Pharmacology TEST 1– UT Tyler – Flashcards
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b,d,e
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3 basic areas of pharmacology? (SATA) a. pharmacogenomics b. pharmaceutics c. ethnopharmacology d. pharmacokinetics e. pharmacodynamics
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c
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What happens during the pharmaceutic phase? a. the drug becomes a solute so that it can be distributed b. the drug is passed through the renal system to be eliminated c. the drug becomes a solution so that it can cross the biologic membrane d. the drug enters the blood stream
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1. Absorption 2. Distribution 3. Metabolism 4. Excretion
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What are the 4 phases of Pharmacokinetics?
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b
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What happens in the pharmacodynamic phase? a. absorption occurs b. a biologic or physiologic response occurs c. half of the drug becomes eliminated d. the drug passes the biologic membrane
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d
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What is the FIRST phase of drug action? a. pharmacodynamic b. pharmacokinetic c. pharmacogenomic d. pharmaceutic
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pharmacokinetics
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_____________ is the process of drug movement to achieve drug action
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When assessing a pt for possible adverse drug effects
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When does the nurse apply pharmacokinetics?
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c
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This is a subcategory of absorption, and the percentage of the administered drug dose that reaches the systemic circulation. a. distribution b. subabsorption c. bioavailability d. metabolism
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b
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What is the process in which the drug passes to the liver first? a. absorption b. first pass effect c. onset of action d. distribution
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a
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Drugs given by which route are affected by the first pass metabolism? a. oral b. suspension c. IM d. Intravenous
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b,d
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WHEN does bioavailability occur? (SATA) a. before absorption b. after absorption c. during distribution d. after first pass metabolism
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b
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the percentage of bioavailability for the oral route is 100% with which route of administration? a. injection b. intravenous c. oral d. topical
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a,b,c,d,f
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Which are factors that affect bioavailability? (SATA) a. drug form b. route of administration c. GI mucousa and motility d. food and other drugs e. time of absorption f. changes in liver metabolism
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Drugs that are NOT bound to protein
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What are FREE DRUGS
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The portion that is bound to protein is inactive because it is not available to receptors, and the free drug that is not bound to the protein are ACTIVE AND CAN CAUSE A PHARMACOLOGIC RESPONSE
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what is the difference between free drugs, and drugs that are bound to protein?
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b
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What is the reason that only the free drug is active? a. the protein bound drug has not been absorbed yet b. the drugs bound to proteins cannot leave the systemic circulation to get to the site of action c. the protein bound drug is automatically eliminated from the body d. the free drug has a longer half-life
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c
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To avoid possible drug toxicity, it is important to check what? a. adverse reactions that occur b. blood glucose levels c. protein binding percentage of drugs administered d. the pt's blood pressure and heart rate
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d
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Drug distribution is influenced by: a. blood flow b. the drug's affinity to the tissue c. rate of absorption d. protein-binding effect
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b
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Drugs that are greater than 89% bound to protein are known as? a. inactive drugs b. highly protein bound drugs c. free drugs d. high affinity drugs
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INACTIVE
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The protein bound portion of the drug is the active or inactive part of the drug?
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The time it takes for one half of the drug concentration to be eliminated
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What is the half-life of a drug?
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c d
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________ and ________ effect the half-life of a drug. (select 2 that apply) a. absorption b. secretion c. metabolism d. elimination
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d
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A drug goes through several half-lives before __% of the drug is eliminated a. 10% b. 100% c. 75% d. 90%
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c
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If the patient takes 650 mg of aspirin and the half-life is 3 hrs, it takes 3 hr for the first half life to eliminate 325 mg...how many hours will it take for the second half-life to eliminate an additional 162mg? a. 3 hours b. 4 hours c. 6 hours d. 1 hour
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4-6hrs
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A short half life is how many hours?
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24 or longer
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a long half life is how many hrs?
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36
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Digoxin has a half life of how many hrs?
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Creatinine clearance test
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What is the common test used to determine renal function?
