question

31. MC #1 A research report showed that the U.S. spends ____ on projects every year. a. $2.3 billion b. $23 billion c. $2.3 trillion d. $23 trillion

answer

c

question

32. MC #2 A research report showed that the U.S. spends the equivalent of ____ percent of the nation's gross domestic product on projects every year. a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d. 50

answer

c

question

33. MC #3 Many organizations assert that using project management provides advantages, such as ____. a. lower profit margins b. lower costs c. less internal coordination d. lower worker morale

answer

b

question

34. MC #4 Because a project requires resources, often from various areas, many projects cross ____ or other boundaries to achieve their unique purposes. a. financial b. spatial c. departmental d. technological

answer

c

question

35. MC #5 The project ____ usually provides the direction and funding for the project. a. leader b. sponsor c. manager d. director

answer

b

question

36. MC #6 The limitations of scope, time, and cost goals are sometimes referred to as the ____. a. double bind b. triple constraint c. double constraint d. double obstacle

answer

b

question

37. MC #7 ____ are the people involved in or affected by project activities and include the project sponsor, project team, support staff, customers, users, suppliers, and even opponents of the project. a. Managers b. Stakeholders c. Directors d. Citizens

answer

b

question

38. MC #8 In the example of the project of building a house, the project sponsors would be the potential ____. a. contractors b. support staff c. managers d. new homeowners

answer

d

question

39. MC #9 In the example of the project of building a house, the ____ would normally be the general contractor responsible for building the house. a. project sponsors b. project team c. project manager d. support staff

answer

c

question

40. MC #10 Project ____ management involves defining and managing all the work required to complete the project successfully. a. scope b. quality c. time d. cost

answer

a

question

41. MC #11 Project ____ management ensures that the project will satisfy the stated or implied needs for which it was undertaken. a. cost b. time c. scope d. quality

answer

d

question

42. MC #12 Project ____ management is concerned with making effective use of the people involved with the project. a. human resource b. risk c. communications d. procurement

answer

a

question

43. MC #13 Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information. a. risk b. procurement c. communications d. resource

answer

d

question

44. MC #14 Project ____ management is an overarching function that affects and is affected by all of the other knowledge areas. a. cost b. quality c. integration d. time

answer

c

question

45. MC #15 What works on one project may not work on another, so it is essential for project managers to continue to develop their knowledge and ____ in managing projects. a. time b. resources c. funding d. skills

answer

d

question

46. MC #16 According to the Standish group, which of the following factors contributes most to the success of information technology projects? a. Executive support b. User involvement c. Experienced project manager d. Clear business objectives

answer

a

question

47. MC #17 According to the Standish Group study describing what factors contribute most to the success of information technology projects, ____ percent of successful projects are led by experienced project managers. a. 75 b. 80 c. 97 d. 100

answer

c

question

48. MC #18 "All project leaders use a shared road map, focusing on key business aspects of their projects while integrating goals across all parts of the organization" describes the ____ best practice for project delivery. a. Use an integrated toolbox b. Grow project leaders c. Develop a streamlined project delivery process d. Measure project health using metrics

answer

c

question

49. MC #19 ____ project management software integrates information from multiple projects to show the status of active, approved, and future projects across an entire organization. a. Investment b. Active c. Enterprise d. Budget

answer

d

question

50. MC #20 A ____ can have many different job descriptions, which can vary tremendously based on the organization and the project. a. project supervisor b. project manager c. job coordinator d. project coordinator

answer

b

question

51. MC #21 In an interview with two chief information officers (CIOs), both men agreed that the most important project management skills seem to depend on ____. a. the difficulty of the project and the resources involved b. the difficulty of the task and the people involved c. the uniqueness of the project and the difficulty of the task d. the uniqueness of the project and the people involved

answer

d

question

52. MC #22 Achieving high performance on projects requires ____, otherwise called human relations skills. a. capital skills b. soft skills c. light skills d. hard skills

answer

b

question

53. MC #23 A(n) ____ focuses on long-term goals and big-picture objectives, while inspiring people to reach those goals. a. assistant b. programmer c. leader d. manager

answer

c

question

54. MC #24 A(n) ____ often deals with the day-to-day details of meeting specific goals. a. manager b. leader c. programmer d. analyst

answer

a

question

55. MC #25 Some people say that ____ achieve the vision of a project. a. leaders b. managers c. stakeholders d. supervisors

answer

b

question

56. MC #26 Most people agree that the modern concept of project management began with the ____. a. Great Wall of China b. first space shuttle c. Egyptian pyramids d. Manhattan Project

answer

d

question

57. MC #27 The Manhattan Project cost almost $2 billion in ____. a. 1936 b. 1946 c. 1956 d. 1966

answer

b

question

58. MC #28 In ____, Henry Gantt developed the famous Gantt chart as a tool for scheduling work in factories. a. 1897 b. 1917 c. 1927 d. 1957

answer

b

question

59. MC #29 A Gantt chart is a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a ____ format. a. pie chart b. line graph c. bar graph d. calendar

answer

d

question

60. MC #30 During the Cold War years of the 1950s and '60s, ____ continued to be key in refining several project management techniques. a. NASA b. the military c. steel manufacturing d. marine biology

answer

b

question

61. MC #31 The longest path through a network diagram that determines the earliest completion of a project is called the ____ path. a. essential b. important c. critical d. vital

answer

c

question

62. MC #32 By the ____, the U.S. military and its civilian suppliers developed software to assist in managing large projects. a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1990s

answer

b

question

63. MC #33 ____ was an early project management software product that helped managers analyze complex schedules for designing aircraft. a. Artemis b. Columbia c. Vega d. Oberlin

answer

a

question

64. MC #34 A PMO, or Project ____ Office, is an organizational group responsible for coordinating the project management function throughout an organization. a. Management b. Money c. Municipal d. Marketing

answer

a

question

65. MC #35 Many organizations are now using enterprise or project ____ management software to help manage projects. a. path b. portfolio c. institute d. office

answer

b

question

66. MC #36 PMI provides certification as a Project Management ____ (PMP), someone who has documented sufficient project experience and education, agreed to follow the PMI code of professional conduct, and demonstrated knowledge of the field of project management by passing a comprehensive examination. a. Producer b. Practitioner c. Professional d. Professor

answer

c

question

67. MC #37 Just as passing the CPA exam is a standard for accountants, passing the ____ exam is becoming a standard for project managers. a. PMI b. PM c. PMP d. PMO

answer

c

question

68. MC #38 The Project Management ____, a Web site for people involved in project management, provides an alphabetical directory of more than 300 project management software solutions. a. Center b. Alliance c. Consortium d. Facility

answer

a

question

69. MC #39 ____ tools are often recommended for small projects and single users. a. Low-end b. Midrange c. High-end d. Expensive

answer

a

question

70. MC #40 ____ tools, sometimes referred to as enterprise project management software, provide robust capabilities to handle very large projects. a. Low-end b. Midrange c. High-end d. Inexpensive

answer

c

question

Question 1 ____ describes a holistic view of carrying out projects within the context of the organization. a. Systems philosophy b. Systems thinking c. Systems analysis d. Systems approach

answer

b

question

Question 2 The term "systems approach" emerged in the ____. a. 1940s b. 1950s c. 1960s d. 1970s

answer

b

question

Question 3 ____ is a problem-solving approach that requires defining the scope of the system, dividing it into its components, and then identifying and evaluating its problems, opportunities, constraints, and needs. a. Systems philosophy b. Systems management c. Systems troubleshooting d. Systems analysis

answer

d

question

Question 4 The ____ focuses on different groups' roles and responsibilities in order to meet the goals and policies set by top management. a. structural frame b. human resources frame c. political frame d. symbolic frame

answer

a

question

Question 5 The ____ focuses on producing harmony between the needs of the organization and the needs of the people. a. structural frame b. human resources frame c. political frame d. symbolic frame

