Human Biology Practice Questions Chapter 16-19 – Flashcards

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question
Synthesis (formation) of new sperm cells occurs in the _______. a. epididymous b. ductus deferens c. seminiferous tubules d. prostate gland e. urethra
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c. seminiferous tubules
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The seminial vesicle produce _____ to serve as the energy source to fuel sperm movement (swimming). a. fat b. fructose c. glutamine d. glucose e. ethanol
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b. fructose
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Which are the following are true regarding human gametes (sex cells)? a. contain the haploid number of chromosomes b. contain 46 chromosomes c. are produced in the testes and ovaries d. produced by the process of mitosis e. both a and c are correct
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e. both a and c are correct --contain the haploid number of chromosomes -- are produced in the testes and ovaries
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The portion of a sperm cell that contains digestive enzymes for penetrating the egg is called____. a. the midpiece b. the spermatid c. the flagellum d. the acrosome e. the epididymus
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d. the acrosome
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The production and secretion of testosterone depends on the secretion of three other hormones. GnRH is secreted by the _____, and FSH and LH are secreted by the _____. a. hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland b. posterior pituitary gland, anterior pituitary gland c. posterior pituitary gland, hypothalamus d. testes, scrotum e. seminal vesicle, prostate gland
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a. hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland
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A fertilized egg must embed in this organ for pregnancy to occur. a. myometrium b. oviduct c. vagina d. ovaries e. uterus
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e. uterus
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The opening of the uterus is referred to as a. the fimbriae b. the clitoris c. the oviduct d. the cervix e. the endometrium
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d. cervix
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When the oocyte is released from the ovary, it is transported to the uterus by the a. fimbriae b. ductus deferens c. oviduct d. endometrium e. cervix
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c. oviduct
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Ovulation occurs a. approximately halfway through the menstrual cycle b. at dawn on day 5 of the menstrual cycle c. as a result of leutenizing hormone peaking d. both a and c are correct e. both b and c are correct
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d. both a and c are correct --approximately halfway through the menstrual cycle --as a result of leutenizing hormone peaking
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Which of the following forms of contraception is the most effective in preventing pregnancy? a. condom b. tubal ligation c. rhythm method d. diaphragm e. cervical cap
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b tubal ligation
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Which of the following birth control devices is described as follows: a small piece of plastic inserted into the uterus by a physician, causes a minor chronic inflammation of the uterine wall. a. Lunelle b. Depo-Provera c. IUD d. hysteroscopy e. Lybrelc
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c. IUD
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Which of the following methods of enhancing fertility involves the placement of sperm into the vagina or uterus near the time of ovulation? a. hysteroscopy b. artificial insemination c. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) d. zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT) e. in vitro fertilization
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b. artificial insemination
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Female sexual arousal causes the vagina and area around the labia to a. secrete lubricants for penis insertion b. inhibit the plateau phase of the sexual response c. stimulate ovulation d. constrict e. release hormones to intensify intercourse
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a. secrete lubricants for penis insertion
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Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is currently the most prevalent in the United States a. AIDS b. syphilis c. chlamydia d. genital warts e. gonorrhea
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c. chlamydia
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During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated? a. G2 phase b. G1 of interphase c. S phase d. metaphase e. telophase
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c S phase
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DNA is organized and arranged in the nucleus as a. the nucleolus b. invidual genes c. chromosomes d. histones e. mitotic spindles
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c. chromosomes
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The process by which the DNA code is converted from a single gene into a complementary single strand of mRNA is a. replication b. reproduction c. transcription d. metabolism e. translation
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c. transcription
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Once an RNA molecule has been transcribed from DNA, it enters the cytoplasm of the cell where it is used by the cell to produce a a. fat b. nucleus c. carbohydrate d. cell membrane e. protein
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c. carbohydrate
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During DNA replication, complementary nucleotides are added to the separated strands of the original DNA by enzymes. Which of the following bases would a nucleotide contain if it were paired to a nucleotide containing thymine? a. guanine b. cytosine c. adenine d. uracil e. another thymine
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c. adenine
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How many codons are in the following sequence of nucleotides: AAAUGCUCGUAA? a. 3 b. 12 c. 4 d. 6 e. 1
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c. 4
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It is evident that translation occurs at ribosomes because they contain binding sites for a. primary transcripts of mRNA b. DNA repair enzymes c. tRNA and mRNA d. mitotic spindles e. tRNA
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c. tRNA and mRNA
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Which stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram and which stage comes next? a. anaphase, telophase b. metaphase, anaphase c. metaphase, telophase d. prophase, anaphase e. telophase, anaphase
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a. anaphase, telophase
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Mitosis may stop abruptly at ____ if certain growth factors or nutrients are not available to the cell. a. introns b. exons c. checkpoints d. stop codons e. all of the above
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c. checkpoints
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A human bone cell dividing by mitosis will produce two daughter cells, each with a. 16 chromosomes b. 46 chromosomes c. 46 pairs of chromosomes d. 64 pairs of chromosomes e. none of the above
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b. 46 chromosomes
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The function of mitosis is to produce two daughter cells that ____. a. are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred.) b. have the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell but not the same genetic content. c. have a random assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes d. none of the above
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a. are genetically identical to the parent cell (assuming no mutation has occurred.)