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urine; blood
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The creatinine clearance test compares the level of creatinine in the _____ compared to the level of creatinine in the _____ when testing renal function?
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b
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With renal dysfunction either in older adults or as a result of kidney disorders, drug dosage needs to be ________. a. increased b. decreased c. remain constant d. eliminated
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b
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What is pharmacodynamics? a. the study of how drugs are absorbed in the body b. the study of how drugs affect the body c. the study of how age affects drugs d. the study of the composition drugs
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b
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What is the relationship between the minimal vs the maximal amount of drug dose needed to produce the desired drug response? a. drug interaction b. dose response c. dose reaction e. drug index
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b
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What is the time it takes to reach the minimum effective concentration after a drug is administered a. therapeutic range b. onset of action c. peak level d. trough level
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When the drug reaches its highest blood or plasma concentration
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When does PEAK ACTION occur?
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c
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The length of time the drug has a pharmacologic effect? a. therapeutic range b. therapeutic index c. duration of action d. peak of action
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receptors
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Drugs act through __________ by binding to the receptor to produce a response or to block a response
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a
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The better the drug fits to the receptor site, the more ______________ the drug is. a. biologically active b. protein-bound c. first pass effective d. bioavailable
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a,b,d,e
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4 receptor families: (SATA) a. kinase-linked b. ligand gated ion channels c. protein-bound channels d. G protein-coupled e. nuclear
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c
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The ________ _________ estimates the margin of safety of a drug through the use of a ratio that measures the effective dose in 50% of ppl, and the lethal dose in 50% of ppl. a. therapeutic range b. peak of action c. therapeutic index d. therapeutic reaction
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b
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drugs with a low therapeutic index have a narrow margin of _____. a. bioavailability b. safety c. absorption d. elimination
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d
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The level of drug between the minimum effective concentration in the plasma for obtaining desired drug action and the minimum toxic concentration? a. therapeutic index b. range of action c. peak drug level d. therapeutic range
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b
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_______ drug levels indicate the rate of absorption of the drug. a. onset b. peak c. trough d. therapeutic range
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trough
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_____ drug levels indicate the rate of elimination of a drug.
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PEAK DRUG LEVEL
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HIGHEST plasma concentration of a drug at a specific time:
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d
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LOWEST plasma concentration of a drug, and measures the rate that the drug is eliminated: a. peak drug level b. onset of action c. end of drug action d. trough drug level
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c, e
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Which components of pharmacokinetics does the nurse need to understand before administering a drug? (select all that apply) a. drugs with a smaller volume of drug distribution have a longer half-life b. oral drugs are dissolved through the process of pinocytosis c. patients with kidney disease may have fewer protein binding sites and are at risk for drug toxicity d. rapid absorption decreases bioavailabilty of a drug e. when the drug metabolism rate is decreased, excess drug accumulation can occur, which can cause toxicity
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A child has different physiological attributes than an adult, so many differences must be made when giving a pediatric patient meds
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How does age effect medication therapy?
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abde
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The degree and rate of absorption are based on factors such as the child's: (select all that apply) a. age b. weight c. drug d. health status e. route of administration
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c
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What must be considered when calculating dosgaes, and administering meds to neonates and infants? a. smaller body composition b. faster absorption of water soluble meds c. less developed absorption d. increased absorption time
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b
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drug absorption is initially influenced by what? a. time drug is administered b. route of administration c. distribution time d. metabolism rate
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lower
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Increase body fluid proportion in the very young allows for a greater volume of fluid used to distribute medication, and a _______ concentration of the drug.
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a
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The pediatric patient requires higher dosages of what kind of medications to achieve therapeutic levels? a. water-soluble b. lipid-soluble c. ionized d. nonionized
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c
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Since neonates and young infants have less body fat than older children, what does that difference mean? a. only administer water-soluble drugs to this age group b. fat-soluble meds absorb faster c. this age group requires less fat-soluble drugs than adults d. requires more fat-soluble drugs so their bodies will produce more receptor sites for fat-soluble drugs
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Dosages must be decreased and closely monitored to ensure therapeutic effects and to void adverse side effects
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What must happen when neonatal medications are prescribed?
