Womens Health- Exam 3 – Flashcards
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A 31-year-old nulliparous woman present to the clinic complaining of a period that is heavier than usual, abdominal pain, and pelvic discomfort. After further assessment, the physician believes that the patient's menorrhagia is related to the presence of fibroids. If the patient's states that she is still considering having children, what would be the ideal treatment option? A) Inform the patient to take 81 mg of Aspirin daily to prevent thrombus formation B) Encourage the client to consider a hysterectomy to ensure severe symptoms subside C) Inform the patient that uterine artery embolization is the only surgical intervention for fibrotic menorrhagia D)Explain that a myomectomy may be performed, which is the removal of the tumors only
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Correct Answer: D Rational: "Women with menorrhagia should be warned not to use aspirin because of its tendency to increase bleeding" (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 129). If patient wishes to maintain childbearing potential, "a myomectomy may be done" Other surgical options increase a woman's loss of fertility.
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A 53 year old female is receiving hormonal replacement therapy (HRT) to help alleviate the symptoms of menopause. What should the nurse teach the patient about the side effects of HRT? A. Take all medications with food to prevent nausea B. HRT will cause your menses to return after 3 months of taking this medication C. Weight-bearing exercise is contraindicated while taking HRT for menopause D. Headache, nausea, vomiting, weight gain and breast soreness are common side effects of HRT
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Answer: D Rationale: "The side effects associated with estrogen use include headaches, nausea and vomiting, bloating, ankle and feet swelling, weight gain, breast soreness, brown spots on the skin, eye irritation with contact lenses, and depression" (Lowdermilk et al., 2012, p. 134). A, B, & C, are not indicated.
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A female patient was admitted to the hospital for a hysterectomy, and her nurse is planning for discharge. Which information should the nurse include in her discharge teaching? A. Eat foods that are low in fiber, iron, vitamin C, and protein to promote tissue healing. B. Vigorous exercises and heavy lifting can be resumed as soon as two weeks after the procedure. C. A water-soluble lubricant may be used once sexual activity is resumed to relieve discomfort. D. Taking warm baths and douching regularly after surgery can help promote healing of the tissue.
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ANSWER: C Rationale: Once vaginal intercourse is resumed, water-soluble lubricants, relaxation exercises, and positions that control penile penetration can be used to decrease sexual discomfort. Incorrect: A) Foods high in fiber, iron, vitamin C, and protein are found to aid tissue healing. B) Vigorous exercise and heavy lifting should not be resumed until 6 weeks after the procedure. D) Tub baths and douching should be avoided until after the follow-up examination.
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After a nurse completes a full assessment of a female victim of domestic violence, she documents her findings. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for the nurse to include in her documentation of abuse? A) Setting off the woman's words in quotation marks. B)Recording the time of day of the examination. C) Only describing the woman's demeanor if she appears to be angry. D) Photographs of the injuries related to the domestic violence.
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Correct: C INCORRECT: It is important for the nurse to set off the woman's words in quotation marks and use such phrase as "client states" to indicate the information recorded reflects the woman's words. Describe the offender and the event in the words of the woman INCORRECT: The nurse should record the time of day of the examination and indicate whenever possible how much time has passed since the abuse CORRECT: The nurse should describe the demeanor of the patient ALWAYS not only when angry INCORRECT: The nurse should take photographs of the injuries known or believed to have been caused by domestic violence
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After gathering information about each patient's current signs and symptoms, which of the following should be reported to the physician to further assess for endometriosis? A. Vaginal discharge and pain during menstruation. B. Pain in her ovaries and pain while urinating. C. Pelvic cramping and pain during sexual intercourse. D. Back pain and difficulty swallowing.
