Combo with "Chapter 14" and 8 others – Flashcards
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Formation of lymph a.) Lymphocytopenia b.) Lymphadenitis c.) Lymphedema d.) Lymphopoiesis e.) Lymphoid
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d.) Lymphopoiesis
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Interstitial fluid contains or is a.) Antibodies produced by white blood cells b.) Red and white blood cells c.) Found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enter lymph capillaries d.) Connective tissue e.) Blood clotting factors
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c.) Found in the space between cells and becomes lymph when it enter lymph capillaries
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All of the following are part of the immune system EXCEPT a.) Lymphocytes b.) Platelets c.) Monocytes d.) Phagocytes e.) Antibodies
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b.) Platelets
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All of the following describe areas of lymph nodes concentration EXCEPT a.) Inguinal b.) Axillary c.) Bone marrow d.) Mediastinal e.) Cervical
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c.) Bone marrow
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Atopy is a.) An early stage of early AIDS b.) A hypersensitivity or allergic state c.) A type of lymphoma d.) A disease found in tropical areas e.) Acute infectious disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus
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b.) A hypersensitivity or allergic state
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Helper or supressor cells are types of a.) B cells b.) T cells c.) Platelets d.) Antigens e.) Antibodies
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b.) T cells
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Examples of immunoglobulins a.) IgA, IgC, IgE b.) Monocytes c.) Lymphocytes d.) Hepatocytes e.) Clotting factors
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a.) IgA, IgC, IgE
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Oropharyngeal lymph tissue a.) Spleen b.) Thymus c.) Bone Marrow d.) Tonsils e.) Adenoids
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d.) Tonsils
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Mediastinal T-cell producer a.) Spleen b.) Thymus c.) Bone Marrow d.) Tonsils e.) Adenoids
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b.) Thymus
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Nasopharyngeal lymph tissue a.) Spleen b.) Thymus c.) Bone Marrow d.) Tonsils e.) Adenoids
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e.) Adenoids
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Abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes a.) Spleen b.) Thymus c.) Bone Marrow d.) Tonsils e.) Adenoids
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a.) Spleen
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Produces lymphocytes and monocytes and all other blood cells a.) Spleen b.) Thymus c.) Bone Marrow d.) Tonsils e.) Adenoids
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c.) Bone Marrow
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Cytotoxic cells a.) B cell lymphocytes b.) T-cells lymphocytes c.) Platelets d.) Thrombocytes e.) Eosinophils
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b.) T-Cell lymphocytes
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Interferons and interleukins are a.) Gamma globulins b.) Interstitial fluid c.) Antiviral proteins produced by T-cell lymphocytes d.) Produced by B-cell lymphocytes e.) Helper cells
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c.) Antiviral proteins produced by T-cells lymphocytes
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Slight increase in numbers of lymphocytes a.) Lymphocytopenia b.) Lymphopoiesis c.) Lymphoid d.) Lymphoctosis e.) Lymphedema
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d.) Lymphocytosis
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Pertaining to poison a.) Necrotic b.) Hypoxic c.) Cyanotic d.) Toxic e.) Stenotic
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d.) Toxic
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Computerized x-ray imagining in the transverse plane a.) CT scan b.) Lymphangiogram c.) Ultrasonography d.) MRI e.) Lymphadenectomy
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a.) CT scan
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HIV is a.) A malignancy associated with AIDS b.) A drug used to treat AIDS c.) The virus that caused AIDS d.) The test used to detect AIDS e.) A type of lymphoma
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c.) The virus the cause AIDS
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Malignant tumor of lymph nodes a.) Sarcoidosis b.) Lymphedema c.) Hodgkin disease d.) Hypersplenism e.) Lymphocytopenia
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c.) Hodgkin disease
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Viral infection causing blisters on skin of lips, nose, or genitals a.) Kaposi sarcoma b.) Herpes simplex c.) Cryptococcus d.) Toxoplasmosis e.) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
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b.) Herpes simplex
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Cancer arising from the lining of cells of capillaries, producing blueish red skin nodules a.) Kaposi sarcoma b.) Herpes simplex c.) Cryptococcus d.) Toxoplasmosis e.) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
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a.) Kaposi sarcoma
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Major lung infection with fever, cough, chest pain, and sputum. Treatment is with Bactrim a.) Kaposi sarcoma b.) Herpes simplex c.) Cryptococcus d.) Toxoplasmosis e.) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
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e.) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
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Protozoal (Parasitic) infection associated with AIDS. Produces pneumonitis, hepatitis, and encephalitis a.) Kaposi sarcoma b.) Herpes simplex c.) Cryptococcus d.) Toxoplasmosis e.) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
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d.) Toxoplasmosis
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Fungal infection associated with AIDS. Involves brain and meninges, lungs, and skin a.) Kaposi sarcoma b.) Herpes simplex c.) Cryptococcus d.) Toxoplasmosis e.) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
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c.) Cryptococcus
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Spongy, porous bone tissue is also called a.) Yellow bone marrow b.) Bone Fissure c.) Compact bone d.) Bone sinus e.) Cancellous bone