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d
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__________ of medications depends greatly on the maturation level of the pediatric patient and varies from child to child a. absorption b. distribution c. secretion d. metabolism e. excretion
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higher
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Children have _______ metabolic rates than adults, causing metabolism to occur more rapidly.
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a,b
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Because of declining organ function in older adults, the effects of drug therapy must be closely monitored for what reasons? (SATA) a. to prevent adverse reactions b. to prevent drug toxicity c. to watch rate of absorption d. to maintain metabolism
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15%
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Only about ____% of older adults above the age of 65 do not take any medications.
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3-7
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Adverse reactions and drug interactions that occur in the older adult are ___-___ times greater than adults middle aged and younger.
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polypharmacy
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____________ is more common in geriatric patients because of the use of 1) multiple health care providers 2) herbal therapy 3)OTC drugs, and 4) discontinued prescription drugs
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a,e
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Drug absorption in the older adult is slowed because of a decrease in what? (select all that apply) a. blood flow c. kidney function d. decreased rate of distribution e. GI motility
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protein-binding sites
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Older adults have a loss of _______-_______ sites for drugs, causing increased circulation of free drug and increased chance for adverse drug reactions.
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40%-45%....liver
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Hepatic blood flow in the older adult may be decreased by ___-___ percent, and aging causes a decrease in _______ size.
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c
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Decreased liver and kidney function cause what? a. slower absorption b. increased metabolism c. a prolonged half-life of a drug d. a decreased affinity to drug reaction
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c
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The pharmacodynamic response may be altered in an older adult because of what? a. decreased absorption b. kidney damage c. lack of affinity to receptor sites throughout the older adults body d. decreased bioavailabilty
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a
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What should the nurse do regarding polypharmacy with older adult patients? (SATA) a. coordinate the health care of older adults b. ask the pt what drugs they're taking c. check their lab results d. monitor vital signs closely
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pg 85-86 and pg 95
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Nursing process to life-span issues
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a, b, d
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Non-adherence can lead to what in the geriatric pt? (select all that apply) a. adverse reactions b. admission or readmission into the hospital c. drug toxicity d. death
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a,b,d,e,f
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What are the phases of the nursing process? (SATA) a. assessment b. nursing diagnosis c. contraindications d. planning e. implementation f. evaluation
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a
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Which phase of the nursing process is characterized by the systematic validation and documentation of information? a. assessment b. planning c. implementation d. evaluation
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d
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Which phase of the nursing process is made based on the analysis of the assessment data? a. planning b. evaluation c. implementation d. nursing diagnosis
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b
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Which phase of the nursing process is characterized by goal setting or expected outcomes? a. assessment b. planning c. implementation d. nursing diagnosis
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d
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Which phase of the nursing process is the part in which the nurse provides education, medication administration, patient care, and other interventions necessary to assist the patient in accomplishing the established goals? a. nursing diagnosis b. planning c. assessment d. implementation
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e
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Which phase of the nursing process determines how well the goals were obtained? a. assessment b. nursing diagnosis c. implementation d. planning e. evaluation
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a b c
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What are the main principles of health teaching related to drug therapy plans? (select all that apply) a. focus on health promotion and/or a specific skill to optimize patient health status b. teach the pt in an environment free of distractions c. the info should be tailored to the patients interests and level of understanding d. the info should be in correct medical terms to introduce the patient to the way the health care provider will explain it
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a,b,c,e,g
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the first 5 of the FIVE PLUS FIVE RIGHTS: (SATA) a. right pt b. right drug c. right dose d. rt documentation e. right route f. right to educate g. right time
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a,b,c,e,f
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Name the second 5 of the FIVE PLUS FIVE RIGHTS: (SATA) a. right assessment b. right documentation c. patients right to education d. right dose e. right evaluation f. patients right to refuse g. right route of administration
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a,c
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What can the nurse do to make sure she has the right patient? (SATA) a. verify the pt by checking ID bracelt b. asking the pt to nod if you say the correct name c. asking the pt to state their name d. checking the name on the door of the pt room
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2
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How many identifiers must the nurse use before administering ANY medication?
