question

1. Most developmental theorists today believe that:

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stages of adult development are not orderly and predictable

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2. Although Erikson's stages of psychosocial development are sequential, the search for identity that begins in the stage of identity versus role diffusion:

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is ongoing throughout adulthood

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3. What is one of Erikson's stages of adulthood?

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generativity versus stagnation

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4. A grandmother, at age 80, is in Erikson's final stage of adulthood, which is called:

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d. integrity versus despair.

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5. Research has shown that the _____ , a period of unusual anxiety, reexamination, and transformation during middle adulthood proposed by Levinson, has more to do with historical circumstances than actual age.

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d. midlife crisis

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6. An individual's _____ provides an example of developmental continuity.

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b. personality

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7. Which is NOT one of the Big Five personality traits?

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a. selflessness

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8. A person who is moody, anxious, and self-punishing is high in:

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d. neuroticism.

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9. A person who has many of the personality traits associated with extroversion would be described as:

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b. active and outgoing.

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10. Someone who seems to thrive on changing jobs, is artistic, and likes to try new things would be rated high on the personality dimension called:

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b. openness.

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11. Someone who is very organized and self-disciplined, and conforms easily to standards set for performance at work, is high on which of the Big Five traits?

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c. conscientiousness

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12. People choose a particular lifestyle and social context, or _____, because it is compatible with their personality traits.

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a. ecological niche

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13. Which personality trait tends to increase with age?

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c. agreeableness

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14. How does the relationship between siblings typically change from adolescence to adulthood?

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d. It improves to the point where they are often best friends.

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15. Getting married, having children, and living in separate residences increases the likelihood of _____ sibling relationships in adulthood.

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improving

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16. Individuals who are accepted into a family that is not their legal or biological family are called:

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a. fictive kin.

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17. What percentage of contemporary U.S. adults will never make a marriage-like commitment?

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b. less than 10

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18. Which factor has the GREATEST long-term effect on a marriage's quality?

answer

c. the partners' personalities

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19. After children have grown, MOST couples find that:

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b. their happiness increases.

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20. Current objective research data from a large, randomly selected sample of same-sex partners is:

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a. not yet available.

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21. What proportion of all first marriages end in divorce?

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b. one-third

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22. Approximately what proportion of divorces terminates an abusive or destructive relationship?

answer

b. one-third

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23. At least initially, remarriage brings which conditions?

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d. the same level of happiness as in the first marriage

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24. According to Erikson, an adult's failure to achieve generativity results in:

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b. stagnation and personal dissatisfaction.

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25. According to Erikson, when individuals are productive in an unselfish and caring way, they are demonstrating:

answer

b. generativity.

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26. Families with stepchildren, foster children, or adoptive children experience greater challenges in developing secure attachments because:

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b. some children remain strongly attached to their birth parents.

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27. A kinkeeper assumes responsibility for:

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c. gathering the family for holidays and disseminating information.

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28. Since they are called on to help both the older and younger generations of the family, middle-aged adults have been called the:

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d. sandwich generation.

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29. The belief that family members should be supportive of one another even if it means sacrificing individual freedom and success is referred to as:

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b. familism.

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30. Sam and Claire are in their 80s. They consistently vote against any member of Congress who may cut their Medicare benefits. At the same time, they do not want Medicare benefits extended to members of younger generations because they fear that doing so will bankrupt the nation. The reason they think this way is MOST likely due to their:

answer

b. risk aversion.

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31. When young people are first entering the workforce and establishing themselves in their career, what do they tend to consider as the most important?

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b. extrinsic rewards

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32. With regard to paid work, older employees tend to have _____ compared to younger employees.

answer

a. less absenteeism

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33. Between the ages of 23 and 44, the average worker in the United States has ______ separate employers.

answer

c. 7

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34. Which statement about employees that work overtime is true?

answer

c. Workers who are required to work overtime feel less job satisfaction.

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35. Employers that allow workers to choose at least some of the particular hours they work offer:

answer

c. flextime.

