate?
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A leadership philosophy that neglects human relations in the workplace. The belief is that subordinates do not have the desire to excel, so they avoid making decisions and just allow themselves to be led.
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What are 3 leadership practices in a dehumanized environment?
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• Withholding information • Telling subordinates not only what to do but how to do it, doing all the upward and lateral communication themselves • Talking individually with subordinates (seldom in groups) to keep them competing for his or her favor.
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Describe an overhumanized climate.
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There is undue preoccupation with human relationships. Human relations are more important than organizational objectives, conflicts and tensions should be reduced at all costs, motivation of subordinates should be almost totally intrinsic and self-directed, and participative decision making is always superior to decisions made by one or a few. Individual needs are emphasized over organizational needs.
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Describe a situational climate.
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The leader communicates willingness to establish a situational climate that fits individuals as well as situations, 1. A flexible climate that can adapt to the complex and changing nature of individual and organizational needs is superior to a fixed climate. 2. Individuals are not naturally passive, resistant to organizational needs, or reluctant to assume responsibility. 3. Since individuals are not lazy, you can structure work to bring individual and organizational goals in line with one another.
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What are the 3 components of interpersonal communication?
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Depth, Scope, and Suitability.
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Basic interpersonal skills can be broken down into what 3 categories?
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Pre-session, Session, and Post-session skills.
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