answer

b

question

Question 6 The ____ assumes that organizations are coalitions composed of varied individuals and interest groups. a. political frame b. symbolic frame c. structural frame d. human resources frame

answer

a

question

Question 7 A ____ is the hierarchy most people think of when picturing an organizational chart. a. project organizational structure b. system organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

answer

d

question

Question 8 In a ____, program managers report to the CEO. a. project organizational structure b. system organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

answer

a

question

Question 9 In a ____, personnel often report to both a functional manager and one or more project managers. a. project organizational structure b. system organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. functional organizational structure

answer

c

question

Question 10 Project managers have the most authority in a pure ____. a. functional organizational structure b. project organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. circular organizational structure

answer

b

question

Question 11 Project managers have the least amount of authority in a pure ____. a. functional organizational structure b. project organizational structure c. matrix organizational structure d. circular organizational structure

answer

a

question

Question 12 In a ____ matrix organizational structure, the project manager controls the project budget and has moderate to high authority. a. weak b. balanced c. strong d. functional

answer

c

question

Question 13 ____ is a set of shared assumptions, values, and behaviors that characterize the functioning of an organization. a. Organizational politics b. Organizational philosophy c. Organizational culture d. Organizational structure

answer

c

question

Question 14 The ____ characteristic of organizational culture describes the degree to which management's decisions take into account the effect of outcomes on people within the organization. a. member identity b. group emphasis c. people focus d. unit integration

answer

c

question

Question 15 ____ refers to the degree to which the organization monitors and responds to changes in the external environment. a. Means-ends orientation b. Open-systems focus c. Conflict tolerance d. Risk tolerance

answer

b

question

Question 16 Many companies have realized that information technology is integral to their business and have created a vice president or equivalent-level position for the head of information technology, often called the ____. a. CPO b. CFO c. CEO d. CIO

answer

d

question

Question 17 A ____ is a collection of project phases. a. project life cycle b. project feasibility c. project planning cycle d. project acquisition

answer

a

question

Question 18 In early phases of a project life cycle, resource needs are usually ____ and the level of uncertainty is ____. a. lowest; highest b. high; lowest c. lowest; lowest d. highest; highest

answer

a

question

Question 19 A preliminary or rough cost estimate is developed in the ____ phase, and an overview of the work involved is created. a. implementation b. development c. concept d. close-out

answer

c

question

Question 20 In the ____ phase, the project team creates more detailed project plans, a more accurate cost estimate, and a more thorough WBS. a. development b. implementation c. concept d. close-out

answer

a

question

Question 21 In the ____ phase, the project team creates a definitive or very accurate cost estimate, delivers the required work, and provides performance reports to stakeholders. a. development b. implementation c. concept d. close-out

answer

b

question

Question 22 The ____ model assumes that requirements will remain stable after they are defined. a. spiral life cycle b. waterfall life cycle c. prototyping life cycle d. RAD life cycle

answer

b

question

Question 23 The ____ model provides for progressive development of operational software, with each release providing added capabilities. a. spiral life cycle b. RAD life cycle c. waterfall life cycle d. incremental build life cycle

answer

d

question

Question 24 The ____ model requires heavy user involvement, and developers use a model to generate functional requirements and physical design specifications simultaneously. a. RAD life cycle b. prototyping life cycle c. spiral life cycle d. incremental build life cycle

answer

b

question

Question 25 The ____ model uses an approach in which developers work with an evolving prototype. a. incremental build life cycle b. waterfall life cycle c. RAD life cycle d. spiral life cycle

answer

c

question

Question 26 Most trade schools, colleges, and universities did not start offering degrees in computer technology, computer science, management information systems, or other information technology areas until the ____. a. 1950s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1990s

answer

b

question

Projects involve ____ project management process groups. a. three b. five c. eight d. ten

answer

b

question

____ include defining and authorizing a project or project phase. a. Initiating processes b. Planning processes c. Executing processes d. Monitoring and controlling processes

answer

a

question

____ include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs. a. Initiating processes b. Planning processes c. Executing processes d. Monitoring and controlling processes

answer

b

question

Examples of ____ include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements. a. monitoring and controlling processes b. executing processes c. planning processes d. initiating processes

answer

b

question

A common ____ is reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track. a. executing process b. closing process c. monitoring and controlling process d. planning process

answer

c

question

Administrative activities are often involved in ____, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project. a. monitoring and controlling processes b. executing processes c. initiating processes d. closing processes

answer

d

question

During ____ processes for a new project, the organization recognizes that a new project exists, and completes a project charter as part of this recognition. a. initiating b. planning c. opening d. controlling

answer

a

question

____ is crucial in information technology projects because once a project team implements a new system, it takes a considerable amount of effort to change the system. a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Closing

answer

b

question

The project integration management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of developing project charters. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

answer

a

question

The project scope management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of scope verification and scope control. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

answer

d

question

The project time management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of schedule control. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

answer

d

question

____ is a planning process falling under the Project Integration Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development b. Develop project management plan c. Create WBS d. Quality planning

answer

b

question

____ is a planning process falling under the Project Scope Management knowledge area. a. Schedule development b. Develop project management plan c. Create WBS d. Quality planning

answer

c

question

____ is a monitoring and controlling process. a. Develop project team b. Request seller responses c. Risk response planning d. Integrated change control

answer

d

question

The project cost management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities of estimating costs and budget determination. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

answer

b

question

The project communications management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of information distribution. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

answer

c

question

The project procurement management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activity of administering procurements. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

answer

d

question

The project procurement management knowledge area maps to the ____ process group through the activities conducting procurements. a. initiating b. planning c. executing d. monitoring and controlling

answer

c

question

____ is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members. a. RAP b. RIP c. RUP d. ROP

answer

c

question

____ should serve as the foundation for deciding which projects to pursue. a. Strategic planning b. Project managers c. Successful past projects d. Employee abilities

answer

a

question

An organization may initiate information technology projects for several reasons, but the most important reason is to support ____. a. financial security b. business objectives c. technological advances d. shareholders

answer

b

question

A ____ is a document that includes details related to the identified project stakeholders. a. stakeholder register b. stakeholder list c. stakeholder directory d. stakeholder contact list

answer

a

question

A ____ is an approach to help increase the support of stakeholders throughout the project. a. stakeholder management plan b. stakeholder strategy c. stakeholder management strategy d. stakeholder management list

answer

c

question

A ____ is a meeting held at the beginning of a project so that stakeholders can meet each other, review the goals of the project, and discuss future plans. a. kick-off party b. launch meeting c. kick-off meeting d. project launch meeting

answer

c

question

The ____ is often held after the business case and project charter are completed, but it could be held sooner, as needed. a. kick-off project b. kick-off meeting c. launch meeting d. launch project

answer

b

question

It is good practice to focus on the ____ of meetings. a. flow b. planning c. agenda d. results

answer

d

question

Quality metrics are an output of project ____. a. cost management b. scope management c. integration management d. quality management

answer

d

question

The ____ provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance. a. WSB b. project team analysis c. WBS d. project tool

answer

c

question

____ the project involves taking the actions necessary to ensure that activities in the project plan are completed. a. Executing b. Initiating c. Starting d. Coordinating

answer

a

question

The ____ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end. a. ending b. closing c. developing d. completing

answer

b

question

There are ____ main processes involved in project integration management. a. three b. six c. ten d. fifteen

answer

b

question

____ involves working with stakeholders to create the document that formally authorizes a project. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Directing and managing project execution

answer

a

question

____ involves coordinating all planning efforts to create a consistent, coherent document. a. Developing the project charter b. Developing the preliminary project scope statement c. Developing the project management plan d. Directing and managing project execution

answer

c

question

The outputs of ____ include change request status updates, project management plan updates, and project document updates. a. monitoring and controlling the project work b. closing the project c. developing the project management plan d. performing integrated change control

answer

d

question

Many people are familiar with SWOT analysis—analyzing Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats—which is used to aid in ____. a. project initiation b. project planning c. strategic planning d. strategic initiation