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e.) Cancellous bone
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Outward extension of the shoulder bone is the a.) Xiphoid process b.) Acetabulum c.) Acromion d.) Vertebral arh e.) Patella
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C.) Acromion
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An opening or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is a a.) fissure b.) Sulcus c.) Tuberosity d.) Foramen e.) Fossa
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d.) Foramen
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The projection of the temporal bone is the a.) Malleolus b.) Epiphysis c.) Xiphoid process d.) Mastoid process e.) Tubercle
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d.) Mastoid process
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Knuckle-like process at the end of a bone is called a a.) Fontanelle b.) Tuberocity c.) Trochaanter d.) Xiphoid process e.) Condyle
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e.) Condyle
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Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the a.) Face b.) Cranium c.) Spine d.) Pelvis e.) Thorax
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a.) Face
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Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are bones of the a.) Face b.) Cranium c.) Spine d.) Pelvis e.) Thorax
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b.) Cranium
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The shaft of a long bone is called a a.) Olecranon b.) Periosteum c.) Osteoclast d.) Epiphysis e.) Diaphysis
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e.) Diaphysis
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Poor formation of bone a.) Osteolysis b.) Osteodystrophy c.) Decalcification d.) Myelopoiesis e.) Osteoclasis
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b.) Osteodystrophy
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Slipping or subluxation of a vertebra a.) Spongdylitis b.) Rachitis c.) Kyphosis d.) Spondylolisthesis e.) Lordosis
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d.) Spondylolisthesis
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Operation performed to relieve the symptoms of a slipped disk a.) Patellapexy b.) Arthroscopy c.) Osteoclasis d.) Laminectomy e.) Metacarpectomy
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d.) Laminectomy
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Lateral curvature of the spinal column a.) Lordosis b.) Scoliosis c.) Kyphosis d.) Spina bidisa e.) Pubic symphysis
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b.) Scoliosis
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Vitammin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as a.) Osteomalacia b.) Lumbago c.) Osteogenesis imperfecta d.) Osteoporosis e.) Hypercalcemia
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a.) Osteomalacia
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Pertaining to the upper arm bone a.) Humeral b.) Tibial c.) Radial d.) Ulnar e.) Carpal
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a.) Humeral
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The shoulder bone is the a.) Patella b.) Sternum c.) Scapula d.) Clavicle e.) Vertebra
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c.) Scapula
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The smaller of the two lower leg bones is the a.) Calcaneus b.) Tibia c.) Fibula d.) Tarsal bone e.) Malleolus
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c.) Fibula
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Inflammation of bone and bone marrow a.) osteitis fibrosa cystica b.) Multiple myeloma c.) Osteomyelitis d.) Osteroporosis e.) Osteochondroma
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c.) Osteomyelitis
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Clubfoot a.) Exotosis b.) Osteogenic sarcoma c.) Bunion d.) Talipes e.) Bursitis
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d.) Talipes
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A splintered or crushed bone a.) Comminuted fracture b.) Greenstick fracture c.) Crepitation d.) Compression fracture e.) Impacted fracture
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a.) Comminuted fracture
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Surgical repair of a joint a.) Arthroplasty b.) Fasciectomy c.) Achondroplasia d.) Tenorrhaphy e.) Arthrosis
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a.) Arthroplasty
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Condition of stiffening an immpobility of a joint a.) Hemarthrosis b.) Fibrositis c.) Bursitis d.) Kyphosis e.) Ankylosis
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e.) Ankylosis
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Chronic inflammation of bones and joints due to degenerative changes in cartilage a.) Ankylosing spongylitis b.) Rheumatoid arthritis c.) Chondromalacia d.) Osteoarthritis e.) Systemic lupus erythematosus
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d.) Osteoarthritis
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Inflammation of joints caused by excessive uric acid accumulation a.) Bunion b.) Bursitis c.) Gouty arthritis d.) Sciatica e.) Myositis
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c.) Gouty arthritis
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Malignant tumor of smooth muscle a.) Rhabdomyosarcoma b.) Leiomyosarcoma c.) Rhabdomyoma d.) Leiomyoma e.) Myorrhaphy
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b.) Leiomyosarcoma
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Wasting away (no development) of muscle a.) Myasthenia b.) Myalgia c.) Hypertrophy d.) Atrophy e.) Myositis
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d.) Atrophy
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A type of epithelial cell in the epidermis is a a.) Adipocyte b.) Neuron c.) Chondrocyte d.) Histiocyte e.) Squamous cell
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e.) Squamous cell
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Dermis a.) Basal layer of skin b.) Middle layer of skin c.) Epithelial layer d.) Above the epidermis e.) Subcutaneous tissue
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b.) Middle layer of skin
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A hard protein material found in the epidermis a.) Melanin b.) Sebum c.) Keratin d.) Collagen e.) Cerumen
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c.) Keratin
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Structural protein found in the skin and connective tissue a.) Cartilage b.) Collagen c.) Cerumen d.) Melanin e.) Sebum
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b.) Collagen
