question

Consciousness is A) the ability to solve problems, reason, and remember. B) the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information. C) effortless encoding of incidental information into memory. D) our awareness of ourselves and our environment.

answer

D

question

Which specialty area would be most interested in identifying the cortical activation patterns associated with a person's perception of different objects? A) evolutionary psychology B) cognitive neuroscience C) behavior genetics D) behaviorism

answer

B

question

The simultaneous processing of information at both conscious and unconscious levels is called A) the cocktail party effect. B) the pop-out phenomenon. C) dual processing. D) selective attention.

answer

C

question

Compared with unconscious information processing, conscious information processing is relatively A) fast and especially effective for solving new problems. B) slow and especially effective for solving new problems. C) fast and especially effective for solving routine problems. D) slow and especially effective for solving routine problems.

answer

B

question

Our inability to consciously process all the sensory information available to us at any single point in time best illustrates the necessity of A) explicit memory. B) selective attention. C) implicit memory. D) change blindness.

answer

B

question

The cocktail party effect provides an example of A) choice blindness. B) serial processing. C) selective attention. D) explicit memory.

answer

C

question

One naturalistic observation of pedestrians found that half of the people on cellphones exhibit unsafe road crossing. This illustrates the impact of A) the pop-out phenomenon. B) selective attention. C) priming. D) choice blindness.

answer

B

question

In one experiment, most of the participants who viewed a videotape of men tossing a basketball remained unaware of an umbrella-toting woman sauntering across the screen. This illustrated A) a visual perception track. B) inattentional blindness. C) priming. D) serial processing.

answer

B

question

While a man provided directions to a construction worker, two experimenters rudely interrupted by passing between them carrying a door. The student's failure to notice that the construction worker was replaced by a different person during this interruption illustrates A) the pop-out phenomenon. B) a visual action track. C) implicit memory. D) change blindness.

answer

D

question

Circadian rhythm refers to A) the pattern of emotional ups and downs we routinely experience. B) a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle. C) the experience of sleep apnea following an extensive transoceanic flight. D) the cycle of five distinct stages that we experience during a normal night's sleep.

answer

B

question

The circadian rhythm is influenced by light-sensitive retinal proteins that trigger signals to the A) suprachiasmatic nucleus. B) amygdala. C) thyroid gland. D) sleep spindles.

answer

A

question

Jordanna has decided to go to bed early. Although her eyes are closed and she's very relaxed, she has not yet fallen asleep. An electroencephalograph is most likely to indicate the presence of A) delta waves. B) alpha waves. C) sleep spindles. D) rapid eye movements.

answer

B

question

Hypnagogic sensations are most closely associated with ________ sleep. A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

answer

A

question

The rhythmic bursts of brain activity that occur during Stage 2 sleep are called A) alpha waves. B) circadian rhythms. C) sleep spindles. D) delta waves.

answer

C

question

Bed-wetting is most likely to occur at the end of ________ sleep. A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) slow-wave D) paradoxical

answer

C

question

At 1:00 A.M., Luis gets out of bed and begins to sleepwalk. An EEG of his brain activity is most likely to indicate the presence of A) alpha waves. B) sleep spindles. C) REM sleep. D) delta waves.

answer

D

question

You spend about half your night in stage __ sleep. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

answer

B

question

At 3 o'clock in the morning, John has already slept for 4 hours. As long as his sleep continues, we can expect an increasing occurrence of A) hypnagogic sensations. B) muscle tension. C) REM sleep. D) Stage 4 sleep.

answer

C

question

The brain waves associated with REM sleep are most similar to those of A) Stage 1 sleep. B) Stage 2 sleep. C) Stage 3 sleep. D) Stage 4 sleep.

answer

A

question

REM sleep is called paradoxical sleep because A) our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular. B) we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily. C) our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move. D) it leads to highly imaginative dreams that are perceived as colorless images. C) our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move.

answer

C

question

Forty-year-old Lance insists that he never dreams. Research suggests that he probably A) would report a vivid dream if he were awakened during REM sleep. B) dreams during Stage 4 rather than during REM sleep. C) experiences more Stage 4 sleep than most people. D) passes through the sleep cycle much more rapidly than most people.

answer

A

question

The human sleep cycle repeats itself about every A) 30 minutes. B) 90 minutes. C) 2 1/2 hours. D) 4 hours.