answer

c

question

The ____ step in the planning process is to tie the information technology strategic plan to the organization's overall strategic plan. a. first b. second c. third d. fourth

answer

a

question

In the ____ information technology planning stage, the analysis outlines business processes that are central to achieving strategic goals and helps determine which ones could most benefit from information technology. a. Project Planning b. Business Area Analysis c. Resource Allocation d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

answer

b

question

In the ____ stage, organizations tie information technology strategy to mission and vision of organization and identify key business areas. a. Project Planning b. Business Area Analysis c. Resource Allocation d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

answer

d

question

In the ____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations define project scope, benefits, and constraints. a. Project Planning b. Business Area Analysis c. Resource Allocation d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

answer

a

question

In the ____ stage of selecting information technology projects, organizations select information technology projects. a. Project Planning b. Business Area Analysis c. Resource Allocation d. Information Technology Strategy Planning

answer

c

question

Research shows that ____ is the number one reason cited for why organizations invest in information technology projects. a. providing financial incentives b. supporting implicit business objectives c. supporting explicit business objectives d. keeping abreast of technological advances

answer

c

question

Author ____, who developed the concept of the strategic value of competitive advantage, has written several books and articles on strategic planning and competition. a. James Bacon b. Michael Porter c. Robert Cooper d. Carol Matlack

answer

b

question

Projects that address ____ are much more likely to be successful because they will be important to the organization. a. a balanced scorecard b. a weighted scoring model c. broad organizational needs d. net present value

answer

c

question

One method for selecting projects based on ____ is to determine whether they first meet three important criteria: need, funding, and will. a. broad organizational needs b. using a weighted scoring model c. implementing a balanced scorecard d. categorizing information technology projects

answer

a

question

____ are new requirements imposed by management, government, or some external influence. a. Opportunities b. Commands c. Problems d. Directives

answer

d

question

____ analysis is a method of calculating the expected net monetary gain or loss from a project by discounting all expected future cash inflows and outflows to the present point in time. a. Cost of capital b. Net present value c. Cash flow d. Payback

answer

b

question

The first step in determining the NPV is to ____. a. determine the estimated costs and benefits for the life of the project and the products it produces b. determine the discount rate c. calculate the net present value d. determine the cash flow

answer

a

question

In the mathematical formula for determining the NPV, the variable n is ____. a. the year of the cash flow b. the last year of the cash flow c. the amount of cash flow each year d. the discount rate

answer

b

question

The ____ is the minimum acceptable rate of return on an investment. a. return on investment b. internal rate of return c. external rate of return d. required rate of return

answer

d

question

You can determine a project's ____ by finding what discount rate results in an NPV of zero for the project. a. internal rate of return (IRR) b. required rate of return c. payback period d. return on investment (ROI)

answer

a

question

In a weighted scoring model, the sum of all of the criteria's weights must total ____ percent. a. 0 b. 50 c. 100 d. 150

answer

c

question

A(n) ____ is a methodology that converts an organization's value drivers, such as customer service, innovation, operational efficiency, and financial performance, to a series of defined metrics. a. payback analysis b. balanced scorecard c. weighted scoring model d. net present value analysis

answer

b

question

A(n) ____ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project's objectives and management. a. balanced scorecard b. business case c. net present value analysis d. project charter

answer

d

question

A(n) ____ is a document that describes the products or services to be created by the project team. a. contract b. statement of work c. project charter d. business case

answer

b

question

____ support contributes the most to successful information technology projects. a. Stakeholder b. Team c. Executive d. User

answer

c

question

A(n) ____ is a document used to coordinate all project planning documents and help guide a project's execution and control. a. project management plan b. statement of work c. scope statement d. contact

answer

a

question

The ____ section of the project plan should describe the major project functions and activities and identify those individuals who are responsible for them. a. organizational charts b. other organizational or process-related information c. project responsibilities d. management objectives

answer

c

question

The ____ section of the project management plan describes how to monitor project progress and handle changes. a. management objectives b. project controls c. risk management d. technical processes

answer

b

question

The ____ section of the project management plan describes specific methodologies a project might use and explains how to document information. a. management objectives b. project controls c. risk management d. technical processes

answer

d

question

The project schedule information section of the project management plan might include ____. a. a detailed budget b. key deliverables c. a detailed schedule d. project staffing

answer

c

question

The majority of time on a project is usually spent on ____, as is most of the project's budget. a. execution b. planning c. closing d. monitoring and controlling

answer

a

question

Most systems analysts begin their careers as ____. a. database administrators b. CEOs c. project managers d. programmers

answer

d

question

On large projects, many project managers say that ____ percent of the job is communicating and managing changes. a. 50 b. 70 c. 90 d. 100

answer

c

question

____ should result in improvements in project performance. a. Corrective actions b. Corrective reports c. Preventive actions d. Proactive methods

answer

a

question

____ provide information on how project execution is going. a. Performance reports b. Change requests c. Deliverables d. Contracts

answer

a

question

Which of the following is an important input to the integrated change control process? a. Deliverables b. Work performance information c. Approved and rejected change requests d. Approved and validated defect repair

answer

b

question

A(n) ____ is a formal, documented process that describes when and how official project documents may be changed. a. integrated change control b. change request c. performance report d. change control system

answer

d

question

A(n) ____ is a formal group of people responsible for approving or rejecting changes to a project. a. CCA b. CCB c. CCC d. CCD

answer

b

question

____ ensures that the descriptions of the project's products are correct and complete. a. CCB b. Correction management c. Configuration management d. Product description management

answer

c

question

____ tools track the execution of business process flows and expose how the state of supporting IT systems and resources is impacting end-to-end business process performance in real time. a. BSM b. CCB c. CCA d. BSC

answer

a

question

1.The term ____ describes a product produced as part of a project. a.end-product c.deliverable b.scope d.outcome

answer

c

question

2.There are ____ main processes involved in project scope management. a.three c.five b.four d.six

answer

c

question

3.____ involves defining and documenting the features and functions of the products produced during the project as well as the processes used for creating them. a.Collecting requirements c.Controlling scope b.Defining scope d.Verifying scope

answer

a

question

4.____ involves reviewing the project charter, requirements documents, and organizational process assets to create a scope statement, adding more information as requirements are developed and change requests are approved. a.Planning scope c.Controlling scope b.Defining scope d.Verifying scope

answer

b

question

5.____ involves formalizing acceptance of the project deliverables and during this phase the key project stakeholders, such as the customer and sponsor for the project, inspect and then formally accept the deliverables during this process. a.Planning scope c.Controlling scope b.Defining scope d.Verifying scope

answer

d

question

6.The main outputs of ____ are accepted deliverables and change requests. a.planning scope c.defining scope b.controlling scope d.verifying scope

answer

d

question

7.____ involves controlling changes to project scope throughout the life of the project, which is a challenge on many information technology projects. a.Planning scope c.Controlling scope b.Defining scope d.Verifying scope

answer

c

question

8.Good ____ is very important to project success because it helps improve the accuracy of time, cost, and resource estimates, it defines a baseline for performance measurement and project control, and it aides in communicating clear work responsibilities. a.scope planning c.scope definition b.scope management d.scope verification

answer

c

question

9.An up-to-date ____ is an important document for developing and confirming a common understanding of the project scope. a.scope management plan c.WBS b.project scope statement d.decomposition

answer

b

question

10.Of the following constraints, it is most difficult to describe, agree upon, and meet the ____ goal of many projects. a.scope c.cost b.time d.technical

answer

a

question

11.A(n) ____ is a deliverable-oriented grouping of the work involved in a project that defines the total scope of the project. a.project charter c.project scope statement b.business case d.work breakdown structure

answer

d

question

12.In the WBS, the name of the entire project is the top box, called Level ____. a.0 c.2 b.1 d.3

answer

b

question

13.In the WBS, the main groupings for the work are listed in Level ____. a.0 c.2 b.1 d.3