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Xer/o means a.) Dry b.) Scaly c.) Thick d.) Yellow e.) White
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a.) Dry
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Pertaining to under a nail a.) Hypodermic b.) Hypoglossal c.) Epidermis d.) Subcutaneous e.) Subungual
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e.) Subungual
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What is the combining form meaning skin a.) Ichthy/o b.) Adip/o c.) Cutane/o d.) Pachy/o e.) Xanth/o
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c.) Cutane/o
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Absence of pigment in skin a.) Erythroderma b.) Melanism c.) Xanthoderma d.) Dermatitis e.) Albinism
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e.) Albinism
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Inflammation of the soft tissue around the nail a.) Onychomycosis b.) Erythema c.) Epidermolysis d.) Paronychia e.) Dermatitis
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d.) Paronychia
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Profuse sweating a.) Anhidrosis b.) Erythema c.) Epidermolysis d.) Paronychia e.) Dermatitis
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d.) Paraonychia
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Fungal infection a.) Leukoderma b.) Keratosis c.) Erythema d.) Trichomycosis e.) Seborrhea
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d.) Trichomycosis
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Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland a.) Steatoma b.) Lipoma c.) Pilosebaceoius d.) Onychophagia e.) Verrucae
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a.) Steatoma
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A wheal is a a.) Macule b.) Wart c.) Polyp d.) Ulcer e.) Hive
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e.) Hive
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Bullae a.) Papules b.) Macules c.) Fissures d.) Large blisters e.) Nodules
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d.) Large blisters
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Pustule a.) Cyst b.) Pruritus c.) Urticaria d.) Small abscess e.) Ecchymoses
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d.) Small abscess
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Itching a.) Pruritis b.) Petechiae c.) Alopecia d.) Purpura e.) Pruritus
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e.) Pruritus
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Keloid a.) Thickened scar b.) Leukoplakia c.) Comedo d.) Callus e.) Wart
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a.) Thicken scar
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Inflammatory disease of the joints and collagen of the skin; can affect other organs of the body a.) Impetigo b.) Systemic lupus erythematosus c.) Mycosis fungoides d.) Actinic keratosis e.) Eczema
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b.) Systemic lupus erythematosus
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Moles that can develop into malignant melanoma a.) Basal cell carcinoma b.) Squamous cell carcinoma c.) Verrucae d.) Dysplastic nevi e.) Polyps
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d.) Dysplastic nevi
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Bed sore; break in continuity of skin a.) Leukoplakia b.) Psoriasis c.) Tinea d.) Decubitus ulcer e.) Scleroderma
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d.) Decubitus ulcer
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Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin a.) Leukoplakia b.) Psoriasis c.) Tinea d.) Decubitus ulcer e.) Scleroderma
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b.) Psoriasis
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A dermatomycosis a.) Leukoplakia b.) Psoriasis c.) Tinea d.) Decubitus ulcer e.) Scleroderma
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c.) Tinea
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White patches on a mucous membrane of tongue or cheek a.) Leukoplakia b.) Psoriasis c.) Tinea d.) Decubitus ulcer e.) Scleroderma
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a.) Leukoplakia
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Connective tissue in the skin hardens a.) Leukoplakia b.) Psoriasis c.) Tinea d.) Decubitus ulcer e.) Scleroderma
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e.) Scleroderma
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Layers of growth are removed and examined microscopically a.) Fungal test b.) Scratch test c.) Mohs surgery d.) Cryosurgery e.) Punch biopsy
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c.) Mohs surgery
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Fibrous layer of clear tissue that extends over the anterior portion of the eye and is continuous with the white of the eye a.) Fundus b.) Ciliary body c.) Pupil d.) Cornea e.) Iris
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d.) Cornea
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Yellowish region in the retina; contains the fovea centralis a.) Optic disc b.) Posterior chamber c.) Macula lutea d.) Sclera e.) Choroid
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c.) Macula lutea
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What eye structure is transparent, biconvex, and focuses light on the retina? a.) Conjunctiva b.) Lens c.) Vitreous body d.) Aqueous humor e.) Sclera
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b.) Lens
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Place where optic nerve fibers cross in the brain a.) Optic disc b.) Opti chiasma c.) Retina d.) Olfactory lobe e.) Cerebral cortex
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b.) Optic chiasma
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Adjustment of the lens by the ciliary body a.) Accommodation b.) Refraction c.) Binocular vision d.) Photophobia e.) Amblyopia
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a. Accommodation
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Photosensitive receptor cells of the retinal make the perception of color possible a.) Rods b.) Cones c.) Megakaryocyte d.) Optic nerve e.) Optic chiasm
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b.) Cones
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The combining form for cornea is a.) Ocul/o b.) Opt/o c.) Scler/o d.) Choroid/o e.) Kerat/o
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e.) Kerat/o
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The combinging form for the ciliary body is a.) Phak/o b.) Lacrin/o c.) Irid/o d.) Cycl/o e.) Cacry/o
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d.) Cycl/o
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The meaning of palpebr/o is a. eyelid b. cornea c. tear gland d. lens of the eye e. optic nerve