answer

B

question

Research on sleep patterns indicates that A) older adults and newborns have very similar sleep patterns. B) different sleep patterns reflect differences in latent dream content. C) everyone needs a minimum of 8 hours of sleep per night to function well. D) sleep patterns may be genetically influenced.

answer

D

question

Chronic sleep deprivation is likely to A) promote obesity and facilitate memory. B) inhibit obesity and impair memory. C) promote obesity and impair memory. D) inhibit obesity and facilitate memory.

answer

C

question

Sleep deprivation ________ the production of body fat by ________ levels of the stress hormone cortisol. A) stimulates; increasing B) inhibits; increasing C) stimulates; decreasing D) inhibits; decreasing

answer

A

question

Psychoactive drugs influence neurotransmission by stimulating, mimicking, or ________ the activity of neurotransmitters. A) synthesizing B) inhibiting C) enhancing D) serially processing

answer

B

question

Under the influence of alcohol, angered people are ________ likely to be aggressive than they would otherwise be and restaurant patrons are ________ likely to tip generously than they otherwise would. A) more; more B) less; less C) more; less D) less; more

answer

A

question

By decreasing REM sleep, alcohol consumption disrupts the processing of recent experiences into long-term memory. This disruption occurs because REM sleep A) helps fix the day's experiences into permanent memories. B) triggers the release of melatonin. C) enhances metabolic and hormonal functioning. D) relaxes muscles while other body systems are active.

answer

A

question

Alcohol consumption tends to A) decrease self-awareness and increase impulse control. B) increase self-awareness and decrease impulse control. C) increase self-awareness and increase impulse control. D) decrease self-awareness and decrease impulse control.

answer

D

question

Which drugs are most likely to be prescribed as tranquilizers? A) amphetamines B) barbiturates C) hallucinogens D) opiates

answer

B

question

The use of barbiturates ________ anxiety and ________ nervous system activity. A) increases; decreases B) decreases; increases C) decreases; decreases D) increases; increases

answer

C

question

Repeated use of an opiate A) decreases the brain's production of endorphins. B) increases heart and breathing rates. C) is not associated with any serious withdrawal symptoms. D) triggers auditory as well as visual hallucinations.

answer

A

question

Amphetamines are to ________ as barbiturates are to ________. A) hallucinogens; depressants B) stimulants; depressants C) hallucinogens; stimulants D) stimulants; hallucinogens

answer

B

question

François was dismayed to discover that some of his football teammates were using drugs to enhance their footwork and endurance on the playing field. Which of the following drugs were the players most likely using? A) morphine derivatives B) marijuana C) amphetamines D) barbiturates

answer

C

question

Amphetamines ________ appetite and ________ self-confidence. A) decrease; increase B) increase; decrease C) increase; increase D) decrease; decrease

answer

A

question

When cocaine is injected or smoked, it produces a rush of euphoria that lasts 15 to 30 minutes. But the stimulant drug ________ can trigger eight hours or so of heightened energy and euphoria. A) LSD B) heroin C) Amytal D) methamphetamine "speed"

answer

D

question

Young teens are most likely to start smoking in order to A) gain social acceptance. B) trigger the release of lymphocytes. C) reduce their mental alertness. D) reduce their blood pressure.

answer

A

question

By triggering the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, ________ boosts alertness and diminishes appetite. A) alcohol B) heroin C) nicotine D) ghrelin

answer

C

question

A rewarding consequence of cigarette smoking is that it reduces A) blood pressure and heart rate. B) sensitivity to pain. C) mental alertness. D) the release of epinephrine into the bloodstream.

answer

B

question

Soon after taking a psychoactive drug, Zachary experienced a diminished appetite, an increased pulse rate, dilated pupils, and feelings of self-confidence and euphoria. Zachary most likely experienced the effects of A) heroin. B) cocaine. C) LSD. D) marijuana.

answer

B

question

One of the dangers of using Ecstasy at all-night dances is A) increased appetite. B) dehydration. C) lethargy. D) pupil constriction.

answer

B

question

The release of stored serotonin and the eventual damage of serotonin-producing neurons is most closely associated with the long-term use of A) alcohol. B) Ecstasy. C) morphine. D) barbiturates.

answer

B

question

THC, the active ingredient in ________, is classified as a ________. A) marijuana; hallucinogen B) marijuana; stimulant C) cocaine; stimulant D) cocaine; hallucinogen

answer

A

question

Boys who tend to be fearless and impulsive at age 6 are A) less likely to smoke and more likely to drink alcohol as teens. B) more likely to smoke and less likely to drink alcohol as teens. C) less likely to smoke and less likely to drink alcohol as teens. D) more likely to smoke and more likely to drink alcohol as teens.