answer

c

question

14.Many people confuse tasks on a WBS with ____. a.goals c.responsibilities b.objectives d.specifications

answer

d

question

15.The ____ tasks vary the most from project to project. a.closing c.planning b.monitoring and controlling d.executing

answer

d

question

16.The ____ should list and describe all of the deliverables required for the project. a.project charter c.WBS b.scope statement d.Gantt chart

answer

b

question

17.In the ____, you use a similar project's WBS as a starting point. a.top-down approach c.mind-mapping approach b.bottom-up approach d.analogy approach

answer

d

question

18.The ____ approach involves refining the work into greater and greater levels of detail. a.analogy c.top-down b.bottom-up d.mind mapping

answer

c

question

19.The ____ approach is best suited to project managers who have vast technical insight and a big-picture perspective. a.analogy c.top-down b.bottom-up d.mind mapping

answer

c

question

20.Project managers often use the ____ approach for projects that represent entirely new systems or approaches to doing a job, or to help create buy-in and synergy with a project team. a.analogy c.top-down b.bottom-up d.mind mapping

answer

b

question

21.After discovering WBS items and structure using the ____ technique, you could then translate the information into chart or tabular form. a.analogy c.top-down b.bottom-up d.mind mapping

answer

d

question

22.____ involves formal acceptance of the completed project scope by the stakeholders. a.Scope verification c.Scope control b.Scope planning d.Scope definition

answer

a

question

23.The goal of ____ is to influence the factors that cause scope changes, assure changes are processed according to procedures developed as part of integrated change control, and manage changes when they occur. a.scope verification c.scope planning b.scope control d.scope definition

answer

b

question

24.____ is a process for identifying and modeling business events, who initiated them, and how the system should respond to them. a.Prototyping c.RAD b.JAD d.Use case modeling

answer

d

question

25. ____ uses highly organized and intensive workshops to bring together project stakeholders—the sponsor, users, business analysts, programmers, and so on—to jointly define and design information systems. a.Prototyping c.RAD b.JAD d.Use case modeling

answer

b

question

1.There are ____ main processes involved in project time management. a.two c.six b.four d.ten

answer

c

question

2.____ involves identifying the specific activities that the project team members and stakeholders must perform to produce the project deliverables. a.Defining activities c.Estimating activity resources b.Sequencing activities d.Estimating activity durations

answer

a

question

3.The main outputs of the ____ process are an activity list, activity attributes, milestone list, and requested changes. a.defining activities c.resource estimating activities b.sequencing activities d.duration estimating activities

answer

a

question

4.____ involves identifying and documenting the relationships between project activities. a.Defining activities c.Estimating activity resources b.Sequencing activities d.Estimating activity durations

answer

b

question

5.____ involves estimating the number of work periods that are needed to complete individual activities. a.Defining activities c.Estimating activity resources b.Sequencing activities d.Estimating activity durations

answer

d

question

6.____ involves analyzing activity sequences, activity resource estimates, and activity duration estimates to create the project schedule. a.Estimating activity durations c.Controlling the schedule b.Developing the schedule d.Estimating activity resources

answer

b

question

7.____ involves controlling and managing changes to the project schedule. a.Estimating activity durations c.Controlling the schedule b.Developing the schedule d.Estimating activity resources

answer

c

question

8.Outputs from ____ include performance measurements, organizational process assets updates, change requests, project management plan updates, and project document updates. a.estimating activity durations c.controlling the schedule b.developing schedules d.estimating activity resources

answer

c

question

9.The ____ provide(s) schedule-related information about each activity, such as predecessors, successors, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions related to the activity. a.activity list c.activity descriptions b.milestones d.activity attributes

answer

d

question

10.The goal of ____ is to ensure that the project team has complete understanding of all the work they must do as part of the project scope so they can start scheduling the work. a.defining activities c.estimating activity resources b.sequencing activities d.estimating activity durations

answer

a

question

11.____ results in supporting detail to document important product information as well as assumptions and constraints related to specific activities. a.Defining activities c.Estimating activity resources b.Sequencing activities d.Estimating activity duration

answer

a

question

12.____ involves evaluating the reasons for dependencies and the different types of dependencies. a.Defining activities c.Estimating activity resources b.Sequencing activities d.Estimating activity duration

answer

b

question

13.____ dependencies are inherent in the nature of the work being performed on a project. a.Mandatory c.External b.Discretionary d.Internal

answer

a

question

14.____ dependencies are sometimes referred to as soft logic and should be used with care since they may limit later scheduling options. a.Mandatory c.External b.Discretionary d.Internal

answer

b

question

15.____ dependencies involve relationships between project and non-project activities. a.Mandatory c.External b.Discretionary d.Internal

answer

c

question

16.____ occur when two or more activities follow a single node. a.Combinations c.Merges b.Conflicts d.Bursts

answer

d

question

17.On a network diagram, all arrowheads should face toward the ____. a.top c.right b.left d.bottom

answer

c

question

18.The ____ is a network diagramming technique in which boxes represent activities. a.PDM c.ADM b.AOA d.POA

answer

a

question

19.In a ____ relationship, the "from" activity must finish before the "to" activity can start. a.start-to-start c.finish-to-finish b.finish-to-start d.start-to-finish

answer

b

question

20.In a ____ relationship, the "from" activity cannot start until the "to" activity is started. a.start-to-start c.finish-to-finish b.finish-to-start d.start-to-finish

answer

a

question

21.In a ____ relationship, one task cannot finish before another finishes. a.start-to-start c.finish-to-finish b.finish-to-start d.start-to-finish

answer

c

question

22.A ____ is a hierarchical structure that identifies the project's resources by category and type. a.work breakdown structure c.network diagram b.resource breakdown structure d.critical path analysis

answer

b

question

23.The activity list, activity attributes, activity resource requirements, resource calendars, project scope statement, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets all include information that affect ____. a.definitions c.resource estimates b.sequences d.duration estimates

answer

d

question

24.The ultimate goal of ____ is to create a realistic project schedule that provides a basis for monitoring project progress for the time dimension of the project. a.defining activities c.developing the schedule b.sequencing activities d.estimating activity duration

answer

c

question

25.____ provide(s) a standard format for displaying project schedule information by listing project activities and their corresponding start and finish dates in a calendar format. a.Gantt charts c.Critical chain scheduling b.Critical path analysis d.PERT analysis

answer

a

question

26.____ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration. a.A Gantt chart c.Critical chain scheduling b.Critical path analysis d.PERT analysis

answer

b

question

27.The critical path is the ____ path through a network diagram, and it represents the ____ time it takes to complete a project. a.longest; longest c.shortest; longest b.longest; shortest d.shortest; shortest

answer

b

question

28.____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following activities. a.Total slack c.Free time b.Total float d.Free slack

answer

d

question

29.____ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the planned project finish date. a.Total slack c.Total time b.Free float d.Free slack

answer

a

question

30.The ____ for an activity is the latest possible time an activity might begin without delaying the project finish date. a.early entry date c.late start date b.late entry date d.early start date

answer

c

question

31.____ is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost. a.Crushing c.Fast tracking b.Crashing d.Expediting

answer

b

question

32.____ involves doing activities in parallel that you would normally do in sequence. a.Crushing c.Fast tracking b.Crashing d.Expediting

answer

c

question

33.____ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date. a.A Gantt chart c.Critical chain scheduling b.Critical path analysis d.PERT analysis

answer

c

question

34.Critical chain scheduling protects tasks on the critical chain from being delayed by using ____, which consist of additional time added before tasks on the critical chain that are preceded by non-critical-path tasks. a.critical paths c.dummy activities b.feeding buffers d.fast tracking

answer

b

question

35.____ states that work expands to fill the time allowed. a.Murphy's Law c.Parkinson's Law b.Newton's Law d.Moore's Law