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36. Employment is _____ adult psychosocial health.

answer

c. one factor contributing to

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1. The term "ageism" refers to:

answer

b. judging people on the basis of chronological age.

question

2. Ageism impacts the elderly by:

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b. undermining their feelings of competence and self-esteem.

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3. Using elderspeak when engaging in conversation with an older adult:

answer

a. is demeaning.

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4. The study of population numbers is called:

answer

c. demography.

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5. What percent of the United States population is over age 65?

answer

b. 13

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6. A problem with the dependency ratio is that it:

answer

a. assumes that people over age 64 are dependent.

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7. What is the fastest-growing age group in the United States?

answer

d. 80 and up

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8. In the United States, only 4 percent of older people live:

answer

b. in nursing homes.

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9. The young-old are:

answer

a. healthy, active, and independent.

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10. Which of the following groups makes up the largest group of older adults?

answer

a. young-old

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11. What distinguishes the old-old from the young-old?

answer

d. reductions in physical or mental ability

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12. Individuals classified as oldest-old are usually how old?

answer

c. over 85

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13. The wear-and-tear theory of aging is weakened by the fact that:

answer

c. many body functions benefit from use.

question

14. The notion that DNA regulates the aging process is referred to as the:

answer

c. genetic clock.

question

15. The Hayflick limit is a natural limit to the:

answer

a. number of times cells can divide.

question

16. The very ends of chromosomes in cells, which may be correlated with longevity, are known as:

answer

d. telomeres.

question

17. Which of the below is NOT true regarding sexuality in late adulthood?

answer

c. women stop intercourse earlier than men for biological reasons

question

18. Which of the following strategies is crucial when older people have sensory loss?

answer

c. compensation

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19. Which of the following happens to the brain during senescence?

answer

c. neurotransmitter production decreases

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20. Overall brain slowdown is evident in which of the following ways?

answer

b. slower reaction time

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21. Which of the following statements is a possible explanation for greater brain activity in older adults?

answer

a. Older adults compensate for losses by using more parts of their brains.

question

22. Delores, age 75, believes her memory is fading with age, and the anxiety this causes her actually diminishes her memory. This is an example of:

answer

c. stereotype threat.

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23. A marked decrease in brain processing and memory in some older adults may be attributed to:

answer

b. inadequate control processes.

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24. The divide between what is sensed and what is not is known as the:

answer

b. sensory threshold.

question

25. The ability to recall a string of digits backward tends to _____ with age, while memory for vocabulary tends to _____ with age.

answer

d. decrease; stay the same

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26. One function of working memory is:

answer

a. temporary storage of information before processing.

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27. The idea that cognition should be measured in terms of everyday tasks and circumstances is:

answer

d. ecological validity

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28. Control processes depend on which part of the brain?

answer

c. prefrontal cortex

question

29. Storage mechanisms, retrieval strategies, selective attention, and problem-solving are all considered:

answer

c. control processes.

question

30. Which of the following statements is characteristic of the memory of older adults?

answer

d. Older adults benefit from learning memory strategies.

question

31. According to the Seattle Longitudinal Study, the five primary mental abilities _____ around age 60.

answer

b. decline

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32. Primary aging refers to age-related changes that:

answer

a. inevitably take place as time goes by.

question

33. The consequences of particular diseases are features of:

answer

c. secondary aging.

question

34. The leading cause of death for the oldest-old is

answer

d. pneumonia.

question

35. The medication that reduces hypertension in middle-aged adults can __ for the oldest-old.

answer

a. be counterproductive

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36. Limiting the time a person spends being ill or infirm is referred to as:

answer

a. compression of morbidity.

question

37. Osteoporosis not only results from primary aging, but also from too:

answer

c. much smoking.

question

38. Dementia is:

answer

d. the pathological loss of brain functioning.

question

39. A temporary loss of memory and confusion that disappears in hours or days is:

answer

a. delirium.

question

40. Autopsies show that the brains of Alzheimer victims:

answer

a. have a proliferation of plaques and tangles.

question

41. Death typically comes many years after the first signs of Alzheimer disease?

answer

d. 10-15

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42. Researchers believe that Alzheimer disease is _____ genetic

answer

c. partly

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43. In the _____ stage of Alzheimer disease, patients may not eat or talk.

answer

d. final

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44. Grandma suffered a ministroke, but the symptoms disappeared shortly thereafter and the event went unnoticed by friends and family. What is likely to happen next?

answer

b. She will develop Parkinson disease.

question

45. The most common form of frontal lobe dementia is:

answer

d. Pick disease.