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3
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to avoid drug error, the drug label should be read how many times?
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a,b,c
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When are the 3 times a drug label should be read? (SATA) a. at the time of contact with the drug bottle b. before measuring the drug c. after measuring the drug d. after administering the drug
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a
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For every 100 medication administrations, there are ____ medication errors. a. 5 b. 50 c. 10 d. 25
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- 41% - 21% - 17% - 11% - 1% - 9%
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When do most medication errors occur? ____% when administering (nurse) ____% followed by documenting (nurse) ____% when dispensing (pharmacist) ____% when prescribing (provider) ____% when monitoring (nurse) ____% other [EQUALING 63% OF ERRORS ARE BC OF THE NURSE]
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a,c,d,e
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Name the different technologies used to enhance safety: (select all that apply) a. EMR b. wristbands c. barcoding d. smart pumps e. pregnancy categories
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A- (safe, very few of theses meds) B-(tested on animals but on humans, parents choice to weigh risks v benefits) C- (tests show some risks..parents choice risk v benefit) D-(has been tested on humans and the risks show to outweigh the benefits) X-(NOT SAFE FOR FETUS)
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What are all of the pregnancy categories?
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-sublingual -buccal -oral (tabs, capsules, liquids, suspensions, elixirs) -transdermal -topical -instillation -inhalation -NG tubes -suppositories -parenteral (subQ, IM)
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Name the different forms and routes that are used for medication administration:
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a
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Most common drug form? a. tablets and capsules b. injection c. IV d. transdermal
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under tongue
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Drugs administered sublingually are placed where?
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between cheek and gum
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Drugs administered buccally are placed where?
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c
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_______ are sweetened hydroalcoholic liquids used in preparation of oral liquid medications a. syrup b. emultion c. elixir d. suspension
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a
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_______ are a mixture of 2 liquids that are not mutually soluble. a. emultion b. suspension c. elixir d. instillation
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d
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________ are liquids in which particles are mixed but NOT dissolved a. emultion b. elixir c. syrup d. suspension
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b
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__________ medication is stored in a patch placed on the skin and absorbed theough skin, having systemic effects a. topical b. transdermal c. dermatoligical d. photosensitive
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b
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____________ are liquid meds usually administered as drops, ointment, or sprays a. suspension b. instillation c. injection d. emultion
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d
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___________ medication administration causes a systemic effect, and is more rapid than IM or subQ routes. a. topical b. oral c. transdermal d. intravenous
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Z-Track Injection technique
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Which technique prevents medication from leaking back iinto the subQ tissue?
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vastus lateralis
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When giving a toddler an injection, the _______ _______ is the preferred injection site
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c
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Which injection site is preferred for IM injections in adults? a. dorsogluteal b. deltoid c. ventrogluteal d. vastus lateralis
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a
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Why don't we use the dorsogluteal site for IM injections in children? a. too close to the sciatic nerve b. too small of an area c. IM injections should be given in the deltoid d. children are too young for IM injections
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a
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What was America's first law to regulate drugs? (did not include drug effectiveness and drug safety) a. federal pure food and drug act of 1906 b. federal drug and cosmetic act of 1997 c. durham-humphrey act d. khaveur act
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FDA (US Food and Drug Administration)
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Approval of new drugs happens by the?
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5
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Controlled substances are described in how many schedules?
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Schedule 1
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Which schedule of drugs are not approved for medical use?