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Answer: C A. INCORRECT. The major symptoms of endometriosis are pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (pain during menstruation), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), abnormal menstrual bleeding, and infertility. While dysmenorrhea is a symptom of endometriosis, vaginal discharge is not a sign of endometriosis. B. INCORRECT. The major symptoms of endometriosis are pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (pain during menstruation), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), abnormal menstrual bleeding, and infertility. Ovary pain and dysuria do not indicate endometriosis. C. CORRECT. The major symptoms of endometriosis are pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (pain during menstruation), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), abnormal menstrual bleeding, and infertility. Some women report bowel symptoms such as diarrhea, pain with defecation, and constipation or pain radiating to the thighs. D. INCORRECT. The major symptoms of endometriosis are pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea (pain during menstruation), dyspareunia (painful intercourse), abnormal menstrual bleeding, and infertility. Back pain and difficulty swallowing do not indicate endometriosis
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A nurse educator is providing teaching to a group of young women about ways to help manage premenstrual syndrome (PMS). All of the following are true statements regarding PMS management, except: A. Limit the consumption of refined sugar, salt, red meat, and caffeinated drinks or alcohol. B. Keep a detailed log of symptoms and mood fluctuations over the course of several cycles. C. Medication may be ordered if symptom relief is not experienced in 1-2 months by other management. D. Bedrest or restricted activity is recommended to help relieve PMS pain and symptoms.
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Answer: A Rationale: A. Correct- Women experiencing PMS symptoms should limit refined sugar (< 5 tablespoons), salt (< 3 grams), red meat (up to 3 ounces), and alcohol (< 1 once) or caffeinated drinks consumption per day B. Correct- Keeping a detailed log of symptoms and mood fluctuations occurring over several cycles may give insight for possible management strategies C. Correct- Medication may be prescribed for treatment of PMS symptoms after 1-2 months if relief is not found using nonpharmacological PMS management strategies D. Incorrect- Regular exercise, up to 3 to 4 times a week, is recommended, especially in the luteal phase because it can help with relief of PMS symptoms
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A woman comes into the clinic complaining of breast tenderness in both breast and lumps present upon her monthly breast self-examination. It is confirmed that the patient has fibrocystic changes. What comment by the patient would indicate that further teaching is needed? "My pain can be managed with an anti-inflammatory." "Eliminating caffeine from my diet will help reduce symptoms." "Chemotherapy will be needed to cure this problem." "I should avoid smoking and drinking alcohol." Rationales:
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Answer: C A. Incorrect. Pain should be managed with an anti-inflammatory such as ibuprofen (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 212). B. Incorrect. Eliminating caffeine can help reduce symptoms of fibrocystic changes (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 212). C. Correct. Chemotherapy is not needed for fibrocystic changes; treatment is usually conservative (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 212). D. Incorrect. Smoking and alcohol should be avoided to reduce symptoms of fibrocystic changes (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 212).
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A nurse at a women's health clinic is teaching the student nurse about Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS). Which of the following would be incorrect to include in the teaching? A. Women with PCOS often report depression, anxiety, and social fears B. Clinical manifestations of PCOS include hirsutism, irregular menses, and infertility C. PCOS occurs when there are low levels of LH and increased secretion of FSH D. This syndrome can be transmitted as an X-linked dominant trait
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Answer C Rationale: PCOS occurs when an endocrine imbalance results in high levels of estrogen, testosterone, and luteinizing hormone (LH) and decreased secretions of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Choices A, B, and D are correct characteristics of PCOS.
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A pregnant woman who has been abused by her husband for many years is seeking assistance from a nurse. Even though it is not known as to what drives women to seek help, the following choices are probable reasons why except. A)Women who are beaten frequently and/or severely B)Women who have experienced or witnessed family violence C)Women who see an alternative to life in an abusive relationship D)When their children have been hurt by the abuser
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Correct answer: B Rationale: There are three main groups of women that are more likely to seek assistance in changing their lives in an abusive relationship. These groups include: women who are beaten frequently and severely, women who have NOT experienced or witnessed family violence in their family, and women who see an alternative to life in an abusive relationship . It is also known that women seek help after their children have been hurt or when the children start imitating the abuser's behavior
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A 28 year-old woman comes for a yearly exam and physical and discusses her desire to begin having a child with her husband as soon as possible. She expresses anxiety because she has a history of smoking for several years and wants to know how to approach quiting. The nurse can assist the woman in smoking cession by all of the following interventions EXCEPT: a. Encourage the woman to set a "quit date" for herself b. Refer her to a nearby smoking cessation program c. Provide information about nicotine replacement products to use throughout pregnancy d. Follow up with the woman by phone call or schedule a return visit
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Answer: C Nicotine replacement products are not appropriate to suggest to a woman who is to become pregnant, as these products are not recommended for use during pregnancy (Lowdermilk, D., Perry, S., Cashion, K., & Alden, K., p. 92). A, B, and D are all appropriate ways to help this woman quit smoking prior to becoming pregnant.
