question

1) Traditionally, risk has been defined as A) any situation in which the probability of loss is one. B) any situation in which the probability of loss is zero. C) uncertainty concerning the occurrence of loss. D) the probability of a loss occurring.

answer

C

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2) Objective risk is defined as A) the probability of loss. B) the relative variation of actual loss from expected loss. C) uncertainty based on a person?s mental condition or state of mind. D) the cause of loss.

answer

B

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3) An insurance company estimates its objective risk for 10,000 exposures at 10 percent. Assuming the probability of loss remains the same, what would happen to the objective risk if the number of exposures were to increase to 1 million? A) It would decrease to 1 percent B) It would decrease to 5 percent. C) It would remain the same D) It would increase to 20 percent.

answer

A

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4) Uncertainty based on a person?s mental condition or state of mind is known as A) objective risk B) subjective risk. C) objective probability D) subjective probability.

answer

B

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5) The long-run relative frequency of an event based on the assumption of an infinite number of observations with no change in the underlying conditions is called A) objective probability B) objective risk. C) subjective probability D) subjective risk.

answer

A

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6) Which of the following statements about a priori probabilities is correct? A) They are subjective probabilities based on ambiguity in the way probability is perceived. B) They are subjective probabilities that may vary among individuals because of factors such as age, gender, education, and the use of alcohol. C) They are objective probabilities that can be determined by deductive reasoning. D) They are objective probabilities that can be determined by subjective reasoning.

answer

C

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7) An individual?s personal estimate of the chance of loss is A) an objective probability C) a subjective probability B) an objective risk. D) an a priori probability.

answer

C

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8) A peril is A) a moral hazard C) a condition which increases the chance of a loss B) the cause of a loss D) the probability that a loss will occur

answer

B

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9) An earthquake is an example of a A) moral hazard B) peril C) physical hazard D) objective risk

answer

B

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10) Dense fog that increases the chance of an automobile accident is an example of a A) speculative risk B) peril. C) physical hazard D) moral hazard.

answer

C

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11) Faking an accident to collect insurance proceeds is an example of a A) physical hazard B) objective risk C) moral hazard D) morale hazard

answer

C

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12) Indifference to loss because of the existence of insurance is an example of a A) physical hazard B) objective probability C) moral hazard D) morale hazard

answer

D

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13) Some characteristics of the judicial system and regulatory environment increase the frequency and severity of loss. This hazard is called A) moral hazard B) physical hazard C) morale hazard D) legal hazard

answer

D

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14) Taylor Tobacco Company is concerned that the company may be held liable in a court of law and ordered to pay a large damage award. The characteristics of the judicial system that increase the frequency and severity of losses are known as A) moral hazard B) particular risk. C) speculative risk D) legal hazard.

answer

D

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15) A phrase that encompasses all of the major risks faced by a business firm is A) financial risk B) speculative risk C) enterprise risk D) pure risk

answer

C

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16) Which of the following statements about financial risk is (are) true? I. Enterprise risk does not include financial risk. II. Financial risk is easily addressed through the purchase of insurance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

D

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17) All of the following are considered financial risks EXCEPT A) the decline in the value of a bond portfolio because of rising interest rates. B) increased cost of production because of rising commodity prices. C) loss of money because of adverse movements in currency exchange rates. D) loss of profits after a physical damage loss occurs.

answer

D

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18) Katelyn was just named Risk Manager of ABC Company. She has decided to create a risk management program which considers all of the risks faced by ABC-pure, speculative, operational, and strategic-in a single risk management program. Such a program is called a(n) A) financial risk management program B) enterprise risk management program C) fundamental risk management program D) consequential risk management program

answer

B

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19) A pure risk is defined as a situation in which there is A) only the possibility of loss or no loss B) only the possibility of profit C) a possibility of neither profit nor loss D) a possibility of either profit or loss

answer

A

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20) The premature death of an individual is an example of a A) pure risk B) speculative risk. C) fundamental risk D) physical hazard.

answer

A

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21) Which of the following statements about speculative risks is true? A) They are almost always insurable by private insurers B) They are more easily predictable than pure risks C) Their occurrence may benefit society D) They involve only a chance of loss

answer

C

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22) An automobile that is a total loss as a result of a collision is an example of which of the following types of risk? I. Speculative risk II. Fundamental risk A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

D

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23) All of the following are programs to insure fundamental risks EXCEPT A) federally subsidized flood insurance B) auto physical damage insurance. C) Social Security D) unemployment insurance

answer

B

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24) All of the following are examples of personal risks EXCEPT A) poor health B) unemployment. C) premature death D) flood.

answer

D

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25) Which of the following is a reason why premature death may result in economic insecurity? I. Additional expenses associated with death may be incurred. II. The income of the deceased person?s family may be inadequate to meet its basic needs. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

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26) Which of the following are often consequences of long-term disability? I. Continuing medical expenses II. Loss or reduction of employee benefits A) I only B) II only D) neither I nor II C) both I and II

answer

C

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27) All of the following are examples of direct property losses EXCEPT A) the theft of a person?s jewelry. B) the destruction of a firm?s manufacturing plant by an earthquake. C) the cost of renting a substitute vehicle while a collision-damaged car is being repaired. D) the vandalism of a person?s automobile.

answer

C

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28) The extra expense incurred by a business to stay in operation following a fire is an example of a(n) A) fundamental risk B) speculative risk. C) direct loss D) indirect loss.

answer

D

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29) Which of the following statements about liability risks is (are) true? I. Future income and assets can be attached to pay judgments if inadequate insurance is carried. II. There is an upper limit on the amount of loss. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

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30) All of the following are burdens to society because of the presence of risk EXCEPT A) The size of an emergency fund must be increased. B) Individuals may profit from accepting a speculative risk. C) Society is deprived of certain goods and services. D) Mental fear and worry are present.

answer

B

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31) Loss control includes which of the following? I. Loss reduction; II. Loss prevention A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

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32) Following good health habits can be categorized as A) loss prevention B) loss retention. C) noninsurance transfer D) personal insurance.

answer

A

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33) From the insured?s perspective, the use of deductibles in insurance contracts is an example of A) risk transfer B) loss control. C) risk avoidance D) risk retention.

answer

D

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34) The use of fire-resistive materials when constructing a building is an example of A) risk transfer B) loss control. C) risk avoidance D) risk retention.

answer

B

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35) All of the following statements about risk retention are true EXCEPT A) It may be used intentionally if commercial insurance is unavailable. B) It may be used passively because of ignorance. C) Its use is most appropriate for low-frequency, high-severity types of risks. D) Its use results in cost savings if losses are less than the cost of insurance.