answer

D

question

One biological basis for addiction involves deficiencies in the brain's natural ________ reward system. A) sensory B) dopamine C) motor D) melatonin

answer

B

question

At about eight months of age, people across the world start to ________ strangers; as adults, they prefer the company of those whose attributes are ________ to their own. A) fear; similar B) enjoy; different C) fear; different D) enjoy; similar

answer

A

question

Every nongenetic influence, from prenatal nutrition to the people and things around us, in an aspect of our A) temperament. B) genome. C) environment. D) natural selection.

answer

C

question

The impact of our cultural backgrounds on the development of our personal values best illustrates the influence of A) temperament. B) heritability. C) mutations. D) the environment.

answer

D

question

The study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior and personality traits is known as A) molecular genetics. B) evolutionary psychology. C) behavior genetics. D) heritability.

answer

C

question

A behavior geneticist would be most interested in studying hereditary influences on A) skin color. B) speech patterns C) physical attractiveness. D) personality traits.

answer

D

question

DNA is a complex A) sex hormone. B) genome. C) molecule. D) synapse.

answer

C) molecule

question

The biochemical units of heredity that make up the chromosomes are called A) genes. B) sperm. C) ova. D) neurotransmitters.

answer

A

question

Depending on environmental conditions, specific genes can be either A) proteins or chemicals. B) active or inactive. C) identical or fraternal. D) structured or unstructured.

answer

B

question

The genome is the complete A) collection of sexual characteristics regulated by the X and Y chromosomes. B) range of traits that contribute to reproductive success. C) set of genetic material in an organism's chromosomes. D) set of interactions between genes and environments.

answer

C

question

Twin studies suggest that Alzheimer's disease is influenced by A) fertility. B) gender. C) heredity. D) mutations.

answer

C

question

Compared with identical twins, fraternal twins are ________ similar in neuroticism and ________ similar in risk of divorcing. A) more; less B) less; more C) more; more D) less; less

answer

D

question

Compared with fraternal twins, identical twins are much more similar in A) extraversion. B) neuroticism. C) temperament. D) all of these: extraversion, neuroticism, temperament

answer

D

question

Environmental influences on personality traits are most clearly highlighted by comparing A) identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised apart. B) identical twins raised together with fraternal twins raised together. C) identical twins raised apart with fraternal twins raised together. D) identical twins raised together with identical twins raised apart.

answer

D

question

Although identical twins have been shown to have some amazing psychological similarities, one should be cautious about attributing these similarities to genetic factors because A) the twins may have been raised in completely different environments. B) genetic factors influence physical, not psychological, characteristics. C) any two strangers are likely to share a string of coincidental similarities. D) many fraternal twins have been shown to be psychologically different from each other.

answer

C

question

The personalities of adopted children A) are very similar to the personalities of the other children in their adoptive families. B) are very similar to the personalities of their biologically related siblings. C) are not very similar to the personalities of their adoptive parents. D) are more similar to the personalities of their caregiving adoptive parents than to the personalities of their biological parents.

answer

C

question

Research most clearly suggests that personality traits are more strongly influenced by A) genes than by home environment. B) home environment than by genes. C) genes than by peers. D) home environment than by peers.

answer

A

question

The home environment most clearly has a greater influence on children's ________ than on their ________. A) temperament; political attitudes B) extraversion; table manners C) religious beliefs; personality traits D) gender identity; gender schemas

answer

C

question

The labels "easy," "difficult," and "slow-to-warm-up" are used to refer to differences in an infant's A) genome. B) fitness. C) temperament. D) adaptability

answer

C

question

Difficult babies with an intense and highly reactive temperament tend to be A) intelligent and imaginative. B) irritable and unpredictable. C) fearless and assertive. D) extraverted and cheerful.

answer

B

question

Heritability refers to the extent to which A) unrelated individuals share common genes. B) genetic mutations can be transmitted to one's offspring. C) trait differences among individuals are attributable to genetic variations. D) adult personality is determined by infant temperament.

answer

C

question

An African butterfly that is green in the summer turns brown in the fall thanks to a temperature-controlled genetic switch. This best illustrates that genes are A) mutations. B) self-regulating. C) interactive. D) protein molecules.