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46. The main symptom of frontal lobe dementias is:

answer

a. personality change.

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47. Some dementias, including _____, begin with impaired motor control.

answer

c. Parkinson disease

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48. A main symptom in Lewy body dementia is loss of:

answer

a. inhibition.

question

49. _____ can disrupt the flow of oxygen to the brain, thereby worsening the symptoms of dementia.

answer

a. Diabetes

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50. The fact that many elderly people take many different medications (polypharmacy) means that:

answer

c. the drugs can interact and produce adverse reactions.

question

51. Maslow maintains that older adults are:

answer

a. more likely than younger people to reach self-actualization.

question

52. Erikson called elders _____, as they are both aware of changes between generations and have a broad view of the human experience.

answer

c. social witnesses

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53. Which of the following attributes is associated with wisdom?

answer

b. integrity

question

54. According to a comprehensive study, factors that contribute to a long life include:

answer

d. lifelong work and a diet rich in fresh vegetables.

question

55. The maximum life span appears to be _____ years for humans.

answer

c. 122

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56. In 2012 in the United States, the average life expectancy was _____ years for men and _____ years for women.

answer

a. 76; 81

question

1. Theories that describe the ways in which societies place people on a particular life path are called:

answer

b. stratification theories.

question

2. Self theories emphasize:

answer

c. perceptions of self.

question

3. Erikson called the final crisis of development:

answer

c. integrity versus despair.

question

4. According to Erikson, each new experience throughout life requires:

answer

b. a reassessment of identity.

question

5. Martha has accumulated such large piles of old papers and magazines that she can no longer use her table or desk, and she has held on to so much old furniture and clothing that many rooms in her home cannot be entered. In her attempts to hang on to various material items from her life, Martha developed:

answer

d. compulsive hoarding.

question

6. As he ages, a professional musician begins to limit his repertoire, to practice more before concerts, and to change the way he sits when he plays. He is:

answer

b. using selective optimization with compensation.

question

7. Age, gender, ethnicity, and income are the four major categories of _____; as such, they can limit choice at every stage of life.

answer

d. stratification

question

8. The most controversial version of social stratification theory is _____, in part because it can be used to justify ageism and social isolation.

answer

b. disengagement

question

9. The view that elderly people need to remain active in a variety of social spheres is called:

answer

c. activity theory.

question

10. The increased allostatic load that African Americans experience as a result of years of stress related to discrimination is referred to as:

answer

b. weathering.

question

11. the U.S., elderly Hispanics seem to have a(n) _____ advantage over elderly non-Hispanics.

answer

a. longevity

question

12. The crucial stratification variable in the well being of the elderly is _____, which causes a lifetime of stresses including less education, less health care, and accumulating disadvantages of many kinds.

answer

b. low income

question

13. Denmark, which has the highest proportion of happy seniors, mitigates stratification by income by:

answer

c. providing free health care and subsidized senior housing.

question

14. _______provides social status, financial security, and independence for older adults.

answer

a. Paid employment

question

15. Generally, where do the elderly prefer to live?

answer

c. in their own homes

question

16. Religious involvement correlates with _____ because it promotes social relationships and healthy habits.

answer

b. a feeling that there is continuity in experience and traditions among generations.

question

17. Psychological health in old age is based on:

answer

b. to uniformly support the candidate or measure endorsed by AARP.

question

18. With regard to elections and public policy debates, the elderly tend:

answer

c. poorer and less happy.

question

19. Compared to single older adults, elderly partners tend to be:

answer

a. a sense of agreement on everything.