answer

C

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36) All of the following are methods of noninsurance transfer EXCEPT A) entering into a hold-harmless agreement B) avoiding dangerous activities C) hedging risk using futures contracts D) incorporating a business

answer

B

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37) Curt borrowed money from a bank to purchase a fishing boat. He purchased property insurance on the boat. Curt had difficulty making loan payments because he did not catch many fish, and fish prices were EG Test Insurance.doc 4 low. Curt intentionally sunk the boat, collected from his insurer, and paid off the loan balance. This scenario illustrates the problem of A) adverse selection B) moral hazard. C) fundamental risk D) morale hazard.

answer

B

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38) Jenna opened a successful restaurant. One night, after the restaurant had closed, a fire started when the electrical system malfunctioned. In addition to the physical damage to the restaurant, Jenna also lost profits that could have been earned while the restaurant was closed for repairs. The lost profits are an example of A) direct loss B) fundamental risk. C) speculative risk D) indirect loss.

answer

D

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39) Brad started a pest control business. To protect his personal assets against liability arising out of the business, Brad incorporated the business. Brad?s use of the corporate form of organization to shield against personal liability claims illustrates A) fundamental risk B) noninsurance transfer. C) risk retention D) objective risk.

answer

B

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40) ABC Insurance Company plans to sell homeowners insurance in five Western states. ABC expects that 8 homeowners out of every 100, on average, will report claims each year. The variation between the rate of loss that ABC expects to occur and the rate of loss that actually does occur is called A) objective probability B) subjective probability C) objective risk D) subjective risk

answer

C

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41) Williams Company installed smoke detectors, a sprinkler system, and fire extinguishers in its new manufacturing facility. These devices are all examples of A) loss control B) noninsurance transfer C) risk avoidance D) risk retention

answer

A

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42) Tyndal Products Company produces cereal. The company has entered into contracts to deliver 500,000 boxes of cereal during the next 18 months. The company is concerned that the prices of two ingredients, corn and wheat, may increase over the next 18 months. The company used grain futures contracts to hedge the price risk associated with these commodities. Tyndal?s use of hedging illustrates which risk management technique? A) noninsurance transfer B) risk avoidance C) risk retention D) risk assumption

answer

A

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43) Cathy?s car hit a patch of ice on the road. The car skidded off the road and hit a tree. The presence of ice on the road is best described as a(n) A) peril B) subjective risk C) physical hazard D) indirect loss

answer

C

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44) Jim and Paula Franklin started a dry cleaning business. The business may be successful or it may fail. The type of risk that is present when either a profit or loss could occur is called A) pure risk B) subjective risk. C) fundamental risk D) speculative risk.

answer

D

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45) Ben is concerned that if he injures someone or damages someone?s property he could be held legally responsible and required to pay damages. This type of risk is called a EG Test Insurance.doc 5 A) speculative risk B) liability risk C) fundamental risk D) property risk

answer

B

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46) MLX Drug Company would like to market a new hypertension drug. While the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) was testing the drug, it discovered that the drug produced a harmful side effect. When MLX learned of the FDA?s test result, MLX abandoned its plan to produce and distribute the drug. MLX?s reaction illustrates A) risk avoidance B) hedging C) risk transfer D) risk retention

answer

A

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47) ABC Health Insurance Company sells health insurance in one state. Recently, that state?s legislature passed a law forbidding health insurers from considering an individual?s health history when selecting applicants to insure. This change in law will increase the possibility of unprofitable results for ABC. This type of hazard is an example of A) physical hazard B) legal hazard C) moral hazard D) morale hazard

answer

B

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48) All of the following are characteristics of the liability risk that most people face EXCEPT A) a lien may be placed on your income and assets to satisfy a legal judgment. B) substantial legal expenses may be incurred defending the claim. C) there is no upper limit on the amount of the loss. D) owning liability insurance eliminates the possibility of being held legally liable.

answer

D

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49) Which of the following statements about chance of loss and risk is (are) true? I. If the chance of loss is identical for two groups, the objective risk must be the same. II. Two individuals may perceive differently the risk inherent in a given activity. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

B

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1) All of the following are characteristics of insurance EXCEPT A) risk avoidance B) pooling of losses C) payment of fortuitous losses D) indemnification

answer

A

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2) Which of the following is implied by the pooling of losses? A) sharing of losses by an entire group B) inability to predict losses with any degree of accuracy C) substitution of actual loss for average loss D) increase of objective risk

answer

A

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3) According to the law of large numbers, what happens as the number of exposure units increases? A) Actual results will increasingly differ from probable results B) Actual results will more closely approach probable results C) Fundamental risk will decrease D) Objective risk will increase

answer

B

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4) According to the law of large numbers, what should happen as an insurer increases the number of units insured? A) The amount the insurer expects to pay in claims should decrease B) Underwriting expenses should decrease C) Actual results will more closely approach expected results D) The insurer?s profitability should become more variable

answer

C

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5) Characteristics of a fortuitous loss include which of the following? I. The loss is certain to occur. II. The loss occurs as a result of chance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

B

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6) From the viewpoint of the insurer, all of the following are characteristics of an insurable risk EXCEPT A) The loss must be accidental B) The loss should be catastrophic C) The premium must be economically feasible D) There must be a large number of exposure units

answer

B

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7) From the standpoint of the insurer, all of the following are characteristics of an insurable risk EXCEPT A) The loss must be unintentional B) The chance of loss must be calculable. C) The loss must be indeterminable D) The loss must be measurable.

answer

C

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8) Why is a large number of exposure units generally required before a pure risk is insurable? A) It prevents the insurer from losing money B) It eliminates intentional losses. C) It minimizes moral hazard D) It enables the insurer to predict losses more accurately.

answer

D

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9) The requirement that losses should be accidental and unintentional in order to be insurable results in which of the following? I. Decrease in moral hazard A) I only C) both I and II II. More accurate prediction of future losses B) II only D) neither I nor II

answer

C

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10) Which of the following is implied by the requirement that a loss should be determinable and measurable to be insurable? I. The loss must be definite as to place. II. The loss must be definite as to amount. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

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11) Methods by which insurers may minimize or avoid catastrophic losses include which of the following? I. The use of reinsurance. A) I only C) both I and II II. Concentrating coverage written in one geographic region B) II only D) neither I nor II

answer

A

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12) Which of the following types of risks best meets the requirements for being insurable by private insurers? A) market risks C) financial risks B) property risks D) political risks

answer

B

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13) Reasons why market, financial, and production risks are often uninsurable include which of the following? I. The potential to produce a catastrophic loss is great. II. The chance of loss cannot be accurately estimated. A) I only C) both I and II B) II only D) neither I nor II

answer

C

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14) Which of the following types of risks is normally uninsurable by private insurers? A) personal risks B) property risks C) liability risks D) market risks

answer

D

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15) Which of the following is a result of adverse selection? A) The insurer?s financial results will be substantially improved. B) Persons most likely to have losses are also most likely to seek insurance at standard rates. C) It is unnecessary for the insurance company to use underwriting. D) Insurance can be written only by the federal government.

answer

B

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16) The tendency for unhealthy people to seek life or health insurance at standard rates is an example of A) moral hazard B) fundamental risk. C) morale hazard D) adverse selection.