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Crossing over occurs during ___ of meiosis but does not occur in mitosis. a. Cytokinesis b. metaphase I c. prophase II d. metaphase II e. prophase I
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e. prophase I
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What is the function of meiosis? a. to make exact copies of the parent cell b. to make one cell with twice the number of chromosomes as the parent cell c. to make four cells with the same chromosome number as the parent cell d. to make cells with a haploid (half that of the parents) number of chromosomes e. none of the above
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d. to make cells with a haploid (half that of the parents) number of chromosomes
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What is the difference between a benign tumor and malignant tumor? a. Benign tumors are a mass of essentially abnormal cells; malignant tumors are an abnormal mass of essentially normal cells b. Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do c. Benign tumors metastasize; malignant tumors do not d. Benign tumors will not kill you; malignant tumors will e. Benign tumors spread beyond their original site; malignant tumors remain at their original site
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b. Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do
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When we say that a cell is haploid, we mean that ___. a. It has only one chromosome b. it has one-half a chromosome c. it has one set of a chromosomes d. it as two sets of chromosomes e. none of the above
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c.. it has one set of a chromosomes
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Mitosis and meiosis differ in several ways. Meiosis, but not mitosis___. a. results in four (rather than two) daughter cells b. introduces genetic variation among daughter cells c. changes the chromosome number of the daughter cells d. involves two rounds of cell division e. is correctly described by all of these statements
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e. is correctly described by all of these statements a. results in four (rather than two) daughter cells b. introduces genetic variation among daughter cells c. changes the chromosome number of the daughter cells d. involves two rounds of cell division
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Unlike a normal healthy cell, a cancer cell will a. potentially migrate to other locations in the body b. no longer perform their specialized functions prior to becoming cancerous c. have an enlarged nucleus d. lose the ability to control cell division e. all of the above
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e. all of the above a. potentially migrate to other locations in the body b. no longer perform their specialized functions prior to becoming cancerous c. have an enlarged nucleus d. lose the ability to control cell division
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When a tumor remains in one place it is referred to as ___ a. metastasis b. Benign or In Situ c. dysplasia d. malignant e. hyperplasia
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b. Benign or In Situ
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Cancers that metastasize and invade normal tissues to disrupt their functions are called a. keratosis b. malignant tumors c. benign tumors d. none of the above
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b. malignant tumors
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Oncogenes are derived from a. healthy tumor suppressor genes b. mutated keratotic cells c. malignant tumors d. proto-oncogenes e. benign tumors
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d. proto-oncogenes
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Tumor suppressor genes function to a. prevent release of growth factors b. stimulate metastasis c. slow down unchecked cell growth and division d. produce proto-oncogenes e. prevent gene expression of oncogenes
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c. slow down unchecked cell growth and division
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A diet high in red meat and saturated fat increases the risk for ____ cancers. a. brain and lung b. colon, rectum, and prostate gland c. breast and liver d. lung, stomach, and liver e. colon, breast, and liver
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b. colon, rectum, and prostate gland
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Common side effects associated with chemotherapy are due to a. death of cancer cells and their subsequent removal from the body b. change in blood pH caused by the chemicals c. death of normal cells caused by the chemicals d. destruction of RNA in most normal cells e. fevers induced by the chemicals
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c. death of normal cells caused by the chemicals
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Which of the following types of cancer kills the highest percentage of people diagnosed with the condition? a. lung b. breast c skin d. colon e. prostate