question

20. One crucial factor in the success of long-term marriages is:

answer

b. nuclear

question

21. A family of many generations but with only a few members of each generation is called a _____ family.

answer

a. companionate

question

22. Grandparents who are active in the daily lives of their grandchildren are said to be _____ grandparents.

answer

d. companionate

question

23. Grandparents who are emotionally distant but who are honored, respected, and obeyed by grandchildren are considered to have which of the following grandparenting styles?

answer

a. are emotionally distant elders.

question

24. Companionate grandparents:

answer

c. Volunteer caregiving

question

25. _____, in which grandparents provide for grandchildren because the parents have been judged neglectful or abusive, works as well as other comparable arrangements for the children but can be difficult for grandparents in a wide variety of ways.

answer

a. pitied or ridiculed.

question

26. Today, most never-married older adults are:

answer

d. to be married.

question

27. Research has found that in order to be happy older adults need:

answer

b. at least one close friend

question

28. In recent years, the rates of social networking among those aged 65 and older increased by what percent?

answer

d. 100

question

29. People who are over the age of 65, and often over the age of 85, who are physically infirm, very ill, or cognitively disabled are referred to as the:

answer

b. frail elderly.

question

30. About one-third of older people will be frail for _____ before they die.

answer

b. at least a year

question

31. ADLs are

answer

b. activities of daily life.

question

32. In the U.S., which of the following activities is one of the IADLs?

answer

c. keeping a budget

question

33. The difference between ADLs and IADLs is that:

answer

d. IADLs require some intellectual competence.

question

34. Which of the following responses to weakening leg muscles in an older person is the best response in terms of maintaining self-efficacy?

answer

b. beginning a strength-training regimen

question

35. Which of the following conditions increases the likelihood of elder abuse?

answer

a. a demanding care receiver

question

36. About 5 percent of elders report that they have been victims of:

answer

d. elder abuse.

question

37. What is one of the reasons that elder abuse sometimes difficult to identify?

answer

b. The definition of what constitutes abuse is not clearly defined.

question

38. An intermediate form of care for older adults is:

answer

b. assisted living.

question

39. When elderly individuals live near each other and pool resources to promote aging in place, this is called:

answer

b. village care.

question

40. Assisted living can be thought of as a combination of:

answer

b. nursing home care and independent living.

question

1. The study of death and dying is known as:

answer

c. thanatology.

question

2. Which of the following statements is a way that death today is different from 100 years ago?

answer

d. Death has been removed from daily life.

question

3. One hundred years ago, most people died _____, while today they most often die in a hospital.

answer

a. at home

question

4. A century ago, the average lifespan worldwide was _____ years.

answer

a. 40

question

5. Children as young as _____ have some sort of understanding of death, though they may not understand that the person will not come back to life.

answer

b. 2

question

6. Children who are terminally ill often fear that death means they will be:

answer

a. abandoned.

question

7. According to _____, adolescents and emerging adults engage in high-risk behaviors in order to cope with their fear of death.

answer

b. terror management theory

question

8. James, age 50, is terminally ill. He is primarily focused on:

answer

c. a fear of leaving something undone.

question

9. In late adulthood, attitudes about death shift. Anxiety _____ while hope _____.

answer

a. decreases; increases

question

10. Many developmentalists believe that one sign of mental health in older adults is:

answer

c. accepting mortality.

question

11. Which of the following is TRUE about older adults who think they may die soon?

answer

a. They are more likely to want to spend time with a family member.

question

12. Across cultures, a result of near-death experiences is:

answer

d. a sense of hopefulness.

question

13. Mrs. Cannon has been diagnosed as terminally ill, but she insists that she will recover and believes that her laboratory results were mixed up or misinterpreted. Kübler-Ross would say that Mrs. Cannon is in the stage of:

answer

c. denial.

question

14. The work of _____ has been used to describe dying as a movement from a focus on physical needs through needs for love, safety, respect, and self-actualization, and finally to the acceptance of death.

answer

b. Abraham Maslow

question

15. Researchers who have subsequently investigated Kübler-Ross's stages have found that:

answer

a. some stages disappear and reappear.