answer

D

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17) Which of the following statements regarding insurance and gambling is (are) true? I. Insurance is used to handle existing pure risks, while gambling creates a new speculative risk. II. Insurance usually involves risk avoidance, while gambling typically involves only risk reduction. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

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18) In addition to marketing life insurance, life insurers typically sell which of the following products? I. Retirement annuities II. Disability income insurance A) I only C) both I and II

answer

C

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19) Inland marine insurance provides coverage for A) goods being shipped on land B) premature death of members of the armed forces C) goods being shipped on ocean-going vessels. D) liability exposures of nonprofit organizations. B) II only D) neither I nor II

answer

A

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20) All of the following are classified as casualty insurance EXCEPT A) life insurance B) general liability insurance. C) workers compensation insurance D) burglary and theft insurance.

answer

A

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21) Which of the following is a form of casualty insurance? A) fire insurance C) inland marine insurance B) general liability insurance D) ocean marine insurance

answer

B

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22) The term ?multiple-line insurance? is used to describe a type of insurance that combines which of the following coverages into a single contract? A) workers compensation and health insurance B) life and disability insurance C) property and casualty insurance D) pensions and annuities

answer

C

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23) All of the following are benefits to society that result from insurance EXCEPT A) less worry and fear B) elimination of moral hazard C) indemnification for loss D) loss prevention

answer

B

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24) Which of the following statements about the insurance industry as a source of investment funds is (are) true? I. These funds result in a lower cost of capital than would exist in the absence of insurance. II. These funds tend to promote economic growth and full employment. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

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25) All of the following are social costs associated with insurance EXCEPT A) insurance company operating expenses B) fraudulent claims. C) inflated claims D) increased cost of capital.

answer

D

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26) A group of farmers agreed that if any farmer suffered a property loss, the loss would be spread over the entire group. In this way, each farmer is responsible for the average loss of the group rather than the actual loss that the farmer sustained. Which characteristic of insurance is embodied in this agreement? A) pooling of losses B) fortuitous losses C) risk avoidance D) indemnification

answer

A

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27) XYZ Insurance Company writes coverage for most perils which can damage property. XYZ, however, does not write flood insurance on property located in flood plains. Which requirement of an insurable risk might be violated if XYZ wrote flood insurance on property located in flood plains? A) There must be a large number of similar exposure units. B) The loss should not be catastrophic. C) The chance of loss must be calculable. D) The losses must be determinable and measurable.

answer

B

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28) ABC Appliance offers a warranty requiring an annual fee. The warranty may be purchased at the time of sale or at any time within the first year after the appliance was purchased. The warranty fee after the date of purchase is twice the time-of-purchase fee. When asked why the fee was higher after the date of purchase, ABC?s president said, ?Buying a warranty is voluntary. We?ve noted that those who buy the warranty after the purchase date have a greater need for service.? Charging the same rate or a lower rate after the date of purchase would expose ABC to what problem that also impacts private insurers? A) excessive premiums B) reduced claims C) bad investments D) adverse selection

answer

D

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29) Alpha Insurance Company insures a broad range of risks, including whatever is not covered by fire, marine, and life insurers. Which term best describes the wide range of risks written by Alpha Insurance? A) fidelity insurance C) social insurance B) casualty insurance D) property insurance

answer

B

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30) LMN Insurance markets homeowners insurance. The LMN homeowners policy combines property and casualty insurance in the same contract. Insurance policies combining property and casualty coverage in the same contract are called A) mono-line policies B) multi-year policies C) multiple-line policies D) manuscript policies

answer

C

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31) One branch of government insurance programs has a number of distinguishing characteristics.These programs are compulsory, they are financed by mandatory contributions rather than general tax revenues, and benefits are weighted in favor of low-income groups. These government insurance programs are called A) welfare programs B) social insurance programs. C) casualty insurance programs D) private insurance programs.

answer

B

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32) Gina would like to buy a house. She will pay 10 percent of the cost of the house as a down payment and borrow the other 90 percent from a mortgage lender. The home will serve as collateral for the loan. The lender requires Gina to purchase property insurance on the home so that the collateral supporting the loan will be protected. This scenario illustrates which of the following benefits of insurance to society? A) enhancement of credit B) reduction of fear and worry C) source of investment funds D) incentives for loss prevention

answer

A

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33) ABC Insurance Company calculated the amount that it expected to pay in claims under each policy sold. Rather than selling the insurance for the amount it expected to pay in claims, ABC added an allowance to cover the cost of doing business, including commissions, taxes, and acquisition expenses. This allowance is called a(n) A) policyowner dividend B) premium C) expense loading D) rate credit

answer

C

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34) JKL Insurance Company estimates that 14 out of every 100 homeowners it insures will file a claim each year. Last year, JKL insured 200 homeowners. According to the law of large numbers, what should happen if JKL insures 2,000 homeowners this year? A) The total number of claims filed by JKL policyowners should decrease. B) The total dollar value of claims will decrease. C) The average size of loss will decline in value. D) The actual results will more closely approach the expected results.

answer

D

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35) Apex Insurance Company wrote a large number of property insurance policies in an area where earthquake losses could occur. When the president of Apex was asked if she feared that a severe earthquake might put the company out of business, she responded, ?Not a chance. We transferred most of that risk to other insurance companies.? An arrangement by which an insurer that initially writes insurance transfers to another insurer part or all of the potential losses associated with such insurance is called A) hedging B) speculating C) reinsurance D) loss avoidance

answer

C

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36) Bronson Company manufactures tools that it sells to wholesalers. Bronson is concerned that it may be unable to collect money the company is owed by the wholesalers. To address this risk, Bronson Company could purchase A) a fidelity bond C) allied lines insurance B) general liability insurance D) credit insurance

answer

D

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37) Which of the following statements regarding insurance and hedging is (are) true? I. Insurance involves the transfer of insurable risk while hedging handles risk that is typically uninsurable. II. Both insurance and hedging rely on the law of large numbers to reduce risk. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

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38) Ashley opened an all-you-can-eat buffet restaurant. The cost per-person was based upon what Ashley believed an average restaurant patron would consume. The restaurant began to lose money. Ashley concluded that her patrons had „above average" appetites, and were attracted to her restaurant because they could eat as much as they wanted while being charged an average price. A similar phenomenon exists in insurance markets. This problem is called A) moral hazard B) adverse selection C) morale hazard D) fundamental risk

answer

B

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39) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning private insurance? I. Social insurance programs are private insurance programs. II. Both individuals and businesses purchase private insurance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

B

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1) Which of the following statements about stock insurers is true? A) They issue assessable policies. B) They are not permitted to write property and liability insurance. C) Stockholders bear any losses and share in any profits. D) They are owned by their policyowners.

answer

C

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2) Which of the following statements about mutual insurers is true? A) They are legally organized as partnerships. B) They have a board of directors which is selected by state insurance departments. C) They are owned by their stockholders. D) They may pay dividends to their policyowners.