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An 18 year old female comes into the clinic asking about emergency contraception methods. She states that she had intercourse 36 hours ago and wants something to ensure she doesn't get pregnant. What would be the initial action of the nurse? A) Tell the client that it is too late for emergency contraception, because it has been more than 24 hours B) Tell the client that she needs to have her mother come back to the clinic with her to get emergency contraception C) Provide contraceptive counseling to the client, including a discussion of modifying risky sexual behaviors to prevent STIs and unwanted pregnancy D) Tell the client that emergency contraception will protect her from future pregnancies if she engages in unprotected intercourse after treatment
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Answer: C A. Incorrect. Emergency contraception should be used within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse, or birth control mishap to prevent unintended pregnancy B. Incorrect. Anyone regardless of gender or age can purchase this pill C. Correct. Contraceptive counseling should be provided to all women requesting emergency contraception D. Incorrect. Emergency contraception does not protect a woman against pregnancy if she engages in unprotected intercourse in the days or weeks following treatment
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A 16-year-old female was recently diagnosed with endometriosis. Which statement by the patient indicates that further teaching is necessary? A: "If my pain is mild, I might only need to use an NSAID during my period." B: "My future child will be more at risk for having endometriosis than the average female." C: "I will never be able to have children in the future due to my disease." D: "My symptoms might change as time goes on, getting worse or better."
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Answer: C A: Incorrect; this statement is true. "Women with milk pain who may desire a future pregnancy, treatment may be limited to use of NSAIDs during menstruation" B: Incorrect; this statement is true. "The condition is seven times more prevalent in women who have a first-degree relative with endometriosis as compared with the general population" C: Correct; this statement is false. While endometriosis occurs in 30-45% of infertile women, a diagnosis of endometriosis does not mean the patient will never be able to conceive. D: Incorrect; this statement is true. "Severity of symptoms can change over time and may be disproportionate to the extent of the disease
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The nurse is educating a patient about IUDs (intrauterine devices) as a form of contraception. Which statement by the patient would signify to the nurse that more teaching on the topic is necessary? A. Having an IUD will protect me from HIV and other STIs. B. I will immediately become fertile again once the IUD is removed. C. I should check for presence of the IUD strings after each menstrual cycle. D. The IUD Mirena is effect for up to 5 years.
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Answer: A A. CORRECT. This is a false statement and shows that more teaching is necessary. An IUD does not protect against HIV or other STIs B. INCORRECT. This is a true statement and shows that teaching was effective. After removal of the IUD, the woman will return to a state of fertility. C. INCORRECT. This is a true statement and shows that teaching was effective. It is important to teach patients to check after each menstrual cycle for the IUD strings. This ensures that unintentional expulsion of the IUD did not take place. D. INCORRECT. This is a true statement and shows that teaching was effective. The hormonal intrauterine system (Mirena) lasts up to 5 years, while the ParaGard Copper T 380A is effective for up to 10 years.
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A nurse is discussing breast self-examination with a 21 year old client in the clinic. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching? A. About 3-4 days before my period starts, my breasts may swell and become tender. B. As I become older, I may notice nodules that appear in my breasts right before and after menstruation. C. I should conduct a breast self-exam monthly, when I start my period. D. My breasts should be approximately the same size and shape, and have no dimples.
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Answer: C Rationale: A, B, and D are expected to occur during the woman's menstrual cycle. C is an incorrect statement. "The physiologic alternations in breast size and activity reach their minimum level about 5 to 7 days after menstruation stops" this is the optimum point in the woman's cycle to perform a breast self-exam. Current American Cancer Society (ACS) guidelines list the monthly breast self-exam as an option, due to unneccessary biopsies that the ACS believes occured due to "recommended" breast self-exams
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Which statement about the female reproductive cycle made by a student needs correcting? A.Females reach puberty 2 years earlier than males B.The average age for menarche is 12.5 years C.A female's menstrual cycle occurs over 10-20 years of her life D.Menopause begins after the absence of menstruation for 1 full year
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Correct answer: C Rational: A female's menstrual cycle occurs over 30-40 years of her life, not 10-20 years. Answer choices A, B, and D are correct statements pertaining to the female reproductive cycle.