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a. eyelid
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An eye inflammation commonly called "pinkeye" is a. iritis b. conjunctivitis c. dacryoadenitis d. scleritis e. uveitis
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b. conjunctivities
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Impairment of vision due to old age a. emmetropia b. diplopia c. esotropia d. presbyopia e. aniscoria
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d. presbyopia
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Myopia a.) Nearsightedness b.) Farsightedness c.) Astigmatism d.) Strabismus e.) Glaucoma
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a. nearsightedness
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Astigmatism a. Localized purulent infection of the eye b. Atrophy of the retina c. Esotropia d. Exotropia e. Defective curvature of the cornea or lens
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e. Defective curvature of the cornea
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Glaucoma is primarily diagnosed a. Tonometry b. ophthalmoscopy c. Slit-lamp biomicroscopy d. Fluorescein angiography e. Visual field exam
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a. tonometry
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A blind spot; area of depressed vision surrounded by an area of normal vision a. nyctalopia b. exotropia c. scotoma d. esotropia e. strabismus
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c. scotoma
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Macular degeneration produces a. loss of central vision b. hemianopia c. retinal detachment d. nystagmus e. cataracts
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a. loss of central vision
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Small hard mass on the eyelid; formed from a sebaceous gland enlargement a. scleral buckle b. blepharochalasis c. chalazion d. cataract e. steatoma
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c. chalazion
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Small-shaped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear is the a. aurile b. cochlea c. auditory meatus d. utricle e. pinna
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b. cochlea
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Channel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx a. organ of corti b. semicircular canal c. labyrinth d. eustachian tube e. oval window
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d. eustachian tube
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Myring/o means a. cerumen b. tympanic membrane c. stapes d. auditory canal e. semicircular canals
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b. tympanic membrane
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Bacterial infection of the middle ear a. serous obtitis media b. cholesteatoma c. mastoiditis d. barotitis e. suppurative otitis media
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e. suppurative otitis media
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Tinnitus a. Hearing loss occuring with old age b. Dizziness associated with nausea and sensation of whirling motion c. Ringing sounds in ears d. Dysphonia e. Aural discharge
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c. Ringing sounds in ears
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Visual examination of the ear a. Audiometry b. Otoscopy c. Tympanometry d. Tuning fork test e. Ophthalmoscopy
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b. otoscopy
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Nerve deafness occuring with aging a. Vertigo b. meniere disease c. acoustic neuroma d. presbycusis e. otopyorrhea
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d. presbycusis
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Fungal infection of the ear a. macrotia b. salpingitis c. otomycosis d. cholesteatoma e. labyrinthitis
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c. otomycosis
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Which is a function of the thyroid gland? a. secretes immunologic substances b. secretes thymosin c. secretes corticosteroids d. secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone e. secretes thyroxine
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e. secretes thyroxine
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What is another name for the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? a. Hypophysis b. hypothalamus c. adenohypophysis d. neurohypophysis e. thalamus
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c. adenohypophysis
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Which of the following secretes cortisol? a. testes b. ovaries c. adrenal medulla d. adrenal cortex e. pituitary gland
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d. adrenal cortex
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Which is a hormone secreted by the pancreas? a. estrogen b. insulin c. vasopressin d. epinephrine e. glucose
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b. insulin
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Which hormone regulates calcium in the blood and bones? a. parathyroid hormone b. thyroxine c. thyroid-stimulating hormone d. prolactin e. prostaglandins
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a. parathyroid hormone
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Which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete hormones? a. growth hormone b. ADH c. ACTH d. Cortisone e. Secretin
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c. ACTH
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Which is an example of an electrolyte? a. insulin b. sodium c. renin d. glucagon e. steroid
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b. sodium
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Which is an element that is present in thyroxine? a. iron b. calcium c. vitamin D d. Glucose e. Iodine
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e. iodine
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Which is a hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex? a. Follicle-stimulating hormone b. Luteinizing hormone c. androgen d. estrogen e. oxytocin
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d. estrogen
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Which is a description of gonadotropins? a. secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland b. stimulate the growth of long bones c. stimulate glucose uptake in cells d. secreted by the testes e. stimulate the secretion of milk
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a. secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
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What is the term for excessive development of mammary tissue in a male? a. homeostasis b. hypogonadism c. galactorrhea d. gynecomastia e. hypernatremia