answer

D

question

3) Why are some mutual insurers referred to as ?assessment mutuals?? A) They charge low premiums because the loss exposures of their insureds are thoroughly assessed before a policy is written. B) They are noted for being very thorough in their assessment of investment opportunities. C) They are assessed for state premium taxes only if they make a profit. D) They can assess policyowners if premiums are insufficient to pay losses and expenses.

answer

D

question

4) The corporate structure of mutual insurers is changing rapidly. All of the following are current trends EXCEPT A) Demutualization of some insurers. B) Sharp increase in the number of mutual insurance companies. C) Increase in company mergers. D) Formation of mutual holding companies.

answer

B

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5) All of the following statements about fraternal insurers are true EXCEPT A) They are a form of mutual insurer. B) They specialize in writing property and liability insurance. C) They enjoy tax advantages because of their nonprofit or charitable status. D) They market their coverage to members of a social organization or religious group.

answer

B

question

6) Which of the following statements about a reciprocal exchange is (are) true? I. It usually specializes in health insurance. II. It is an unincorporated mutual insurance company. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

B

question

7) Which of the following statements about Lloyd?s of London is true? A) Coverage is actually written by syndicates who belong to Lloyd?s of London. B) Its underwriters specialize in writing life and health insurance. C) It operates as an admitted insurer throughout the United States. D) It allows underwriters to write coverage without meeting stringent financial requirements.

answer

A

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8) Temporary evidence of insurance until a policy is actually issued is provided by a(n) A) binder B) brokerage agreement. C) pre-approval form D) endorsement.

answer

A

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9) Which of the following statements about brokers is (are) true? I. They legally represent the insured rather than the insurance company. II. They are prohibited from being licensed as agents. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

question

10) Neil needs insurance that is unavailable in the state where he lives. To obtain insurance from a nonadmitted insurer, Neil should contact a A) surplus lines broker B) nonadmitted agent. C) general agency broker D) direct writer.

answer

A

question

11) All of the following statements about the general agency system used for selling life insurance are true EXCEPT A) A general agent is responsible for hiring, training, and motivating new agents. B) A general agent is a salaried employee whose responsibilities are limited to selling life insurance. C) A general agent may receive an allowance for the expenses of maintaining an agency office. D) A general agent receives a commission based on the amount of business produced.

answer

B

question

12) Which of the following statements about the managerial system of marketing life insurance is (are) true? I. It uses branch offices run by independent agents who represent several companies. II. The branch manager is an employee of the insurer who has the responsibility for hiring and training new agents. A) I only C) both I and II B) II only D) neither I nor II

answer

B

question

13) Advantages of the direct response system for marketing life insurance include which of the following? I. Advertising can be specifically directed to selected markets. II. Complex products can be easily sold. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

question

14) Which of the following statements about the exclusive agency system for marketing property and liability insurance is true? A) Exclusive agents typically have complete ownership of policy expirations. B) A higher commission rate is usually paid on exclusive agents? renewal business than on new business. C) Exclusive agents represent several different insurance companies. D) New exclusive agents usually start as employees and after a training period become independent contractors.

answer

D

question

15) All of the following statements about the independent agency system are true EXCEPT A) Agents are often authorized to adjust small claims. B) Agents are compensated on the basis of commissions. C) The insurer rather than the agent owns the renewal rights to the business. D) The agent is an independent business person who represents several insurers.

answer

C

question

16) The salespersons of a direct writer are considered to be A) independent agents B) independent contractors C) employees D) brokers

answer

C

question

17) Which of the following statements about the sale of property and liability insurance through the direct response system is (are) true? I. Selling expenses are higher because market segmentation tends to be less precise than with other marketing methods. II. It is the most appropriate system for selling complex products. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

D

question

18) Under one life insurance marketing system, an insurer sells its products through established agents who are already engaged in life insurance sales. Under this system, an insurer enters into contracts with successful agents who agree to sell the insurer?s products. This life insurance marketing system is called the A) direct response system B) nonbuilding agency system C) independent agency system D) agency building system

answer

B

question

19) Which of the following is characteristic of a typical mass merchandising plan? A) higher commission scales for agents and higher administrative expenses B) premiums may be paid through payroll deduction C) group rather than individual underwriting D) employer contributions to the cost of coverage

answer

B

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20) David has always been successful in sales. Recently, he was approached by a life insurer interested in hiring him. Initially, David was not interested in the job because he feared it would require a lot of administrative work. ?You?re a super salesperson, David,? he was told, ?We?re hiring you to do one thing and one thing only SELL!? David accepted the position. David is a(n) A) exclusive independent agent B) personal-producing general agent C) branch office agent/manager D) direct writing exclusive agent

answer

B

question

21) Sarah owns a property and liability insurance agency. She is authorized to represent several insurance companies and is compensated by commissions. Sarah?s agency owns the expiration rights to the business she sells. Sarah is a(n) A) independent agent B) exclusive agent C) direct writer D) insurance broker

answer

A

question

22) The leaders of a religious group decided to start a life insurance organization to insure members of the religious group. The insurer will operate as a nonprofit organization, thus receiving favorable tax treatment. The insurer formed will be a A) health maintenance organization B) stock insurer. C) fraternal insurer D) reciprocal exchange.

answer

C

question

23) Scott works in property and liability insurance marketing. He legally represents insurance purchasers, rather than insurance companies. Scott is paid a commission on the insurance placed with insurers. Scott is a(n) A) exclusive agent B) direct writer. C) branch manager D) insurance broker.

answer

D

question

24) ABC Insurance has always used the exclusive agency system to market coverages. ABC, however, cannot afford full-time agents in sparsely-populated areas. To reach customers in these areas, ABC enters into agreements with local independent agents. Using more than one marketing system is called employing a A) direct response system B) general agency system. C) multiple distribution system D) branch office system.

answer

C

question

25) Cathy just started a job with XYZ Manufacturing Company. She attended an orientation and was given a packet providing information about the various employee benefits XYZ offers. One item in the packet was a booklet and application form from an auto insurer. The insurer offers lower premiums to XYZ employees. The insurer?s plan for selling individually-underwritten auto insurance to employees of XYZ Manufacturing Company is called A) direct response B) mass merchandising. C) personal selling D) multiple marketing.

answer

B

question

26) Brian is a life insurance agent. He is licensed to represent one company and has been assigned a territory. In addition to marketing life insurance products in the territory, Brian is also responsible for recruiting, training, and motivating new agents for the company in his territory. Brian is a(n) A) exclusive agent B) general agent. C) insurance broker D) personal-producing general agent.

answer

B

question

27) Big Mutual Insurance Company would like to take advantage of financial services deregulation by acquiring a bank and a stock brokerage firm. Big Mutual, however, would have trouble raising the funds needed to make these acquisitions under the mutual form of organization. Big Mutual is planning to switch from the mutual form of organization to the stock form, and to issue shares of common stock to raise capital. This change in organizational structure is called A) mutualization B) retrocession. C) reinsurance D) demutualization.