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2-5
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schedule ___-___ drugs have been accepted for medical use
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1
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the following are which schedule of drugs: -heroine -hallucinogens (weed, LSD)
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2
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the following are examples of which schedule of drugs? -demerol -morphine -hydrocodone -codeine -amphetemines
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schedule 3
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Which schedule are the following drugs? -codeine preperations -nonnarcotic drugs -paregorgic
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4
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What schedule are the following drugs: -Luminal -Valium -Serax -Ativan -Librium
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5
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the following are examples of which schedule of drugs: -codeine in cough preparations
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Nurse Practice Acts
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Every state has its own laws regarding drug administration by nurses...these are called?
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Misfeasance
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Negligence; giving the wrong drug or drug dose that results in the pt's death?
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b
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Omission; omitting a drug dose that results in the pt's death: a. malfeasance b. nonfeasance c. misfeasance d. confeasance
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b
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Giving the correct dose but by the wrong route that results in pt's death: a. misfeasance b. malfeasance c. nonfeasance d. confeasance
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a
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The ________ name is the official nonpropietary name for the drug, and is not owned by any drug company, and is universally accepted. a. generic name b. brand name c. chemical name d. company name
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a
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The ________ name is the proprietary name, and is chosen by the drug company and is usually a registered trademark owned by that specific company. a. brand (trade) name b. generic name c. chemical name d. company name
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c
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_____________ influences the study of pharmacokinetics, pharamcodynamics, and variations of the predicted response to a drug due to genetic factors a. pharmacogenomics b. ethnopharmacology c. pharmacogenetics d. assimilation
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a
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____________ refers to the general study of all the different genes that determine drug behavior a. pharmacogenomics b. pharmacogenetics c. genetic clinical studies d. pharmacodynamics
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b,d
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Differences in what can affect response to dermatologic and topically applied products? (SATA) a. site of administration on skin b. skin structure c. skin color d. physiology
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a
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A person who is dark skinned and appears to be african decent is likely to have european genetic markers...this is an example of? a. pharmacogenomics b. pharmacogenetics c. genetic differences with drugs d. cultural drug interaction
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b
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People of different cultural decents can have different reactions to drugs due to: a. different culture b. different genetic markers c. heredity d. different languages
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1. Pharmacokinetic 2. pharmacodynamic
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2 categories of drug interactions:
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a,b,c
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When a person takes 2 or more drugs at the same time, the rate of absorption of one or both can change in what 3 ways? (select all that apply) a. by decreasing or increasing gastric emptying time b. by changing gastric pH c. by forming drug complexes d. by constricting or dilating the brochioles
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additive
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When 2 drugs with similar action are administered, the drug interaction is called an ____________ effect, and is the sum of the effects of the 2 drugs
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synergistic
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When 2 or more drugs are given together, one drug can potentiate or have a ____________ effect on another. (the clinical effect is substantially greater than the combined effect of the 2)
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antagonistic
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When 2 drugs that have opposite effects, or __________ effects, are administered together, each drug cancels the effect of the other.
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yes
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Are there any circumstances that an antagonistic effect is desirable?
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The combo of meperidine and promethazine
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Give an example of a synergistic effect of drugs:
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c
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adrenergic beta stimulant isoproternol and the adrenergic beta blocker propranolol are given together is an example of what effect? a. synergistic b. additive c. antagonistic d. combined
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photosensitivity
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A skin reaction due to exposure to sunlight while taking a certain drug:
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1. photoallergy 2. phototoxicity (causes damage)
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2 types of photosensitive reactions:
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-interaction of a drug and exposure to sunlight -can cause cellular damage
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Photosensitivity is caused by the reaction of what? What can it cause?
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1. phototoxicity 2. photoallergenic
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___________ may be the result of a drug dose, whereas ___________ reactions are not and only require previous exposure, or sensitization, to the offending agent.