question

16. Laura has just entered a hospice. She can expect:

answer

a. pain management.

question

17. Which of the following is a common barrier to hospice care?

answer

a. Patients and their families must accept death.

question

18. Palliative care:

answer

d. provides relief from physical pain.

question

19. Medications for pain relief were once under prescribed for the terminally ill primarily because:

answer

d. they are addictive.

question

20. Opiates have a double effect, meaning that they both:

answer

c. relieve pain and slow respiration.

question

21. Juanita has just been evaluated by medical professionals. She cannot move any part of her body except for her eyes, but brain waves are still apparent. The doctor explains that Juanita is not dead, but:

answer

d. has locked-in syndrome.

question

22. A person is in a state of deep unconsciousness from which he or she cannot be aroused has:

answer

b. a coma.

question

23. The definition of death that has been used by professionals around the world for the past several decades states that death occurs when:

answer

d. brain waves cease.

question

24. After an extensive review of studies on end of life brain functioning, researchers confirmed two indicators of death:

answer

d. no spontaneous breathing and eyes not responding to pain.

question

25. A person in a state characterized by prolonged cessation of all brain activity, with a complete absence of voluntary movements, has:

answer

a. brain death.

question

26. Mikal entered a state of deep unconsciousness after a serious accident. His cognitive functions have ceased though he is still breathing. His family and friends notice that his eyes have occasionally opened and he has made a few irregular sounds. Mikal:

answer

c. is in a vegetative state.

question

27. In _____, a seriously ill person is allowed to die naturally, without any medical intervention.

answer

b. passive euthanasia

question

28. Which of the following is an example of passive euthanasia?

answer

c. A patient asks his adult child to give him a lethal injection.

question

29. A DNR order:

answer

b. allows a natural death.

question

30. An example of active euthanasia is when:

answer

c. someone turns off a patient's respirator.

question

31. In countries where it is legal, _____ terminally ill individuals choose assisted suicide.

answer

a. few

question

32. Oregon's law regarding assisted suicide requires the:

answer

c. dying person to request the lethal drugs twice orally and once in writing.

question

33. When Oregon residents' reasons for requesting physician-assisted suicide were assessed, which reason was identified as the least common?

answer

c. pain

question

34. A major argument against legalizing euthanasia is a concern that it may lead society to condone the killing of those who are not ready to die, creating a:

answer

c. slippery slope.

question

35. Some people designate a _____, or another person who can medical decisions for them if they are unable to do so.

answer

a. health care proxy

question

36. A living will is written to identify:

answer

d. what medical intervention should be used if the person not conscious when a decision needs to be made.

question

37. The deep sorrow that people feel after the death of another is called:

answer

a. grief.

question

38. The type of grief that impedes a person's future life is called _____ grief.

answer

a. complicated

question

39. Melina's father just died. She was very close to him, and simply cannot face the reality of his death. To those around her, it appears that Melina is not grieving at all. Melina is experiencing _____ grief.

answer

c. absent

question

40. Ted's ex-wife died suddenly. Although their two children were included in the memorial service, Ted was intentionally excluded. Because he still cared about his ex-wife, he experienced:

answer

c. disenfranchised grief.

question

41. Estelle's husband was flying a small plane when it disappeared above a wooded mountainside. His body was never recovered. In this loss, it is likely that Estelle is experiencing:

answer

b. incomplete grief.

question

42. The public and ritualistic expression of bereavement is called:

answer

a. mourning.

question

43. Older adults who were securely attached in childhood are more likely to experience _____ grief when a loved one dies.

answer

c. normal

question

44. In Western culture, viewing the deceased as a role model is seen as a healthy form of:

answer

a. a continuing bond.

question

45. A longitudinal study of older married adults in Detroit found that widows and widowers who were depressed for years after the death of their spouse:

answer

d. had also been depressed before the death of their spouse.

question

46. A study on responses to the death of a spouse found that the majority of widows and widowers:

answer

a. were, within 6 months, about as happy and productive as they had been before their spouse's death.

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