answer

D

question

28) Jim would like to start a business raising thoroughbred racehorses. The business would be the first of its kind in the state where he lives. Obtaining insurance on the horses is a key concern, and he was dismayed to learn that none of the insurers authorized to operate in his state offer this specialty insurance. What is the name of the intermediary which Jack can use to place this coverage with an insurer not admitted to his state? A) alien insurer B) general agent C) surplus lines broker D) direct writer

answer

C

question

29) Some investors decided to start an insurance company. Each investor contributed $50,000 to raise the capital required to charter a new company. Each investor received an ownership interest in the company. The company will raise additional capital by selling ownership rights to other investors. Under this type of organization, the customer and owner functions are separate. This type of insurer is called a A) stock company B) reciprocal exchange C) fraternal company D) mutual company

answer

A

question

30) RST Insurance is an interesting company. It doesn?t have any agents. Instead, the company sells insurance through radio ads, telemarketers, and newspaper and magazine inserts. This distribution method is called A) reciprocal exchange B) direct response system C) mass merchandising D) multiple distribution system

answer

B

question

31) One type of insurer is a community-oriented health insurer. In most states, this insurer is set-up as a non-profit organization that provides coverage for hospital services, physicians? and surgeons? fees, and other medical services. This type of insurer is called a A) stock insurer B) captive insurer. C) health maintenance organization (HMO) D) Blue Cross/Blue Shield Plan.

answer

D

question

32) Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the financial services industry? I. The number of firms operating in the industry continues to increase at a high rate. II. The Financial Modernization Act of 1999 permits financial institutions to compete in other financial markets outside their core business area. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

B

question

33) The financial services field is currently experiencing consolidation and convergence. If both of these trends continue, in the future we should observe A) fewer financial institutions offering a narrower range of financial services products. B) fewer financial institutions offering a wider range of financial services products. C) more financial institutions offering a narrower range of financial services products. D) more financial institutions offering a wider range of financial services products.

answer

B

question

34) All of the following are reasons why mutual insurance companies convert to stock insurance companies EXCEPT A) Stock companies can offer stock options to attract and retain key personnel. B) Stock companies can raise new capital more easily. C) Stock companies are exempt from state insurance regulation. D) Stock companies offer greater flexibility to expand through acquisitions.

answer

C

question

35) The demutualization process is expensive and time consuming. As an alternative to demutualization, many states have enacted legislation allowing a mutual company to reorganize as a company that directly or indirectly controls another insurer. The other insurer is a stock company that can issue additional shares of stock to raise capital. The reorganized company is called a A) captive insurance company B) conglomerate C) mutual holding company D) stock holding company

answer

C

question

36) R.I.P. Company manufactures herbicide and pesticide. The company had difficulty finding affordable liability insurance. R.I.P. established its own insurance company based in Bermuda for the purpose of insuring R.I.P.?s loss exposures. The company that R.I.P. formed is called a A) captive insurer B) reciprocal insurer C) fraternal insurer D) holding company

answer

A

question

37) Which of the following statements is (are) true about savings bank life insurance (SBLI)? I. SBLI is available in every state in the United States. II. The goal of SBLI is to provide low-cost life insurance to consumers. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

B

question

1) The function of an actuary is to A) adjust claims B) determine premium rates C) negotiate reinsurance treaties D) invest insurance company assets

answer

B

question

2) Insurers obtain data which can be used to determine rates from A) pricing pools B) insurance advisory organizations C) banks D) reciprocal exchanges.

answer

B

question

3) Which of the following statements about underwriting policy is (are) true? I. A company must establish an underwriting policy consistent with company objectives. II. Underwriting policy is usually subjective and allows the underwriter considerable flexibility with respect to lines written and forms used. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

question

4) All of the following statements about underwriting standards are true EXCEPT A) The purpose of underwriting standards is to reduce adverse selection against the insurer. B) The underwriter should select only those insureds who are expected to have no losses. C) The underwriter should select a book of business so that there is a proper balance within each rate classification. D) Equitable rates should be charged so that each group of policyowners pays its own way in terms of losses and expenses.

answer

B

question

5) The underwriting process begins with the A) agent B) desk underwriter. C) inspection report D) acceptance of the application.

answer

A

question

6) Common sources of underwriting information for life and health insurance include all of the following EXCEPT A) the application B) a physical examination. C) the Medical Information Bureau D) the applicant?s income tax return.

answer

D

question

7) If an underwriter suspects moral hazard, the underwriter may ask an outside firm to investigate the applicant and make a detailed report to the insurer. This report is called a(n) A) inspection report B) application. C) M.I.B. report D) agent?s report.

answer

A

question

8) One source of life and health insurance underwriting information is an organization that life and health insurance companies can join. As a member, life and health insurance companies report health impairments of applicants, and this information is shared with member companies. Although the information is shared, the underwriting decision of the member company is not disclosed. What is this organization called? A) Fair Isaac Corporation (FICO) B) Medical Information Bureau (MIB) C) National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) D) National Association of Mutual Insurance Companies (NAMIC)

answer

B

question

9) Factors that may result in more restrictive underwriting decisions include which of the following? I. Inadequate rates; II. The unavailability of reinsurance at favorable terms. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

question

10) All of the following are functions of the marketing department of an insurance company EXCEPT A) to advertise the insurer?s products B) to develop new products. C) to identify production goals D) to make final underwriting decisions.

answer

D

question

11) Which of the following statements about claim settlement is (are) true? I. The fair payment of claims requires an insurer to adopt a very liberal claims policy. II. To prevent lawsuits, an insurer should provide no personal assistance to a claimant other than that which is required by contractual obligations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

D

question

12) All of the following statements about claims settlement are true EXCEPT A) Agents may have the authority to settle claims. B) Independent adjustors may be used in a geographic area where the volume of business is too low for an insurer to have its own adjustors. C) Company adjustors are salaried employees who work for one insurer. D) A public adjustor is usually paid a flat fee that is independent of the size of a claim.

answer

D

question

13) Which of the following statements about adjustment bureaus is (are) true? I. They are frequently used to settle claims when a large number of losses occur in a given geographic location as a result of a catastrophic event. II. Their major advantage is low cost because of the use of part-time adjustors. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

question

14) All of the following statements about the settlement of a claim are true EXCEPT A) The insurance policy usually has a provision specifying how a notice of loss is to be made to the insurance company. B) One step in the investigation of a claim is to determine whether the policy was in force when the loss occurred. C) The adjustor must file the proof of loss, which is a sworn statement supporting his or her decision regarding a claim. D) A policy provision may determine how disputes over claim settlements are resolved.

answer

C

question

15) All of the following statements about reinsurance are true EXCEPT A) A reinsurer may also purchase reinsurance. B) Reinsurance is an arrangement by which the primary insurer that initially writes the insurance transfers to another insurer part or all of the potential losses associated with such insurance. C) The insurer transferring business to a reinsurer is called the ceding insurer. D) The amount of insurance transferred to a reinsurer is called the net retention.