answer

c

question

36.____ use(s) probabilistic time estimates—duration estimates based on using optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of activity durations—instead of one specific or discrete duration estimate. a.Critical Path Analysis c.Critical Chain Scheduling b.Gantt charts d.PERT

answer

d

question

37.The goal of ____ is to know the status of the schedule, influence the factors that cause schedule changes, determine that the schedule has changed, and manage changes when they occur. a.activity duration estimating c.schedule control b.schedule development d.activity resource estimating

answer

c

question

38.Project managers often illustrate progress with a ____ showing key deliverables and activities. a.Tracking Gantt chart c.network diagram b.Gantt chart d.PERT chart

answer

a

question

39.Project managers must use discipline to control ____. a.project bursts c.project critical paths b.project schedules d.project dependencies

answer

b

question

40.Project management software highlights the critical path in ____ on a network diagram. a.blue c.green b.yellow d.red

answer

d

question

The Standish Group's CHAOS studies reported an average cost overrun for unsuccessful IT projects range from 180 percent in 1994 to ____ percent in 2004. a. 28 c. 56 b. 43 d. 73

answer

c

question

Three separate surveys of software project cost overruns found that the average cost overrun for all of the projects in their survey samples (not just unsuccessful projects) were ____ percent. a. 13-14 c. 33-34 b. 23-24 d. 43-44

answer

c

question

____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget. a. Cost budgeting c. Cost control b. Cost estimating d. Project cost management

answer

d

question

____ involves developing an approximation or estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project. a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs

answer

d

question

____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance. a. Determining the budget c. Controlling costs b. Consolidation of costs d. Estimating costs

answer

a

question

____ is the ratio of revenues to profits. a. Profit c. Cost structure b. Profit margin d. Cost margin

answer

b

question

____ helps you develop an accurate projection of a project's financial costs and benefits. a. Profit cycle costing c. Life cycle costing b. Financial costing d. Profit margin costing

answer

c

question

____, with assistance from financial experts in their organizations, should create estimates of the costs and benefits of the project for its entire life cycle. a. Financial managers c. Budget managers b. Project managers d. System managers

answer

b

question

Since organizations depend on reliable information technology, there are also huge costs associated with ____. a. work time c. uptime b. technical planning d. downtime

answer

d

question

____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project and the resulting annual cash flow. a. Life cycle costing c. Cost estimating b. Profit margin analysis d. Cash flow analysis

answer

d

question

____ are those costs that an organization can easily measure in dollars. a. Intangible costs c. Tangible costs b. Direct costs d. Indirect costs

answer

c

question

Project managers should focus on ____, since they can control them. a. sunk costs c. direct costs b. indirect costs d. intangible costs

answer

c

question

____ are costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project. a. Intangible costs c. Direct costs b. Tangible costs d. Indirect costs

answer

d

question

____ should be forgotten. a. Sunk costs c. Direct costs b. Indirect costs d. Intangible costs

answer

a

question

____ allow for future situations that may be partially planned for. a. Contingency reserves c. Unknown unknowns b. Management reserves d. Direct reserves

answer

a

question

____ allow for future situations that are unpredictable. a. Contingency reserves c. Known unknowns b. Management reserves d. Indirect reserves

answer

b

question

A ____ provides an estimate of what a project will cost. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

answer

c

question

A ____ is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

answer

c

question

A ____ is used to allocate money into an organization's budget. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

answer

a

question

A ____ is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

answer

b

question

____ use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates

answer

d

question

____ involve estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total. a. Actual estimates c. Bottom-up estimates b. Parametric estimates d. Analogous estimates

answer

c

question

A(n) ____ might provide an estimate of $50 per line of code for a software development project based on the programming language the project is using, the level of expertise of the programmers, the size and complexity of the data involved, and so on. a. analogous cost estimate c. bottom-up estimate b. parametric model d. reserve analysis

answer

b

question

Tom DeMarco, a well-known author on software development, suggests ____ reasons for the inaccuracies of many information technology project cost estimates and some ways to overcome them. a. three c. five b. four d. six

answer

b

question

If the cost estimate will be the basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a ____ and as accurate as possible. a. budgetary estimate c. rough order of magnitude estimate b. definitive estimate d. final estimate

answer

b

question

The main goal of the ____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements. a. cost budgeting c. cost control b. cost consolidation d. cost estimating

answer

a

question

A ____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance. a. budget baseline c. cost baseline b. ledger d. cost line

answer

c

question

The project management plan, project funding requirements, work performance data, and organizational process assets are inputs for the process of ____. a. controlling costs c. consolidating costs b. budgeting costs d. estimating costs

answer

a

question

____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data. a. Cost baseline c. Constructive cost modeling b. Earned value management d. Parametric modeling

answer

b

question

The ____ is that portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

answer

d

question

The ____ is the ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

answer

c

question

The ____ is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

answer

b

question

The ____ is the total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period. a. AC c. RP b. EV d. PV

answer

a

question

Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost or planned value from ____. a. EV c. PV b. AC d. RP

answer

a

question

____ is the earned value minus the actual cost. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

answer

b

question

____ is the earned value minus the planned value. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

answer

a

question

The ____ is the ratio of earned value to actual cost and can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

answer

c

question

The ____ is the ratio of earned value to planned value and can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. a. SV c. CPI b. CV d. SPI

answer

d

question

The ____ is an estimate of what it will cost to complete the project based on performance to date. a. CPI c. EAC b. SV d. SPI

answer

c

question

Using simplified percentage complete amounts for a one-year project with weekly reporting and an average task or work packet size of one week, you can expect about a(n) ____ percent error rate. a. 1 c. 11 b. 5 d. 15

answer

a

question

It took only ____ years for 50 million people to use the Internet compared to 25 years for 50 million people to use telephones. a.three c.seven b.five d.nine

answer

b

question

____ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications. a.Conformance to requirements c.Quality conformance b.Fitness for use d.Documentation matching

answer

a

question

The ____ ultimately decides if quality is acceptable. a.project team c.project manager b.CEO d.customer

answer

d

question

Project quality management involves ____ main processes. a.two c.four b.three d.five

answer

b

question

____ includes identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy those standards. a.Performing quality assurance c.Checking quality b.Performing quality control d.Planning quality

answer

d

question

The main outputs of ____ are a quality management plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, a process improvement plan, and project document updates. a.quality control c.quality assurance b.quality planning d.quality certification

answer

b

question

____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. a.Performing quality assurance c.Checking quality b.Performing quality control d.Planning quality

answer

a

question

____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. a.Performing quality assurance c.Checking quality b.Performing quality control d.Planning quality

answer

b

question

The ____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling. a.quality planning c.quality assurance b.quality certification d.quality control

answer

d

question

____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. a.Reliability c.Maintainability b.Performance d.Functionality

answer

d

question

____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users. a.Features c.Properties b.System outputs d.Functions

answer

a

question

____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use. a.Reliability c.Maintainability b.Performance d.Functionality

answer

b

question

____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions. a.Reliability c.Maintainability b.Performance d.Functionality

answer

a

question

____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product. a.Reliability c.Maintainability b.Performance d.Functionality

answer

c

question

____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization. a.Design of experiments c.Testing b.Quality auditing d.Benchmarking

answer

d

question

____determine(s) if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. a.Process adjustments c.Acceptance decisions b.Rework d.Auditing

answer

c

question

____ is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations. a.A process adjustment c.An acceptance decision b.Rework d.Auditing

answer

b

question

____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements. a.Process adjustments c.Acceptance decisions b.Rework d.Auditing

answer

a

question

A ____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. a.statistical sampling chart c.Six Sigma chart b.Pareto chart d.control chart

answer

d

question

The ____ states that if seven data points in a row are all below the mean, above the mean, or are all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for non-random problems. a.ten run rule c.seven run rule b.six 9s of quality rule d.Six Sigma rule

answer

c

question

____ help(s) you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system. a.Statistical sampling c.Six Sigma b.Pareto charts d.Quality control charts