answer

B

question

People have always responded so positively to Alyssa's good looks that she has developed a socially confident and outgoing personality. This best illustrates A) the impact of temperament on gender identity. B) that gender schemas and social roles are complementary. C) the interaction of nature and nurture. D) the reciprocal influence of norms and roles.

answer

C

question

Assessing possible links between specific chromosome segments and alcohol dependence would be of greatest interest to a(n) A) evolutionary psychologist. B) molecular geneticist. C) behaviorist. D) social learning theoris

answer

B

question

Dmitry Belyaev and Lyudmila Trut successfully domesticated wild foxes by means of A) heritability. B) selective mating. C) gene splicing. D) hormone injections.

answer

B

question

From ages 3 to 6, the brain's neural networks are sprouting most rapidly in the A) frontal lobes. B) hypothalamus. C) cerebellum. D) brainstem.

answer

A

question

When Tommy's mother hides his favorite toy under a blanket, he acts as though it no longer exists and makes no attempt to retrieve it. Tommy is clearly near the beginning of Piaget's ________ stage. A) sensorimotor B) formal operational C) concrete operational D) preoperational

answer

A

question

After 4-month-olds habituated to an image of a cube, they stared longer when shown A) a smaller rather than a larger version of the cube. B) a larger rather than a smaller version of the cube. C) a possible rather than an impossible version of the cube. D) an impossible rather than a possible version of the cube.

answer

D

question

When researcher Karen Wynn showed 5-month-old infants a numerically impossible outcome, the infants A) stared longer at the outcome. B) displayed rapid imprinting. C) demonstrated an obvious lack of object permanence. D) showed signs of formal operational reasoning.

answer

A

question

If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to A) deal with the discipline of toilet training. B) see things from the point of view of another person. C) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape. D) retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experiences.

answer

C

question

Mrs. Pearson cut Judy's hot dog into eight pieces and Sylvia's into six pieces. Sylvia cried because she felt she wasn't getting as much hot dog as Judy. Piaget would say that Sylvia doesn't understand the principle of A) object permanence. B) conservation. C) egocentrism. D) accommodation

answer

B

question

According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to A) a sensorimotor need for self-stimulation, as evidenced in thumb sucking. B) young children's exaggerated interest in themselves and their own pleasure. C) the difficulty perceiving things from another person's point of view. D) the difficulty realizing that things continue to exist even when they are not visible

answer

C

question

Five-year-olds who were surprised to discover that a Band-Aids box contained pencils were able to anticipate their friend's false belief about the contents of the box. This best illustrates that the children had developed a A) secure attachment. B) sense of object permanence. C) theory of mind. D) concept of conservation.

answer

C

question

An impaired theory of mind is most closely associated with A) the concept of conservation. B) concrete operational thought. C) infantile amnesia. D) autism.

answer

D

question

One variation in the autism spectrum is characterized by normal intelligence, often accompanied by exceptional skill in a particular area, but deficient social and communication skills. This disorder is called A) egocentrism. B) infantile amnesia. C) Alzheimer's disease. D) Asperger syndrome

answer

D

question

Psychologist Simon Baron-Cohen has proposed that autism is indicative of an inborn A) stranger anxiety. B) resilience. C) infantile amnesia. D) male systemizing tendency.

answer

D

question

When people with autism watch another person's hand movements, they display less ________ than most others. A) habituation B) egocentrism C) mirror neuron activity D) stranger anxiety

answer

C

question

The Russian psychologist Vygotsky suggested that children's ability to solve problems is enhanced by A) basic trust. B) interaction with the social environment C) conservation. D) imprinting.

answer

B

question

According to Piaget, a person first comprehends that division is the reverse of multiplication during the ________ stage. A) preoperational B) concrete operational C) formal operational D) sensorimotor

answer

B

question

At about 8 months, children become increasingly likely to react to newcomers with tears and distress. This best illustrates A) assimilation. B) insecure attachment. C) egocentrism. D) stranger anxiety.

answer

D

question

Infants develop a fear of strangers at about 8 months of age because they can't assimilate unfamiliar faces into their A) schemas. B) attachments. C) theory of mind. D) self-concept.

answer

A

question

The powerful survival impulse that leads infants to seek closeness to their caregivers is called A) attachment. B) habituation. C) assimilation. D) conservation.

answer

A

question

Studies of monkeys raised with artificial mothers suggest that mother-infant emotional bonds result primarily from mothers providing infants with A) adequate nourishment. B) body contact. C) the opportunity to explore. D) self-esteem.