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d. gynecomastia
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Kal/i is a combing form for which substance? a. phosphorus b. sodium c. calcium d. milk e. potassium
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e. potassium
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Insulin deficiency or resistance leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis a. graves disease b diabetes mellitus c. cushing syndrome d. acromegaly e. myxedema
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b. diabetes mellitus
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A group of symptoms produced by excess of cortisol from the adrenal cortex a. graves disease b diabetes mellitus c. cushing syndrome d. acromegaly e. myxedema
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c. cushing syndrome
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Advanced hypothyroidism in adulthood a. graves disease b diabetes mellitus c. cushing syndrome d. acromegaly e. myxedema
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e. myxedema
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Post-puberty hypersecretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland a. graves disease b diabetes mellitus c. cushing syndrome d. acromegaly e. myxedema
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d. acromegaly
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Thyrotoxicosis; hypersecretion of the thyroid gland a. graves disease b diabetes mellitus c. cushing syndrome d. acromegaly e. myxedema
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a. graves disease
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Which term means enlargment of the thyroid gland a. Hypergonadism b. euthyroid c. goiter d. hypophyseal enlargement e. tetany
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c. goiter
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Exophthalmos is a symptom of which endocrine disorder? a. endemic goiter b. thyroid carcinoma c. graves disease d. nodular goiter e. pituitary gland hypertrophy
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c. graves disease
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Which is a description of tetany? a. constant muscle contraction b. increased bone growth c. hypercalcemia d. hypokalemia e. hypernatremia
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a. constant muscle contraction
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Natr/o is the combining form for which substance a. sugar b. milk c. sodium d. iodine e. potassium
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c. sodium
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Characteristic of type I diabetes mellitus a. gradual onset; patient is asymptomatic b. ketoacidosis seldom occurs c. treatment is diet and oral hypoglycemic agents d. little or no insulin produced e. usually occurs after the age of 30
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d. little or no insulin produced
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Which of the following is associated with neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy? a. hyperthyroidism b. deficient ADH secretion c. secondary complications of diabetes mellitus d. hypergonadism e. panhypopituitarism
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c. secondary complication of diabetes mellitus
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Which is a description of achondroplasia? a. enlargment of extermities b. defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth c. tumor of the sella turcica d. abnormal formation of cartilage in an adult e. hyperfunctioning of pituitary gland
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b. defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
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Which is a description of a thyroid scan? a. CT image of thyroid gland b. Radioimmunoassay of thyroxine in the bloodstream c. Ultrasound image of the neck d. Skull x-ray of the brain e. Administration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules
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e. Administration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules
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Which term describes the spread of malignant tumors to a distant location? a. metastasis b. anaplasia c. infiltration d. invasion e. encapsulation
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a. metastasis
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Which is an example of a solid tumor derived from epithelial tissue? a. leiomyoma b. rhabodomyoma c. chondrosarcoma d. adenocarcinoma of the lung e. ewing sarcoma
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d. adenocarinoma of the lung
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Which is a description of a fungating tumor? a. Open, exposed surface tumor b. Containing dead tissue c. Characterized by inflammation d. Large, soft, flesh tumor e. Mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other
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e. Mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other
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Which term includes sessile and pedunculated types of growth a. polypoid b. cystic c. medullary d. verrucous e. necrotic
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a. polypoid
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What term describes localized tumor growth? a. metastasis b. carcinoma in situ c. pleomorphic d. anaplastic e. sarcoma
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b. carcinoma in situ
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Which is a description of scirrhous-type tumors? a. form small nipple-like projection b. form microscopic glandular-type sacs c. hard densely packed tumor cells d. resemble squamous epithelial cells e. contain a variety of tumor cells
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c. hard densely packed tumor cells
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What does staging tumor mean? a. Assessing the degree of differentiation b. analyzing the microscopic appearance of tumor cells c. the tumor has spread d. assessing the extent of tumor spread e. treatment involves radiotherapy
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d. assessing the extent of tumor spread
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What does mutagenic means? a. producing a change in the DNA of a cell b. increased cell growth c. new growth in number of cells d. tumors are large and fleshy e. cells are very differentiated
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a. producing a change in the DNA of a cell