answer

b

question

____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection. a.Statistical sampling c.Six Sigma b.Pareto analysis d.Quality control charting

answer

a

question

A certainty factor of 1.960 is used for ____ percent desired certainty. a.75 c.96 b.95 d.99

answer

b

question

____ is a comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and maximizing business success. a.Statistical sampling c.Six Sigma b.Pareto analysis d.Quality control charting

answer

c

question

Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities. a.1.34 c.34 b.3.4 d.340

answer

b

question

Important tools used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data. a.define c.analyze b.measure d.improve

answer

a

question

An important tool used in the ____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram. a.define c.analyze b.measure d.improve

answer

c

question

A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed). a.skewed distribution c.polynomial distribution b.normal distribution d.symmetrical distribution

answer

b

question

In any normal distribution, ____ percent of the population is within three standard deviations of the mean. a.95.5 c.99.7 b.99.0 d.99.9

answer

c

question

A(n) ____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. a.defect c.error b.failure d.recall

answer

a

question

A(n) ____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. a.integration test c.user acceptance test b.unit test d.system test

answer

b

question

____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. a.Integration testing c.User acceptance testing b.Unit testing d.System testing

answer

c

question

One of ____ 14 Points for Management states that an organization should cease dependence on inspection to achieve quality. a.Deming's c.Crosby's b.Juran's d.Ishikawa's

answer

a

question

One of ____ ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement. a.Deming's c.Juran's b.Crosby's d.Ishikawa's

answer

c

question

Juran's final step to quality improvement is ____. a.organize to reach the goals (establish a quality council, identify problems, select projects, appoint teams, designate facilitators) b.keep score c.report progress d.maintain momentum by making annual improvement part of the regular systems and processes of the company

answer

d

question

____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects. a.Juran c.Crosby b.Ishikawa d.Deming

answer

c

question

____, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization. a.IEEE 15504 c.IEEE 9000 b.ISO 9000 d.ISO 15504

answer

b

question

____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. a.Prevention cost c.Internal failure cost b.Appraisal cost d.External failure cost

answer

b

question

____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer. a.Prevention cost c.Internal failure cost b.Appraisal cost d.External failure cost

answer

d

question

____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. a.SQFD c.SQMMI b.CMM d.CMMI

answer

d

question

Human resource management includes ____ processes. a.three c.five b.four d.six

answer

b

question

____ involves getting the needed personnel assigned to and working on the project. a.Developing the human resource plan c.Acquiring the project team b.Developing the project team d.Managing the project team

answer

c

question

Key outputs of ____ process are project staff assignments, resource calendars, and project management plan updates. a.managing the project team c.developing the project team b.acquiring the project team d.developing the human resource plan

answer

b

question

____ involves building individual and group skills to enhance project performance. a.Developing the human resource plan c.Acquiring the project team b.Developing the project team d.Managing the project team

answer

b

question

The main outputs of ____ process are team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factors update. a.managing the project team c.developing the project team b.acquiring the project team d.human resource planning

answer

c

question

____ involves tracking team member performance, motivating team members, providing timely feedback, resolving issues and conflicts, and coordinating changes to help enhance project performance. a.Developing the human resource plan c.Acquiring the project team b.Developing the project team d.Managing the project team

answer

d

question

____ involves identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, and reporting relationships. a.Developing the human resource plan c.Acquiring the project team b.Developing the project team d.Managing the project team

answer

a

question

Abraham Maslow, a highly respected psychologist, rejected the dehumanizing negativism of psychology in the ____. a.1940s c.1960s b.1950s d.1970s

answer

b

question

____ is best known for developing a hierarchy of needs. a.Frederick Herzberg c.Abraham Maslow b.David McClelland d.Douglas McGregor

answer

c

question

At the bottom of Maslow's structure are ____ needs. a.esteem c.physiological b.self-actualization d.social

answer

c

question

____ is at the top of Maslow's structure. a.Esteem c.Physiological b.Self-actualization d.Social

answer

b

question

The bottom four needs in Maslow's structure are referred to as ____ needs. a.self-actualization c.safety b.deficiency d.growth

answer

b

question

The highest level of needs in Maslow's structure is referred to as a ____ need. a.deficiency c.safety b.growth d.physiological

answer

b

question

____ is best known for distinguishing between motivational factors and hygiene factors when considering motivation in work settings. a.Frederick Herzberg c.Abraham Maslow b.David McClelland d.Douglas McGregor

answer

a

question

____ found that people were motivated to work mostly by feelings of personal achievement and recognition. a.Maslow c.McClelland b.McGregor d.Herzberg

answer

d

question

____ proposed that an individual's specific needs are acquired or learned over time and shaped by life experiences. a.Frederick Herzberg c.Abraham Maslow b.David McClelland d.Douglas McGregor

answer

b

question

People with a high need for ____ seek to excel and tend to avoid both low-risk and high-risk situations to improve their chances for achieving something worthwhile. a.affiliation c.power b.money d.achievement

answer

d

question

People with a high need for ____ desire harmonious relationships with other people and need to feel accepted by others. a.affiliation c.power b.money d.achievement

answer

a

question

People who need personal ____ want to direct others and can be seen as bossy. a.affiliation c.power b.advancement d.achievement

answer

c

question

The ____ presents subjects with a series of ambiguous pictures and asks them to develop a spontaneous story for each picture, assuming they will project their own needs into the story. a.RAM c.TAT b.MBTI d.RACI

answer

c

question

____ is best known for developing Theory X and Theory Y. a.Frederick Herzberg c.Abraham Maslow b.David McClelland d.Douglas McGregor

answer

d

question

People who believe in ____ assume that the average worker wants to be directed and prefers to avoid responsibility. a.Theory W c.Theory Y b.Theory X d.Theory Z

answer

b

question

____ emphasizes things such as job rotation, broadening of skills, generalization versus specialization, and the need for continuous training of workers. a.Theory W c.Theory Y b.Theory X d.Theory Z

answer

d

question

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the legitimate hierarchical right to issue orders. a.authority c.expertise b.assignment d.promotion

answer

a

question

According to Thamhain and Wilemon, ____ is the ability to improve a worker's position. a.authority c.expertise b.assignment d.promotion

answer

d

question

____ involves using punishment, threats, or other negative approaches to get people to do things they do not want to do. a.Legitimate power c.Reward power b.Coercive power d.Referent power

answer

b

question

____ involves using incentives to induce people to do things. a.Legitimate power c.Reward power b.Coercive power d.Referent power

answer

c

question

____ is based on an individual's personal charisma. a.Legitimate power c.Reward power b.Coercive power d.Referent power

answer

d

question

Which of Covey's habits does Douglas Ross suggest differentiates good project managers from average or poor project managers? a.Think win/win b.Seek first to understand, then to be understood c.Begin with the end in mind d.Synergize

answer

b

question

____ is matching certain behaviors of the other person. a.Empathic listening c.Synergy b.Rapport d.Mirroring

answer

d

question

____ fill in for project managers in their absence and assist them as needed. a.Deputy project managers c.Assistant project managers b.Subproject managers d.Second-tier project managers

answer

a

question

The first step in the framework for defining and assigning work is ____. a.defining how the work will be accomplished b.breaking down the work into manageable elements c.finalizing the project requirements d.assigning work responsibilities

answer

c

question

A(n) ____ is a column chart that shows the number of resources assigned to a project over time. a.responsibility assignment matrix c.RACI charts b.resource histogram d.organizational breakdown structure

answer

b

question

____ refers to the amount of individual resources an existing schedule requires during specific time periods. a.Resource loading c.Resource allocation b.Resource leveling d.Resource requesting

answer

a

question

____ is a technique for resolving resource conflicts by delaying tasks. a.Resource loading c.Resource allocation b.Resource leveling d.Resource requesting

answer

b

question

In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs as team members have different opinions as to how the team should operate. a.performing c.forming b.norming d.storming

answer

d

question

In the Tuckman model, ____ occurs when the emphasis is on reaching the team goals, rather than working on team process. a.performing c.forming b.norming d.storming

answer

a

question

In the MBTI, the ____ dimension relates to the manner in which you gather information. a.Extrovert/Introvert c.Judgment/Perception b.Thinking/Feeling d.Sensation/Intuition

answer

d

question

Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and task-oriented. a."Expressives" c."Analyticals" b."Drivers" d."Amiables"

answer

c

question

Psychologist David Merril describes ____ as reactive and people-oriented. a."Expressives" c."Analyticals" b."Drivers" d."Amiables"

answer

d

question

There are ____ main processes in project communications management. a.two c.four b.three d.five

answer

c

question

____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders. a.Reporting performance c.Managing stakeholder expectations b.Distributing information d.Planning communications