answer

B

question

Which of the following is an example of imprinting? A) A 2-year-old poodle approaches a stranger who calls it. B) A 4-year-old boy imitates aggression he sees on television. C) A duckling demonstrates attachment to a bouncing ball. D) A 3-year-old girl is simultaneously learning two different languages

answer

C

question

Unlike ducklings, children do not imprint. Their fondness for certain people, however, is fostered by A) conservation. B) egocentrism. C) mere exposure. D) infantile amnesia.

answer

C

question

Hypnosis involves a state of A) increased physical stamina. B) heightened openness to suggestion. C) improved perceptual skills. D) elevated autonomic arousal

answer

B

question

A child's temperament is likely to be A) difficult to observe. B) stable over time. C) a product of parenting style. D) a reflection of his or her gender.

answer

B

question

Research on susceptibility to hypnosis indicates that A) very few people can actually be hypnotized. B) people who are most easily hypnotized usually have difficulty paying attention to their own personal thoughts and feelings. C) how well a person responds to hypnotic suggestion depends primarily on the skill and experience of the hypnotist. D) people who are highly responsive to hypnotic suggestion tend to become absorbed in the imaginary events of a novel or a movie.

answer

D

question

In one study, both hypnotized and unhypnotized subjects were told to throw acid in a researcher's face. In this experiment, hypnotized people A) usually refused to engage in antisocial behavior. B) behaved in the same fashion as unhypnotized individuals. C) were easily influenced to act against their own will. D) experienced much more anxiety than unhypnotized individuals.

answer

B

question

Just prior to awakening Chinua from a hypnotic state, the therapist told him that during the next few days he would feel nauseous whenever he reached for a cigarette. Chinua's therapist was attempting to make use of A) age regression. B) posthypnotic suggestion. C) dissociation. D) hypnotic induction.

answer

B

question

People can be hypnotically induced to A) surpass their normal waking levels of physical strength and stamina. B) perform dangerous acts that they would not perform in a normal state. C) recall correctly almost anything that has ever happened to them. D) report little pain from placing their arms in an ice bath.

answer

D

question

The claim (Lynn et al., 1990) that hypnotic phenomena are regulated by normal conscious processes is associated with the theory that hypnosis reflects the power of A) parallel processing. B) dissociation. C) selective attention. D) social influence.

answer

D

question

Orne and Evans(1965) discovered that unhypnotized subjects performed the same dangerous acts as hypnotized subjects. This finding is most consistent with the theory that hypnosis involves A) age regression. B) dissociation. C) selective attention. D) conscious role-playing.

answer

D

question

Ernest Hilgard (1986) believed hypnosis involves social influence and a split in consciousness in which some thoughts occur simultaneously with and yet separately from other thoughts is called A) hypnotic susceptibility. B) dissociation. C) selective attention. D) posthypnotic suggestion.

answer

B

question

Hilgard's divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis receives support from evidence that A) hypnosis can block sensory input. B) hypnosis can affect voluntary but not involuntary behaviors. C) hypnotized people are simply playing the role of "good hypnotic subjects." D) hypnotized people can endure pain(ice bath) without experiencing emotional distress.

answer

D

question

One plausible theory suggests that hypnosis relieves pain by A) distracting attention. B) blocking sensory input. C) speeding up our daily rhythm. D) eliciting brain waves characteristic of sleep.

answer

A

question

Understanding hypnosis in terms of focused attention, distinctive brain activity, and the presence of an authoritative presence in a legitimate context, requires an integrated ________ approach. A) serial processing B) dissociation C) biopsychosocial D) social influence

answer

C

question

Hypnotic pain relief may also result from another form of dual processing called ________ _________ A) hypnotic induction B) selective attention C) auditory processing D) hallucinatory processing

answer

B

question

Chemical substances that alter perceptions and moods are called ________ drugs. A) neuroadaptive B) disinhibition C) psychoactive D) neurotransmitter

answer

C

question

The need to take larger and larger doses of a drug in order to experience its effects is an indication of A) withdrawal. B) dependence. C) tolerance. D) reuptake.

answer

C

question

The change in brain chemistry that offsets the effects of a psychoactive drug is called A) addiction. B) reuptake. C) disinhibition. D) neuroadaptation.

answer

D

question

When Celeste was unable to obtain her regular supply of heroin, she began to develop pain and an intense craving for the drug. Celeste was experiencing symptoms of A) tolerance. B) reuptake. C) synthesis. D) withdrawal.