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During a well women's appointment, a 53 year old menopausal woman was inquiring about hormonal replacement therapy. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is needed? A. The therapy includes hormones that my body produced on it's own before menopause. B. This therapy could help relieve my hot flashes. C. I will be on a highest dose of hormones for the rest of my life. D. Once I stop the therapy, the symptoms of menopause will return.
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Answer: C A. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. Hormone replacement therapy entails the woman taking both estrogen and progestins (Lowdermilk, 2012, pp. 134). B. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. Hormone replacement therapy has been "prescribed for discomforts associated with the perimenopausal years, including hot flashes and vaginal and urinary tract atrophy" C. Correct. This is an incorrect statement. "If used, MHT should be taken at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration D. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. "When a woman decides to stop MHT, a recurrence of symptoms will occur whether the medication is tapered or discontinued abruptly"
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While discussing preventative measures to reduce the risk of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women, the nurse realized the patient needs further teaching when the she states? a) "Running and swimming will help increase bone density and strengthen my muscles" B) "I should make sure to maintain a balanced diet that includes calcium-rich foods" "It's not recommended to have a BMD test until I am at least 65 years old" "It is recommended to supplement calcium with vitamin D to increase absorption of calcium"
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Answer: C A. Incorrect. A program of regular weight-bearing and muscle strengthening exercises further helps promote bone health. B. Incorrect. To protect bone health, it is important that all individuals have a nutritionally balanced diet that includes calcium rich foods and Vitamin D C. Correct. The U.S. Preventative Services Task Force and the National Osteoporosis Foundation recommend testing for postmenopausal women and all women ages 65 and older. Although, the patient may be younger than 65 she is still postmenopausal. D. Correct. Vitamin D does increase and aid in the absorption of calcium
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Which statement made by a sexually active 17-year-old girl reflects an understanding of sexually transmitted infections (STI)? A) "If I acquire any STI, I will be cured by taking prescribed antibiotics." B) "I will never have to worry about getting an STI if I use condoms." C) "STI's acquired at a young age usually don't affect pregnancies later in life." D) "My chances of acquiring an STI are higher since I am young." Rationale:
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Answer: D A) Incorrect. Only bacterial STI's can be treated with antibiotics. B)Incorrect. Even though contraception can decrease the risk of getting an STI, no method guarantees complete protection. C)Incorrect. STI's can cause many complications during pregnancy such as infertility, ectopic pregnancies, and neonatal mortality. D)Correct. The risks of acquiring an STI are high in adolescents and young adults who become sexually active at a young age.
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A nurse is providing information to a 41 year-old woman who is in the beginning stages of the perimenopausal period. Which statement made by the client indicates further teaching is needed. "I may begin to have longer periods." "I should cut down on drinking sodas." "It may help to wear light clothes for sleeping." "I will completely stop having a period in a couple months." Rationales:
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1. False. When women are in their 40s, anovulation occurs more often, menstrual cycles increase in length, and ovarian follicles become less sensitive to hormonal stimulation from FSH and LH. 2. False. Osteoporosis is a major health problem associated with menopause. A greater phosphorus than calcium intake, which occurs with soft drink consumption, may be a risk factor. 3. False. Vasomotor instability in the form of hot flashes is common during the perimenopausal years. Nightly sweats, characterized by profuse perspiration and heat radiating from the body during the night, are another form of vasomotor instability experienced by many women. Wearing light clothing may help for hot flashes. 4. Correct. This statement indicates further teaching is needed. The patient is in the beginning stages of the perimenopausal period. Natural menopause is a gradual process with progressive increases in anovulatory cycles and eventual cessation of menses. In the 2 to 8 years preceding menopause, subtle hormonal changes eventually lead to altered menstrual function and later to amenorrhea.