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What does the notation TIN2MO mean? a. Tumor is localized and no lymph nodes are involved b. tumor cannot be assessed c. Lymph nodes are not demonstrably abnormal d. tumor is present with palpable regional lymph nodes and no metastases e. metastasis to distant lymph nodes is detectable
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d. tumor is present with palpable regional lymph nodes and no metastases
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What is the definition of a mutation? a. Inheritable change in a cell b. specialization of cells c. plan for treatment of an illness d. cell division e. giving radiation in small doses
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a. inheritable change in cells
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Which is an example of genetic material that causes cancer? a. vinyl chloride b. hydrocarbons c. diethystillbestrol d. alkylating agents e. oncogenes
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e. oncogenes
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Which is a descriptions of exenteration? a. malignant tissues is frozen b. cells are scraped from region c. tumors are burned d. wide resection of tumor and removal of surrounding tissue e. material is taken from the vagina or cervix and analyzed microscopically
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d. wide resection of tumor and removal of surrounding tissue
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What is the meaning of fulguration? a. destruction of tissue by electric sparks b. treatment with drugs c. treatment with radiation d. tumor is removed by surgical excision e. asipiration biopsy technique
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a. destruction of tissue by electric sparks
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Which is an example of a known type of inherited cancer? a. bone cancer b. lung cancer c. retinoblastoma d. basal cell carcinoma e. adenocarcinoma of the cervix
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c. retinoblastoma
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What is a definition of modality? a. Method of treatment b. Damage to normal tissue c. change in genetic material d. description of the diagnosis e. death of cells
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a. method of treatment
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Which is a definition of a radioresistant tumor? a. tumor is completely eradicated by chemical therapy b. tumor requires large doses of radiation to produce death of cells c. Tumor in which irradiation causes death of cancer cells without damage to surrounding tissue d. tumor is not significantly affected by drug treatment e. tumor is resistant to surgical intervention
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b. tumor requires large doses of radiation to produce death of cells
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Which is a description of cauterization? a. treating a tumor with freezing temperatures b. treating tissue with heat c. drying tissue electrically d. surgical puncture to remove fluid e. removing cells by scraping the walls of an organ
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b. treating tissue with heat
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Which is a description of pharmacokinetics? a. Type of ionizing radiation b. Study of the distribution and removal of drugs in the body c. method of giving x-ray treatment d. use of drugs to increase the sensitivity of tumors to x-rays e. abnormal growth of cells
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b. study of the distribution and removal of drugs in the body
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What term means assisting or aiding? a. lethal b. fractionation c. aspiration d. adjuvant e. grading
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d. adjuvant
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Which term is used in treatment of tumors with radiation? a. steroid b. antibiotic c. antimetabolite d. liner accelerator e. plant alkaloid
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d. liner accelerator
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Which is a description of an estrogen receptor assay? a. test for the presence of carcioembryonic antigen in the blood b. tests for a portion of human chorionic gonadotropin in serum of patients c. tests the presence of a protein antigen in serum of liver and testicular cancer patients d. tests the concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of breast cancer patients
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d. tests the concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of breast cancer patients
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What is medical speciality that studies the characteristics and used of radioactive substances in diagnosis of disease? a. radiology b. nuclear medicine c. radiation oncology
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b. nuclear medicine
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What does a radiologist do? a. treats malignancy with radiation b. aid a physician in administering x-ray procedures c. specializes in the practice of administering diagnostic nuclear medicine procedures d. specializes diagnosis techniques such as ultrasound, MRI, and CT scans
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d. specializes diagnosis techniques such as ultrasound, MRI, and CT scans
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Which of the following is true of a radiopaque substance? a. absorbs most of the x-rays it is exposed to b. lung tissue is an example c. is an air-containing structure d. permits the passage of most x-rays
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a. absorbs most of the x-rays it is exposed to
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Which best describes a barium enema? a. iodine compound is given and x-rays are taken of the intestinal tract b. a fluorescent screen to used instead of a photographic plate to visualize images c. metallic powder is introduced to the large intestine and x-rays are taken d. radioactive substance is given and x-rays are taken
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c. metallis powder is introduced to the large intestine and x-rays are taken
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X-ray of the renal pelvis and urinary tract after injecting dye into a vein a. Venogram b. IVP c. RP d. Intravenous cholangiogram
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b. IVP
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Myelogram a. x-ray of lymphatic vessels b. x-ray of muscle c. x-ray of the bone marrow d. x-ray of the spinal cord
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d. x-ray of the spinal cord