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d

question

The output of the ____ process is a communications management plan. a.reporting performance c.managing stakeholder expectations b.distributing information d.planning communications

answer

d

question

____ involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. a.Reporting performance c.Managing stakeholder expectations b.Distributing information d.Planning communications

answer

b

question

____ involves collecting and disseminating performance information, including status reports, progress measurement, and forecasting. a.Reporting performance c.Managing stakeholder expectations b.Distributing information d.Planning communications

answer

a

question

The communications management plan can be part of the team ____. a.WBS c.plan b.contract d.guidelines

answer

b

question

Having ____ review and approve all stakeholder communications analysis will ensure that the information is correct and useful. a.stakeholders c.top management b.project team members d.customers

answer

a

question

Information regarding the content of essential project communications comes from the ____. a.organizational chart c.work breakdown structure (WBS) b.communications management plan d.expectations management matrix

answer

c

question

The ____ serves as a good starting point for information distribution. a.stakeholder communications analysis c.communications management plan b.WBS d.status report

answer

a

question

Often, many non-technical professionals—from colleagues to managers—prefer to ____ about project information to try to find pertinent information. a.read detailed reports c.read Web pages b.read e-mails d.have a two-way conversation

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d

question

____ are often more effective particularly for sensitive information. a.Electronic communications c.Telephone conversations b.Short face-to-face meetings d.Long face-to-face meetings

answer

b

question

Many people cite research that says in a face-to-face interaction, ____ percent of communication is through body language. a.10 c.58 b.25 d.85

answer

c

question

Since information technology projects often require a lot of coordination, it is a good idea to have ____ meetings. a.long, frequent c.short, frequent b.short, infrequent d.long, infrequent

answer

c

question

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only inappropriate method for expressing support/appreciation. a.phone call c.meeting b.e-mail d.Web site

answer

d

question

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the only method that is "excellent" for encouraging creative thinking. a.phone call c.meeting b.e-mail d.Web Site

answer

b

question

According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) ____ is the most appropriate method for giving complex instructions. a.phone call c.meeting b.e-mail d.Web Site

answer

c

question

Many users prefer ____ to learn how to use a new system. a.phone conversations c.e-mail conversations b.face-to-face meetings d.reading user guides

answer

b

question

As the number of people involved in a project ____, the complexity of communications ____. a.increases, decreases c.increases, stays constant b.decreases, increases d.increases, increases

answer

d

question

Two people have ____ communications channel(s). a.zero c.two b.one d.three

answer

b

question

Four people have ____ communications channel(s). a.one c.six b.four d.eight

answer

c

question

Many practitioners define project success as ____. a.meeting project scope goals c.satisfying the customer/sponsor b.meeting time goals d.meeting cost goals

answer

c

question

Project sponsors can usually rank scope, time, and cost goals in order of importance in a(n) ____. a.expectations management matrix c.issue log b.responsibility assignment matrix d.priority matrix

answer

a

question

____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time. a.Progress reports c.Forecasts b.Status reports d.Updates

answer

b

question

____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period. a.Progress reports c.Forecasts b.Status reports d.Updates

answer

a

question

____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends. a.Progress reports c.Forecasts b.Status reports d.Updates

answer

c

question

____ are a good way to highlight information provided in important project documents, empower people to be accountable for their work, and have face-to-face discussions about important project issues. a.Information retreats c.Information review meetings b.Status planning meetings d.Status review meetings

answer

d

question

____ issues cause the most conflicts over the project life cycle. a.Project priority c.Cost b.Staffing d.Schedule

answer

d

question

The ____ mode is also called the problem-solving mode. a.confrontation c.smoothing b.compromise d.forcing

answer

a

question

With the ____, project managers use a give-and-take approach to resolving conflicts. a.confrontation mode c.smoothing mode b.compromise mode d.forcing mode

answer

b

question

When using the ____, the project manager deemphasizes or avoids areas of differences and emphasizes areas of agreement. a.confrontation mode c.smoothing mode b.withdrawal mode d.forcing mode

answer

c

question

When using the ____, project managers exert their viewpoint at the potential expense of another viewpoint. a.confrontation mode c.smoothing mode b.compromise mode d.forcing mode

answer

d

question

When using the ____, project managers retreat or withdraw from an actual or potential disagreement. a.confrontation mode c.smoothing mode b.withdrawal mode d.forcing mode

answer

b

question

Research indicates that project managers favor using ____ for conflict resolution over the other four modes. a.compromise c.confrontation b.smoothing d.forcing

answer

c

question

____ employees are also more likely to enroll voluntarily in classes on the latest technology than those on developing their soft skills. a.Individual c.Groups of b.Service d.Team

answer

a

question

It takes ____ to help improve communication. a.timing c.leadership b.highly skilled employees d.outside consultants

answer

c

question

According to the guideline governing ____, many meetings are most effective with the minimum number of participants possible. a.determining if a meeting can be avoided b.determining who should attend the meeting c.defining the purpose and intended outcome of the meeting d.running the meeting professionally

answer

b

question

According to the guideline governing ____, designate someone to take minutes and send the minutes out soon after the meeting. a.running the meeting professionally b.providing an agenda to participants before the meeting c.determining who should attend the meeting d.building relationships

answer

a

question

The ____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail. a.to c.subject b.from d.cc

answer

c

question

Some items discussed in a(n) ____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members' experiences. a.final project report c.audit report b.design document d.lessons-learned report

answer

d

question

____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project. a.Project archives c.Project databases b.Project backups d.Project notes

answer

a

question

William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak's study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of risk management. a.engineering/construction b.telecommunications c.information systems d.high-tech manufacturing

answer

c

question

William Ibbs and Young H. Kwak's study revealed that the ____ industry had the lowest level of project management maturity in the area of quality management. a.engineering/construction b.telecommunications c.information systems d.high-tech manufacturing

answer

c

question

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the participants said they had procedures in place to identify and assess risk. a.75 b.87 c.97 d.99

answer

c

question

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent identified anticipating and avoiding problems as the primary benefit of risk management. a.60 c.89 b.80 d.99

answer

b

question

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that ____ percent of the organizations surveyed had a Project Management Office. a.64 b.75 c.85 d.94

answer

a

question

KLCI Research Group's 2001 survey revealed that the most frequently cited benefit from software risk management practices is to ____. a.prevent surprises b.improve ability to negotiate c.meet customer commitments d.anticipate/avoid problems

answer

d

question

Utility rises at a decreasing rate for a ____ person. a.risk-seeking b.risk-averse c.risk-neutral d.risk-indifferent

answer

b

question

Those who are ____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. a.risk-seeking b.risk-averse c.risk-neutral d.risk-indifferent

answer

a

question

A ____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff. a.risk-seeking b.risk-averse c.risk-fearing d.risk-neutral

answer

d

question

There are ____ major processes involved in risk management. a.three b.four c.five d.six

answer

d

question

.____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project. a.Identifying risks b.Planning risk management c.Performing qualitative risk analysis d.Performing quantitative risk analysis

answer

b

question

.____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each. a.Identifying risks b.Planning risk management c.Performing qualitative risk analysis d.Performing quantitative risk analysis