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A woman is in the clinic wanting to know who believes that she is going through menopause. She tells the nurse the changes that she has experienced recently. Which of the following would the nurse NOT include in expected perimenopausal changes? A- "Intercourse has become more painful, and I've lost interest" B- "I used to be tall, but I'm getting shorter" C- "My monthly bleed no longer occurs every month" D- "I get chilled throughout the day and at night"
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Answer: D A indicates an expected finding that can be related to the decrease in estrogen within the body. B is an indicator that the patient may be undergoing osteoporosis, the first sign of which can be a decrease in the patient's height, often due to vertebral fracture or collapse. It is expected that the menstrual cycle will change as the woman enters perimenopause. D is the answer that is not expected, as women who are progressing through perimenopause and menopause are expected to experience hot flashes and night sweats due to vasomotor changes due to changing estrogen levels (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, Alden, 2012). (PWC: Osteoporosis that results in a shorter stature is severe, and it would not be one of the first signs a woman notices when she is entering menopause. Women begin losing bone at menopause, and it continues at a rapid rate for the first 5 to 6 years after menopause. A shorter stature would not be apparent until well after menopause, not during the perimenopause.)
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You are caring for a 32 year old female post-op for a bilateral tubal ligation. Which statement by the patient indicates a lack of understanding of expectations after this procedure? A) "I may feel pain at ovulation." B) "My menstrual period will be shorter than before sterilization." C) "I should expect no hormone changes and their influence." D) "Sterilization offers no protection against STIs."
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Answer: B Incorrect. This is a true statement. The patient may feel pain at ovulation Correct. This statement is incorrect. The menstrual period will be about the same as before the sterilization. Incorrect. This statement is true. The patient should expect no change in hormones and their influence. Incorrect. This is a true statement. Sterilization does not offer protection from STIs. Therefore, the patient may need to use condoms
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It is reported that a woman has a history of toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She should be taught that which of the following forms of birth control increases her risk of exacerbating TSS? A. Diaphragm B. Intrauterine device (Mirena) C. Oral contraceptives D. Abstinence
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Answer: A- diaphragm Rational: "Toxic shock syndrome (TSS), although reported in very small numbers, can occur in association with the use of the contraceptive diaphragm and cervical caps." (Lowdermilk, D., Perry, S., Cashion, K., & Alden, K., 2012, pp.180) Knowing that using a diaphragm as a form of birth control increases the woman's chances of TSS, it is proper to educate the client so that risk can be properly reduced.
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A 21-year-old woman in a mutually monogamous relationship is seeking contraceptive counseling at the local women's health clinic. Her nurse recommends trying an intrauterine device (IUD), a small T-shaped device with bendable arms for insertion through the cervix. When explaining to the woman signs of potential complications of an IUD, the nurse should list all of the following EXCEPT: A. A late period, abnormal spotting or bleeding B. Flu-like symptoms, fever, or chills C. Lower back pain or pain with intercourse D. String shorter, longer, or missing
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Correct Answer: C Rationale: The IUD is a safe, cost-effective, and highly reliable method of contraception for this woman. She should be taught signs of potential complications of an IUD by the nurse before insertion. The correct answer to this question (C) would not be a sign of a potential complication. The woman would experience abdominal pain or pain with intercourse. All of the other answer choices (A, B, D) would be signs of a potential complication and should be reported to her health care provider. (PWC: While your book lists only abdominal pain, it would not be unusual to experience the pain in the lower back. Just as some women feel menstrual cramps in their low back, or labor contractions in the low back, an intrauterine infection could also cause back pain.)
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A 20 year-old women presents to the women's health clinic to obtain more information about contraception and family planning. She tells the nurse that she is considering using combined oral contraceptive pills as her primary method of contraception. Which of the following would not be a reason for the patient avoid oral contraceptive use? A) The patient has a history of a thromboembolic disorder B) The patient is four weeks postpartum and is currently breastfeeding C) The patient states that she takes St. John's wort daily D) The patient states that she has a latex allergy
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Rationale Incorrect. Oral contraceptives are contraindicated for patients with a history of thromboembolic disorders. Incorrect. Patients who are less than six weeks postpartum and lactating should not use oral contraceptives. Incorrect. Some over-the-counter medications and herbal supplements, such as St. John's wort, and alter the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptive pills. Correct. A latex allergy is not a contraindication to oral contraceptive use. This would be more of a concern for patients using latex condoms as a method of contraception.
