MAN3025 Exam 4 (Ch 9) – Flashcards
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Which of the following is NOT a recommended way to stand out in a new job? A. Come in early and stay late to observe others B. Underpromise C. Be aware of the power of first impressions D. Make it easy for others to give you feedback E. Overdeliver
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B. underpromise
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The activities managers perform to plan for, attract, develop and retain an effective workforce are called A. personnel development. B. contingency planning. C. human resource management. D. job analysis. E. performance appraisal.
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C. human resource management
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The strategic human resource management process includes which of these? A. Plan financial resources needed B. Identify social capital C. Establish the grand strategy D. Investigate competitive job positions E. Correct underperformance
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C. establish the grand strategy
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What is the final step in the strategic human resource management process? A. Plan future human resources needs B. Perform appraisals of people C. Assess success of recruitment process D. Orient, train and develop people E. Recruit and select people
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B. perform appraisals of people
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The economic or productive potential of employee knowledge and actions is called A. human capital. B. labor capital. C. social capital. D. potential capital. E. productivity capital.
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A. human capital
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The economic or productive potential of strong, trusting, and cooperative relationships is called A. relational capital. B. social capital. C. personal capital. D. productivity capital. E. human capital.
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B. social capital
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The purpose of the strategic human resource process is to A. maintain a stable workforce for the minimum expense. B. inform the grand strategy. C. formulate human resource-sensitive strategic plans. D. find the human resources needed in a timely fashion. E. get optimal work performance to help realize company's mission and vision.
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E. get optimal work performance to help realize company's mission and vision
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A specialist at UPS that rides with couriers to learn about delivery times and potential problems is conducting a job A. posting. B. specification. C. analysis. D. description. E. rotation.
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C. analysis
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A ______ describes the minimum qualifications a person must have to perform a job successfully. A. job specification B. realistic job preview C. job description D. job analysis E. performance appraisal
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A. job specification
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Gabriella had been working as an executive assistant to the president for nearly twenty years, so when she retired no one had a good idea of all that her job entailed. Before she left, Laura sat with her for two weeks to observe her duties and ask her the details of all functions. Laura was performing a A. behavioral-description interview. B. performance appraisal. C. informal appraisal. D. job analysis. E. job rotation.
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D. job analysis
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In considering the staffing an organization might need in the future, human resource managers should A. focus efforts on replacing those that retire or resign. B. assume that the organization will not change much. C. assume that there will be radical changes in the supply of labor and the nature of the organization's jobs, so planning here must be deferred. D. understand the organization's vision and strategy and hire to support them. E. hire 10% more people than were needed last year to cover possible growth.
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D. understand the organization's vision and strategy and hire to support them
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A report listing your organization's employees by name, education, training, languages, and other important information is called a(n) A. human resource inventory. B. labor inventory. C. skills inventory. D. personnel inventory. E. employee inventory.
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A. human resource inventory
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Adam, an HR manager, was using reports from the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics and the U.S. Census Bureau for information about his industry's labor pool in his geographic area. Adam is planning to A. perform a job analysis. B. recruit from inside the organization. C. analyze human capital. D. develop an affirmative action program. E. recruit from outside the organization.
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E. recruit from outside the organization
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Passed in 1935, the ______ Act resulted in the National Labor Relations Board. A. Wagner B. Social Security C. Taft-Hartley D. Occupational Safety and Health E. Civil Rights
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A. Wagner
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Which piece of legislation first established the U.S. federal minimum wage? A. Wagner Act B. Social Security Act C. Fair Labor Standards Act D. Occupational Safety and Health Act E. Civil Rights Act
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C. Fair Labor Standards Act
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The ______ Act established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. A. Equal Pay B. Wagner C. Social Security D. Occupational Safety and Health E. Civil Rights
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E. Civil Rights
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Which of the following protects employees who raise accusations of fraud to a federal agency? A. Privacy Act B. Civil Rights Act C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act E. Polygraph Protection Act
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D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
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The law that requires an extension of health insurance benefits after termination is the A. Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act (HIPAA) B. Social Security Act C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) D. Occupational Safety and Health Act E. Civil Rights Act
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C. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA)
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Which of the following requires employers with more than 50 employees to provide health insurance? A. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) B. Occupational Safety and Health Act C. Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act (HIPAA) D. Social Security Act E. Patient Protection & Affordable Care Act
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E. Patient Protection & Affordable Care Act
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Which of the following permits suits against employers for punitive damages in cases of intentional discrimination? A. Civil Rights Act B. Equal Pay Act C. Americans with Disabilities Act D. Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) E. Sarbanes-Oxley Act
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A. Civil Rights Act
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Peter has a degenerative eye disease that is causing him to gradually lose his eyesight. When he asked his employer to purchase him a low vision computer for use at work, he was instead let go. This violates provisions of the A. Civil Rights Act, Title VII. B. Patient Protection & Affordable Care Act. C. Occupational Safety & Health Act (OSHA). D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). E. Privacy Act.