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Which is an x-ray of a joint? a. Pneumoencephalogram b. arthroscopy c. arthrogram d. digital subtraction angiography
answer
c. artrogram
question
Which term describes an x-ray test to show an organ in depth? a. lymphoscintigraphy b. tomography c. ultrasonography d. arteriography
answer
b. tomography
question
What best characterizes a CT scan? a. uses radioactive substances to produce an x-ray image b. gives a vertical front-to-back image of the body organ c. magnetic and radio waves are used to create image d. uses ionizing x-rays and a computer to produce a transverse image of the body organs
answer
d. uses ionizing x-rays and a computer to produce a transverse image of the body organs
question
What best characterizes an MRI? a. sagittal, frontal, and cross-sectional images are produced using magnetic and radio waves b. Sound images are produced in addition to magnetic images c. x-rays and a contrast medium are used d. radioactive matter enhance x-rays
answer
a. sagittal, frontal, and cross-sectional images are produced using magnetic and radio waves
question
In which x-ray view is the patient upright with thw back to the x-ray machine and the film to the chest? a. oblique x ray view b. lateral x ray view c. AP view d. PA view
answer
d. PA view
question
What is the meaning of adduction? a. bending part of the body b. moving part of the body toward the midline of the body c. moving the part away from the midline d. turning inward
answer
b. moving part if the body toward the midline
question
What is a substance that gives off high-energy particles or rays? a. scintillation scanner b. half-life c. barium d. radioisotope
answer
d. radioisotope
question
What is an vivo test? a. experiment are performed in a laboratory b. radiopharmaceuticals are used c. radionuclide is incorporated into a chemical substance d. experiments are performed in a living organism
answer
d. experiments are performed in a living organism
question
In which test is a radiopharmaceutical injected intravenously and traced within the vessels of the lung? a. chest x-ray of the lung b. CT scan of the thoracic cavity c. perfusion study of the lung d. ventilation scan of the lung
answer
c. perfusion study of the lung
question
What can liver and spleen scans detect? a. cirrhosis and splenomegaly due to abscess or tumor b. blood flow through the heart and large vessels c. areas of metabolic deficiency in the brain d. thyroid carcinoma
answer
a. cirrhosis and splenomegaly due to abscess or tumor
question
interventional radiologist perform all of the following except a. administration of radiation therapy b. placement of drainage catheters c. occlusion of bleeding vessels d. instillation of antibiotics or chemotherapy via catheters
answer
a. administration of radiation therapy
question
What is thallium-201? a. gamma camera b. contrast material c. fluorescent material d. radionuclide
answer
d. radionuclide
question
In which procedure is a transducer used? a. MRI b. ultrasound c. bone scan d. CT scan
answer
b. ultrasound
question
PACS is a a. Radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices c. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3D images d. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
answer
d. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
question
FDG is a a. Radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices c. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3D images d. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
answer
a. Radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan
question
DICOM is a a. Radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices c. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3D images d. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
answer
b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices
question
SPECT is a a. Radiopharmaceutical used in a PET scan b. protocol for transmission between imaging devices c. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3D images d. system to replace traditional films with digital equivalents
answer
c. technique using a radioactive substance and a computer to create 3D images
question
Study of the interaction of drugs and subcellular entities such as enzymes and DNA is called a. medicinal chemistry b. pharmacodynamics c. chemotherapy d. molecular pharmacology e. pharmacokinetics
answer
d. molecular pharmacology
question
Finding proper antidotes to the harmful effects of drugs is part of the specialty of a. molecular pharmacology b. toxicology c. medicinal chemistry d. pharmacodynamics e. pharmacokinetics
answer
b. toxicology
question
Which of the following is a drug generic name? a. omnipen b. ampicillin c. aminopenicillic acid d. polycillin e. principen
answer
b. ampicillin
question
Which agency holds the legal responsibility for deciding whatever a drug may be distributed and sold? a. PDR b. United states pharmacopeia c. National institues of health d. hospital formulary e. FDA
answer
e. FDA
question
The combination of two drugs can cause an effect that is greater than the sum of the individual effect of each a. iatrigenic b. addictive action c. tolerance d. synergism e. idiosyncrasy
answer
d. synergism
question
Suppositories are inserted a. parental administration b. rectal administration c. inhalation d. topical e. Oral
answer
b. rectal administration
question
Drugs are swallowed and absorbed through the intestinal tract a. parental administration b. rectal administration c. inhalation d. topical e. Oral
answer
e. oral
question
Drugs are injected through a syringe into a muscle, vein, or body cavity a. parental administration b. rectal administration c. inhalation d. topical e. oral
answer
a. parental administration
question
aerosols are administered in this way a. parental administration b. rectal administration c. inhalation d. topical e. oral
answer
c. inhalation
question
Drugs are applied on the skin a. parental administration b. rectal administration c. inhalation d. topical e. oral
answer
d. topical
question
What is anaphylaxis? a. a type of hypersensitivity reaction b. factors in the patient's condition that make the use of a drug dangerous c. a condition produced by the treatment d. toxic effects that routinely result from the use of a drug e. an antipruritic and antiseptic drug
answer
a. a type of hypersensitivity reaction
question
Drugs that block release of a substance that cause allergic reactions are called a. anticoagulants b. antidiabetics c. anticonvulsants d. antihistamines e. anesthetics
answer
d. antihistamines
question
Morphine a. endocrine drug b. cardiovascular drug c. analgesic drug d. stimulant drug e. anticoagulant drug
answer
c. analgesic drug
question
Beta-blocker a. endocrine drug b. cardiovascular drug c. analgesic drug d. stimulant drug e. anticoagulant drug
answer
b. cardiovascular drug