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A 24 year old woman is at the clinic for her yearly woman's exam. She noticed a brochure about Plan B and asked the nurse for information about it. What response by the nurse is accurate? A. "Plan B is emergency contraception that is taken seven days after failed contraception to prevent pregnancy". B. "Plan B can be taken before ovulation to prevent pregnancy by inhibiting follicular development". C. "Do not worry about not menstruating after taking Plan B because pregnancy is impossible". D. "It is possible to take Plan B if you are less than 10 weeks pregnant to abort the baby". Correct answer:
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A. This answer is not correct because Plan B must be taken within 120 hours (5 days) after failed contraception. B. This is a true statement. C. This is not an accurate statement because pregnancy is still possible after taking Plan B if not taken as prescribed. D. This is an inaccurate statement because emergency contraception does not disturb an implanted pregnancy. (PWC: It's important to understand that emergency contraception is just that...emergency treatment when a woman's contraceptive has failed (e.g. "condom broke") or after she has had unprotected sex. If this event occurs in her cycle before ovulation, then it works by inhibiting follicular development. If, however, the event occurs after ovulation, then Plan B works by either preventing fertilization, or by preventing a fertilized egg from implanting into the endometrium.)
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A primagravida with Marfan's Syndrome asks the nurse what is the likelihood that her baby will be diagnosed with Marfan's Syndrome as well? The nurse knows that Marfan's Syndrome is autosomal dominant. How should the nurse respond? A. None of your children will have Marfan's Syndrome, it cannot be inherited. B. Only one child will be a carrier of Marfan's Syndrome. C. There is a 50% chance your child will have Marfan's Syndrome. D. There is a 100% chance your child will have Marfan's Syndrome.
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Answer: C Rationale: Because Marfan's Syndrome is an autosomal dominant trait. The mother, who has at least one dominant gene, will pass the gene onto 50% of her children. (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 712)
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A nurse working in an infertility clinic explains to a couple having problems with conception that the physician will likely have a Semen Analysis test ordered. Which statement made by the patient would indicate the need for further teaching? A) "This test is used to study the sperm's ability to penetrate an ovum and the effects of cervical mucus on sperm motility and survival." B) "We will bring the semen specimen to the office in a sealed container so that it can be processed within 2 hours of ejaculation." C) "If the initial results are not within fertile range, the next course of testing is likely a testicular biopsy." D) "A total sperm count greater than 40 million per ejaculation and sperm motility of 50% or greater are normal results."
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Correct Answer: C C) "If the results are not within normal range, the test is repeated. If subsequent results are still within the subfertile range, further evaluation is needed to evaluate the problem" (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 201). According to Lowdermilk et al., (2012) the other statements are correct and do not require any follow-up by the nurse. (p. 201). (PWC: Answer A is not correct--a semen analysis cannot assess the sperm's ability to penetrate an ovum or evaluate the effects of cervical mucus on sperm motility or survival. Only a post-coital test can evaluate the effect of cervical mucus on sperm motility/survival. The semen analysis looks at sperm number, morphology, and motility. Please see box 9-4 on page 201 of the 11th edition of the textbook.)
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During a scheduled prenatal appointment, the RN asks a patient if she has any pets at home. The patient replies that she owns several cats that are all litterbox trained. She also reports that she lives alone, enjoys hiking and works as a legal assistant. What is the nurse's priority intervention(s)? A.) Recommend that the patient stays indoors for the remainder of the pregnancy B.) Educate the patient about prevention of toxoplasmosis infection & refer for TORCH screening C.) Remind the patient that exercise in not recommended during pregnancy D.) Immediately prepare the patient for an emergency C-section
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Answer: B Rationale: The RN should be concerned that the patient lives alone and has several cats. This means that the patient most likely has had contact with cat feces, putting the patient and her fetus at risk for toxoplasmosis infection. Therefore, the priority interventions should involve screening for infection as well as educating the patient about avoidance of toxoplasmosis exposure (B). (A) is not a valid recommendation based on the patient's statements. (C) is an untrue statement and (D) is not indicated.