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D. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
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______ occurs when people are hired or promoted—or denied hiring or promotion—for reasons not relevant to the job. A. Affirmative action B. Discrimination C. A hiring quota D. Quid pro quo E. A hostile work environment
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B. Discrimination
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After being referred by a friend, Shabina attended a job interview. She didn't feel it went well, but was surprised when her friend told her the boss didn't like that she had worn her hijab, a traditional headscarf, saying "our customers prefer working with Christians". This is an example of A. affirmative action. B. quid pro quo. C. discrimination. D. hostile work environment. E. favoritism.
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C. discrimination
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Management at Perry Architecture wanted to raise the levels of minorities and women in its ranks. So, the company began an active recruitment program with a local university, and a special career development program as well. Perry has started a(n) ______ plan. A. reverse discrimination B. equality C. civil rights D. preferential treatment E. affirmative action
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E. affirmative action
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Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true? A. A hostile work environment brings with it tangible economic harm. B. The organization cannot be sued for sexual harassment as long as its managers did not know about the situation. C. A person who feels he/she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his/her job is facing a quid pro quo. D. Uninvited hugging or patting someone is not considered sexual harassment. E. Sexual harassment is defined as occurring between members of the opposite sex.
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C. A person who feels he/she must acquiesce to a sexual proposition in order to keep his/her job is facing a quid pro quo.
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Lauren worked in a distribution warehouse for a power tool company. Throughout the building, there were posters and calendars of a sexually explicit nature, and they made Lauren very uncomfortable. This is A. a quid pro quo harassment. B. not of legal concern because none of the offensive materials are directed at Lauren. C. sexual discrimination. D. not of legal concern because Lauren is not suffering any economic injury. E. a hostile work environment.
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E. a hostile work environment.
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The process of locating and attracting qualified applicants for jobs open in the organization is called A. enlisting. B. selection. C. hiring. D. recruiting. E. job posting.
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D. recruiting.
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Placing information about job vacancies and qualifications in places where employees can see them such as on bulletin boards or the company's intranet is called A. job analysis. B. realistic job previewing. C. position advertising. D. recruiting. E. job posting.
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E. job posting.
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Which of the following external recruiting methods works best? A. Private employment agencies B. Employee referrals C. Newspaper ads D. College recruiters E. Unions
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B. Employee referrals
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Which of the following is true of external recruiting, compared to internal recruiting? A. It encourages greater employee loyalty. B. The process is cheaper. C. The pool of talent is more limited. D. It creates the need for multiple recruitments. E. The process takes longer.
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E. The process takes longer.
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When Javier became one of three final candidates for a managerial position with a large medical supply company, the director of the department scheduled a special meeting with him. There, the two talked about the stressful deadlines and heavy travel required of the position, as well as the great compensation and multiple perks. Javier appreciated that the director took time to conduct a A. behavioral-description interview. B. realistic job preview. C. unstructured interview. D. situational interview. E. performance appraisal.
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B. realistic job preview.
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Which of the following statements about background information is FALSE? A. Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees. B. The most prevalent distortion in a resume is lying about education. C. Many employers don't give honest assessments of former employees. D. People sometimes attempt to cover gaps in employment history. E. People lie about their ages in their application information.
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A. Applicants with weak credit scores are more likely to be dishonest employees.
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The type of interview that is most likely to cause managers problems because of its potential for bias and questionable legality is the A. realistic job preview. B. unstructured interview. C. performance interview. D. situational interview. E. behavioral description interview.
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B. unstructured interview.
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Which of the following is a good suggestion for managers when conducting interviews? A. Ask about the candidate's family to show personal interest. B. The resume should be used for selection of interview candidates only; ignore it thereafter. C. Do more than half of the talking to make sure you are sharing enough about the company and its culture. D. Ask questions spontaneously to get the most straightforward answers from the candidate. E. After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications.