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c
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Which kind of drugs are found in most households, and are drugs that have been found to be safe and appropriate for use without supervision of a health care provider, and individuals can access them without a prescription? a. herbal remedies b. extracts c. OTC medications d. topical drugs
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b
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Patients with asthma should be aware that ________ can trigger an acute asthma episode a. sudafed b. aspirin c. ibuprofen d. tylenol
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a
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_________ increases fluid retention, which could worsen the condition of a patient with heart failure; use of this drug on a long-term basis may decrease the effectiveness of antihypertensive drugs. a. ibuprofen b. aspirin c. aceteminephen d. bethanechol
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a (Speak up; Ask questions; Find the facts; Evaluate your choices)
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What is the acronym that is mnemonic for the instructions that the FDA recommends before taking any medicine? a. SAFER b. RISK c. RICE d. SLUD
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a,b
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Why is it critical for the nurse to know about herbal therapy, and to include herbal preparations as a part of their assessment? (SATA) a. to assess the negative and positive effects b. to avoid important interactions the herbal remedies and OTC medicines can have with prescription medicines c. to assess rate of absorption d. to tell them not to take herbal therapy any longer
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b
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What is phytomedicine? a. medicine that creates severe skin reactions when exposed to sunlight b. medicine derived from plants c. medicine that is not approved for medical use d. medicine that can only be administered topically
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blue cohosh is used to induce labor in pregnant women, and black cohosh treats hot flashes in older women
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What is the difference between black cohosh and blue cohosh?
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a,c
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Why is it important that a pt includes mentioning any herbal remedies when discussing current medications with their doctor? (SATA) a. herbal products can affect lab results b. herbal products can cause adverse reactions c. herbal products affect blood coagulation d. herbal products can cause cardiac disrhythmias
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Prescription drugs are ones that are actually prescribed by a health provider who knows your health history, and has knowledge on how much dosage to give, and what not to mix it with
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What is the difference between prescription drugs and OTC and herbal drugs?
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b
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The duty to do good and not to harm others, to maximize possible benefits, and to minimize possible harm that might occur in research: a. veracity b. beneficence c. justice d. autonomy
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Justice
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_______ requires that all persons be treated fairly.
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allocation of scarce resources
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Regarding Justice, what is a challenge to the nurse?
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a
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What requires health care person's to tell the truth, and nothing but the truth, even when the news is bad? a. veracity b. beneficence c. justice d. autonomy
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Informed Consent
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When dealing with patients who are taking part in a study, _______ _______ has dimensions beyond protection of the individual patient's choice, and includes the following: 1. Promotion of individual autonomy 2. Protection of patients and subjects from harm 3. Avoidance of fraud and duress in health care 4. Encouragement for professionals to be thorough and clear in communication information 5. Promotion of educated decision making among pt's 6. Promotion of self-determination of the pt
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b
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Whose role is it to explain a study to a patient? a. the nurse b. the health care provider c. the pharmacist d. the drug label
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c
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All possible consequences of a clinical study must first be analyzed and balanced withthe inherent risks and the anticipated benefits...this describes what? a. beneficence b. justice c. risk to benefit ratio d. informed consent
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a
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Individuals undergoing treatment in any health care system should be treated as independent persons who are capable of making decisions in their own best interests, and the patients choice should be honored and respected whenever possible...this is describing? a. respect for persons b. beneficence c. justice d. autonomy
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Autonomy
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What is the integral component of respect for persons? Also known as the right to self-determination.
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4
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Clinical research in drug developement has ____ phases.
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1
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Phase __ of drug research and developement is designed to assess safety.
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2
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Phase ___ of drug research is designed to demonstrate safety and efficacy of the drug in subjects who have the disease this new drug is designed to treat
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3 and 4
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Phase ___ and ___ of drug research involve large numbers of subjects who have the disease the drug treats, and these 2 phases are designed to demonstrate the safety and efficacy of the drug to a world wide patient population and to include long term data if a chronic regimen is under consideration
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placebo
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A pharmacologically inert substance, or the same drug with a different dose, route, or frequency of administration?