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a. lung
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If both alleles of a particular gene are identical, the person is said to be a. phenotype b. heterozygous c. gynotypic d. an identical twin e. homozygous
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e. homozygous
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An example of a genotype is a. brown hair color b. attached ear lobes c. homozygous dominant d. long fingers e. blood type AB
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c. homozygous dominant
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The Punnet square is a useful tool for a. calculating how many mutations occur during DNA replication b. determining which genes or traits assort independently during gamete formation c. predicting the level of crossing over that will occur during meiosis d. determining the rate of segregation of alleles e. predicting the ratios of possible genotypes of a particular combination of alleles
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e. predicting the ratios of possible genotypes of a particular combination of alleles
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Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that results from the inheritance of two recessive alleles. What is the chance a child will inherit the disorder if one parent is heterozygous for this gene and one parent has cystic fibrosis? a. 25% b. 100% c.75% d. 0% e. 50%
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e. 50%
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Which one of the following is true regarding an individual who has inherited one sickle-cell gene an one normal gene for hemoglobin? a. has the homozygous recessive genotype for this trait b. will produce only abnormal hemoglobin c. is more likely to resist malaria than an individual with two normal genes for hemoglobin d. will develop sickle-cell anemia e. will most likely die before the age of 10 from complications associated with abnormal white blood cells
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c. is more likely to resist malaria than an individual with two normal genes for hemoglobin
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What is the significance of crossing over, independent assortment, and random fertilization? a. a decrease in the genetic complexity of living systems, making it more likely that a species will survive b. an increase in the genetic diversity of gametes and zygotes c. an increase in the number of daughter cells produced by mitosis, thus providing a mechanism for rapidly repairing injured tissues d. an increase in the number of gametes produced by an individual, thereby increasing the chance that fertilization will occur. e. a decrease in the amount of time it takes to produce gametes
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b. an increase in the genetic diversity of gametes and zygotes
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Which of the following genotypes results in the female gender? a. XXY b. XY c. XYY d. XX
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d. XX
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Which of the following is NOT true regarding Tay-Sachs disease? a. Symptoms of the disease result from an enzyme deficiency b. Genetic tests are available to determine if an individual is a carrier of the disorder c. This disease is caused by a dominant lethal allele d. Carriers of this disease do not have any symptoms of the disease e. Tay-Sachs disease is fairly common among Ashkenazi Jews of Central European descent
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c. This disease is caused by a dominant lethal allele
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Assume tall (T) is dominant to dwarf (t). If a homozygous dominant individual is crossed with a homozygous dwarf, the offspring will be ____. a. all be intermediate in height b. all be tall c. be 1/2 tall and 1/2 dwarf d. be 3/4 tall and 1/4 dwarf e. all be short
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b. all be tall
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Cross a homozygous dominant male mouse with a female mouse who is heterzygous. Use the letter [B] for black fur color. Having black fur is dominant and white fur [b] is recessive. What are the genotypes of the offspring [F1 generation] a. BB and bb b. All bb c. All BB d. BB and Bb
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d. BB and Bb
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Cross a homozygous dominant male mouse with a female mouse who is heterzygous. Use the letter [B] for black fur color. Having black fur is dominant and white fur [b] is recessive. What are the phenotypes of the offspring [F1 generation] a. 25% black and 75% white b. All white c. All black d. 50% white and 50% black
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c. All Black
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People born with Down syndrome have a genotypic condition identified as a. XXY b. XO c. nondisjunction d. trisomy 21 e. trisomy 18
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a. XXY
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