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A 28-year-old married woman comes to the clinic to discuss her inability to become pregnant with her husband. In regards to the female assessment of infertility, the nurse should complete all of the following except: A) Complete a health history that includes duration of infertility, past obstetric events, menstrual and sexual history B) Complete a specific assessment of the reproductive tract following a complete general physical examination C) Obtain data from routine urine and blood tests along with results of other diagnostic tests D) Obtain information from a testicular biopsy to give a more accurate diagnosis and prognosis
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Rationale: A, B, and C are all correct ways to assess a female for infertility. D is INCORRECT as this is a way to assess a male for infertility
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During the normal growth and development, the fetus goes through certain stages and changes at various weeks during the pregnancy. Which of the following changes is accurately matched with the corresponding time frame? A) During week four the embryo changes from straight to C shape B) The respiratory system is completely developed during the first week after conception C) Sex differentiation begins in the embryo during the 20th week after conception D) The cardiovascular system is the last organ system to function
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Correct answer: A Rationale: A is correct because the embryo changes from being almost straight to C-shpaed as both ends fold in toward the ventral surface B: is incorrect because the respiratory system beings to develop during embryonic life and continues through fetal life and into childhood. The development begins during week 4 and continues to term with various structures developing at different times C: is incorrect because sex differentiation begins during the 7th week and is distinguishable after the 9th week D: is incorrect because the cardiovascular system is the FIRST system to function in the developing human
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A couple has made an appointment with their fertility clinic after a year of unsuccessful attempts to get pregnant. Which of the following statements by the wife would most likely lead the nurse to believe the patient is suffering from depression? A. "I just know that if we keep trying we will definitely be able to get pregnant. All that we need is patience!" B. "Anytime I see a pregnant woman at the grocery store or the park, I can't help but to feel jealous and frustrated with them." C. "Maybe if we had waited until we were married to have sex, God would not be making us struggle with infertility." D: "I just can't convince myself to get out of bed in the morning. I don't want to have to talk to anyone."
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ANSWER: D Rationale: Depression often presents with signs of isolation and withdrawal from normal activities of daily living. If the patient stated low motivation to get out of bed and a lack of desire to interact with others, the nurse would need to further assess for other signs and symptoms of depression. Incorrect: A) Refusing to accept the possibility that the couple may not be able to get pregnant is indicative of denial, not depression. B) Feeling frustration and jealousy over other pregnant women is a sign of anger, not depression. C) Associating previous behaviors with infertility is most often associated with guilt, not depression. All of these behaviors may be expressed concurrently in a patient; however, lack of motivation and desire to interact is the sign that most specifically links to depression.
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A nurse educator is providing teaching to a group of graduate nurses about fetal lung development. All of the following are true statements regarding fetal lung development, except: A. Development of the fetal respiratory tract begins in week 4 of gestation. B. Formation of the larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lung buds is complete by week 17 of gestation C. Specialized alveolar cells begin to increase pulmonary surfactant secretion between weeks 24 to term. D. The infant's lungs are considered mature at approximately 30 weeks gestation.
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Rationale: A. Correct- The respiratory tract beings developing in week 4 and continues developing into childhood until it reaches maturity (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 281). B. Correct- The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lung buds are formed by 17 weeks gestation (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 281). C. Correct- Type I and type II specialized alveolar cells are formed and being to increase pulmonary surfactant secretion at 24 weeks gestation until term (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 281). D. Incorrect- The infant's lungs are considered to be mature at approximately 35 weeks gestation because the L/S (Lecithin/Sphingomyelin) ratio is 2:1 Lecithin and sphingomyelin are forms of alveolar surfactant that are essential for proper lung function and expansion (PWC: The current version of the textbook states that the fetal lungs are considered to be mature sometime in the middle of the third trimester (not 35 weeks)
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During a genetic counseling session an expectant couple asks the nurse what the risk is of their baby having sickle cell disease. Knowing that both parents are carriers of sickle cell disease how would the nurse respond? A) Explain that the fetus has a 25% chance of having sickle cell disease B)Explain that the fetus has a 50% chance of having sickle cell disease C)Explain that the fetus has a 50% chance of having no blood disorder D)Explain that the estimation of the risk cannot be interpreted with this information
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Correct: A A. Correct. If both parents have sickle cell trait, there is a 25% (or 1 in 4) chance that the child will have sickle cell disease (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 51). B. Incorrect. If both parents have sickle cell trait, there is a 50% (or 1 in 2) chance that the child also will have sickle cell trait and a 25% (or 1 in 4) chance that the child will have sickle cell disease (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 51). C. Incorrect. If both parents have sickle cell trait, there is a 25% (or 1 in 4) chance that the child will not have sickle cell disease or sickle cell trait. (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 51). D. Incorrect. Knowing that the parents are carriers of the trait, the risk can be estimated using mendelian principles (Lowdermilk, Perry, Cashion, & Alden, 2012, p. 54).