answer

D

question

16) All of the following are reasons for a primary insurer to use reinsurance EXCEPT A) to increase the unearned premium reserve B) to increase underwriting capacity. C) to protect against catastrophic losses D) to stabilize profits.

answer

A

question

17) The unearned premium reserve of an insurer is A) an asset representing the investments made with premium income. B) a liability representing the unearned portion of gross premiums on outstanding policies. C) a liability representing claims that have been filed, but not yet paid. D) the portion of the insurer?s net worth belonging to policyowners.

answer

B

question

18) A reinsurance contract that is entered into on a case-by-case basis after an application for insurance is received by a primary insurer is called A) a reinsurance pool B) automatic treaty reinsurance. C) retrocession D) facultative reinsurance.

answer

D

question

19) Which of the following statements about treaty reinsurance is true? A) The reinsurer is required to underwrite each individual applicant that is reinsured. B) The reinsurer must accept all business that falls within the scope of the treaty. C) The ceding insurer can choose which business falling within the scope of the treaty it wishes to reinsure. D) It protects the reinsurer by requiring the ceding insurer to charge adequate premiums.

answer

B

question

20) Which of the following statements about treaty reinsurance is true? A) Under a surplus-share treaty, 100 percent of the ceding insurer?s liability must be transferred to the reinsurer. B) Using a quota-share treaty increases the ceding insurer?s unearned premium reserve. C) Under an excess-of-loss treaty, the reinsurer pays losses in full only if they are less than the ceding insurer?s retention limit. D) Using a reinsurance pool provides financial capacity to write large amounts of insurance.

answer

D

question

21) Delta Insurance Company has a surplus-share treaty with Eversafe Reinsurance. Delta has a retention limit of $200,000, and nine lines of insurance are ceded to Eversafe. How much will Eversafe pay if a $1,600,000 building insured with Delta suffers an $800,000 loss? A) $600,000 B) $700,000 C) $720,000 D) $800,000

answer

B

question

22) Huge Insurance Company is a property insurer that is interested in protecting itself against cumulative losses that exceed $200 million during the year. This protection can best be obtained using A) a quota-share reinsurance treaty B) a surplus-share reinsurance treaty. C) an excess-of-loss reinsurance treaty D) a reinsuance pool.

answer

C

question

23) All of the following statements about life insurance company investments are true EXCEPT A) Funds for these investments are derived primarily from premium income, investment earnings, and maturing investments that must be reinvested. B) Income from these investments reduces the cost of insurance. C) A primary objective in making these investments is safety of principal. D) The majority of these investments are short-term investments.

answer

D

question

24) Which of the following statements about the investments of property and liability insurers is (are) true? I. Income from investments is important in offsetting any unfavorable underwriting experience. II. Because premium income is continually being received, the investment objective of liquidity is of little importance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

question

25) Functions of an insurance company?s legal department include which of the following? I. Lobbying for legislation favorable to the insurance industry. II. Drafting policy provisions. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

question

26) Jan is employed by an insurance company. She reviews applications to determine whether her company should insure the applicant. If insurable, Jan assigns the applicant to a rating category based on the applicant?s degree of risk. Jan is a(n) A) underwriter B) actuary. C) loss control engineer D) claims adjustor.

answer

A

question

27) Mark has been an underwriter for 20 years. An application he recently reviewed looked odd to him. The building value in the application seemed far too high, and Mark suspected the applicant might be planning to destroy the property after it is insured. Mark contacted an outside firm and hired someone to investigate the applicant and to prepare a report about the applicant. This report is called a(n) A) agent?s report C) physical inspection B) binder. D) inspection report.

answer

D

question

28) Antonio is a claims adjustor for LMN Insurance Company. After the insurer is notified that there has been a loss, Antonio meets with the insured. The first step in the claims process that Antonio should follow is to A) determine the amount of the loss. B) attempt to deny the claim regardless of whether he believes the claim is covered. C) verify that a covered loss has occurred. D) delay paying the claim if the claim is covered.

answer

C

question

29) Beverly lives in a sparsely populated area in northern Idaho. Some insurance companies marketing coverage in northern Idaho cannot afford to have full-time adjustors there. Several insurers hire Beverly to adjust claims for their insureds. Beverly charges the insurers a fee for each claim that she settles. Beverly is a(n) A) public adjustor B) adjustment bureau. C) independent adjustor D) company adjustor.

answer

C

question

30) New Liability Insurance Company began operations last year and has been very successful. The company?s ability to grow is being restricted by an accounting rule that requires insurers to realize acquisition expenses immediately, while not realizing premium income until some time has passed. Reinsurance is often used in such cases for which of the following purposes? A) to stabilize profitability B) to reduce the unearned premium reserve C) to provide protection against catastrophic losses D) to withdraw from a line of business or territory

answer

B

question

31) Liability Insurance Company (LIC) was approached by a regional airline to see if LIC would write the airline?s liability coverage. LIC agreed to write the coverage and entered into an agreement with a reinsurer. Under the agreement, LIC retains 25 percent of the premium and pays 25 percent of the losses, and the reinsurer receives 75 percent of the premium and pays 75 percent of the losses. This reinsurance arrangement is best described as A) excess-of-loss reinsurance B) surplus-share reinsurance. C) quota-share reinsurance D) pool reinsurance.

answer

C

question

32) Ross studied engineering in college. After graduation, he went to work for an insurance company. Ross visits properties insured by his company. He conducts inspections and makes recommendations about alarm systems, sprinkler systems, and building construction. In what functional area does Ross work? A) underwriting B) loss control C) electronic data processing D) claims adjusting

answer

B

question

33) Amy heads the legal staff of a large property and liability insurance company. Amy?s staff is likely involved in all of the following activities EXCEPT A) reviewing policy wording before policies are adopted and marketed. B) recouping subrogation recoveries from third parties who injured individuals insured by Amy?s company. C) providing legal advice about marketing, taxation, and insurance law. D) reviewing applications to determine if the company should insure the risk.

answer

D

question

34) Sue double-majored in mathematics and statistics in college. She also enrolled in a number of finance courses. After graduation, she was hired by Econodeath Insurance Company. Her job is to calculate premium rates for life insurance coverages. Sue is a(n) A) actuary B) underwriter. C) claims adjustor D) producer.

answer

A

question

35) Easy Pay Insurance Company may require insureds who suffer a loss to submit a sworn statement to substantiate that a loss occurred and to describe the conditions under which the loss occurred. This sworn statement is called a A) binder B) proof of loss. C) inspection report D) notice of loss.

answer

B

question

36) All of the following are methods that a property and liability insurance company can use to protect against catastrophic losses EXCEPT A) sale of catastrophe bonds B) purchase of common stock. C) purchase of excess-of-loss reinsurance D) quota share reinsurance with a low retention percentage.