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a
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What was developed as a guide for carrying out nursing responsibilities in a manner consistent with quality in nursing care and the ethical obligations of the profession. a. ANA code of ethics b. Nurse Practice Acts c. Nurse Code of Conduct d. Nursing Competencies Act
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c,d
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What are the 2 ethical considerations for nurses? (SATA) a. controlled substances act b. durham-humphrey act c. ANA code of ethics d. Nurse Practice Acts
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b,c,d,e
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What are the different research ethics? (SATA) a. informed consent b. beneficence c. justice d. placebos e. respect for persons f. autonomy
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a,b,d
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What effect can food have on the rate drugs are absorbed? (SATA) a. increase b. decrease c. cancel effect of the drug d. delay drug absorption
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tetracycline and dairy products (decrease plasma concentration of tertracycline)
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EX of food binding with a drug:
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Antifungal itraconazole solution (Sporanox) is best absorbed on empty stomach, but itraconazole capsules, which require an acidic environment for absorption, have a higher availability when taken with food.
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Food can also impact absorption of different dosage forms of the same medicines...Example of this?
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more norepinephrine is released, and the result could be a hypertensive crisis
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The classic drug-food interaction occurs when an antidepressant of the MAOI type (phenelzine) is taken with tyramine enriched foods like cheese, wine, organ meats, beer, yogurt, sour cream, and bananas. That's why these food must be avoided when taking MAOI's.. ..what happens with this interaction?
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1. Adrenergic Agonist 2. Adrenergic Blockers 3. Cholingeric Agonist 4. Anticholinergic
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4 drug classifications on this test?
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2.2kg
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1 lb = ____kg
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1lb
answer
16oz=__lb
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1 cup
answer
8oz=___cups
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30
answer
1oz = __mL
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5mL
answer
1 tsp=___mL
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60 mg
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1 grain =___mg
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1
answer
12 in = __ft
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1
answer
3 ft = ___ yd
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1
answer
1000mcg = ___mg
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1000mg
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1g = ___mg
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1000g
answer
1kg = ___g
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1000mL
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1 L = ____mL
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Quantity ordered x Desired / Have already = X
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Dimensional analysis formula used in dosage calculations?
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a
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The nurse finds out what she should set th IV infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr BY USING WHAT FORMULA? a. volume/time b. drop factor x volume/time c. quantity x desired/have d. volume/drip rate x time
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total mL / total mins x drop factor (gtt/mL) = gtt/min
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To find the Drip Rate in drops/min (gtt/min)...what formula do we use?
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volume to be infused (mL) / # of hours = mL/hr
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To find the FLOW RATE (in mL/hr), what formula do we use?
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volume to be infused / [(drip rate/drop factor) x 60 mins]
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To find INFUSION TIME in hours, what formula do we use?
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a
answer
The phase of the nursing process when the nurse screens in the subjects based on the established protocol. a. intervention b. nursing diagnosis c. assessment d. planning
question
a
answer
This group does not receive the treatment in the study that is being tested. a. control group b. dependent variable c. independent variable d. double-blind group
question
b
answer
A patient is receiving bethanechol (Urecholine). The nurse realizes that the action of this drug is to treat which condition? a. glaucoma b. Urinary retention c. Delayed gastric emptying d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
question
c
answer
The nurse teaches the patient receiving atropine (Atreza) to expect which side effect? a. Diahhrea b. Bradycardia c. Blurred vision d. Frequent urination
question
a
answer
When benztropine (Cogentin) is ordered for a pt, the nurse acknowledges that this drug is an effective treatment for which condition? a. Parkinsonism b. Paralytic ileus c. motion sickness d. urinary retention
question
b
answer
Cholinergic agonists mimic which parasympathetic neurotransmitter? a. catecholimine b. acetylcholine c. beta 1 receptors d. alpha 1 receptors
question
d
answer
The nurse is administering bethanechol, a cholinergic agonist, and should know that the expected cholinergic agonist effect include which of the following? a. increased heart rate b. decreased paristalsis c. decreased salivation d. increased pupil constriction