question
After years of being unable to have children, a couple decides to take part in fertility treatment. Before beginning the treatment, the nurse educates the couple on some important issues. Which of the following comments made by the mother indicates that further teaching is needed? A) "If I do become pregnant, it will only be with one baby". B)"Stress management techniques and couple counseling may be helpful." C) "I may have long term effects from the medications and treatments". D)"A surrogate mother may be needed to carry my baby".
answer
ANSWER: A A) CORRECT: With fertility treatment, there is a risk of multiple gestations. Therefore, further teaching is needed for this couple B)INCORRECT: Part of fertility treatment teaching includes stress management techniques and recommendations for ongoing psychologic and couples counseling. Therefore, this comment does not indicate further teaching is needed C)INCORRECT: With fertility treatment, there is a possible risk of long-term effects of medications and treatment on women, children, and families. Therefore, this comment does not indicate further teaching is needed D) INCORRECT: With fertility treatment, there is a possible need for donor oocytes, sperm, or embryos, or for gestational carrier (surrogate mother). Therefore, this comment does not indicate further teaching is needed
question
A couple has come into the clinic to discuss treatment options for infertility with the physician. The nurse knows that all of the following issues should be addressed except...? A: Possible long term risks of medication and treatment B: A list of adoption agencies in the area C: Stress management techniques and recommendations D: Risks of a multiple gestation pregnancy
answer
Correct: B A: Incorrect; this should be discussed prior to starting treatment B: Correct; while adoption may be something for the couple consider, it is not an issue to be discussed prior to starting infertility treatment. C: Incorrect; this should be addressed prior to starting treatment. D: Incorrect; the risks associated with infertility treatment, which include a multiple gestation pregnancy, should be addressed.
question
After teaching clients about the process of fertilization, which statement made by the client suggests that further teaching by the nurse is not required? A. "If the sperm plasma membrane is not removed, the sperm will not be able to fertilize the ovum." B. "Transportation of the sperm to the fallopian tube takes an average of 12-24 hours after ejaculation." C. "Progesterone increases peristalsis in the fallopian tubes during ovulation, moving the ovum toward the uterus." D. "Testosterone in the semen helps to transport the sperm by increasing uterine smooth muscle contractions."
answer
A. CORRECT. This process is called capacitation, and it is necessary for the plasma membrane to separate from the sperm in order for the sperm to fertilize the ovum. B. INCORRECT. Transportation of the sperm to the fallopian tube can occur within 5 minutes, but on average, it takes 4-6 hours. C. INCORRECT. Estrogen increases peristalsis in the fallopian tubes during ovulation, which helps move the ovum toward the uterus. D. INCORRECT. Prostaglandins in the semen help transport the sperm by increasing uterine smooth muscle contractions.
question
A nurse at the prenatal clinic has discussed the topic of placental structure and function to a primigravida. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A.) The structure of the placenta is complete by the 12th week B.) Braxton Hicks contractions can inhibit blood flow to my baby C.) Carbs, proteins, and iron are stored in the placenta for ready access to my baby D.) Many viruses can cross the placental membrane and infect the fetus
answer
Answer: B. Rationale: Braxton Hicks contractions, painless contractions that occur intermittently after the 1st trimester, appear to enhance the movement of blood through the intervillous space, aiding placental circulation.
question
A nurse is performing an initial interview of a patient at the prenatal clinic. The patient states, "I really want to have twins because I'm an identical twin. Am I more likely to have a twin because I am one? What makes someone more likely to have them?" The nurse should educate the patient by sharing all of the information below except: A. "There is an increased chance of having twins because you are a twin." B. "There is no association with heredity in the incidence of identical twins." C. "Fraternal twinning increases in frequency with maternal age up to 35." D. "Twinning increases in frequency with the use of fertility drugs."
answer
Rationale: Dizygotic twinning, or fraternal twinning, increases in frequency with maternal age up to 35 years and with parity (p. 286). Monozygotic twinning, or identical twinning, has no association with race, heredity, maternal age, or parity. Fertility drugs increase the incidence of monozygotic twinning and dizygotic twinning. Therefore, answer A would be an inappropriate response by the nurse.