answer

B

question

37) Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to catastrophe bonds? I. The bonds are issued by the U.S. Government. II. The bonds pay relatively high interest rates. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

B

question

38) Underwriters try to have a proper balance within each risk classification. Much of personal lines underwriting today involves all exposures units with similar loss-producing characteristics being placed in the same category and charged the same rate. This type of underwriting is known as A) class underwriting B) merit underwriting C) line underwriting D) field underwriting

answer

A

question

39) Pac-Coast Insurance (PCI) concentrates its underwriting activities in California. The company is concerned that if a catastrophic earthquake occurs, it might threaten the solvency of the company. To address this risk, PCI issued some debt securities. If a catastrophic earthquake occurs, PCI does not have to repay the borrowed funds or pay interest. The securities PCI issued are called A) catastrophe futures contracts B) interest rate swaps C) catastrophe bonds D) contingent options contracts

answer

C

question

40) The process of transferring risk to the capital markets through the use of financial instruments such as bonds, futures contracts, and options is knows as A) consolidation of risk B) avoidance of risk. C) securitization of risk D) compartmentalization of risk.

answer

C

question

41) Which of the following statements is (are) true about life insurance company investments? I. The majority of life insurance company general account assets are invested in bonds. II. The majority of life insurance company separate account assets are invested in stocks. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

question

42) One method through which reinsurance is provided is through an organization of insurers that underwrites insurance on a joint basis. Through the organization, financial capacity is available for large commercial risks. This reinsurance arrangement is a(n) A) quota-share treaty C) excess-of-loss treaty B) surplus-share treaty. D) reinsurance pool.

answer

D

question

43) Most insurance companies require their marketing representatives to submit an evaluation of the prospective insured. This important source of underwriting information is called the A) application B) agent?s report. C) inspection report D) physical inspection.

answer

B

question

1) LMN Mutual Insurance Company has total liabilities of $300 million. The company has total assets of $380 million. What is LMN?s policyholders? surplus? A) $680 million B) $340 million C) $80 million D) -$80 million

answer

C

question

2) All of the following would appear in the asset section of an insurance company?s balance sheet EXCEPT A) loss reserves B) bonds. C) common stock D) real estate.

answer

A

question

3) Under one method of estimating a loss reserve, the reserve is based on life expectancy, duration of disability, remarriage of the beneficiary, and similar factors. This method of estimating loss reserves is called the A) judgment method B) tabular value method. C) loss ratio method D) average value method.

answer

B

question

4) Reasons for the unearned premium reserve include which of the following? I. To pay losses that occur during the policy period. II. To pay premium refunds to policyholders in the event of cancellation. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

question

5) A property and casualty insurer?s loss reserve includes estimates for all of the following EXCEPT A) claims anticipated but not yet incurred. B) claims reported and adjusted but not yet paid. C) claims reported and filed but not yet adjusted. D) claims incurred but not yet reported to the company.

answer

A

question

6) Which of the following statements about methods for estimating loss reserves for property and casualty insurers is (are) true? I. The judgment method involves the use of a statutory formula to estimate the loss reserve. II. The average value method is used when the number of claims is large and the claims are settled quickly. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

B

question

7) One item that appears on an insurance company?s financial statements is a liability that represents an estimate of the claims reported and adjusted but not yet paid, claims reported and filed but not yet adjusted, and claims incurred but not yet reported to the company. This liability is called the insurer?s A) net income B) loss reserve. C) admitted assets D) unearned premium reserve.

answer

B

question

8) A loss reserve established for each individual claim when it is reported to a property and casualty insurance company is call a(n) A) admitted asset C) unearned premium reserve B) incurrred-but-not-reported (IBNR) reserve. D) case reserve.

answer

D

question

9) All of the following items would appear in the income section of an insurance company?s income and expense statement EXCEPT A) gain on sale of securities B) common stock dividends. C) commissions D) premiums.

answer

C

question

10) JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000; Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000; Underwriting Expenses $30,000,000; Premiums Earned $100,000,000; Incurred Losses $70,000,000. What was JKL?s loss ratio last year? A) 70.0 percent B) 75.0 percent C) 83.3 percent D) 90.0 percent

answer

B

question

11) JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000; Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000; Underwriting Expenses $30,000,000; Premiums Earned $100,000,000; Incurred Losses $70,000,000. What was JKL?s expense ratio last year? A) 5.0 percent B) 30.0 percent C) 33.3 percent D) 50.0 percent

answer

C

question

12) JKL Insurance Company reported the following information on its accounting statements last year: Premiums Written $90,000,000; Loss Adjustment Expenses $5,000,000; Underwriting Expenses $30,000,000; Premiums Earned $100,000,000; Incurred Losses $70,000,000. What was JKL?s combined ratio last year? A) 100.0 B) 103.3 C) 105.0 D) 108.3

answer

D

question

13) Which of the following statements about property and casualty insurance company operating results is (are) true? I. An insurance company can have a combined ratio greater than 1 (or 100 percent) and still be required to pay income taxes. II. By all measures, the property and casualty insurance industry is highly profitable when compared to other industries. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I not II

answer

A

question

14) Life insurance policyowners may borrow the cash value from their life insurance policies. Where are life insurance policy loans shown on a life insurance company?s financial statements? A) as an asset B) as a liability C) as income D) as an expense

answer

A

question

15) MedProf Insurance markets medical malpractice insurance. The company?s combined ratio in 2006 was 95.4. Its expense ratio was 25.4. What was the company?s loss ratio? A) 60.4 B) 70.0 C) 88.2 D) 120.8

answer

B

question

16) To protect policyholders, state laws place limitations on a life insurance company?s investments. The assets backing interest-sensitive products, such as variable life insurance and variable annuities, are not subject to these restrictions. Assets backing interest-sensitive products are placed in a special account called the life insurer?s A) policy reserve account B) asset valuation reserve account C) separate account D) policyholders surplus

answer

C

question

18) All of the following are expenses of life insurance companies EXCEPT A) matured endowments B) surrender benefits. C) disability income payments D) realized capital gains.

answer

D

question

19) All of the following statements about business objectives in designing a rating system are true EXCEPT A) The rating system should encourage loss control activities. B) The rating system should be independent of long-run changes in economic conditions. C) The rating system should be simple to understand. D) The rating system should be stable over short periods so that consumer satisfaction can be maintained.

answer

B

question

20) All of the following statements about regulatory objectives of insurance rate making are true EXCEPT A) One purpose of rate adequacy is to maintain the solvency of insurers. B) Rates unfairly discriminate if loss exposures that are similar with respect to losses and expenses are charged substantially different rates. C) Insurers know in advance if the coverages marketed will be profitable, so rate regulation is not needed. D) Rates are excessive if policyholders are paying substantially more than the actual value of their protection.