answer

a

question

.____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence. a.Performing qualitative risk analysis b.Planning risk management c.Planning risk responses d.Performing quantitative risk analysis

answer

a

question

.____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a.Performing qualitative risk analysis b.Planning risk responses c.Planning risk management d.Performing quantitative risk analysis

answer

d

question

____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a.Performing quantitative risk analysis b.Planning risk responses c.Monitoring and controlling risk d.Performing qualitative risk analysis

answer

b

question

____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project. a.Performing quantitative risk analysis b.Planning risk responses c.Monitoring and controlling risk d.Performing qualitative risk analysis

answer

c

question

____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. a.Fallback plans b.Contingency reserves c.Contingency plans d.Contingency allowances

answer

c

question

____ are developed for risks that have a high impact on meeting project objectives, and are put into effect if attempts to reduce the risk are not effective. a.Fallback plans b.Contingency reserves c.Contingency plans d.Contingency allowances

answer

a

question

According to the Standish Group's success potential scoring sheet, ____ has the highest relative importance. a.executive management support b.clear statement of requirements c.proper planning d.user involvement

answer

d

question

"If the information technology project is to produce a new product or service, will it be useful to the organization or marketable to others?" applies to which risk category? a.Financial risk b.Technology risk c.Structure/process risk d.Market risk

answer

d

question

"Will the project meet NPV, ROI, and payback estimates?" applies to which risk category? a.Financial risk b.Technology risk c.Structure/process risk d.Market risk

answer

a

question

"Is there a project champion?" applies to which risk category? a.Financial risk b.Technology risk c.Structure/process risk d.People risk

answer

d

question

In a risk breakdown structure, competitors, suppliers, and cash flow are categories that fall under ____ risk. a.business b.technical c.organizational d.project management

answer

a

question

Poor conflict management, poor project organization and definition of responsibilities, and absence of leadership are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a.Integration b.Quality c.Time d.Human Resources

answer

d

question

Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses, and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the ____ project management knowledge area. a.Integration b.Quality c.Procurement d.Human Resources

answer

c

question

____ is a fact-finding technique for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions. a.Brainstorming b.SWOT analysis c.The Delphi technique d.Interviewing

answer

d

question

A(n) ____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other. a.risk breakdown structure b.influence diagram c.process flow chart d.system flow chart

answer

b

question

A project manager can chart the probability and impact of risks on a ____. a.risk ranking chart b.risk probability table c.probability/impact matrix d.risk assessment matrix

answer

c

question

____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool, and in addition to identifying risks, it maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project. a.Risk factor analysis b.Probability/impact matrices or charts c.Risk registering d.Top Ten Risk Item Tracking

answer

d

question

A(n) ____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain. a.decision tree b.EMV c.Monte Carlo analysis d.watch list

answer

a

question

____ analysis simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results. a.Decision tree b.EMV c.Monte Carlo d.Watch list

answer

c

question

What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis? a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable. b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable. c. Assess the range for the variables being considered. d. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.

answer

c

question

____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes. a.Risk avoidance b.Risk acceptance c.Risk transference d.Risk mitigation

answer

a

question

____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. a.Risk avoidance b.Risk acceptance c.Risk transference d.Risk mitigation

answer

c

question

____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence. a.Risk avoidance b.Risk acceptance c.Risk transference d.Risk mitigation

answer

d

question

____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a.Risk exploitation b.Risk sharing c.Risk enhancement d.Risk acceptance

answer

a

question

____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. a. risk exploitation b. risk sharing c. risk enhancement d. risk acceptance

answer

b

question

____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk. a. risk exploitation b. risk sharing c. risk enhancement d. risk acceptance

answer

c

question

____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. risk enhancement b. risk acceptance c. risk sharing d. risk exploitation

answer

b

question

____ risks are a direct result of implementing a risk response. a. Primary b. Tertiary c. Secondary d. Residual

answer

c

question

An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)-sponsored report stated that spending for global sources of computer software and services is expected to grow at a compound annual rate of about ____ percent. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40

answer

b

question

An October 2005 Information Technology Association of America (ITAA)-sponsored report stated that total savings from offshore resources during the 2005-2010 period are estimated to grow from $8.7 billion to ____. a. $10.2 billion b. $20.4 billion c. $50.4 billion d. $107.9 billion

answer

b

question

"Outsourcing suppliers are often able to use economies of scale that may not be available to the client alone, especially for hardware and software." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business c. Access skills and technologies d. Provide flexibility

answer

a

question

"Most organizations are not in business to provide information technology services, yet many have spent valuable time and resources on information technology functions when they should have focused on core competencies such as marketing, customer service, and new product design." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

answer

d

question

"Organizations can gain access to specific skills and technologies when they are required by using outside resources." refers to the ____ benefit of outsourcing. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

answer

c

question

"Outsourcing to provide extra staff during periods of peak workloads can be much more economical than trying to staff entire projects with internal resources." refers to the ____ benefit. a. Reduce both fixed and recurrent costs b. Provide flexibility c. Access skills and technologies d. Allow the client organization to focus on its core business

answer

b

question

There are ____ main processes of project procurement management a. three b. four c. five d. six

answer

b

question

____ involves determining what to procure, when, and how. a. Planning contracting b. Administrating procurements c. Conducting procurements d. Planning procurements

answer

d

question

____ involves obtaining seller responses, selecting sellers, and awarding contracts. a. Conducting procurements b. Selecting sellers c. Requesting seller responses d. Planning purchases and acquisitions

answer

a

question

Outputs to the ____ process include selected sellers, procurement contract awards, resource calendars, change requests, and updates to the project management plan and other project documents. a. Closing the contract b. Conducting procurements c. Requesting seller responses d. Administering the contract

answer

b

question

____ involves managing relationships with sellers, monitoring contract performance, and making changes as needed. a. Closing procurements b. Selecting sellers c. Requesting seller responses d. Administering procurements

answer

d

question

____ involves completion and settlement of each contract, including resolution of any open items. a. Exiting procurements b. Closing out accounts c. Closing procurements d. Ending procurements

answer

c

question

For many projects, properly ____ some information technology functions can be a great investment. a. outsourcing b. scaling c. increasing d. planning

answer

a

question

____ contracts involve a fixed total price for a well-defined product or service. a. CPFF b. Lump sum c. Cost-reimbursable d. Time and material

answer

b

question

____ involve payment to the supplier for direct and indirect actual costs. a. CPFF contracts b. Lump sum contracts c. Cost-reimbursable contracts d. Time and material contracts

answer

c

question

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined fee and an incentive bonus. a. CPFF b. CPIF c. CPPC d. CPPF

answer

b

question

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs plus a fixed fee payment usually based on a percentage of estimated costs. a. CPFF b. CPIF c. CPPC d. CPPF

answer

a

question

With a(n) ____ contract, the buyer pays the supplier for allowable performance costs along with a predetermined percentage based on total costs. a. CPFF b. CPIF c. CPPC d. CPPF

answer

c

question

From the supplier's perspective, there is the least risk with a(n) ____ contract a. CPFF b. FFP c. CPPC d. CPFF

answer

c

question

The ____ is a description of the work required for the procurement. a. RFQ b. RFP c. COW d. SOW

answer

d

question

Many organizations use ____ and templates to generate SOWs. a. details b. outlines c. plans d. samples

answer

d

question

A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit proposals from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ b. RFP c. COW d. SOW

answer

b

question

A(n) ____ is a document used to solicit quotes or bids from prospective suppliers. a. RFQ b. RFP c. COW d. SOW

answer

a

question

Buyers typically develop a short list of the top ____ suppliers to reduce the work involved in selecting a source. a. one to two b. three to five c. eight to ten d. twelve to fifteen

answer

b

question

____ change orders are oral or written acts or omissions by someone with actual or apparent authority that can be construed to have the same effect as a written change order. a. Direct b. Constructive c. Destructive d. Instructive

answer

b

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