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E. After the interview write a short report with a quantitative score of the candidate's qualifications.
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In an interview Gabe asked Danielle to tell him about a time when she was able to overcome some sort of adversity. Gabe is conducting a(n) A. realistic job preview. B. performance interview. C. situational interview. D. behavioral description interview. E. unstructured interview.
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D. behavioral description interview.
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Which of the following is NOT considered, legally, to be an employment test? A. Personality tests B. Interviews C. Job analyses D. Application forms E. Educational requirements
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C. Job analyses
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The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is considered a ______ test. A. ability B. character C. performance D. personality E. reliability
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D. personality
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When Greg interviewed for a position as an entry-level structural engineer, he was asked to solve several engineering problems by hand. This is an example of a(n) A. ability test. B. performance test. C. aptitude test. D. personality test. E. capability test.
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B. performance test.
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The degree to which a test measures the same thing consistently is known as its A. legality. B. reliability. C. validity. D. significance. E. dependability.
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B. reliability.
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______ refers to educating ______ employees in skills needed to do their jobs in the future. A. Training; technical and operational B. Development; technical and operational C. Training; managerial and professional D. Development; managerial and professional E. Orientation; seasoned
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D. Development; managerial and professional
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Tracy, an HR manager, had a meeting with the director of operations to determine if the new training program appears to be effective in improving productivity on the shop floor. Tracy is performing which step of the training process? A. Assessment B. Objectives C. Selection D. Implementation E. Evaluation
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E. Evaluation
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Which of the following training and development methods is most appropriate when people just need to learn facts such as work rules or legal matters? A. Videotapes B. Role plays C. Practice work D. Discussion E. Coaching
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A. Videotapes
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Tomiko, an HR manager, is designing a training class for those working on various cross-functional teams within her company. This class that is aimed at improving group decision making. What method of delivery should she choose? A. Lectures B. Role plays C. Workbooks D. Videotapes E. Computer-aided training
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B. Role plays
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Which of the following is an on-the-job training method? A. Role playing B. Videotapes C. Job rotation D. Classroom programs E. Computer-assisted instruction
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C. Job rotation
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Which of the following is a form of off-the-job training? A. Planned work activities B. Classroom instruction C. Training positions D. Job rotation E. Coaching
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B. Classroom instruction
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Performance appraisal consists of A. managerial and peer feedback. B. setting standards and monitoring performance. C. assessing performance and providing feedback. D. motivating and counseling. E. motivating and monitoring performance.
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C. assessing performance and providing feedback.
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MBO is consistent with a(n) ______ performance appraisal. A. subordinate B. trait C. BARS D. objective E. behavioral
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D. objective
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Sandra is conducting performance appraisals of members of her sales team. The report is quite simple; she compares each person's sales on a quarterly basis to the goal for that quarter. Sandra is using a(n) ______ system of appraisal. A. objective B. behavioral C. trait D. informal E. 360-degree
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A. objective
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The type of performance appraisal that consists of ratings of subjective attributes like attitude or leadership is a(n) ______ appraisal. A. objective B. trait C. behavioral D. self E. 360-degree
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B. trait
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The type of performance appraisal that judges specific, observable aspects of performance like being on time for work is a(n) ______ appraisal A. results B. objective C. trait D. behavioral E. MBO
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D. behavioral
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Viviana is conducting a performance appraisal for Jeff, one of her subordinates. The company's performance appraisal form asks her to rate Jeff's performance on various items like "Turns in reports on time with minimal errors." on a scale from 1 to 5. Viviana's company has a(n) ______ appraisal system. A. results B. objective C. trait D. BARS E. MBO
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D. BARS
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The type of appraisal that is most subject to validity problems due to evaluator bias is the ______ appraisal. A. behavioral B. 360-degree feedback C. objective D. results E. trait
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E. trait
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A feedback technique in which an employee is appraised by her boss, peers, subordinates, and possibly clients is called a A. MBO appraisal. B. reciprocal appraisal. C. BARS appraisal. D. 360-degree appraisal. E. results appraisal.
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D. 360-degree appraisal.