answer

D

question

Physical pain and intense cravings indicate A) tolerance. B) reuptake. C) physical dependence. D) reabsorption.

answer

C

question

Although Max never experiences caffeine withdrawal symptoms, he feels that he emotionally needs coffee every morning as part of his daily routine. Max best illustrates A) tolerance. B) disinhibition. C) psychological dependence. D) synaptic transmission.

answer

C

question

Compulsive craving for and use of a drug is an indication of A) reuptake. B) neural processing. C) addiction. D) disinhibition.

answer

C

question

Researchers are most likely to question the value of hypnosis for A) reducing fear. B) enhancing memory. C) relieving pain. D) facilitating relaxation.

answer

B

question

Developmental psychologists study physical, cognitive, and ________ changes throughout the human life cycle. A) cross-sectional B) embryonic C) genetic D) social

answer

D

question

One of the three major concerns of developmental psychology centers around the issue of A) identity or intimacy. B) continuity or stages. C) imprinting or object permanence. D) conservation or egocentrism.

answer

B

question

A teratogen is a(n) A) fertilized egg that undergoes rapid cell division. B) unborn child with one or more physical defects or abnormalities. C) chromosomal abnormality. D) substance that can cross the placental barrier and harm an unborn child.

answer

D

question

If research suggested that a pregnant mother's use of an artificial sweetener caused harm to the fetus, the artificial sweetener would be considered a(n) A) FAS. B) form of DNA. C) depressant. D) teratogen.

answer

D

question

Darlene smoked heavily during the entire 9 months of her pregnancy. Her newborn baby will most likely be A) underweight. B) blind. C) hyperactive. D) hearing impaired.

answer

A

question

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are most likely to include A) being overweight. B) brain abnormalities. C) visual impairments. D) hearing problems.

answer

B

question

Habituation refers to the A) awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived. B) decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed. C) adjustment of current experiences to make sense of new information. D) biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience.

answer

B

question

Infant novelty preferences have been discovered by assessing infants' A) teratogens. B) habituation. C) rooting reflex. D) social responsiveness.

answer

B

question

Newborns have been observed to show the greatest visual interest in a A) rectangular shape. B) circular shape. C) bull's-eye pattern. D) facelike image.

answer

D

question

Maturation refers to A) the acquisition of socially acceptable behaviors. B) biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience. C) any learned behavior patterns that accompany personal growth and development. D) the physical of early childhood.

answer

B

question

Infant motor development is typically characterized by individual differences in ________ of the major developmental milestones. A) both the sequence and the age-related timing B) the sequence but not the age-related timing C) the age-related timing but not the sequence D) neither the sequence nor the age-related timing

answer

C

question

The relative lack of neural interconnections in the association areas of the brain at the time of birth is most likely to contribute to A) infantile amnesia. B) habituation. C) insecure attachment. D) stranger anxiety.

answer

A

question

Cognition refers to A) an emotional tie linking one person with another. B) the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating. C) any process that facilitates the physical development of the brain. D) any process of change that accompanies maturation.

answer

B

question

According to Piaget, schemas are A) fixed sequences of cognitive developmental stages. B) all of the mental activities associated with thinking C) people's conceptual frameworks for understanding their experiences. D) problem-solving strategies that are typically not developed until the formal operational stage.

answer

C

question

Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas is called A) egocentrism. B) assimilation. C) imprinting. D) accommodation.

answer

B

question

The first time that 4-year-old Sarah saw her older brother play a flute, she thought it was simply a large whistle. Sarah's initial understanding of the flute best illustrates the process of A) assimilation. B) conservation. C) accommodation. D) maturation.

answer

A

question

Which of the following represents the correct order of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? A) preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor B) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational C) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational D) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational

answer

C

question

Olivia understands her world primarily by grasping and sucking easily available objects. Olivia is clearly in Piaget's ________ stage. A) preoperational B) concrete operational C) sensorimotor D) formal operational

answer

C

question

During which of Piaget's stages does a person develop an awareness that things continue to exist even when they are not perceived? A) sensorimotor B) preoperational C) concrete operational D) formal operational

answer

A

question

When researcher Karen Wynn showed 5-month-old infants a numerically impossible outcome, the infants A) stared longer at the outcome. B) displayed rapid imprinting. C) demonstrated an obvious lack of object permanence. D) showed signs of formal operational reasoning.

answer

A

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