answer

C

question

21) The unit of measurement used in property and casualty insurance pricing is called the A) unit rate B) premium C) exposure unit D) experience unit

answer

C

question

22) The portion of an insurance premium allocated to expenses, profit, and a margin for contingencies is called the A) loading B) pure premium. C) gross premium D) experience rate.

answer

A

question

23) Which of the following statements about judgment rating is true? A) It involves the manual rating of exposures. B) It is used when the loss exposures are so diverse that a class rate cannot be calculated. C) It is a form of experience rating. D) It is only used when credible loss statistics are available.

answer

B

question

24) Under one type of merit rating, the class or manual rate is adjusted upward or downward based on past loss history. This type of merit rating is called A) schedule rating B) judgment rating. C) experience rating D) retrospective rating.

answer

C

question

25) All of the following statements about class rating are true EXCEPT A) Exposures with similar characteristics are placed in the same underwriting class. B) The rate charged for each class reflects the average loss experience for that class. C) The complexity of class rating makes it inappropriate for personal lines coverages. D) It is based on the assumption that future losses to insureds will be determined by the same classification factors currently in use.

answer

C

question

26) Under the pure premium method of determining class rates, the gross rate is determined by which of the following formulas? A) pure premium/(1 + expense ratio) B) pure premium/(1 - expense ratio) C) (1 + pure premium)/expense ratio D) expense ratio/(1 - pure premium)

answer

B

question

27) The expected loss ratio for a class of business is 60 percent. What change would be indicated in the level of rates under the loss ratio method if the actual loss ratio turned out to be 68 percent? A) 6.67 percent B) 13.33 percent C) 25.00 percent D) 33.33 percent

answer

B

question

28) Which of the following statements about schedule rating is (are) true? I. It involves the determination of a basis rate for each exposure, which is then modified by credits or debits. II. It is based on the assumption that certain physical characteristics of the insured?s operations will influence the insured?s future loss experience. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

C

question

29) Which of the following statements about experience rating is (are) true? I. The insured?s past loss experience is used to determine the premium for the next policy period. II. Its use is generally limited to small firms whose actual experience lacks credibility. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

answer

A

question

30) Which of the following statements about retrospective rating is true? A) The premium for the current period is determined by the loss experience for prior periods. B) The premium for the current period is determined by the loss experience during the current period. C) The premium for future periods is determined by the average loss experience for the current and previous periods. D) The premium for future periods is determined by the loss experience for the current period.

answer

B

question

31) Monopoly Insurance is the only company marketing a certain line of insurance in a state. After complaints from several consumers, the State Insurance Department investigated Monopoly?s rates. The regulators determined that Monopoly was taking advantage of being the only insurer offering the line by charging more than double the actuarial cost of the coverage. Which regulatory rating objective was Monopoly violating? A) Rates must be adequate B) Rates should encourage loss control. C) Rates must not be excessive D) Rates must not unfairly discriminate.

answer

C

question

32) Small Town used to be just that a small town 6 miles from Large City. Over the years, the area between Small Town and Large City was developed, and now Small Town is part of the suburbs surrounding Large City. An auto insurer that operated in the area had a large increase in auto claims from Small Town insureds. The insurer did not adjust its rates, and this year will lose money because of claims attributable to higher population density. Which business rating objective did this insurer fail to meet? A) simplicity B) stability C) responsiveness D) encouragement of loss control

answer

C

question

33) Nathan was hired as an actuary with ABC Insurance. Nathan was asked to calculate the annual premium for a new product and to explain his calculations to ABC?s director of ratemaking. Nathan calculated the pure premium and presented this value as the final premium. After Nathan?s presentation, the director of ratemaking said, ?You left out something very important. If we sell coverage at the pure premium rate, we?ll be out of business soon.? What did Nathan overlook in his calculations? A) loadings B) the underwriting cycle C) seasonality of claims D) investment income

answer

A

question

34) XYZ Insurance Company expects $500,000 in claims and loss adjustment expenses for each 1,000 properties that it insures in a certain category of business insurance. What pure premium should XYZ charge for each property insured? A) $69.99 B) $166.67 C) $350.00 D) $500.00

answer

D

question

35) XYZ Insurance Company uses class rating to determine the rate to charge for insurance. For one type of insurance, the pure premium XYZ actuaries calculated is $75 per unit. If XYZ?s expense ratio is 25 percent, what is the gross rate for this coverage? A) $37.50 B) $55.25 C) $75.00 D) $100.00

answer

D

question

36) RST is a manufacturer. The company does not have a good safety record and pays high workers compensation premiums. RST just hired a new risk manager, and she has instituted several employee safety programs. She has also persuaded the insurer writing RST?s workers compensation insurance to base the premium on RST?s actual loss experience during the current period rather than on the company?s historical performance. This type of plan is called a(n) A) retrospectively rated plan B) class rated plan. C) experience rated plan D) judgment rated plan.

answer

A

question

37) An Econodeath Insurance Company actuary calculated the present value of the expected death claim the company will pay if it sells whole life insurance to a 30-year-old woman. This value is called the A) net level premium B) gross premium. C) net single premium D) life insurance policy reserve.

answer

C

question

38) Metro City has six different zip codes. XYZ Insurance Company markets coverages in Metro City. Any applicant who lists one particular zip code is automatically quoted a premium that is three times the average premium for applicants from the other five zip codes. Which regulatory objective is not being met given XYZ?s premium structure? A) Rates must be adequate B) Rates must not unfairly discriminate. C) Rates must be responsive D) Rate must not be excessive.

answer

B

question

39) All of the following statements about the combined ratio are true EXCEPT A) It is equal to the loss ratio plus the expense ratio. B) A combined ratio greater than 1 (or 100 percent) means an underwriting loss has occurred. C) The combined ratio does not consider investment income. D) A combined ratio less than 1 (or 100 percent) indicates that an underwriting loss has occurred.

answer

D

question

40) In schedule rating, each building is individually evaluated based on several rating factors. One factor refers to the possibility that the building will be damaged or destroyed by a fire that starts at an adjacent property and spreads to the building. This rating factor is known as A) occupancy B) protection. C) maintenance D) exposure.

answer

D

question

41) A strip-mall includes eight identical-sized retail units. All of the units were built at the same time and each has an identical sprinkler system. Unit number two is a dry cleaning business. Unit number three is a bar and grill. Unit number four is a dress shop. The owners of these three units are all insured by the same EG Test Insurance.doc 26 insurance company, but the property insurance premiums vary significantly. Which of the following rating factors best explains the difference in premiums? A) exposure B) protection C) construction D) occupancy

answer

D

question

41) A strip-mall includes eight identical-sized retail units. All of the units were built at the same time and each has an identical sprinkler system. Unit number two is a dry cleaning business. Unit number three is a bar and grill. Unit number four is a dress shop. The owners of these three units are all insured by the same EG Test Insurance.doc 26 insurance company, but the property insurance premiums vary significantly. Which of the following rating factors best explains the difference in premiums? A) exposure B) protection C) construction D) occupancy

answer

D

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