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Using 360-degree feedback appraisals to trigger pay and personnel decisions puts ______ at risk. A. trust B. change C. feedback D. performance E. development
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A. trust
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A performance review system in which all employees within a business unit are ranked against one another is known as a A. standard curve. B. normal distribution. C. performance positioning. D. forced ranking. E. unit grading.
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D. forced ranking.
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) In giving feedback to a subordinate, a manager should A. communicate her general impression of the subordinate. B. avoid giving negative feedback. C. deliver feedback through a one-way communication process. D. save giving feedback for annual or semi-annual formal appraisals. E. keep diaries about specific incidents of the subordinates' performance.
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E. keep diaries about specific incidents of the subordinates' performance.
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Which of the following is the best statement of feedback? A. "You're always doing personal stuff at work." B. "That's the wrong way to print that document." C. "You are really unmotivated at work lately." D. "Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve." E. "You've got to figure out how to improve your relationship with Susie."
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D. "Your last report contained seven errors which I think you could improve."
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The point of the performance appraisal is to A. provide a paper trail of manager-employee interactions. B. stimulate better job performance. C. demonstrate correct methods for work procedures. D. make sure that the subordinate's behavior is tightly controlled. E. avoid legal problems, especially discrimination complaints.
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B. stimulate better job performance.
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Carmela was surprised to learn that at her company not everyone would receive a bonus this year. Instead, management planned to rank all of the employees in her division and award bonuses only to the top 20%. This is an example of a ______ performance review system. A. standard curve B. normal distribution C. functional positioning D. forced ranking E. unit grading
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D. forced ranking
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Which of the following is NOT a type of compensation? A. Wages B. Promotions C. Incentives D. Benefits E. Salaries
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B. Promotions
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Which of the following is an example of an employee benefit? A. Education reimbursements B. Commissions C. Profit-sharing plans D. Bonuses E. Stock options
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A. Education reimbursements
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Executives often negotiate generous severance packages that they receive if the company is taken over by another. These are known as A. quid pro quo. B. golden parachutes. C. maquiladoras. D. BARS. E. 360-degree pay.
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B. golden parachutes.
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a successful incentive pay plan? A. Clear goals B. Regular communication with employees about the incentive plan C. Realistic goals D. Complex and comprehensive rules E. Consistency with the organization's existing goals
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D. Complex and comprehensive rules
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) In managing subordinates under an incentive pay plan, a manager should A. regularly communicate with subordinates about the plan. B. set goals with subordinates, but then leave them alone to pursue those goals. C. change the plan frequently to continue to motivate subordinates. D. set "stretch" goals that are very difficult (perhaps impossible) to achieve. E. design complex plans that cover all contingencies.
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A. regularly communicate with subordinates about the plan.
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In considering a promotion for a subordinate, a manager must ensure fairness and A. openness. B. permanence. C. profitability. D. nondiscrimination. E. safety.
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D. nondiscrimination.
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Which of the following is NOT a principal reason why an employee may be transferred? A. Employee's skills are needed in another part of the organization B. To retain employee interest and motivation by presenting a new challenge C. Employee is suspected of illegal behavior D. Employee has a personal differences with present boss E. To broaden employee experience
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C. Employee is suspected of illegal behavior
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If an employee has been dismissed "for cause" this means that A. he has the right to get his position back in the future. B. he quit the job. C. the company is downsizing, and his job is permanently eliminated. D. he is being laid off. E. he is being fired for his job performance.
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E. he is being fired for his job performance.
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The risk of "wrongful termination" lawsuits is reduced with careful A. coaching. B. discussion at the time of dismissal. C. documentation. D. employee training. E. goal setting.
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C. documentation.
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______ means that anyone can be dismissed at any time for any reason at all—or for no reason. A. Employment at will B. Capricious dismissal C. Quid pro quo D. Non-rational dismissal E. Fair termination
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A. Employment at will
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Quinton has a difficult employee, Melissa, with whom he has been dealing for over a year. Despite repeated attempts to correct her workplace behavior, she has not improved. Which of the following is a good suggestion for handling this case? A. Fire Melissa if her poor performance continues for another year. B. Fire Melissa effective immediately, and have her escorted off the premises. C. Use Melissa's dismissal as an example to others to increase their productivity. D. Dismiss Melissa but offer her assistance in finding another job. E. Don't dismiss Melissa because she needs your sympathy.
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D. Dismiss Melissa but offer her assistance in finding another job.