question
Heparin a. endocrine drug b. cardiovascular drug c. analgesic drug d. stimulant drug e. anticoagulant drug
answer
e. anticoagulant drug
question
Estrogen a. endocrine drug b. cardiovascular drug c. analgesic drug d. stimulant drug e. anticoagulant drug
answer
a. endocrine drug
question
Amphetamine and caffeine? a. endocrine drug b. cardiovascular drug c. analgesic drug d. stimulant drug e. anticoagulant drug
answer
d. stimulant drug
question
What is the effect of a diuretic? a. Lowers blood pressure by promoting fluid excretion from the kidney b. Widens blood vessels c. stops blood clotting d. lowers cholesterol e. increased blood pressure by holding water in the body
answer
a. lowers blood pressure by promoting fluid excretion from the kidney
question
Penicillin is an example of which type of drug a. Antihistamine b. analgesic c. antiemetic d. antibiotic e. hypnotic
answer
d. antibiotic
question
A drug that works against fevers is a. antipruritic b. antipyretic c. anesthetic d. anticoagulant e. hypnotic
answer
b. antipyretic
question
Drugs that control anxiety and severe disturbances of behavior a. sedatives b. anticonvulsants c. analgesics d. tranquilizers e. anesthetics
answer
d. tranquilizers
question
Drugs that relax without necessarily producing sleep a. sedatives b. anticonvulsants c. analgesics d. tranquilizers e. anesthetics
answer
a. sedatives
question
Drugs used to relieve pain, induce sleep, and suppress coughs a. sedatives b. anticonvulsants c. analgesics d. tranquilizers e. anesthetics
answer
c. analgesics
question
Drugs that produce loss of sensation throughout the entire body a. sedatives b. anticonvulsants c. analgesics d. tranquilizers e. anesthetics
answer
e. anesthetics
question
Drugs used to treat epilepsy a. sedatives b. anticonvulsants c. analgesics d. tranquilizers e. anesthetics
answer
b. anticonvulsants
question
A forensic psychiatrist specializes in a. educational psychology b. psychoanalysis c. child psychiatry d. experimental psychiatry e. legal aspects of psychiatry
answer
e. legal aspects of psychiatry
question
Which of the following best describes one of the roles of a clinical psychologist? a. uses tests to measure mental health and intelligence b. uses drug therapy to treat mental illness c. treats only adults d. uses electroconvulsive therapy to treat mental illness
answer
a. uses test to measure mental health and intelligence
question
Which of the following is a mood disorder a. Phobia b. panic attack c. obsessive-compulsive behavior d. psychogenic amnesia e. manic-depressive illness
answer
e. manic-depressive illness
question
A term that describes an exaggerated feeling of well-being is a. autism b. paranoia c. labile d. euphoria e. delusion
answer
d. euphoria
question
An uncontrollable urge to perform an act repeatedly is a a. conversion b. hypochondriasis c. mania d. compulsion e. Paranoia
answer
d. compulsion
question
Preoccupation with one's self and lack of responsiveness to others is a characteristic of a. dissociation b. dysphoria c. delusion d. apathy e. autism
answer
e. autism
question
False or unreal sensory perceptions are called a. obsessions b. dissociations c. hallucinations d. phobias e. panic disorders
answer
c. hallucinations
question
What best describes repressions? a. defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious b. a mild depression c. repetitive acts d. an involuntary, persistent idea, emotion, or urge e. delusions of persecution
answer
a. defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious
question
Fear of leaving one's home is a. acrophobia b. agoraphobia c. claustrophobia d. necrophobia e. social phobia
answer
b. agoraphobia
question
Which of the following psychotherapies uses free association and transference? a. Hypnosis b. behavior therapy c. psychodrama d. psychoanalysis e. sex therapy
answer
d. psychoanalysis
question
Alternating moods of exalted feelings and excitement with moods of extreme sadness and decreased activity a. Major depression b. Cyclothymic disorder c. Biopolar disorder d. Hypomania e. Dysthymic disorder
answer
c. bipolar disorder
question
Short depressive periods and moods with no psychotic features a. Major depression b. cyclothymic disorder c. biopolar disorder d. hypomania e. dysthymic disorder
answer
e. dysthymic disorder
question
Numerous period of mania and depression, but not of long duration; no psychotic features a. major depression b. cyclothymic disorder c. biopolar disorder d. hypomania e. dysthymic disorder
answer
b. cyclothymic disorder
question
Resembling mania, but not as severe a. major depression b. cyclothymic disorder c. biopolar disorder d. hypomania e. dysthymic disorder
answer
d. hypomania
question
Severe dysphoric mood with psychotic features a. major depression b. cyclothymic disorder c. biopolar disorder d. hypomania e. dysthymic disorder
answer
a. major depression
question
Grandiose sense of self-importance and preoccupation with fantasies of success and power a. antisocial b. paranoid c. histrionic d. narcissistic e. schizoid
answer
d. narcissistic
question
Continually suspicious and mistrustful of other people a. antisocial b. paranoid c. histrionic d. narcissistic e. schizoid
answer
b. paranoid
question
No loyalty or concern for others; without moral standards a. antisocial b. paranoid c. histrionic d. narcissistic e. schizoid
answer
a. antisocial
question
Emotionally cold and aloof; indifferent to praise or criticism and to the feeling of others a. antisocial b. paranoid c. histrionic d. narcissistic e. schizoid
answer
e. schizoid
question
Emotional, immature, and dependent; irrational outbursts and flamboyant behavior a. antisocial b. paranoid c. histrionic d. narcissistic e. schizoid
answer
c. histrionic
question
Mental symptoms such as amnesia hide the pain and anxiety of unconscious conflicts a. hypochondriasis b. conversion disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa e. dissociative disorder
answer
e. dissociative disorder
question
Physical symptoms appear as a defense against overwhelming anxiety a. hypochondriasis b. conversion disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa e. dissociative disorder
answer
b. conversion disorder
question
General preoccupation with bodily aches and pains and irrational fear about one's health a. hypochondriasis b. conversion disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa e. dissociative disorder
answer
a. hypochondriasis
question
Psychological factors such as anxiety, anger, and fear produce unrealistic body image and reluctance to eat a. hypochondriasis b. conversion disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa e. dissociative disorder
answer
c. anorexia nervosa
question
Fear of obesity in which binge eating is followed by induced vomiting a. hypochondriasis b. conversion disorder c. anorexia nervosa d. bulimia nervosa e. dissociative disorder
answer
d. bulimia nervosa
